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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease comes in for a check-up. He is...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease comes in for a check-up. He is currently taking a combination of a dopamine agonist, levodopa and a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Although his motor symptoms are well managed, his wife is worried as he is experiencing mild confusion, staying awake for extended periods during the night, and having visual hallucinations accompanied by delusions that she is attempting to poison him. During the clinic visit, he appears quiet and withdrawn. His mini-mental state score is 23, and he is able to walk across the examination room and perform some fine motor tasks, but he is unable to provide a handwriting sample. What is the most effective approach to managing his hallucinations?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Medications for Managing Hallucinations and Agitation in Parkinson’s Disease

      Managing hallucinations and agitation in patients with Parkinson’s disease can be challenging. The lack of dopamine, which is the cause of motor symptoms in Parkinson’s, makes it difficult to use medications that reduce dopamine levels or effects as they can worsen motor symptoms. Therefore, low-dose atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine are the most appropriate intervention for this condition.

      However, medications such as lorazepam and benzhexol are not suitable for long-term use in managing Parkinson’s disease. Lorazepam is heavily sedating and has an intermediate duration of action, while benzhexol can cause disturbed sleep and agitation at higher doses. Entacapone, on the other hand, is a COMT inhibitor that prolongs the effects of levodopa in the brain and doesn’t have any role in preventing hallucinations or treating agitation.

      Haloperidol, although effective in treating hallucinations and agitation, is contraindicated for patients with Parkinson’s disease as it is a D2-receptor antagonist that reduces the effect of dopamine in the brain, which can dramatically worsen motor symptoms. Therefore, it is essential to choose appropriate medications that do not worsen motor symptoms while managing hallucinations and agitation in patients with Parkinson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He has taken around 30 tablets while alone at home and left a letter for his family. He was intoxicated but managed to call an ambulance after he had taken the tablets.
      Which of the following features would most strongly suggest that there is an ongoing risk of suicide?

      Your Answer: The fact that he took precautions to avoid discovery

      Explanation:

      Factors that Increase the Risk of Suicide After an Attempt

      When assessing a patient who has attempted suicide, certain factors can indicate a higher risk of future attempts. These include planning and taking precautions to avoid discovery, not seeking help after the attempt, using a dangerous method, and leaving final acts such as making a will or leaving a note. While a family history of suicide is more common among those who complete suicide, it doesn’t increase the immediate risk of self-harm. Alcohol use can lower inhibitions and increase the risk of deliberate self-harm, but being intoxicated at the time of the attempt doesn’t necessarily mean a higher risk of future attempts. Stressful life events in the preceding months can predispose to depression and increase the likelihood of self-harm, but do not necessarily indicate a higher risk of future attempts. Finally, taking a large amount of a dangerous substance may increase the risk of harm, but doesn’t confer a higher ongoing risk of suicide after the initial attempt. Overall, a comprehensive assessment of the patient’s mental state and risk factors is necessary to determine the appropriate level of care and support.

      Factors to Consider When Assessing the Risk of Suicide After an Attempt

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old woman comes to your clinic accompanied by her husband, who reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to your clinic accompanied by her husband, who reports that she has been exhibiting strange behavior for the past two weeks. She has planned a trip to Europe, bought a new car with a personal loan, and told her husband that she wants a divorce. She has been unable to sleep and is always out of the house. During your conversation with her, she insists that everything is fine and attempts to leave the room. When you prevent her from leaving, she tries to jump out of the window of your fourth-floor clinic room. You lock the door and call for security, and together you manage to calm her down and keep her in the room. You diagnose her with an acute manic episode. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Arrange emergency hospital admission

      Correct Answer: Place her under Section 4 of the Mental Health Act and arrange emergency hospital admission

      Explanation:

      In this emergency situation, Section 4 of the Mental Health Act can be utilized by GPs to issue a 72-hour assessment order for the patient’s detention. The patient’s nearest relative, her husband, can assist in completing the order or an AMHP can be involved.

