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Question 1
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents with faecal incontinence and diarrhoea, which he finds embarrassing. He has a history of irregular bowel movements but has never experienced this before. He was recently prescribed codeine for knee osteoarthritis. What is the most probable cause of his faecal incontinence?
Your Answer: Constipation with overflow
Explanation:Possible Causes of Faecal Incontinence
Faecal incontinence, or the inability to control bowel movements, can have various underlying causes. One of the strongest predictors of faecal incontinence is chronic diarrhoea, which can be caused by conditions such as irritable bowel syndrome, inflammatory bowel disease, lactose intolerance, and others. Another possible cause is constipation with overflow, where the patient is prone to constipation and may experience incontinence due to the addition of certain medications like codeine.
Laxative abuse, although it can lead to diarrhoea, is not necessarily a direct cause of faecal incontinence. Cerebrovascular disease may also contribute to incontinence, but there is no indication of this in the given scenario. Haemorrhoids, which can result from chronic constipation, typically cause rectal bleeding and pain but are not commonly associated with faecal incontinence. Prostatic disease may contribute to constipation but is less likely to cause faecal incontinence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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influenza is a viral respiratory illness that can cause mild to severe symptoms and can lead to complications such as pneumonia.
Your Answer: Aerosol transmission can occur before the onset of symptoms
Explanation:Understanding influenza: From Epidemics to Pandemics
influenza, commonly known as the flu, is a highly contagious respiratory illness caused by influenza viruses. The incubation period of influenza is typically two days, but can range from one to four days. Aerosol transmission may occur one day before the onset of symptoms, making it easy for the virus to spread.
Up to 15% of the population can develop influenza in any given year, with an average of 50-200 GP consultations for influenza or flu-like illnesses per 100,000 of the population per week. An epidemic is declared when the GP consultation rate for new cases of influenza or flu-like illness exceeds 400 per 100,000 population per week.
Clinicians usually diagnose influenza based on clinical criteria alone when the virus is circulating in the community. Investigations are typically reserved for community surveillance purposes.
The influenza virus undergoes minor mutations to one or both of its surface antigens, known as antigenic drift. This causes seasonal epidemics, where people have only partial immunity from previous infection or vaccination. As a result, the vaccine requires annual changes.
An influenza pandemic is an epidemic of an influenza virus that spreads on a worldwide scale and infects a large proportion of the human population. This occurs due to the emergence of influenza A virus that is genetically significantly different from the circulating human influenza A viruses, known as antigenic shift. These pandemics occur irregularly, with the 1918 Spanish flu being the most serious pandemic in history with a high mortality.
Understanding the nature of influenza, from its epidemics to pandemics, is crucial in developing effective prevention and control strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following is not a recognized feature of temporal arteritis in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Elevated creatine kinase
Explanation:Temporal arteritis doesn’t cause an increase in creatine kinase levels.
Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.
To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 4
Incorrect
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As per the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following tests should not be routinely offered to women during the initial antenatal care visit?
Your Answer: HIV
Correct Answer: Blood glucose
Explanation:NICE has made a surprising decision to no longer recommend routine glucose testing during antenatal care. Instead, they suggest that only individuals who are considered at risk, such as those with a history of obesity, previous macrosomic baby, family history, or Asian ethnicity, should have their blood glucose levels checked.
Antenatal care is an important aspect of pregnancy, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. The guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 visits for subsequent pregnancies, provided that the pregnancy is uncomplicated. Women do not need to see a consultant if their pregnancy is uncomplicated.
The timetable for antenatal visits begins with a booking visit between 8-12 weeks, where general information is provided on topics such as diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, and antenatal classes. Blood and urine tests are also conducted to check for conditions such as hepatitis B, syphilis, and asymptomatic bacteriuria. An early scan is conducted between 10-13+6 weeks to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancies, while Down’s syndrome screening is conducted between 11-13+6 weeks.
