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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old male is admitted to the acute medical unit after a paracetamol overdose. He later admits to multiple episodes of impulsive self-harm and overdoses. He reports that his recent overdose was triggered by a fight with his mom and concerns that she will no longer want to see him. He describes long-standing feelings of emptiness and doesn't like the way he looks.
What is the most probable personality disorder underlying this behavior?Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient described is borderline personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, fear of abandonment, and unstable self-image. Patients often experience feelings of emptiness and engage in self-harm. Childhood trauma or abuse is often associated with the development of this disorder.
Narcissistic personality disorder is not the correct diagnosis. This disorder is characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and entitlement.
Paranoid personality disorder is also not the correct diagnosis. Patients with this disorder are suspicious of others and may see hidden meanings in things or believe in conspiracy theories.
Dependent personality disorder is not the correct diagnosis either. Patients with this disorder struggle to make decisions and require reassurance and support from others. They fear being alone and cope best in relationships. However, there is no evidence of this in the patient described.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 57-year-old plumber has come for a medication review. He has had three separate episodes of depression in the past four years, resulting in several absences from work. He is currently employed by a competitor and finds the reduced stress level beneficial. He has been taking citalopram 20 mg for the past nine months and reports feeling well. He is interested in discontinuing his medication and seeks your guidance. What is the recommended duration of antidepressant withdrawal after achieving remission?
Your Answer: He can withdraw 24 months into his recovery
Explanation:Duration of Antidepressant Treatment for Patients with Recurrent Depression
Guidance from NICE on Depression (CG23) recommends that patients who have experienced two or more episodes of depression in the recent past or suffered significant functional impairment should continue antidepressants for at least two years into remission. This recommendation was reiterated in the 2009 publication of Depression in adults (CG90). However, for patients who have suffered a single episode of depression without significant functional impairment, the duration of treatment after remission is six months. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these guidelines when treating patients with depression to ensure appropriate and effective management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 39-year-old man complains of ongoing fatigue over the last 10 months. What is the least indicative feature for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?
Your Answer: Having a busy day improves the symptoms
Explanation:The symptoms typically worsen with physical or mental exertion.
Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. Fatigue is the central feature of this condition, and other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and/or joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.
To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin*, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, which is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is also recommended, which is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. ‘Pacing’ is another management technique, which involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Low-dose amitriptyline may be useful for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic is recommended if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 4
Correct
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During a ward round consultation, the Psychiatrist was assessing a 12-year-old patient's current mental state. The patient's reply to most of the questions consisted of sentences which did not make any sense such as - 'painting pizza prince bus brush'. This is a good example of which of the following thought disorder?
Your Answer: Word salad
Explanation:Disordered speech, such as word salad, neologisms, perseveration, and echolalia, is commonly linked to psychosis and mania.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who has been experiencing recurrent issues with hand dermatitis for the past few years. Despite trying various topical treatments, she has not found relief and has been referred to the dermatologists by a colleague. During your conversation, you discover that she has been washing her hands frequently since she was a teenager, and if she doesn't wash them, she feels anxious and uptight. Although washing her hands reduces her anxiety, she finds the need to do so distressing and unpleasant. She can spend up to two hours each day washing her hands. Despite attempting to resist hand-washing in the past, she has been unable to do so. She acknowledges that her behavior is excessive and unnecessary but cannot seem to stop. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Correct Answer: Phobic disorder
Explanation:Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by obsessions and compulsions. Obsessions are repetitive, intrusive, and distressing thoughts, images, or impulses that the patient knows are their own but cannot resist. Compulsions are repetitive behaviors that the patient recognizes as unnecessary but feels compelled to perform to relieve the anxiety associated with their obsessions. The most common obsession in OCD is contamination, while the most common compulsion is handwashing.
Body dysmorphic syndrome is another condition that causes preoccupation and distress over minor or imagined physical defects. Depression and anxiety often coexist with OCD, but in some cases, OCD can be the primary diagnosis.
Phobias, on the other hand, are specific fears that cause anxiety and avoidance of situations where the feared stimulus may be encountered. Phobias related to germs and illness are not uncommon.
It is important to note that OCD is different from psychotic disorders, as patients with OCD recognize that the drive to perform their compulsions is their own and not due to an external force. Delusions of control and other psychotic phenomena are not typically present in OCD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 44-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment regarding her treatment. She visited two weeks ago and was diagnosed with moderate depression and a few symptoms of anxiety. You prescribed Citalopram 20 mg to treat her condition.
During the review, she reports feeling terrible. She experiences muscle twitches, tremors, and constant stomach gurgling. She used to feel sluggish and lethargic, but now she can't sit still and paces around the room. These symptoms worsened after a recent migraine attack.
Upon examination, she appears agitated, and her pulse is 90 bpm sinus rhythm with a BP of 160/90. Abdominal examination is unremarkable, and a brief neurological examination of the limbs is normal, except for brisk reflexes all around. Recent thyroid function tests, urea and electrolytes, and full blood count were normal.
Her medical history includes endometriosis and migraines. She takes co-codamol 8/500 tablets and Sumatriptan tablets as needed. She has also been taking St John's wort for the past three months. She used to drink two units of alcohol per week.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Withdraw the Citalopram completely
Explanation:Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a condition that is often overlooked in primary care. It occurs when there is an excessive amount of serotonergic activity in the body, which can be caused by the initiation of medication affecting serotonin activity or an interaction between medicines that affect serotonin activity. Patients who take medications such as codeine, triptans, and St. John’s wort are at a higher risk of developing serotonin syndrome when co-prescribed with an SSRI.
If a patient presents with symptoms of serotonin syndrome, it is important to withdraw the offending medicine, such as Citalopram. However, it is also important to consider other factors that may have contributed to the onset of symptoms, such as the use of a triptan for a migraine. Prescribing pizotifen or referring the patient for counseling may not alleviate their symptoms.
It is important to note that some authorities caution against the use of propranolol, as it can result in hypotension and mask the response to treatment by slowing the pulse. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms of serotonin syndrome, healthcare providers can better diagnose and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic four weeks after starting treatment with fluoxetine for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior experience with antidepressant medication and has no other medical conditions.
During the assessment, she reports no suicidal thoughts and has a supportive partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She has not experienced any adverse effects with fluoxetine but has heard positive things about St John's wort from a friend.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Increase the dose of fluoxetine and arrange weekly telephone contact to increase support
Correct Answer: Stop the fluoxetine and refer for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs
When a patient has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.
After three to four weeks of minimal or absent response, there are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, caution is needed when switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics because it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, after appropriate discontinuation of fluoxetine, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.
It is not recommended to prescribe or advocate for St John’s wort due to lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and anti-epileptics.
According to NICE CG90, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication for moderate depression. If response is absent or minimal after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment with a therapeutic dose of an antidepressant, increase the level of support (for example, by weekly face-to-face or telephone contact) and consider increasing the dose in line with the SPC if there are no significant side effects or switching to another antidepressant as described in section 1.8 if there are side effects or if the person prefers.
In summary, it is important to closely monitor patients who are not responding to SSRIs and consider alternative treatment options in consultation with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Correct
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An 18-year-old boy takes an overdose of 12 paracetamol tablets after a fight with his best friend. He is found by his roommate and rushed to the hospital.
What is the most significant factor that suggests a high likelihood of successful suicide?Your Answer: Making efforts to not be found
Explanation:The risk of completed suicide is heightened when attempts are made to avoid being discovered. Additionally, the presence of certain factors such as writing a note, making plans, sorting out affairs, and using violent methods also increase the risk. However, there is no evidence to suggest that an overdose of paracetamol and alcohol increases the risk of completed suicide. While a history of deliberate self harm does increase the risk of suicide, it doesn’t necessarily increase the risk of completed suicide. Furthermore, an impulsive suicide attempt is considered less concerning than a meticulously planned one.
The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to the psychiatry team with complaints of hearing voices and experiencing persecutory delusions. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and blood tests reveal that his prolactin level is within normal range but at the higher end. The team diagnoses him with schizophrenia and recommends starting him on an atypical antipsychotic. Which atypical antipsychotic would be the best choice for this patient?
Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Aripiprazole is the preferred first-line medication for schizophrenia due to its tolerable side effect profile and ability to lower serum prolactin levels. This is particularly beneficial for patients with borderline-high prolactin levels, as other atypical antipsychotics can cause further elevation and associated symptoms such as hirsutism, galactorrhoea, and impotence.
Clozapine is another commonly used atypical antipsychotic, but is typically reserved for patients who have not responded adequately to two other antipsychotics. It may cause drowsiness, dizziness, dry mouth, restlessness, and headache, but doesn’t usually elevate prolactin levels.
Olanzapine should be used with caution in diabetic patients due to its potential for weight gain and elevated blood sugars. Aripiprazole may be a better choice for these patients.
Sertraline, on the other hand, is not used in the treatment of schizophrenia. It is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor indicated for depressive illnesses and obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You receive a letter from the consultant psychiatrist about one of your elderly patients. The psychiatrist advises that the patient has bipolar disorder and should be started on lithium carbonate.
Assuming the patient is otherwise fit and well, which one of the following is correct in terms of monitoring when on lithium?Your Answer: Cardiac function: Assess by 6 monthly ECG and cardiac troponin level
Renal function: Assess every 6 months
Thyroid function: Assess every 6 monthsCorrect Answer:
Explanation:To ensure safe use of lithium therapy, the BNF recommends regular monitoring of various parameters. This includes checking body-weight or BMI, serum electrolytes, eGFR, and thyroid function every 6 months. In particular, thyroid function should be monitored more frequently if there is any indication of deterioration. Similarly, renal function should be assessed at baseline and then every 6 months, with more frequent monitoring if there are any signs of decline or if the patient is taking medications such as ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, or diuretics that increase the risk of renal impairment.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.
Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.
Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman requests reduction mammoplasty because she is convinced her breasts are grossly large and misshapen. She dresses in elaborate clothing to hide her shape and, although she swims well, has stopped going to the pool. Physical examination reveals breasts well within the normal range of size and shape.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Body dysmorphic disorder
Explanation:Understanding Body Dysmorphic Disorder: Differentiating it from Other Mental Health Conditions
Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) is a mental health condition characterized by a preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance or excessive concern with a slight physical anomaly. To diagnose BDD, the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5) criteria should be followed. It is important to differentiate BDD from other mental health conditions such as agoraphobia, generalized anxiety disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and schizoaffective disorder. By understanding the unique features of BDD, proper diagnosis and treatment can be provided to those who are affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia reports that thoughts are leaking out of his head and being read by others around him.
What is the correct term for this symptom?Your Answer: Thought broadcast
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Thought Experiences
There are various types of thought experiences that individuals may encounter. One of these is thought broadcast, where others can seemingly hear or read one’s thoughts as they are being broadcasted from the individual. On the other hand, thought insertion and withdrawal refer to the experience of having thoughts inserted into or taken out of one’s mind by an external force. In thought blocking, individuals may suddenly find themselves unable to continue speaking as their minds go blank. Meanwhile, thought echo involves hearing one’s own thoughts being spoken aloud after thinking them. Finally, auditory hallucinations refer to the perception of hearing sounds or voices without any external stimulus. Understanding these different types of thought experiences can help individuals better recognize and cope with them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 13
Correct
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What is the most effective way to distinguish between depression and dementia in older adults?
Your Answer: Hospital anxiety and depression (HAD) scale
Explanation:Clinical Tests for Distinguishing Dementia from Depression
Clinical tests are the most reliable way to distinguish between dementia and depression. One such test involves registering three objects and recalling them after five minutes. Dementia patients typically struggle with this task. Another test involves recalling items in a category, such as a list of plants, animals, or furniture items.
On the other hand, scales like the HAD scale do not differentiate between dementia and depression. They only assess the likelihood of depression being present. Blood tests can also be useful in ruling out underlying causes of dementia, such as thyroid function tests and B12 tests. However, liver function tests are unlikely to contribute much to the diagnosis. By using these clinical tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and differentiate between dementia and depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Correct
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A 35-year-old accountant presents with persistent anxiety symptoms that are significantly impacting his daily functioning. Despite completing a self-help program and undergoing CBT, he has not experienced any significant improvement after taking Sertraline for 6 months. What is the recommended next step in treatment?
Your Answer: Trial of an alternative SSRI such as Escitalopram or a SNRI such as Venlafaxine
Explanation:If non-pharmacological treatments have not effectively managed symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), the first line of medication recommended is an SSRI such as Sertraline or Escitalopram. If this proves to be ineffective or not well-tolerated, an alternative SSRI or SNRI like Venlafaxine should be tried. It is important to allow 12 weeks to see the full effects of the medication. Benzodiazepines, Propranolol, and low dose Amitriptyline are not recommended in this situation. If the patient cannot tolerate or has contraindications to the aforementioned medications, a trial of Pregabalin is recommended. Referral to a mental health team is not necessary at this time as the patient has not yet tried the different management options.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 15
Correct
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A 51-year-old male comes to your clinic expressing feelings of depression due to his belief that his wife is being unfaithful. They recently celebrated their 27th wedding anniversary and have always been devoted to each other. He is also the sole caregiver for his bedridden wife. Given this background, you question the likelihood of his accusations being accurate.
What is the medical term for delusional jealousy?Your Answer: Othello syndrome
Explanation:Othello syndrome is a condition characterized by delusional jealousy, where the individual believes that their partner is being unfaithful. This can be a standalone delusion or a symptom of an underlying mental health condition such as schizophrenia or a personality disorder.
Patients with Othello syndrome may become fixated on finding evidence of their partner’s infidelity, but even when no evidence is found, they remain convinced of their partner’s unfaithfulness. In extreme cases, this can lead to violent behavior.
Understanding Othello’s Syndrome
Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman is severely disabled by agoraphobia
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding agoraphobia.Your Answer: Recovers with psychodynamic psychotherapy
Correct Answer: Commonly involves anticipatory anxiety
Explanation:Understanding Agoraphobia: The Fear of Open Spaces and Leaving Home
Agoraphobia is an irrational fear that affects up to one third of patients with panic disorders. It is characterized by a fear of open spaces and leaving home, especially those places from which escape may be difficult. Anxiety attacks are often triggered by provoking situations, and the anxiety experienced is disproportionate to the actual threat. Anticipatory anxiety is also common, with sufferers worrying about the anxiety itself and avoiding situations that may provoke it.
The onset of agoraphobia is bimodal, with peaks in the mid-20s and mid-30s. Prevalence rates of panic disorder suggest that it is a common disorder, affecting 1-5% of the population. Anxiety disorders are twice as common in females and more prevalent in deprived areas. There is also an association with mitral valve prolapse.
The treatments of choice for agoraphobia are self-help techniques and cognitive behavioural therapy, often in combination with antidepressant medication. Understanding agoraphobia and seeking appropriate treatment can help individuals overcome their fears and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a range of physical symptoms that have been ongoing for the past 7 years. Despite multiple investigations and consultations with various specialists, no organic cause has been found for his symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Conversion disorder
Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder
Explanation:The appropriate diagnosis for a patient who is experiencing persistent, unexplained symptoms is somatisation disorder, as they are primarily concerned with the symptoms rather than a specific underlying diagnosis like cancer (which would be indicative of hypochondria). It is important to note that intentional production of symptoms, such as self-poisoning, would fall under the category of Munchausen’s syndrome.
Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry
In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 18
Correct
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A 52-year-old man is a frequent attendee at his General Practice Surgery with health worries. He has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease and is worried he may have heart disease although he has no symptoms of this, no risk factors and his QRisk2 score is 2.5%. He has consulted several doctors in the practice with this concern in the past 12 months.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Illness anxiety disorder
Explanation:Differentiating Illness Anxiety Disorder from Other Conditions
Illness anxiety disorder is a mental health condition characterized by excessive worry about having or acquiring a serious health condition. This preoccupation can lead to excessive health-seeking behavior or maladaptive avoidance techniques. It is important to differentiate illness anxiety disorder from other conditions with similar symptoms.
Somatic symptom disorder, for example, is a condition where the patient experiences distressing physical symptoms that cause persistent thoughts about the seriousness of the cause. However, the patient described in this case doesn’t have any physical symptoms.
Generalized anxiety disorder is another condition where excessive worry is present, but it is not specific to health concerns. In this case, the patient’s worries are focused solely on his own health.
Ischemic heart disease is unlikely as the patient has no symptoms or risk factors.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder is a condition where intrusive, recurrent thoughts and compulsive behaviors are present. However, there are no obsessions or compulsions described in this case.
Therefore, based on the patient’s symptoms and history, illness anxiety disorder is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 19
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a 3-week history of mild depression. He has recently been through a breakup and says he feels “lost and unmotivated”, although his friends have been supportive. He denies any thoughts of self-harm and reports that he is able to function throughout the day, but feels sad and that it “takes me longer to get things done than usual”.
What is the most suitable initial management for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Mild Depression
When it comes to treating mild depression, antidepressants are not typically the first choice. Instead, cognitive behavioural therapy has the strongest evidence for effectiveness, although it may not be readily available in all areas. In some cases, psychodynamic therapy may be helpful, particularly if the root cause of distress is related to difficulties in interpersonal relationships. While selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have been shown to be effective for severe depression, their efficacy for mild-to-moderate depression is less clear. St John’s wort is not recommended due to uncertainty around appropriate dosing, variations in preparation, and potential interactions with other medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 20
Correct
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An 81-year-old widow presents to you with complaints of recurrent pains throughout her body every morning, which often leave her bedridden for a few hours. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found, and there is no evidence of arthritis. Blood tests, including a full blood count, renal profile, liver function tests, ESR, and bone profile, have all been unremarkable. She reports having trouble sleeping since her husband passed away 2 years ago. What would be the most suitable treatment option for her?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Physical symptoms are a common manifestation of depression, especially in older patients who may not directly express their mood difficulties. Therefore, it is important to investigate a patient’s mood when they present with unexplained symptoms. Although regular paracetamol may have a placebo effect, it cannot address the underlying issue. Antipsychotics like haloperidol are not suitable in this scenario. Gabapentin is unlikely to be effective unless the patient has neuropathic pain. While zopiclone may improve sleep, it is not a long-term solution and cannot address the root cause of the problem.
Understanding Depression in Older Adults
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects people of all ages, including older adults. However, older patients are less likely to report feelings of depressed mood, which can make it difficult for healthcare professionals to identify and manage the condition. Instead, older adults may present with physical complaints, such as hypochondriasis, agitation, and insomnia.
To manage depression in older adults, healthcare professionals typically prescribe selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) as a first-line treatment. This is because the adverse side-effect profile of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) can be more problematic in older adults. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the unique challenges associated with managing depression in older adults and to work closely with patients to develop an individualized treatment plan that addresses their specific needs and concerns. By doing so, healthcare professionals can help older adults manage their depression and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is prescribed lithium for his bipolar disorder. What is the appropriate time interval before his plasma lithium should be checked for the first time?
Your Answer: 12–24 hours
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Monitoring Lithium Treatment: Guidelines and Recommendations
Before starting lithium treatment, it is important to conduct several tests, including ECG, thyroid function tests, renal function tests, and U&Es. After starting treatment, the plasma level should be checked after 7 days and then every 7 days until the required level is reached. The blood sample should be taken 12 hours after the dose has been taken. Once stable, the level should be checked every 3 months for the first year and 3-6 monthly depending on risk thereafter.
In addition to monitoring lithium levels, it is also important to regularly check thyroid function, calcium, eGFR, and U&Es every 6 months. Normal lithium levels vary between different laboratories but are generally about 0.6 – 1.0 mmol/l.
Lithium toxicity can occur at levels above the normal range and usually consists of gastrointestinal (anorexia, nausea, diarrhea) and central nervous system effects (muscle weakness, drowsiness, ataxia, coarse tremor, muscle twitching). Therefore, serum levels should also be taken during any intercurrent illness as this can increase toxicity.
Overall, monitoring lithium treatment is crucial for ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 22
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A 19-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner because she is concerned about her weight, which is 56 kg. Her body mass index (BMI) is 18 kg/m2. She also reports prolonged fasts, sometimes not eating for a few days. She denies using laxatives or diuretics to help her lose weight. She is scared of putting on weight and has missed her last three periods. She has no known medical comorbidities.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Understanding Eating Disorders: Differential Diagnosis
Eating disorders are complex mental health conditions that can have serious physical and psychological consequences. When a patient presents with symptoms of an eating disorder, it is important to consider a range of differential diagnoses to ensure appropriate treatment. Here, we explore the key features of several eating disorders and related conditions, including anorexia nervosa, personality disorders, avoidant restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID), bulimia nervosa, and depression. By understanding the unique characteristics of each disorder, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide effective support for patients with eating disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
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Among the following groups, which one is most likely to have the highest prevalence of depression in your practice population?
Your Answer: Separated females
Explanation:Prevalence of Depression in Different Groups
The prevalence rate of depression varies among different groups. According to research, separated males have the highest rate of depression, with 111 per 1000. This rate is even higher for those who are unemployed, homeless, or going through separation. Separated females have a lower rate of 56 per 1000.
Widowed males and females have rates of 70 and 46 respectively, while married men and women have the lowest rates of 17 and 14 respectively. Interestingly, unemployment affects men and women differently, with the rate increasing to 27 for men and 56 per 1000 for women. These findings highlight the importance of considering different demographic factors when assessing the prevalence of depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
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A 38-year-old woman comes to your afternoon clinic. She has been feeling off since losing her job 3 weeks ago. She is tearful during the consultation and reports having trouble sleeping, with early morning waking, a decreased appetite resulting in some weight loss, a decreased libido, and difficulty concentrating. She feels stuck in her current situation and is unsure if there is a way out. She occasionally has thoughts of how it might be better if I wasn't here and thinks about death, but these are fleeting and not associated with any specific thoughts or plans of suicide. When asked directly, she says she couldn't do that to her family. She tells you that her mother once took pills for nerves, but she can't remember anything else.
Choose the most appropriate treatment from the list.Your Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Treatment Options for Moderate Depressive Episode
A woman is experiencing a moderate depressive episode, as evidenced by her low mood lasting for more than two weeks and the presence of a somatic syndrome. The most appropriate treatment option in this case is citalopram, a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor. However, some patients may experience a rise in anxiety and sleep disturbances during the initial titration, which can be managed by adding nocturnal sedation such as zopiclone for a short period.
Other treatment options include risperidone, an antipsychotic with mood-stabilizing properties, and valproate, which can be used as a mood-stabilizer but should be used with caution in women of childbearing age. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline have more side-effects than SSRIs and are not typically used as first-line treatment. Mirtazapine, another antidepressant, is usually only used when an SSRI has failed.
In conclusion, citalopram is the most appropriate treatment option for a moderate depressive episode, but it is important to monitor for potential side-effects and adjust the treatment plan accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The five stages of change for addictive behaviours are Action, Contemplation, Maintenance, precontemplation, and Preparation. What is the correct rank order for these stages?
Your Answer: 42351
Correct Answer: 42513
Explanation:The Stages of Change: Understanding Behavioural Transformation
Behavioural change is a process that involves several stages. The precontemplation stage is characterized by a lack of awareness of the problem and no intention to change. In the contemplation stage, individuals acknowledge the problem and consider overcoming it but have not yet committed to taking action. The preparation stage involves intention and behavioural plans, with individuals intending to take action soon. The action stage is where individuals modify their behaviour, experiences, and environment to overcome their problems. The maintenance stage involves preventing relapse and consolidating gains attained during action. It is common for individuals to recycle through these stages several times before terminating the addiction. Understanding where a person is in relation to the stages of change can be helpful to doctors in promoting and supporting change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents one week after giving birth to a healthy baby boy. For the last two days, she has been feeling irritable, tearful, and anxious and she has been struggling to get to sleep. She has no medical or psychiatric history. Her husband and mother are at home with her.
Which is the single most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Arrange review with a health visitor
Correct Answer: Organise a review in the perinatal psychiatry clinic
Explanation:Baby Blues vs Postnatal Depression
Mood disturbance in the first ten days after labour is a common and usually self-limiting condition known as ‘baby blues’. While it may not require medical intervention, health visitors can offer practical support and advice to new mothers. However, if the condition persists beyond the first ten days and becomes more severe, a diagnosis of postnatal depression may be considered. In such cases, an antidepressant or psychological therapy may be suitable. Perinatal psychiatry services are generally reserved for more severe mental conditions, and there are no features in this case that suggest a psychiatric emergency. It is important to differentiate between baby blues and postnatal depression, and an awareness of the latter is required under two areas of the RCGP curriculum (3.06 and 3.10).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors has the highest occurrence of withdrawal symptoms in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Correct Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:Discontinuation symptoms are more likely to occur with Paroxetine.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
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A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.
The man experiences periods of 'highs', where he engages in impulsive behavior and sleeps very little. He denies ever having delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.
The man also has 'lows' where he experiences severe depression; he feels hopeless, loses interest in his usual activities and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder
Explanation:The woman’s symptoms of hypomania alternating with severe depression are indicative of type 2 bipolar disorder. There is no indication of an anxiety disorder in the question. While cyclothymia is characterized by mild symptoms of hypomania and depression lasting at least two years, the severity of the woman’s symptoms suggests type 2 bipolar disorder, even though the symptoms have only been present for one year. Major depressive disorder is not the correct diagnosis as there are also symptoms of hypomania present. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also not the correct answer as the symptoms of the ‘high’ periods are more consistent with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.
Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic. She has been feeling down for the past 10 weeks, experiencing a loss of appetite, weight loss, and waking up at 4 am every morning. She often struggles to focus.
She was laid off from her job four months ago, and her elderly father recently suffered a stroke. Her partner is supportive but works odd hours, so he cannot accompany her today. Her daughter is away at college, and she has not talked to anyone about her current issues.
She had a bout of moderate depression five years ago and was successfully treated with Fluoxetine for two years. She currently has no suicidal thoughts and is eager to seek help early this time. You discuss CBT with her, and she agrees to it.
What other intervention is likely to be the most helpful for her?Your Answer: Start fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Arrange to see her again in one week
Explanation:Treatment Plan for a Patient with Depression and a Recent Life Event
This patient has a history of moderate depression that responded well to SSRI treatment. She is currently experiencing cognitive and biological symptoms of depression, likely exacerbated by a recent life event – redundancy. Additionally, her mother’s illness is a concern and her potential role as a caregiver will need to be explored. While her partner is supportive, their shift work may make providing day-to-day support difficult.
To address her symptoms, the patient will require frequent support and advice on sleep hygiene, as well as medication. Given her previous successful treatment with fluoxetine, this will be the first medication to try. A tricyclic antidepressant is less likely to be well-tolerated and carries a higher risk of overdose.
If the patient is at significant risk of self-harm, has psychotic symptoms, or has complex disease, referral to specialist mental health services is recommended for expert opinion on treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 30
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A 25-year-old student nurse has come to you feeling depressed. She has had a number of health related problems in the recent past and feels that they may be a contributing factor because she has taken a lot of sick leave and now has to meet with the head of human resources.
She suffers from asthma, thyroid disease and acne. She thinks that one of her medicines may be contributing to her depression.
Which of the following is most likely to cause depression?Your Answer: Prednisolone tablets
Explanation:Medications and Depression
Depression caused by medication is not a common occurrence. However, certain medications have been linked to depression. These include isotretinoin, lipid soluble beta blockers like propranolol, methyldopa, and opioid analgesics. Steroids have been associated with mania, but levothyroxine treatment doesn’t cause depression. Antihistamines are rarely linked to depression. Out of the medications listed, isotretinoin is the most likely to cause depression. It is important to discuss any concerns about medication and mental health with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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