      Due to the patient’s behavior, waiting for the emergency psychiatry team or a section 2 to be implemented may result in an unacceptable delay. The patient’s attempt to jump out of the window poses a risk to herself. It is unlikely that arranging emergency hospital admission without detaining her under the mental health act would be appropriate as she lacks insight and is unlikely to engage in treatment. Emergency sedation should not be administered as she has calmed down and is not yet under a section.

      Understanding Sectioning under the Mental Health Act

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse to be admitted voluntarily for mental health treatment. This process involves different sections, each with its own set of rules and regulations.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP, along with two doctors who have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is a 72-hour assessment order used in emergencies when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in the hospital for 72 hours, while Section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a, also known as Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order), can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety, while Section 136 allows the police to take someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to a Place of Safety for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

      Understanding the different sections of the Mental Health Act can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the legal process of sectioning and ensure that they receive the necessary treatment and support for their mental health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man visits his doctor with worries that his spouse is cheating...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man visits his doctor with worries that his spouse is cheating on him. Despite lacking any concrete evidence, he seems extremely agitated and convinced of his suspicions. What could this symptom indicate?

      Your Answer: Othello's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Erotomania, also known as De Clérambault’s syndrome, is a type of delusion where the patient firmly believes that another person is deeply in love with them.

      Understanding Othello’s Syndrome

      Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man is being seen in the psychiatric clinic after being referred...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is being seen in the psychiatric clinic after being referred by his GP who has been struggling to manage his depression. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, high cholesterol, and depression, as well as a previous acute coronary syndrome one year ago. He reports that his mood has deteriorated and he is experiencing persistent suicidal thoughts. He denies any cognitive impairment, difficulty concentrating, or sleep disturbances. What guidance should be provided regarding his ability to drive?

      Your Answer: Must not drive and must inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      He is not allowed to drive and must notify the DVLA due to his depression and ongoing suicidal ideation.

      The DVLA has specific rules regarding psychiatric disorders for those who wish to drive group 1 vehicles such as cars and motorcycles. Those with severe anxiety or depression accompanied by memory problems, concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts must not drive and must inform the DVLA. Those with acute psychotic disorder, hypomania or mania, or schizophrenia must not drive during acute illness and must notify the DVLA. Those with pervasive developmental disorders and ADHD may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with mild cognitive impairment, dementia, or mild learning disability may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with severe disability must not drive and must notify the DVLA. Those with personality disorders may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. The rules for group 2 vehicles such as buses and lorries are stricter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old male patient presents for a medication review. He has been diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male patient presents for a medication review. He has been diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder and was initially prescribed sertraline, but this was discontinued due to gastrointestinal side effects. He has since been taking venlafaxine for a week but has reported experiencing headaches and blurred vision. What is the most appropriate course of action to manage his condition?

      Your Answer: Switch to pregabalin

      Explanation:

      For generalised anxiety disorder, pregabalin is suggested as a third line treatment option. If the patient is unable to tolerate SSRIs and SNRIs, pregabalin can be considered as an alternative. However, amitriptyline is not recommended for this condition.

      Dealing with anxiety and depression is a common issue, and initial treatments may not always be effective. It is important for healthcare professionals to be knowledgeable about second and third line treatments, which may be initiated by some GPs or prescribed after specialist advice. The GP is responsible for ongoing monitoring and safety, including being aware of potential drug interactions.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old man has started citalopram because of moderate depression. He has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has started citalopram because of moderate depression. He has no suicidal intent. He has now returned for review and says he doesn't feel any better.

      NICE guidance recommends that if the person's depression shows no improvement with the first antidepressant, you should check that the drug has been taken regularly and in the prescribed dose.

      What is the recommended time interval for this review?

      Your Answer: 4 to 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: 1 to 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Checking for Proper Medication Adherence in Treating Depression

      According to NICE guidance, it is important to ensure that the prescribed antidepressant has been taken regularly and in the correct dosage if the person’s depression doesn’t improve within 2 to 4 weeks of starting the medication. This step is crucial in determining whether the lack of improvement is due to medication non-adherence or if a different treatment approach is needed. By checking for proper medication adherence, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients are receiving the full benefits of their prescribed treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old man has been divorced for five years and now lives alone....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has been divorced for five years and now lives alone. He has a history of chronic back pain. He has been fully investigated and he has lumbar spondylosis. He becomes very emotional during a medication review consultation. The General Practitioner wants to screen for depression.
      According to current National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance, what would be most appropriate to ask about as an initial part of this screening process?

      Your Answer: Having little interest or pleasure in doing things

      Explanation:

      Identifying and Assessing Depression in Patients with Chronic Diseases

      Depression is more common in patients with chronic diseases than in those with good health. To identify depression in patients, doctors should be alert to possible symptoms and consider asking two screening questions recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE): During the last month, have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed or hopeless? and During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things? If a patient answers ‘yes’ to either question, further questions should be asked to improve the accuracy of the assessment of depression. These questions should include exploring thoughts of death, feelings of worthlessness, inability to sleep, and poor concentration. By identifying and assessing depression in patients with chronic diseases, healthcare providers can provide appropriate treatment and support to improve their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is currently receiving olanzapine...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is currently receiving olanzapine depot injections to manage his psychotic symptoms. Prior to starting the treatment, his psychiatrist conducted a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. If the patient continues to take olanzapine in the long term, how frequently should these parameters be monitored?

      Your Answer: 6 Monthly

      Correct Answer: Annually

      Explanation:

      Before starting a patient on antipsychotics and on an annual basis thereafter, it is recommended to conduct a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. Any other options presented in this scenario are incorrect. It is important to note that different antipsychotics may have varying monitoring requirements, and consulting the BNF is advised if unfamiliar with these drugs.

      Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 10 - You are asked to visit a 52-year-old businessman at home, following a phone...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to visit a 52-year-old businessman at home, following a phone call from a worried neighbour. He lives alone and has been struggling for the past six months with the collapse of his financial services business.

      He saw a colleague six weeks ago and was given a prescription for citalopram 20 mg, but this was not renewed and he has not been seen since.

      Upon arrival at his home you notice that the curtains were all drawn and there were dirty plates piled high behind the sofa. There are several empty cans of beer strewn across the floor but he is not intoxicated and you cannot smell alcohol on his breath.

      Your patient is unshaven and dishevelled. He talked in a low, monotone voice and there was no eye contact. He attributed the collapse of his business to the direct intervention of the Prime Minister, who had been placing hidden cameras in his home. He says that he can hear the whirring of the cameras at night and has not slept for three days. He is not actively suicidal but feels that his life is pointless.

      There is no family support and the neighbour who alerted you said that she did not want to get involved.

      Which one of the following would be the most appropriate way of managing this man?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to the mental health team

      Correct Answer: Increase the dose of citalopram to 40 mg

      Explanation:

      Management of Patients with Significant Mental Health Problems

      In reality, the management of patients with significant mental health problems often involves a number of options – drug therapy, psychological support and psychotherapy, to name but a few.

      However, when a patient lives alone, exhibits psychotic symptoms, and shows evidence of self-neglect, urgent action is required. In such cases, the mental health team should be contacted immediately for an assessment.

      It is important to note that this patient has been non-compliant with previous treatment, and there is no guarantee that he would take any medication prescribed at this visit. Additionally, there are clues that he may be drinking heavily, but prescribing without additional support would be inappropriate.

      Although there is no evidence of active suicidal ideation, there are a number of risk factors for suicide. Therefore, urgent involvement of the mental health team is strongly recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old man who works as a software engineer has recently been terminated...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man who works as a software engineer has recently been terminated by his supervisor, citing missed deadlines and a decline in the quality of his work. He disputes this and claims that his supervisor has always had a personal vendetta against him.

      He has confided in his family and close friends, but despite their reassurances, he remains convinced that some of his colleagues were colluding with his supervisor to oust him.

      During his mental health evaluation, he appears to be generally stable, except for his fixation on his supervisor and coworkers conspiring against him. His family reports that he is easily offended and tends to have a paranoid outlook.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of paranoid personality disorder. She appears to be highly sensitive and holds grudges when insulted, while also questioning the loyalty of those around her and being hesitant to confide in others. Her family has also noted her tendency towards paranoia. Borderline personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, and schizophrenia are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old male patient has just been prescribed clozapine by his psychiatrist for...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male patient has just been prescribed clozapine by his psychiatrist for his treatment-resistant schizophrenia. As he has not responded to conventional antipsychotic drugs in the past, he started taking clozapine last week. As his primary care physician, what additional monitoring should be done for this patient?

      Your Answer: Full blood count once a week for 18 weeks

      Explanation:

      The need for weekly full blood counts for the first 18 weeks, followed by fortnightly checks for up to a year, and then monthly monitoring is necessary for clozapine due to the risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, the other choices are inaccurate.

      Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 13 - The brother of a 35-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about his...

    Correct

    • The brother of a 35-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about his sister's behavior. He reports that his sister has always had an inflated sense of self-importance and often expresses delusional thoughts about her potential for success as a lawyer, believing she is capable of becoming a partner at a top law firm. She doesn't seem to care about the impact her actions have on others and appears pleased when she talks about others' failures. He recalls that she behaved similarly when they were growing up and was unsympathetic towards him when he struggled with his studies due to a learning disability.

      Which personality disorder is being described in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with narcissistic personalities exhibit a lack of empathy, a sense of entitlement, and exploit others to fulfill their own needs. This behavior is indicative of narcissistic personality disorder. While the individual’s brother may not meet the criteria for a personality disorder, his behavior aligns with many of the features of narcissistic behavior. Narcissistic individuals have an inflated sense of self-importance and believe they possess unlimited abilities to succeed, become powerful, or appear attractive. They lack empathy and are willing to take advantage of others to achieve their own goals. These symptoms often manifest in childhood and persist into adulthood.

      Antisocial personality disorder also involves a lack of empathy and guilt, as well as deceitful behavior to achieve personal goals. However, individuals with this disorder often disregard rules and laws, leading to criminal behavior and a propensity for violence. Therefore, the individual in the scenario is more likely to have narcissistic personality disorder.

      Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a disinterest in sexual relationships, a preference for solitude, and a lack of close friendships. These individuals are indifferent to praise and recognition, making it an unlikely diagnosis for the individual’s brother.

      Schizotypal personality disorder involves eccentric beliefs and behaviors, difficulty forming friendships, and paranoid or suspicious thoughts. This disorder doesn’t typically involve a lack of empathy or a sense of entitlement.

      Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, feelings of emptiness, and recurrent self-harm attempts.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with her husband. They are concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with her husband. They are concerned because she has become increasingly fixated on cleaning, which is interfering with her other responsibilities and straining their relationship.

      She has installed a nail brush in the downstairs bathroom to scrub her skin after using the toilet and has prohibited guests from using any of the upstairs bathrooms. She also requires visitors to remove their shoes outside and has banned eating from any area outside the kitchen. Most recently, she has begun waking up at 5:30 am every day to clean.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Correct Answer: Counselling

      Explanation:

      Treating OCD with CBT and SSRIs

      CBT and SSRIs are the main treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT involves challenging the ritualistic behavior of OCD through exposure and response prevention, which exposes the patient to stimuli that usually provoke their behavior and challenges their irrational thinking. On the other hand, SSRIs are the main pharmacological therapy for OCD. Counseling alone is not usually focused enough to provide significant impact on symptoms. A comprehensive treatment plan that includes CBT and SSRIs can help individuals with OCD manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 15 - You receive a clinic letter from psychiatry regarding a 65-year-old patient who you...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a clinic letter from psychiatry regarding a 65-year-old patient who you referred with severe depression. The psychiatrist would like you to switch from fluoxetine to venlafaxine (a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor).

      What is the most appropriate way to make this change?

      Your Answer: Stop sertraline immediately and start imipramine the next day

      Correct Answer: Cross-taper sertraline and imipramine

      Explanation:

      Cross-tapering is recommended when switching from an SSRI to a TCA to avoid interactions and the risk of serotonin syndrome. Completing withdrawal of sertraline without introducing imipramine is not advised. Direct switch and waiting periods are not appropriate. Waiting 7 days is only necessary when switching from fluoxetine to a TCA.

      Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants

      When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant.

      Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a proton pump inhibitor as a precautionary measure?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      When prescribing an SSRI such as citalopram for depression, it is important to consider the potential risk of GI bleeding, especially if the patient is already taking an NSAID. This is because SSRIs can deplete platelet serotonin, which can reduce clot formation and increase the risk of bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a PPI should also be prescribed.

      Other antidepressants such as TCAs like amitriptyline, typical antipsychotics like haloperidol, and MAOIs like selegiline are not commonly associated with GI bleeds. St John’s Wort, an alternative treatment for depression, has not been linked to an increased risk of GI bleeding but can interact with other medications and increase the risk of serotonin syndrome when used with other antidepressants.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 17 - A 36-year-old woman comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had previously visited...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had previously visited with complaints of worsening headaches and insomnia, which you diagnosed as tension-type headaches after ruling out any red flags. Her sleep pattern has continued to deteriorate over the past few months, with early morning waking being a prominent issue. She denies any substance misuse or excessive alcohol consumption.

      During today's visit, she reports experiencing a few episodes of palpitations and occasional dizziness. These symptoms do not occur during exercise, and there are no red flags present. Her cardiovascular and neurological exams are unremarkable, and her blood pressure is normal.

      All of her blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and thyroid function tests, come back normal.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Consider generalised anxiety disorder as a potential underlying diagnosis and explore if psychological distress present

      Explanation:

      Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) can manifest in various ways, including presenting solely with physical symptoms. Patients with GAD may experience headaches, muscle tension, gastrointestinal symptoms, back pain, and insomnia, without reporting any psychological distress or worry. Therefore, it is important to explore the presence of psychological distress during consultations.

      Based on the history and examination provided, there is no indication for urgent cardiology referral, and it would not be an appropriate use of resources.

      While beta-blockers may be a suitable treatment option for GAD, further discussion with the patient is necessary before reaching a diagnosis, especially in the presence of somatic symptoms.

      Similarly, SSRI may be an appropriate treatment option, but it is important to have a thorough discussion with the patient before prescribing.

      In this case, prescribing a sleeping tablet is not the most appropriate option. Secondary insomnia resulting from GAD should be treated, and a sleeping tablet should only be prescribed at the lowest possible dose for the shortest period of time, with regular review. Treatment should not exceed 2-4 weeks due to the risk of tolerance and addiction. Depending on the circumstances, other treatment options such as individual guided self-help, psychological interventions, or cognitive behavioural therapy may be considered.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and dizziness in her arms and legs for the past three days. She has a medical history of chronic pain, depression, and schizophrenia. When you inquire about her medications and drug use, she seems hesitant to provide a clear response.

      What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: SSRI discontinuation syndrome

      Explanation:

      SSRI discontinuation syndrome can cause symptoms such as dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety when SSRIs are suddenly stopped or reduced. It is possible that the woman in question has decided to stop taking her antidepressants. On the other hand, alcohol withdrawal typically results in anxiety, tremors, and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare reaction that can occur with antipsychotic use and may cause fever, confusion, and muscle rigidity. Opiate withdrawal may cause anxiety, sweating, and gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea and vomiting.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled for...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled for some time with fluoxetine, has started to suffer from anxiety, loss of interest and reduced appetite. She also complains of insomnia.

      She claims to taking her medications regularly according to prescription.

      What will be the most appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer: Switch to another group of antidepressant

      Explanation:

      Switching Antidepressants: Consider Mirtazapine

      When a patient stops responding to fluoxetine, switching to another group of antidepressants is a feasible approach. One such option is mirtazapine, a newer antidepressant that exhibits both noradrenergic and serotonergic activity. Studies have shown that mirtazapine is effective in treating a substantial proportion of patients who did not respond well to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or found them difficult to tolerate. Therefore, if a patient is no longer responding to fluoxetine, it may be worth considering switching to mirtazapine.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old lady who you have looked after during her recent breast cancer...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady who you have looked after during her recent breast cancer diagnosis and treatment comes to see you one year after undergoing a total mastectomy followed by chemotherapy and radiotherapy.

      Her disease is now in remission and she is taking tamoxifen. She has a history of a perforated duodenal ulcer and has had bouts of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. She complains of feeling very tearful and low in mood, and feels traumatised by her experiences. She is also having some chest wall neuropathic type pain, probably due to the radiotherapy. A PHQ9 depression questionnaire confirms that she is suffering from moderately severe depression.

      Which of the following would be most appropriate to treat her?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Amitriptylline

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Depression in a Patient with Previous Medical History

      When treating a patient with depression who has a previous medical history, it is important to consider potential drug interactions and contraindications. In the case of a patient with a history of gastric bleeding and atrial fibrillation, SSRIs and tricyclic antidepressants should be avoided due to their associated risks. Fluoxetine should also not be prescribed as it reduces the efficacy of tamoxifen.

      Instead, the best course of action would be to offer an antidepressant and a high-intensity psychological intervention. This approach addresses the patient’s mood problems stemming from her experiences during diagnosis and treatment, while also avoiding potential harm from medication. It is important to note that using amitriptyline for neuropathic pain in this case would be off license and carries a higher risk of arrhythmias.

      In summary, when treating depression in a patient with a previous medical history, it is crucial to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of medication options and to include psychological intervention as part of the treatment plan.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man comes to you with symptoms of depression. After diagnosing him...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to you with symptoms of depression. After diagnosing him with major depressive illness, you decide to treat him with an SSRI. Two weeks later, he returns to your office feeling a bit shaky and complaining of excessive sweating, but overall he seems upbeat. He talks quickly and with great optimism, and you wonder if a mild sedative might help. However, he is resistant to any further intervention and continues to share his ambitious aspirations, which you find somewhat unrealistic.

      What steps would you take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Add in benzodiazepine

      Correct Answer: Review in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment for Bipolar Illness

      When a patient shows symptoms of mania, it can change their diagnosis from unipolar to bipolar illness. In this case, the patient’s hostility and grandiose delusions confirm the change in diagnosis. It is important to refer the patient immediately for specialist help to ensure proper treatment.

      Additionally, the patient is experiencing side effects from their selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), including shakiness and excessive sweating. While these side effects can be troublesome, they can be managed with short term benzodiazepines. It is crucial to address both the bipolar illness and the side effects of medication to provide the best possible care for the patient.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with his sister. She is worried...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with his sister. She is worried about his well-being as he lives alone and has been isolating himself for some time. He rarely goes out and has no interests other than using his computer. He is generally distant when his family visits and speaks very little. He has not been in a relationship for many years. He appears disheveled and avoids making eye contact during the appointment. His sister is concerned that he may have Schizophrenia as their father exhibited similar behavior before his diagnosis.

      The patient denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations and doesn't express any delusional beliefs.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The absence of delusion or hallucination symptoms rules out schizophrenia, schizotypal personality disorder, and delusional beliefs. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a greater concern for being accepted and social status anxiety. Schizoid personality disorder, on the other hand, exhibits negative symptoms of schizophrenia, making it the most probable diagnosis.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 23 - A 70-year-old man has recently started taking amitriptyline for the management of depression,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has recently started taking amitriptyline for the management of depression, and you suspect he may be experiencing symptoms of the anticholinergic syndrome.
      Choose the accurate statement regarding the anticholinergic syndrome.

      Your Answer: Physostigmine is the correct treatment

      Correct Answer: Hot, dry skin occurs

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment

      Anticholinergic syndrome is a condition that is commonly caused by certain medications such as tricyclic antidepressants, atropine, anti-parkinsonian drugs, antispasmodics, and H1-antihistamines. The symptoms of this syndrome include hot and dry skin, hypertension, tachycardia, dry mouth, urinary retention, dilated pupils, and agitated delirium.

      In the past, physostigmine was recommended as a treatment for anticholinergic syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that it is ineffective and can even increase the risk of cardiac toxicity. Therefore, the recommended treatment now is supportive and symptomatic care. Once the medication causing the syndrome has been excreted, the symptoms usually subside.

      It is important to be aware of the symptoms of anticholinergic syndrome and to seek medical attention if you suspect that you or someone you know may be experiencing it. With proper care and treatment, the condition can be managed effectively.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old female patient presents to you for a follow-up after commencing sertraline...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female patient presents to you for a follow-up after commencing sertraline for depression one week ago. She reports no improvement in her mood and mentions experiencing abdominal pain, nausea, and occasional diarrhoea since starting the medication. Despite this, you determine that she still requires antidepressant treatment. What is the optimal approach to address this issue?

      Your Answer: Reduce the dose of sertraline

      Correct Answer: Continue the sertraline and review in one week

      Explanation:

      Given that the patient has been experiencing GI symptoms for only a week, it may be prudent to maintain the current treatment regimen while conducting a more thorough evaluation.

      Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants

      When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 25 - A 48-year-old male is admitted after taking an overdose.

    Which single feature best suggests...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male is admitted after taking an overdose.

      Which single feature best suggests a high risk of future suicide?

      Your Answer: Making plans before the overdose to avoid discovery

      Correct Answer: Ingestion of alcohol with the overdose drug

      Explanation:

      Factors indicating high risk of suicide

      The effort to conceal an overdose suggests a serious intent to complete suicide, which is a significant factor indicating a high risk of suicide. However, previous history of overdoses doesn’t necessarily imply a more serious intent. Other factors that may suggest a more sinister intent include being male, elderly, and having a mental illness.

      Protective factors, such as religious beliefs and social support, can reduce the risk of suicide. Additionally, being responsible for children is also a protective factor. However, when assessing a patient’s risk of suicide, it is important to focus on factors that suggest a high risk, rather than protective factors.

      In conclusion, when presented with a patient who may be at risk of suicide, it is crucial to consider the effort to conceal an overdose and other factors such as age, gender, and mental health history. While protective factors such as social support and religious beliefs are important, they should not distract from the assessment of high-risk factors.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 26 - A 62-year-old man presents with a 4-year history of severe itching and sores...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presents with a 4-year history of severe itching and sores containing 'white fibers' which he claims are living 'bugs'. He is in good health and doesn't take any regular medication. Upon examination, there are well-defined, scooped-out clean ulcerations with occasional white filaments, some hypopigmented patches, and extensive chronic excoriations. There is sparing between the scapula. Despite numerous dermatology and infectious disease outpatient investigations and treatments, no cause has been found, and symptoms have not improved.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Delusional parasitosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing delusional parasitosis, which is a fixed false belief that they are infested with ‘bugs’. This is consistent with the symptoms of ‘Morgellons’, which is a form of delusional parasitosis. The reported fibers or materials are often found to be common household or clothing materials, and the skin lesions are likely caused by repetitive picking. The hypopigmented patches are healed lesions, and the area between the scapula is spared, indicating that the patient is unable to reach that area and no lesions were found there. This is not indicative of body dysmorphic disorder, conversion disorder, or somatic symptom disorder.

      Understanding Delusional Parasitosis

      Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly seen, but it can be quite distressing for those who experience it. Essentially, it involves a person having a false belief that they are infested with some kind of bug or parasite, such as worms, mites, or bacteria. This belief is fixed and unshakeable, even in the face of evidence to the contrary.

      It is important to note that delusional parasitosis can occur on its own, but it may also be a symptom of other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, many people with this condition are otherwise functional and able to carry out their daily activities. However, the belief can cause significant anxiety and distress, and may lead to behaviors such as excessive cleaning or avoidance of certain places or activities. Treatment for delusional parasitosis typically involves a combination of medication and therapy to address the underlying psychiatric condition and help the person manage their symptoms.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 27 - Which statement is indicative of depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is indicative of depression?

      Your Answer: Symptoms persisting for two weeks or more

      Correct Answer: Symptoms present five days of each week

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Depression: ICD-10 and DSM-IV Classifications

      In diagnosing depression, both ICD-10 and DSM-IV classifications can be used alongside questionnaires. The ICD-10 classification requires four out of 10 depressive symptoms for a diagnosis, while the DSM-IV classification requires five out of nine symptoms. Common symptoms include loss of interest and pleasure, loss of energy, and low mood, which must be present most of every day to be counted.

