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  • Question 1 - A 53-year-old man with no prior medical history presents to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old man with no prior medical history presents to the Emergency Department with a dry cough, shortness of breath, abdominal discomfort, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and headache. He recently returned from a convention in Spain. On examination, he has bi-basal crackles, is pyrexial, and has a blood pressure of 123/67 mmHg, a pulse of 92/min, and a respiratory rate of 22/min. Investigations reveal a high white cell count, low sodium and potassium levels, elevated creatinine and C-reactive protein levels, and protein and blood in his urine. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Explanation:

      Legionella pneumophila is a bacterium that typically affects middle-aged or older men, with a higher severity in smokers. The incubation period is between 2 to 10 days, and the male to female ratio is 2:1. Symptoms include moderate leucocytosis, hyponatremia, deranged liver function tests, proteinuria, haematuria, and myoglobinuria. The infection is commonly acquired from infected water-based air-conditioning systems, which is why it was linked to a convention in Spain. Treatment options include fluoroquinolones, clarithromycin, and rifampicin for severe cases. Chlamydia pneumoniae is another type of pneumonia that has a more subacute course and is often seen in patients who keep or are in close proximity to birds. Streptococcal pneumoniae is less likely to cause hyponatremia or gastrointestinal upset, and the attendance at a convention is a stronger indicator of Legionnaire’s disease. Mycoplasma pneumoniae tends to have a more subacute course with pleuritic chest pain and a dry cough, and the appearance on chest X-ray may indicate a more severe pneumonia than initially thought. Viral pneumonia is more likely to cause generalised crackles on chest auscultation and a lesser rise in CRP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old man is referred to hospital by his GP.
    He has been treated...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is referred to hospital by his GP.
      He has been treated for essential hypertension, with a daily dose of bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg and triamterene 150 mg.
      Routine investigations reveal:
      Serum sodium 136 mmol/L (137-144)
      Serum potassium 6.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Serum urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Serum creatinine 95 µmol/L (60-110)
      His blood pressure is measured at 138/88 mmHg. His electrocardiogram is normal. The GP has stopped the triamterene today.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Give 10 ml 10% calcium gluconate IV

      Correct Answer: Repeat urea and electrolytes in one week

      Explanation:

      Mechanism of Action and Side Effects of Bendroflumethiazide and Triamterene

      Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to increased clearance of sodium and free water. However, this can also result in the loss of potassium due to increased secretion in response to the higher intraluminal sodium levels, potentially causing hypokalaemia.

      On the other hand, triamterene is a potassium sparing diuretic that is sometimes prescribed alongside thiazide or loop diuretics to prevent hypokalaemia. It works by blocking the movement of sodium through channels towards the end of the distal tubule and collecting ducts, which prevents the passage of sodium from the urinary space into the tubular cells. This causes hyperpolarisation of the apical plasma membrane, which in turn prevents the secretion of potassium into the collecting ducts. However, this action can also lead to hyperkalaemia, which is a common side effect (>5%) that is not affected by concurrent potassium depleting diuretics.

      In this case, the patient has mild hyperkalaemia without any signs of cardiac toxicity. The recommended management involves discontinuing the use of triamterene and repeating the U&E test in one week to monitor the patient’s potassium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      59.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 15-year-old boy of African-American descent is diagnosed with homozygous sickle cell anaemia....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy of African-American descent is diagnosed with homozygous sickle cell anaemia. He presents with severe pain in his right hip that has been ongoing for two days. His haemoglobin level is 70 g/L, which is lower than his baseline of 76 g/L. An MRI of the hip shows no signs of osteomyelitis or avascular necrosis of the femoral head. What is the most suitable treatment option for this sickle cell crisis?

      Your Answer: Transfusion of red cell concentrate

      Correct Answer: Hydration and opioid analgesia

      Explanation:

      Management of Painful Crises in Sickle Cell Anaemia

      Painful crises in sickle cell anaemia require aggressive management with hydration and analgesia. Opioid analgesia is typically necessary due to the severity of the pain involved, as NSAIDs alone do not provide effective relief. Therefore, hydration and NSAID analgesia are not recommended.

      A haemoglobin level of 70 g/L is close to the patient’s baseline and does not indicate the need for blood product support or exchange transfusion. These interventions are not appropriate for managing painful crises in sickle cell anaemia.

      Hydroxycarbamide, which boosts HbF levels, is not useful in the acute setting for sickle cell anaemia. It is important to manage painful crises promptly and effectively to improve patient outcomes and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 82-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a mechanical fall. He...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a mechanical fall. He has sustained a head injury and a CT head is ordered as part of his trauma evaluation. His medical history includes osteoarthritis of the left hip, recurrent falls, and atrial fibrillation for which he is anticoagulated.

      Upon examination, his respiratory rate is 18/min and he is saturating at 95% on air. His heart rate is 78/min and his blood pressure is 92/65 mmHg. Neurological examination reveals a Glasgow coma score of 13 due to confusion, but there are no focal neurological deficits. He has no spinal, limb, chest, or abdominal tenderness, and a full painless range of motion in all four limbs.