At 16 weeks, women receive information on the anomaly and blood results, and if their haemoglobin levels are below 11 g/dl, they may be advised to take iron supplements. Routine care is conducted at 18-20+6 weeks, including an anomaly scan, and at 25, 28, 31, and 34 weeks, where blood pressure, urine dipstick, and symphysis-fundal height (SFH) are checked. Women who are rhesus negative receive anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.
At 36 weeks, presentation is checked, and external cephalic version may be offered if indicated. Information on breastfeeding, vitamin K, and ‘baby-blues’ is also provided. Routine care is conducted at 38 weeks, and at 40 weeks (for first pregnancies), discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy takes place. At 41 weeks, labour plans and the possibility of induction are discussed. The RCOG advises that either a single-dose or double-dose regime of anti-D prophylaxis can be used, depending on local factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 5
Correct
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What is an indication for circumcision?
Your Answer: Pathological phimosis
Explanation:Indications for Paediatric Circumcision
There are several indications for paediatric circumcision, with the most common being pathological phimosis. This occurs when scarring of the opening of the foreskin makes it non-retractable, which is rare before the age of 5 years. In such cases, circumcision is the only absolute indication.
Recurrent episodes of balanoposthitis, or infection beneath the foreskin, can also be an indication for circumcision. While this is not a common occurrence, it can be troublesome and may require surgical intervention.
In rare cases, paediatric circumcisions may be required for other conditions. However, these are not as common as pathological phimosis or balanoposthitis. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine if circumcision is necessary for your child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-day history of feeling generally unwell. She reports discomfort and distension in her abdomen, as well as loose stools and dyspnea with exertion. On examination, there is diffuse abdominal tenderness without guarding, and all vital signs are within normal limits. The patient is currently undergoing fertility treatment and received a gonadorelin analogue injection the previous week.
What is the most probable diagnosis based on the given information?Your Answer: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)
Explanation:Ovulation induction can lead to ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) as a potential side effect. The symptoms of OHSS often involve gastrointestinal discomfort such as bloating, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Additionally, patients may experience shortness of breath, fever, peripheral edema, and oliguria.
OHSS can range in severity from mild to life-threatening, and can result in complications such as dehydration, thromboembolism, acute kidney injury (AKI), and pulmonary edema. Severe OHSS typically has a delayed onset compared to milder cases. In the given scenario, the patient received a GnRH agonist injection within the past week, indicating that her symptoms may be less severe.
Understanding Ovulation Induction and Its Categories
Ovulation induction is a common treatment for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. The process of ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. Anovulation can occur due to alterations in this balance, which can be classified into three categories: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation, leading to a singleton pregnancy.
There are various forms of ovulation induction, starting with the least invasive and simplest management option first. Exercise and weight loss are typically the first-line treatment for patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome, as ovulation can spontaneously return with even a modest 5% weight loss. Letrozole is now considered the first-line medical therapy for patients with PCOS due to its reduced risk of adverse effects on endometrial and cervical mucous compared to clomiphene citrate. Clomiphene citrate is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that acts primarily at the hypothalamus, blocking the negative feedback effect of estrogens. Gonadotropin therapy tends to be the treatment used mostly for women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.
One potential side effect of ovulation induction is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), which can be life-threatening if not identified and managed promptly. OHSS occurs when ovarian enlargement with multiple cystic spaces form, and an increase in the permeability of capillaries leads to a fluid shift from the intravascular to the extra-vascular space. The severity of OHSS varies, with the risk of severe OHSS occurring in less than 1% of all women undergoing ovarian induction. Management includes fluid and electrolyte replacement, anticoagulation therapy, abdominal ascitic paracentesis, and pregnancy termination to prevent further hormonal imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 7
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman presents with an acutely painful red left eye. She denies any history of foreign body injury and has had no coryzal symptoms. There is a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus which is currently controlled with hydroxychloroquine. The patient is afebrile and examination reveals an erythematous injected sclera with a bluish hue. The pupils are equal and reactive and the visual acuity is maintained bilaterally. There is no significant discharge noted.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:Based on the patient’s history of autoimmune disease, severe pain and redness in the eye, and bluish hue, it is likely that they are experiencing scleritis. This is a serious condition that requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. Episcleritis, which is less severe and typically painless, can be ruled out due to the patient’s symptoms. Acute angle closure glaucoma is also a possibility, but the patient’s clear and reactive pupils suggest otherwise. It is important to check the intraocular pressure to rule out glaucoma. While a foreign body injury is a potential cause of eye pain and redness, the lack of a history of eye injury and absence of discharge make this diagnosis less likely.
Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Other common symptoms include watering and photophobia, which is sensitivity to light. In some cases, scleritis can also lead to a gradual decrease in vision.
Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has had several cystoscopies for the transurethral resection of superficial bladder tumours and for regular surveillance. He complains of urinary frequency, a poor urinary stream, spraying of urine and dribbling at the end of micturition. These symptoms he has noticed for about a year. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is smooth, soft and normal in size. His prostate-specific antigen level is 2 ng/ml.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urethral stricture
Explanation:Urethral Stricture: Causes, Complications, and Treatments
Urethral strictures are commonly caused by injury, urethral instrumentation, and infections such as gonorrhoea or chlamydia. In this case, the repeated cystoscopies are a likely cause. This condition can lead to complications such as urinary retention and urinary infection.
To treat urethral strictures, periodic dilation, internal urethrotomy, and external urethroplasty are common options. It is important to note that a normal feeling prostate, a normal prostate-specific antigen level, and regular bladder tumour surveillance make other diagnoses less likely in this case.
In summary, understanding the causes, complications, and treatments of urethral strictures is crucial for proper management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a new patient health check. While conducting the examination, you observe an 8 mm pigmented lesion on her back. She informs you that she had no knowledge of the lesion. The lesion has a uniform pigmentation and a regular outline. It is dry and inflamed, but appears distinct from all of her other moles on her back. She also mentions that her brother was recently diagnosed with melanoma.
What is the best course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monitor for eight weeks
Explanation:Urgent Referral Needed for Suspicious Lesion
This lesion on the patient’s skin may be a melanoma, and there are several clinical concerns that warrant urgent referral. Firstly, the lesion appears to be new and is greater than 7 mm in diameter. Additionally, there is a family history of melanoma, and the lesion is inflamed. It is important to be aware of the ugly duckling sign, which refers to a pigmented lesion that looks different from the surrounding ones.
Given the patient’s age and family history, she is at high risk of melanoma and should be referred urgently to a dermatologist. It is important to note that excision in primary care should be avoided, as the guidance for excising lesions in primary care may differ depending on the country. Prompt referral and evaluation by a specialist is crucial in cases like this to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection at a relatively late stage when he is already starting to get opportunistic infections. Select from the list the single correct statement about the complications of HIV/AIDS.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Complications of HIV/AIDS and the Role of Antiretroviral Therapy
HIV/AIDS is a disease that suppresses T-cell mediated immunity, leading to various complications. However, antiretroviral therapy (ART) has been effective in inhibiting the replication of the virus, restoring the immune system, and reducing the risk of opportunistic infections. Combinations of three or more drugs are used to prevent resistance.
One of the hallmark complications of late-stage HIV disease is pneumocystis pneumonia, which is now less common due to ART and primary prophylaxis. Symptoms include shortness of breath, dry cough, fever, malaise, fatigue, weight loss, and chest pain. Diagnosis can be difficult, with few signs in the chest and unhelpful radiology.
Mycobacterium avium infection is another complication that often occurs at a CD4 count < 200/mm3, and is seen in 40% of patients with late-stage HIV in industrialized countries. Symptoms include fever, night sweats, weight loss, diarrhea, abdominal pain, anemia, or hepatic dysfunction. Dementia is usually caused by HIV encephalopathy, but can also be caused by cytomegalovirus encephalitis or cerebral toxoplasmosis. The incidence of Kaposi’s sarcoma and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma has been reduced by ART, but the incidence of other cancers in HIV patients has not changed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been advised to begin taking methotrexate by her Rheumatologist. She is anxious about potential side effects and wants to discuss the safe administration of the medication. This is her first experience with methotrexate, and she has undergone recent blood tests that indicate normal liver and renal function.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a chest X-ray (CXR) and issue the methotrexate script if this is normal
Explanation:Guidelines for Prescribing Methotrexate in Rheumatoid Arthritis Patients
Methotrexate is a commonly prescribed medication for patients with rheumatoid arthritis. However, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure the safety and efficacy of treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind when prescribing methotrexate:
Baseline Investigations: Before starting treatment, patients should undergo a chest X-ray, full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests. A normal CXR is necessary as methotrexate can cause pulmonary toxicity. Repeat baseline blood tests in 4-6 weeks before commencing methotrexate.
Concurrent Folic Acid: Methotrexate is a folate antagonist, so patients must take folic acid alongside it. Folic acid should be taken daily on the days when methotrexate is not taken.
Regular Monitoring: Patients should have a full blood count every 1-2 weeks until treatment is stabilised, as well as renal and liver function tests. Once treatment is stabilised, monitoring can become less frequent, but should still occur every 2-3 months.
No Loading Dose: There is no need for a loading dose of folic acid to be given before starting methotrexate, as long as baseline investigations are normal.
By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure the safe and effective use of methotrexate in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions are they most likely to be effective in treating?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute urticaria
Explanation:Understanding Skin Conditions: Causes and Mechanisms
Skin conditions can have various causes and mechanisms. Urticaria, for instance, is triggered by the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells in the skin. While IgE-mediated type I hypersensitivity reactions are a common cause of urticaria, other immunological and non-immunological factors can also play a role.
In atopic eczema, antihistamines are not recommended as a routine treatment. However, a non-sedating antihistamine may be prescribed for a month to children with severe atopic eczema or those with mild or moderate eczema who experience severe itching or urticaria. It’s worth noting that allergies to food or environmental allergens may not be responsible for the symptoms of atopic eczema.
Contact allergic dermatitis and erythema multiforme are examples of cell-mediated immunity, and their symptoms are not caused by histamine release. On the other hand, bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the immune system attacks a protein that forms the junction between the epidermis and the basement membrane of the dermis.
Understanding the causes and mechanisms of different skin conditions can help in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the likelihood of a first degree relative of someone with coeliac disease also having the condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 50
Explanation:Importance of Testing First Degree Relatives for Coeliac Disease
The prevalence of coeliac disease is high in individuals who have a first degree relative with the condition, with a rate of 1 in 10. This highlights the significance of offering testing to first degree relatives, even if they do not exhibit any symptoms. This recommendation is supported by NICE, as untreated coeliac disease can lead to an increased risk of various diseases, such as lymphoma and gut malignancy. Therefore, early detection and treatment of coeliac disease in first degree relatives can help prevent the development of these serious health complications. It is crucial to raise awareness about the importance of testing for coeliac disease in families with a history of the condition to ensure that individuals receive appropriate care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old carpenter comes to see you in surgery following an MI three months previously.
He has made a full recovery but wants to ask about his diet.
Which one of the following foods should he avoid?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pork
Explanation:Tips for a Heart-Healthy Diet after a Heart Attack
Following a heart attack, it is important to adopt a healthier overall diet to reduce the risk of future heart problems. Unhealthy diets have been attributed to up to 30% of all deaths from coronary heart disease (CHD). While reducing fat intake is important, exercise also plays a crucial role in maintaining heart health.
Including canned and frozen fruits and vegetables in your diet is just as beneficial as fresh produce. A Mediterranean diet, which includes many protective elements for CHD, is recommended. Replacing butter with olive oil and mono-unsaturated margarine, such as those made from rape-seed or olive oil, is a healthier option. Organic butter is not any better for heart health than non-organic butter.
To reduce cholesterol intake, it is recommended to eat less red meat and replace it with poultry. Margarine containing sitostanol ester may also help reduce cholesterol intake. Adding plant sterol to margarine has been shown to reduce serum low-density lipoprotein cholesterol. Eating more fish, including oily fish, at least once a week is also recommended.
Switching to whole-grain bread instead of white bread and eating more root vegetables and green vegetables is also beneficial. Lastly, it is important to eat fruit every day. By following these tips, you can maintain a heart-healthy diet and reduce the risk of future heart problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a body mass index of 51 kg/m2 presents to you seeking guidance on weight management, including the use of medication. You recently reviewed a systematic review of RCTs comparing orlistat to placebo for weight management, which included an asymmetrical funnel plot. What type of bias could this indicate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Publication bias
Explanation:The failure to publish results from valid studies, particularly if they show a negative or uninteresting result, is known as publication bias. This can result in a skewed representation of the effectiveness of a treatment or intervention. To assess for publication bias, a funnel plot can be used, which plots the effect estimates from individual studies against their size or precision. If publication bias has occurred, smaller studies with no evidence of an effect may not have been published, resulting in an asymmetric appearance of the funnel plot. Other types of bias include attrition bias, performance bias, and selection bias, which refer to systematic differences in withdrawals from a study, care provided or exposure to other factors, and baseline characteristics of the groups being compared, respectively. Effective randomisation and blinding can help prevent these types of bias.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman has come to the sexual health clinic complaining of a thick, foul-smelling vaginal discharge that has been present for a week. She has no medical history and is not taking any medications. During the examination, vulvitis is observed, but her cervix appears normal. A sample taken from a vaginal swab and examined under light-field microscopy reveals motile trophozoites, and NAAT results are pending. What is the most suitable treatment based on these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a protozoan parasite called Trichomonas vaginalis. It is more common in women than men, and many women with the infection do not experience any symptoms. In order to diagnose trichomoniasis, a sample of vaginal discharge is collected and examined under a microscope for the presence of motile trophozoites. Confirmation of the diagnosis can be done through molecular testing. Treatment typically involves taking oral metronidazole for a specified period of time. Other sexually transmitted infections, such as Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and candidiasis, require different treatments.
Comparison of Bacterial Vaginosis and Trichomonas Vaginalis
Bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis are two common sexually transmitted infections that affect women. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while Trichomonas vaginalis is caused by a protozoan parasite. Both infections can cause vaginal discharge and vulvovaginitis, but Trichomonas vaginalis may also cause urethritis in men.
The vaginal discharge in bacterial vaginosis is typically thin and grayish-white, with a fishy odor. The pH of the vagina is usually higher than 4.5. In contrast, the discharge in Trichomonas vaginalis is offensive, yellow/green, and frothy. The cervix may also appear like a strawberry. The pH of the vagina is also higher than 4.5.
To diagnose bacterial vaginosis, a doctor may perform a pelvic exam and take a sample of the vaginal discharge for testing. The presence of clue cells, which are vaginal cells covered in bacteria, is a hallmark of bacterial vaginosis. On the other hand, Trichomonas vaginalis can be diagnosed by examining a wet mount under a microscope. The motile trophozoites of the parasite can be seen in the sample.
Both bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis can be treated with antibiotics. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for both infections. For bacterial vaginosis, a course of oral metronidazole for 5-7 days is recommended. For Trichomonas vaginalis, a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used. It is important to complete the full course of antibiotics to ensure that the infection is fully treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A new screening test called FingerChol has been developed to diagnose hyperlipidaemia with a point-of-care finger-prick test. To evaluate the effectiveness of the test, 200 participants aged 50 and above are screened with the FingerChol test. These patients also undergo the gold-standard test (formal lipid profile blood test) for comparison.
The results obtained are shown in the table below:
Hyperlipidaemic Not hyperlipidaemic
Positive FingerChol test 60 40
Negative FingerChol test 20 80
What is the positive predictive value of the FingerChol test for this population?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 60%
Explanation:The positive predictive value (PPV) is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the total number of positive test results, which represents the probability of actually having the disease if the test result is positive. For example, if there are 30 true positives and 20 false positives, the PPV would be 60%.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are seeing a middle-aged patient in your morning clinic. You suspect he had a TIA three days ago. He has no neurological deficit at present and is otherwise well.
Which of the following does NICE advise as the next step of management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange for specialist assessment within 24 hours
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Suspected TIA
When suspecting a TIA has occurred within the last week, NICE advises administering aspirin 300 mg and seeking assessment within 24 hours by a stroke specialist physician. However, they no longer recommend using the ABCD2 scoring system as evidence shows it is poor at distinguishing between high and low risk of stroke after a TIA.
If the suspected TIA happened over one week ago, the patient can be referred for assessment within 7 days. Immediate admission should be considered for patients with a bleeding disorder or on an anticoagulant, those who have had more than one TIA (consider crescendo TIAs), severe carotid stenosis, suspected cardioembolic source, or lack reliable support at home to contact emergency services if further symptoms occur.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure proper assessment and treatment for patients with suspected TIA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A mother of a 7-month-old baby with cerebral palsy visits the GP clinic to inquire about influenza immunizations. What is the most suitable vaccination for her child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annual intramuscular influenza vaccine
Explanation:The annual intramuscular flu vaccination is offered to children between 6 months to 2 years who are at high risk of flu. This includes babies with cerebral palsy, who are classified as high-risk patients and are eligible for the inactivated intramuscular influenza vaccination from the age of 6 months. It is important to note that the routine immunisation schedule offers a live intranasal influenza vaccine to children from the age of 2 years.
influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.
For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.
The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with difficult to manage hypertension. She is taking three medications and her current blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg. She has noticed that her face has become rounder over time and she is experiencing more acne and hirsutism. Fasting blood glucose testing has shown impaired glucose tolerance. Additionally, she has been struggling with abdominal obesity and has noticed the appearance of purple stretch marks around her abdomen.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cushing syndrome
Explanation:Cushing syndrome is a rare disease that causes weight gain, hypertension, and other symptoms. It is often caused by a pituitary adenoma producing ACTH. Diagnosis is made through urinary free-cortisol assay and differentiation of the cause is done through the dexamethasone-suppression test. Drug-resistant hypertension may be caused by chronic kidney disease, obstructive sleep apnoea, or hyperaldosteronism. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that causes severe hypertension and other symptoms. Multiple endocrine neoplasia is a group of syndromes featuring tumours of endocrine glands. Simple obesity can be differentiated from Cushing syndrome by specific signs such as easy bruising, facial plethora, proximal myopathy, and purple striae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old Bangladeshi man comes to the GP complaining of breathlessness and blood-stained sputum. He also reports experiencing fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. The GP collects sputum samples and sends the patient for a chest X-ray.
What additional investigation should be ordered for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV test
Explanation:Types of Tuberculosis
Tuberculosis (TB) is a disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis that primarily affects the lungs. There are two types of TB: primary and secondary. Primary TB occurs when a non-immune host is exposed to the bacteria and develops a small lung lesion called a Ghon focus. This focus is made up of macrophages containing tubercles and is accompanied by hilar lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. In immunocompetent individuals, the lesion usually heals through fibrosis. However, those who are immunocompromised may develop disseminated disease, also known as miliary tuberculosis.
Secondary TB, also called post-primary TB, occurs when the initial infection becomes reactivated in an immunocompromised host. Reactivation typically occurs in the apex of the lungs and can spread locally or to other parts of the body. Factors that can cause immunocompromised include immunosuppressive drugs, HIV, and malnutrition. While the lungs are still the most common site for secondary TB, it can also affect other areas such as the central nervous system, vertebral bodies, cervical lymph nodes, renal system, and gastrointestinal tract. Tuberculous meningitis is the most serious complication of extra-pulmonary TB. Understanding the differences between primary and secondary TB is crucial in diagnosing and treating the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presented to her GP with abdominal pain. The pain was burning in nature and was localised to her epigastric area. A stool test for Helicobacter pylori was done, which came back as positive. Accordingly, she was treated with eradication therapy for one week. Despite the treatment, her symptoms have continued. She would like to be tested to check the bacteria has been eradicated. She is not keen on being referred for an endoscopy.
Which of the following investigations should she be referred for?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urea breath test
Explanation:Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of headaches and unilateral sensorineural deafness. She reports that her headaches have started recently and are accompanied by vomiting and a change in posture. Additionally, she experiences pulse synchronous tinnitus and feels that her headaches are becoming more severe.
Upon examination, there is no papilloedema and her blood pressure is within normal limits. The patient has been taking oral contraceptive pills for the past five years.
What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent direct access MRI scan of the brain (or CT scan if MRI is contraindicated) (to be performed within 2 weeks)
Explanation:Suspected Intracranial Tumour in a Middle-Aged Woman
The patient in question is a middle-aged woman who is showing signs of a unilateral Intracranial tumour, such as an acoustic neuroma. However, given her age, a more aggressive cerebellopontine angle tumour may be more likely. The absence of papilloedema doesn’t rule out the possibility of an Intracranial tumour.
According to NICE guidelines, urgent direct access MRI or CT scan should be considered within two weeks for adults with progressive, subacute loss of central neurological function to assess for brain or central nervous system cancer. While admitting the patient as an emergency may be a practical option, adhering to NICE guidance suggests that an urgent direct access MRI is the most appropriate course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl with persistent social interaction difficulties is undergoing assessment by a multidisciplinary team for a psychological developmental disorder. During her earlier years, there were no indications of developmental abnormalities and there is no delay or retardation in her language or cognitive development. Nevertheless, her parents report that she obsessively arranges her toys in a specific order every day and becomes upset if this routine is disrupted. According to the ICD-10 diagnostic criteria, what is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autism spectrum disorder
Explanation:The child is exhibiting symptoms of autism and Asperger’s syndrome, including difficulty with social interaction and repetitive behavior. However, there are no indications of delayed language or cognitive development, which are common in autism. Attention deficit disorder may also be a factor, as the child struggles with attention and persistence. While obsessive compulsive disorder could be a possibility due to the child’s preoccupation with counting toys, it is unlikely to explain the social interaction difficulties. Reactive attachment disorder of childhood is not a likely explanation, as the child’s behavior doesn’t align with the symptoms of this disorder.
Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition that affects social interaction, communication, and behavior. It can be diagnosed in early childhood or later in life and is more common in boys than girls. Around 50% of children with ASD also have an intellectual disability. Symptoms can range from subtle difficulties in understanding and social function to severe disabilities. While there is no cure for ASD, early diagnosis and intensive educational and behavioral management can improve outcomes. Treatment involves a comprehensive approach that includes non-pharmacological therapies such as applied behavioral analysis, structured teaching methods, and family counseling. Pharmacological interventions may also be used to reduce symptoms like repetitive behavior, anxiety, and aggression. The goal of treatment is to increase functional independence and quality of life while decreasing disability and comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A patient who started taking simvastatin half a year ago is experiencing muscle aches all over. What is not considered a risk factor for myopathy caused by statins?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Large fall in LDL-cholesterol
Explanation:Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the conclusion of the randomised placebo-controlled trial conducted by experienced vascular surgeons comparing a specific carotid surgery technique to another operation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Efficacy
Explanation:The Importance of Sham Surgery in Clinical Trials
Sham surgery, also known as placebo surgery, is a simulated surgical procedure that excludes the step believed to be therapeutically necessary. In clinical trials of surgical interventions, sham surgery serves as a crucial scientific control.
An experienced group of vascular surgeons conducted a study on the effectiveness of sham surgery in carotid surgery. However, it has been challenging to prove its usefulness outside areas of expertise. It is often difficult to generalize the findings of a study group to everyday practice.
Efficacy refers to the effect of something under ideal or laboratory conditions. It is important to note that this study did not comment on mortality rates. Overall, sham surgery plays a vital role in clinical trials and helps ensure the validity of surgical interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are conducting a medication review for Mrs Jones, a 75-year-old woman. You observe that she has been on alendronate for the past 4 years following a FRAX score that indicated a risk of fracture. She has not experienced any fractures before. Her other medications consist of ramipril, amlodipine, atorvastatin, and allopurinol. She reports no adverse effects from her medications.
What is the best course of action concerning her bisphosphonate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a repeat DEXA scan and reassess need to continue alendronate
Explanation:According to the National Osteoporosis Guideline Group and NICE guidelines, individuals with osteoporosis who are undergoing treatment with alendronate should have their 10 year fracture risk evaluated again after 5 years. After this point, it may be appropriate to discontinue treatment, although this decision should be made on a case-by-case basis. Patients who are over 75, have a history of hip or vertebral fracture, have experienced any low trauma fracture while on treatment, or are still taking steroid therapy should continue with their treatment.
Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are studying the measurement of a new biomarker for cognitive decline in elderly patients, and how it might be applied to geriatric medicine. You assume that the data for this particular biomarker are likely to be normally distributed.
When considering the normal distribution, which of the following is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The mean, median and mode are the same value
Explanation:Understanding Normal Distribution and Parametric Tests
The normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical on both sides. Its mean, median, and mode are equal, making it a useful tool for analyzing data. For instance, the probability that a normally distributed random variable x, with mean sigma, and standard deviation µ, lies between (sigma – 1.96 µ) and (sigma + 1.96 µ) is 0.95, while the probability that it lies between (sigma – µ) and (sigma + µ) is 0.68. Additionally, 95% of the distribution of sample means lie within 1.96 standard deviations of the population mean.
Parametric tests are statistical tests that assume the data are normally distributed. However, data that are not normally distributed can still be subject to a parametric test, but they need to be transformed first. Understanding normal distribution and parametric tests is crucial for researchers and analysts who want to make accurate inferences from their data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 25-year-old woman who presented to your clinic last week complaining of fatigue, muscle aches, and swollen glands. She had gone on a camping trip to a wooded area recently but did not recall any insect bites. Upon examination, there was no visible rash. You ordered an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for Lyme disease, and the result came back as equivocal today.
What would be the most suitable course of action now?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perform an immunoblot test for Lyme disease
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, if a patient is suspected to have Lyme disease and doesn’t have erythema migrans, an ELISA test should be offered. If the ELISA test result is positive or equivocal, an immunoblot test should be performed. In the case of Jess, her ELISA test result was equivocal, so she requires an immunoblot test.
NICE guidelines suggest that if there is a high clinical suspicion of Lyme disease, antibiotics should be started while waiting for the results of the immunoblot test. However, Jess’s symptoms are nonspecific, and her clinical suspicion of Lyme disease is not high. Additionally, NICE recommends a 21-day course of doxycycline as the first-line treatment for Lyme disease, not a 14-day course. Amoxicillin is only recommended if doxycycline is not suitable.
There is no need to repeat the ELISA test at this time. NICE advises repeating the ELISA test 4-6 weeks after the initial test if the first test is negative and Lyme disease is still suspected within 4 weeks from symptom onset.
Referral to a specialist is not currently necessary for Jess. NICE recommends referring patients with focal symptoms to the appropriate specialist or considering a discussion with a specialist. If the immunoblot test is negative but symptoms persist, a discussion with or referral to a specialist should be considered (regardless of the ELISA result) to review whether further tests are required or to consider alternative diagnoses.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.
Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.
To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following side effects is most commonly observed in individuals who are prescribed ciclosporin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertension
Explanation:Ciclosporin can cause an increase in various bodily functions and conditions, including fluid retention, blood pressure, potassium levels, hair growth, gum swelling, and glucose levels.
Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug
Ciclosporin is a medication that is used as an immunosuppressant. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. The drug binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.
Despite its effectiveness, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. It can cause nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremors, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. However, it is interesting to note that Ciclosporin is virtually non-myelotoxic, which means it doesn’t affect the bone marrow.
Ciclosporin is used to treat various conditions such as following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes and modulates T cell function, making it an effective treatment for psoriasis.
In conclusion, Ciclosporin is a potent immunosuppressant drug that can effectively treat various conditions. However, it is essential to monitor patients for adverse effects and adjust the dosage accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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