      However, the NICE guidelines on depression acknowledge that many people may fall just below these criteria. This is known as sub-threshold depressive symptoms, which allows for only one of the key features to be present for less time than is necessary for the major depressive classification.

      It is important to note that once depression is diagnosed or suspected, patients should be offered help and support.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old man finds it difficult and is reluctant to have close friends...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man finds it difficult and is reluctant to have close friends as he fears rejection. He has a low self-esteem, feels inadequate and often becomes anxious in the presence of others. He has no hobbies and has been working in the same job since he left high school.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Avoidant personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Avoidant Personality Disorder

      Personality disorders are a group of mental health conditions that affect the way individuals think, feel, and behave. One such disorder is avoidant personality disorder, which is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation.

      To be diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder, an individual must exhibit at least four of the following behaviors: avoiding occupational activities that involve interpersonal contact, reluctance to engage with people unless certain of being liked, showing restraint in intimate relationships due to fear of ridicule, preoccupation with criticism or rejection in social situations, inhibition in new interpersonal situations due to feelings of inadequacy, viewing oneself as socially inept or inferior, and reluctance to take personal risks or engage in new activities due to fear of embarrassment.

      It is important to note that avoidant personality disorder is distinct from other personality disorders, such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and schizoid personality disorders. While individuals with antisocial personality disorder may disregard the feelings of others and act outside of social norms, those with borderline personality disorder may display significant instability in relationships and mood. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by dramatic and self-indulgent behavior, while schizoid personality disorder involves detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotions.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and behaviors associated with avoidant personality disorder can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support for this condition.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 29 - A 45-year-old shopkeeper has returned to see you with depression. You have seen...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old shopkeeper has returned to see you with depression. You have seen him on a number of occasions over the past 20 years with a moderate depression and you conclude that his symptoms have returned.

      When he was first seen, as a student, he was given lofepramine, then dosulepin but responded poorly. This was switched to fluoxetine and he appeared to respond well and finished his medication six months later.

      Then in his 30s he suffered from another bout of depression following the failure of a business venture. He was given fluoxetine and was treated successfully, stopping his therapy eight months later.

      One month before your consultation, your primary care organisation advised that you should consider initiating treatment for newly diagnosed depressed patients with citalopram, due to cost benefits. Your choice is further enhanced by a recent meeting with a pharmaceutical representative who presents a convincing argument for treating patients with a new selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which is claimed to have greater efficacy than existing treatments.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment for his current exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Antidepressant

      When it comes to treating depression, finding the right medication can be a challenge. However, if a patient has responded well to a particular drug in the past, it is recommended to consider that drug for a recurrent episode. In the case of this patient, he has responded well to fluoxetine but not to lofepramine or dosulepin. While it is possible that an alternative SSRI could work, such as citalopram or a new SSRI from a pharmaceutical representative, the best course of action is to consider the drug that has worked for him in the past. By doing so, the patient has a higher chance of responding positively to the medication and experiencing relief from their symptoms.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman has been dieting excessively and has become markedly underweight.
    Select from...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman has been dieting excessively and has become markedly underweight.
      Select from the list the single most worrying feature that would suggest a need for urgent referral.

      Your Answer: Inability to rise from a squatting position without using arms for support

      Explanation:

      Assessment of Medical Risk for Eating Disorders: Indicators for Urgent Referral

      The Institute of Psychiatry has developed a guide for assessing medical risk in patients with eating disorders. General practitioners can evaluate several parameters to determine if urgent referral is necessary. The following circumstances indicate the need for immediate attention:

      Nutrition: A body mass index (BMI) below 14 kg/m2 or weight loss exceeding 0.5 kg per week.

      Circulation: A systolic blood pressure below 90, a diastolic blood pressure below 70, or a postural drop greater than 10 mm Hg.

      Squat test: The patient is unable to stand up without using their arms for balance or leverage due to muscle weakness.

      Core temperature below 35°C.

      Liver function tests (LFTs): Low levels of albumin or glucose.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG): A pulse rate below 50 or a prolonged QT interval.

      By recognizing these indicators, healthcare providers can quickly identify patients who require urgent referral for further evaluation and treatment.

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      • Mental Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Mental Health (16/30) 53%
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