      The CT head image is shown below:



      What is the diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      The patient has suffered from a subdural haematoma, which is more likely to occur in elderly individuals who are taking anticoagulants or consuming excessive alcohol. The CT scan confirms the diagnosis by revealing a concave-shaped bleed at the back of the head. This is different from an extradural haematoma, which typically presents as a convex-shaped bleed due to the dura mater being detached from the skull with greater force. It is also not indicative of an intracerebral haematoma, which refers to a bleed within the brain tissue itself. The CT scan does not show normal appearances and is not indicative of a subarachnoid haemorrhage, which would display blood within the sulci of the brain parenchyma rather than being confined to the meninges.

      There are different types of traumatic brain injury, including focal (contusion/haematoma) or diffuse (diffuse axonal injury). Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing following deceleration, causing disruption and tearing of axons. Intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to (coup) or contralateral (contre-coup) to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 47-year-old woman with a history of Hashimoto's thyroiditis presents to the clinic...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman with a history of Hashimoto's thyroiditis presents to the clinic with recurrent symptoms of lethargy, constipation, cold intolerance, and pedal edema. These symptoms had previously resolved with levothyroxine treatment. She also has comorbidities of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, and was diagnosed with mycobacterium tuberculosis of the lung five months ago. Her current medications include levothyroxine, amlodipine, ramipril, metformin, gliclazide, rifampicin, isoniazid, and pyridoxine. On examination, her temperature is 36.5°C, pulse is 55 beats per minute, blood pressure is 165/102 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 15 breaths per minute. Thyroid function tests reveal a free thyroxine (T4) level of 5 pmol/L (10-25), a free triiodothyronine (T3) level of 3 pmol/L (5-10), and a thyroid-stimulating hormone level of 7.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0). What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin induces P450 enzymes, which can increase the thyroxine requirements in patients with treated hypothyroidism. However, this effect is not seen with isoniazid. While non-compliance with levothyroxine may present similar symptoms, there is currently no conclusive evidence to support this. It is important to note that the patient’s symptoms had previously resolved.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      93.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 61-year-old man is referred to the Emergency Department by his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man is referred to the Emergency Department by his General Practitioner (GP). He has recently started lisinopril 10 mg for hypertension, and the GP is concerned by a deterioration in his creatinine level. According to the GP letter, he has had high blood pressure for the past ten years and was diagnosed with chronic kidney disease some two years ago.

      On examination, in the Emergency Department, he appears to be in good health; his blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, and pulse 80 bpm and regular.

      Investigations:

      Investigations Results Normal Values
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 (4.2 mmol/l on ACEi initiation some 14 days ago) 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 190 µmol/l (170 µmol/l on ACEi initiation some 14 days ago) 50–120 µmol/l

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Continue ramipril 5 mg and re-check U&Es in one week

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Managing Creatinine Levels in Patients on Ramipril Therapy

      When a patient’s creatinine levels rise while on ramipril therapy, it is important to carefully consider the next steps. According to NICE guidelines, a rise of > 30% is considered significant, while a rise of < 20% is not clinically significant. In this case, the rise in creatinine levels (from 185 to 220 µmol/l) is below 20%, so ramipril can be continued. However, it is important to monitor the patient closely and re-check U&Es in one week to ensure that the creatinine levels do not continue to rise. It is not recommended to increase the ramipril dose to 10 mg daily or decrease it to 2.5 mg daily, as the rise in creatinine levels is not significant enough to warrant a change in dosage. Similarly, stopping ramipril for one week and re-checking U&Es is not necessary at this stage. Withdrawal of ramipril is only indicated if there is a significant rise in creatinine levels that can be linked to the medication. In this case, the patient could benefit from continued ACEI therapy, so it should be continued while closely monitoring the patient’s creatinine levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      100.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse, type 2 diabetes,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse, type 2 diabetes, and latent tuberculosis presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of tingling in her feet for the past four weeks. She is currently taking metformin and isoniazid monotherapy for her conditions. On examination, she appears unkempt and smells strongly of alcohol. Neurological examination reveals absent ankle reflexes and diminished sensation in her lower limbs. Her blood work shows normal glucose levels, but low levels of serum B12 and folate. What is the best treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer: Low-dose pyridoxine

      Correct Answer: High-dose pyridoxine

      Explanation:

      Isoniazid Toxicity and Peripheral Neuropathy

      Peripheral neuropathy is a common side effect of isoniazid toxicity, which can be caused by a number of factors such as alcoholism, diabetes, malnutrition, HIV, renal failure, neurotoxic medications, and pregnancy. In this case, the patient is suffering from isoniazid toxicity due to peripheral neuropathy, which is likely caused by her alcoholism and diabetes. The treatment for this condition is high-dose pyridoxine, while low dose pyridoxine is used for prophylaxis. It is also recommended to stop or reduce the dose of the offending medication and control other risk factors such as reducing alcohol intake and improving glycaemic control. Thiamine may be helpful in alcoholism, but the acute onset of the patient’s neuropathy shortly after starting isoniazid suggests that it is the more likely cause. The patient’s well-controlled type 2 diabetes is unlikely to be the cause of her neuropathy, and her B12 values fall within the normal range. B12 is given by subcutaneous injection, not intravenously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      116.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 58-year-old man visits the neurology clinic for management of his newly diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man visits the neurology clinic for management of his newly diagnosed Parkinson's disease. He has been prescribed cabergoline as monotherapy and has undergone a thorough evaluation, including lung function tests, routine blood tests, chest X-ray, and echocardiogram. Besides regular clinical reviews, what is the most crucial investigation to schedule periodically to monitor for potential complications?

      Your Answer: Chest X-ray

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      The echocardiogram is the appropriate test to monitor for potential cardiac complications associated with cabergoline, a dopaminergic drug used to treat Parkinson’s disease. While this drug can lead to fibrotic reactions in various parts of the body, it is also known to cause valvulopathy. The British National Formulary recommends establishing a baseline set of investigations and then monitoring for symptoms such as dyspnoea, persistent cough, chest pain, cardiac failure, and abdominal pain or tenderness.

      Dopamine Receptor Agonists for Parkinson’s Disease and Other Conditions

      Dopamine receptor agonists are medications used to treat Parkinson’s disease, prolactinoma/galactorrhoea, cyclical breast disease, and acromegaly. In Parkinson’s disease, treatment is typically delayed until the onset of disabling symptoms, at which point a dopamine receptor agonist is introduced. Elderly patients may be given L-dopa as an initial treatment. Examples of dopamine receptor agonists include bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine.

      However, some dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, cabergoline, and pergolide, which are ergot-derived, have been associated with pulmonary, retroperitoneal, and cardiac fibrosis. Therefore, the Committee on Safety of Medicines recommends obtaining an ESR, creatinine, and chest x-ray before treatment and closely monitoring patients. Pergolide was even withdrawn from the US market in March 2007 due to concerns about an increased incidence of valvular dysfunction.

      Despite their effectiveness, dopamine receptor agonists can cause adverse effects such as nausea/vomiting, postural hypotension, hallucinations, and daytime somnolence. Therefore, patients taking these medications should be closely monitored for any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman is presenting to the cardiology clinic for evaluation. She is...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is presenting to the cardiology clinic for evaluation. She is currently in her 36th week of pregnancy and has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and severe exercise limitation. She is finding it difficult to perform daily activities, including caring for her 3-year-old child. Recently, she has woken up gasping for breath on two occasions, causing her to become increasingly worried.

      During the examination, her blood pressure is 105/70 mmHg, pulse is 85 and regular. Bilateral basal crackles are heard on chest auscultation, her JVP is raised, and there is peripheral pitting edema. A soft short systolic murmur is also heard on auscultation.

      Investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 120 g/L (115-160), white cell count of 6.9 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 199 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 137 mmol/L (135-146), potassium of 3.9 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine of 113 µmol/L (79-118). A chest x-ray shows patchy pulmonary infiltrates consistent with heart failure.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Peripartum cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Peripartum Cardiomyopathy: Signs, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Peripartum cardiomyopathy is the most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with signs and symptoms of heart failure and evidence of pulmonary oedema on a chest x-ray. However, an ECHO is required to confirm the diagnosis. The cause of this condition is unknown, but increased inflammatory markers, changes in viral serology, and low levels of selenium have been observed in patients with peripartum cardiomyopathy. Treatment options include vasodilators, nitrates, and cardioselective beta blockers, all of which have shown evidence of benefit.

      Neurogenic pulmonary oedema, which is associated with a neurological insult, is not present in this case. Although there is a systolic murmur, it is more likely to be a pulmonary flow murmur related to the stage of pregnancy rather than aortic stenosis. The absence of hypertension makes pre-eclampsia unlikely, and the presence of pulmonary oedema makes thromboembolic disease less likely. In conclusion, peripartum cardiomyopathy should be considered in pregnant patients presenting with signs and symptoms of heart failure, and an ECHO should be performed to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      60.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are working as the duty physician at a high school athletics meet...

    Incorrect

    • You are working as the duty physician at a high school athletics meet and are collecting samples to look for drugs of abuse.

      Which of the following initial tests is most useful to look for testosterone abuse?

      Your Answer: Sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) levels

      Correct Answer: Urinary testosterone/epitestosterone ratio

      Explanation:

      The urinary testosterone/epitestosterone ratio is the best initial test for testosterone abuse, with a ratio greater than 6:1 being confirmatory. SHBG levels are too non-specific, while LH levels may be affected by other factors. Prolactin levels are also non-specific, and urinary hCG is useful only for detecting abuse of hCG itself. False positives may occur in patients with testicular cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      20.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Medicine (1/1) 100%
Renal Medicine (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed