-
Question 1
Correct
-
What is the typical distribution of atopic eczema in a 12-month-old child?
Your Answer: Face and trunk
Explanation:Eczema in Children: Symptoms and Management
Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The symptoms of eczema include an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, it typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, the rash is more commonly seen on the flexor surfaces and in the creases of the face and neck.
To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams are absorbed into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.
In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. Overall, managing eczema in children involves a combination of avoiding irritants, using emollients, and potentially using topical steroids or other medications in severe cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 15-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension following a rugby injury. During the game, he was tackled from the side and experienced intense pain in his left lower rib cage. On examination, the patient has a pulse of 140 bpm and a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg. There is visible bruising over the left flank and tenderness upon palpation. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Splenic rupture
Explanation:High Impact Injuries to the Left Flank
High impact injuries to the left flank can result in damage to the spleen or kidney, as well as the ribs and soft tissue. If the patient experiences fractured ribs and hypotension, it is important to suspect a spleen rupture. Fluid resuscitation can be used to determine if the patient responds positively, and a CT scan can be arranged to confirm the diagnosis. Based on the injury grade and physical parameters, a decision can be made to either manage the injury conservatively or operate.
Observation should be conducted in a High Dependency Unit (HDU) setting initially to ensure that any deterioration in haemodynamic parameters can be addressed promptly. CT scans are also useful in trauma cases to rule out other injuries, such as hollow visceral injuries that would require a laparotomy. Renal trauma typically does not cause hypotension unless other organs are also injured, and aortic dissection would require more force.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
The mother of a 3-year-old boy contacts you for advice on febrile convulsions. Her son had his first seizure a few days ago while suffering from a viral respiratory infection. She describes it as a typical, simple febrile convulsion lasting 2-3 minutes with full recovery in about 30 minutes. The mother recalls being informed that there is a risk of recurrence, but she was not given any treatment and was discharged home. She wants to know when she should call an ambulance if it happens again.
Your Answer: A further simple febrile convulsion lasting > 5 minutes
Explanation:Parents should be informed that if their child experiences a febrile convulsion lasting more than 5 minutes, they should call for an ambulance. While some children may have recurrent febrile convulsions, simple ones typically last up to 15 minutes and result in complete recovery within an hour. In these cases, parents can manage their child at home with clear guidance on when to seek medical help, including the use of buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam. However, if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 5 minutes, an ambulance should be called. If there is a subsequent convulsion lasting less than 5 minutes with a recovery time of 30-60 minutes, the child may be able to stay at home. However, if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 10 or 15 minutes, an ambulance should have already been called after the initial 5 minutes.
Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 3-year-old girl with several small bruise-like lesions is brought to the emergency department by her father. He reports first noticing these lesions on his daughter's arm when dressing her three days ago, despite no obvious preceding trauma. The bruising does not appear to be spreading.
Notably, the child had mild cough and fever symptoms two weeks ago, though has now recovered.
On examination, the child appears well in herself and is playing with toys. There are 3 small petechiae on the patient's arm. The examination is otherwise unremarkable.
What would be an indication for bone marrow biopsy, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Splenomegaly
Explanation:Bone marrow examination is not necessary for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) unless there are atypical features such as splenomegaly, bone pain, or diffuse lymphadenopathy. ITP is an autoimmune disorder that causes the destruction of platelets, often triggered by a viral illness. Folate deficiency, photophobia, and epistaxis are not indications for bone marrow biopsy in children with ITP. While photophobia may suggest meningitis in a patient with a petechial rash, it does not warrant a bone marrow biopsy. Nosebleeds are common in young children with ITP and do not require a bone marrow biopsy.
Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.
The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.
In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A toddler girl is brought to the emergency room with her abdominal contents protruding from the abdominal cavity. The contents are lined by the peritoneum. Her parents did not seek any prenatal scans during pregnancy.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Omphalocele
Explanation:Common Congenital Abnormalities: An Overview
Congenital abnormalities are defects present at birth, which can affect various parts of the body. Here are some common congenital abnormalities and their characteristics:
Omphalocele: This condition occurs when a baby’s abdominal contents protrude outside the abdominal cavity, covered by the sac (amnion). It is associated with other anomalies and requires surgical closure.
Gastroschisis: In this condition, organs herniate in the abdominal wall, but they are not covered by the peritoneum. It is not associated with other anomalies and has a good prognosis.
Tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF): TOF refers to a communication between the trachea and oesophagus, usually associated with oesophageal atresia. It can cause choking, coughing, and cyanosis during feeding, and is often accompanied by other congenital anomalies.
Myelomeningocele: This is a type of spina bifida where the spinal cord and meninges herniate through a hole in the spinal vertebra. It can cause paralysis, incontinence, and other complications, and requires surgical closure and hydrocephalus drainage.
Meningocele: This is another type of spina bifida where the meninges and fluid herniate through an opening in the vertebral bodies with skin covering. It has a good prognosis and requires surgical closure.
Understanding these congenital abnormalities can help parents and healthcare providers identify and manage them early on, improving outcomes for affected children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A three-week old boy is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after losing consciousness. His mother reports that he often appears short of breath and has a bluish tint to his skin while feeding, which she assumed was normal. Imaging reveals the presence of right ventricular hypertrophy, a ventricular septal defect, and a displaced aorta. Additional imaging is requested. Based on the probable diagnosis, what type of murmur would be anticipated in this infant?
Your Answer: Ejection systolic murmur
Explanation:The correct answer is an ejection systolic murmur. Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by cyanosis or collapse in the first month of life, hypercyanotic spells, and an ejection systolic murmur heard at the left sternal edge due to pulmonary stenosis. The other features include right ventricular hypertrophy, a ventricular septal defect, and an overriding aorta. A continuous machinery murmur is associated with a patent ductus arteriosus, while a diastolic decrescendo murmur is heard in aortic or pulmonary regurgitation. Finally, a mid-diastolic murmur with an opening click is heard in cases of mitral stenosis.
Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.
Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.
The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A three-week-old preterm baby boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by his mother due to concerns of increasing lethargy and refusal to feed over the past 3 days. On examination, the baby's respiratory rate is 66 breaths/min, oxygen saturations are 95% on air, heart rate is 178 bpm, blood pressure is 64/48 mmHg, and temperature is 36.5ºC. The only notable findings are lethargy and signs of dehydration. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Neonatal sepsis
Explanation:Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
What are the common symptoms exhibited by a child with recurring upper urinary tract infections?
Your Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux
Explanation:Vesicoureteral Reflux
Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) is a medical condition where urine flows backwards from the bladder to the kidneys. If left untreated, it can lead to serious health complications such as pyelonephritis, hypertension, and progressive renal failure. In children, VUR is usually caused by a congenital abnormality and is referred to as primary VUR. On the other hand, secondary VUR is commonly caused by recurrent urinary tract infections. While horseshoe kidney can increase the risk of UTIs, it is a much rarer condition compared to VUR. It is important to understand the causes and risks associated with VUR to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 3-year-old child presents with a large bruise on the thigh after a fall. His mother notes that he has always been prone to bruising. Tests reveal: haemoglobin (Hb) 112g/l, platelets 186 × 109/l, prothrombin time (PT) 10 s, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 70 s and normal bleeding time.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemophilia A
Explanation:Common Bleeding Disorders in Children
Haemophilia A, von Willebrand disease, vitamin K deficiency, childhood cirrhosis, and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) are common bleeding disorders in children.
Haemophilia A is an X-linked recessive inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency in coagulation factor VIII. Patients present with prolonged bleeding after minor trauma, haematoma formation, spontaneous bleeding into joints, soft tissue haemorrhage, and other symptoms. Management involves regular infusions of factor VIII.
Von Willebrand disease is an inherited bleeding disorder caused by deficiency in vWF. It presents with easy bruising, prolonged bleeding following minor trauma, heavy bleeding following an operation, and other symptoms. Treatment is with the administration of desmopressin, recombinant vWF or a combination of vWF and factor VIII.
Vitamin K deficiency can occur at any point during a person’s life, but it is most commonly encountered in infancy. Patients most commonly present with prolonged bleeding following minor trauma. This is corrected by the administration of vitamin K.
Childhood cirrhosis has multiple causes, depending on the age of the patient. In this case, there will be deranged liver function tests, as well as a prolonged PT that is not corrected despite administration of adequate vitamin K. This is an indicator of poor liver synthetic function.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a primary condition caused by a low number of platelets. It presents with bleeding, bruises, and petechiae.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 9-month-old girl is brought to their GP due to family concerns over the child's development. They were born at term via vaginal delivery, without complications. The child is otherwise well, without past medical history.
What developmental milestone would be most anticipated in this child?Your Answer: Pass objects from one hand to another
Explanation:A 6-month-old boy was brought to the GP by his family who were concerned about his development. The GP tested his developmental milestones and found that he was able to hold objects with palmar grasp and pass objects from one hand to another. However, the child was not yet able to build a tower of 2 bricks, have a good pincer grip, or show a hand preference, which are expected milestones for older children. The GP reassured the family that the child’s development was within the normal range for his age.
Developmental Milestones for Fine Motor and Vision Skills
Fine motor and vision skills are important developmental milestones for infants and young children. These skills are crucial for their physical and cognitive development. The following tables provide a summary of the major milestones for fine motor and vision skills.
At three months, infants can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow objects up to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They are visually insatiable, looking around in every direction.
At nine months, infants can point with their finger and demonstrate an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have developed a good pincer grip and can bang toys together and stack bricks.
As children grow older, their fine motor skills continue to develop. By 15 months, they can build a tower of two blocks, and by 18 months, they can build a tower of three blocks. By two years old, they can build a tower of six blocks, and by three years old, they can build a tower of nine blocks. They also begin to draw, starting with circular scribbles at 18 months and progressing to copying vertical lines at two years old, circles at three years old, crosses at four years old, and squares and triangles at five years old.
In addition to fine motor skills, children’s vision skills also develop over time. At 15 months, they can look at a book and pat the pages. By 18 months, they can turn several pages at a time, and by two years old, they can turn one page at a time.
It is important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. Overall, these developmental milestones for fine motor and vision skills are important indicators of a child’s growth and development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 4-year-old child has been referred by their GP due to chronic constipation that is not responding to treatment. What specific details in the child's medical history could suggest a possible diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease?
Your Answer: Passage of meconium at day 3
Explanation:When a baby has difficulty passing stool, it may be a sign of Hirschsprung’s disease, a condition where nerve cells in the colon are missing. This disease is more common in males and can be diagnosed through a biopsy. It is important to note that not all babies with delayed passage have this disease. Hirschsprung’s disease can also present in later childhood, so it is important to ask about the timing of symptoms in children with chronic constipation or obstruction. This disease is associated with MEN 2A/B, not MEN1, and meconium ileus is a common differential. Pyloric stenosis is associated with non-bilious vomiting, while a temperature is not a factor in suggesting Hirschsprung’s disease.
Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders
Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.
Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.
Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.
Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.
Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.
Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 3-year-old child is admitted with poor appetite. Over the last 24 hours, they have eaten only 25% of their usual amount and have had significantly fewer wet diapers than usual. The child has been particularly irritable over this time and is not settling. There is no past medical history, no known allergies, and there has been no travel outside of the UK.
On examination, the child appears unsettled and grouchy. There are no rashes on exposure and the fontanelles appear normal. The physical observations reveal tachycardia and a fever of 39ºC. When you attempt to manually flex the child's neck you note that they also flex the hips and knees.
What is the most appropriate empirical intravenous treatment for this child?Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 2-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of rectal bleeding. Her parents report seeing fresh blood in her nappies mixed with her stool. Upon examination, she appears alert, active, afebrile, and hemodynamically stable. She has non-specific abdominal tenderness without guarding, and there is no active bleeding. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, which shows no abnormalities. Meckel's diverticulum is suspected. What is the most appropriate next step in investigating this patient?
Your Answer: Technetium scan
Explanation:When investigating stable children with suspected Meckel’s diverticulum, a technetium scan is the preferred method.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.
In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.
To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.
Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
An 18-year-old girl visits her GP with worries about not having started her menstrual cycle yet. Apart from that, she feels healthy. During the examination, she appears to be of average height and has developed breasts, but has minimal pubic hair growth. The doctor can feel two lumps in her groin area upon examination of her abdomen. Her external genitalia seem normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s presentation is consistent with androgen insensitivity, which is a genetic condition where individuals with XY chromosomes have female physical characteristics due to a lack of testosterone receptors in their tissues. This disorder is X-linked and often results in undescended testes. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is unlikely as it typically causes early puberty and virilization, while Kallmann syndrome does not explain the presence of groin masses. Polycystic ovarian syndrome usually results in secondary amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea and is accompanied by other symptoms such as acne and hirsutism. Turner’s syndrome, which causes primary amenorrhea, is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, heart defects, and abnormal breast development, and does not involve undescended testes.
Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of LH and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this disorder often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia and have an increased risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.
Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallmann syndrome, is another cause of delayed puberty. It is typically inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with Kallmann syndrome may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, and anosmia. Sex hormone levels are low, and LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects may also be present.
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46XY) having a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this disorder may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46XY genotype. Management includes counseling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy due to an increased risk of testicular cancer from undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
What is the probable outcome if a fetus has homozygous alpha-thalassaemia, assuming it is at an early stage of development?
Your Answer: Hydrops fetalis
Explanation:Understanding Alpha-Thalassaemia
Alpha-thalassaemia is a condition that arises from a deficiency of alpha chains in haemoglobin. This occurs due to the absence or reduced production of alpha-globulin genes located on chromosome 16. The severity of the condition depends on the number of alpha globulin alleles affected. If one or two alleles are affected, the blood picture would be hypochromic and microcytic, but the haemoglobin level would typically be normal. However, if three alleles are affected, it results in a hypochromic microcytic anaemia with splenomegaly, which is known as Hb H disease. In the case where all four alpha globulin alleles are affected, which is known as homozygote, it can lead to death in utero, also known as hydrops fetalis or Bart’s hydrops. Understanding the severity of alpha-thalassaemia is crucial in managing the condition and providing appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 7-week old infant has been admitted to the hospital due to concerns from her father about her inability to keep down feeds. The father reports that shortly after being fed, the baby forcefully vomits up uncurdled milk. He is anxious because the baby does not seem to be gaining weight. Based on the probable diagnosis, what metabolic irregularity is the patient expected to exhibit?
Your Answer: Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:Pyloric stenosis is the probable diagnosis when a newborn experiences non-bilious vomiting during the first few weeks of life. This condition results in the loss of hydrochloric acid (HCl) from the stomach contents, leading to hypochloremia and potassium loss. The metabolic alkalosis is caused by the depletion of hydrogen ions due to the vomiting of stomach acid.
Understanding Pyloric Stenosis
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.
The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.
Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 2-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father due to pain in her left hip and a new limp. She has no past medical history except for a recent cold she had 2 weeks ago, from which she has recovered. There is no history of trauma to the hip. Her developmental milestones have been normal so far.
Upon examination, she is not running a fever. She tolerates slight movement of her left hip, but excessive motion causes her to cry.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Hemoglobin (Hb) level: 125 g/L (normal range for females: 110-140)
- Platelet count: 220 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
- White blood cell (WBC) count: 9.5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer for urgent paediatric assessment
Explanation:It is important to arrange urgent assessment for a child under 3 years old who presents with an acute limp. Referral for urgent paediatric assessment is the correct course of action, as transient synovitis is rare in this age group and septic arthritis is more common. Rest and analgesia should not be recommended, as further investigations are needed to rule out septic arthritis, which may involve an ultrasound or synovial fluid aspirate. Referral for an urgent MRI or X-ray of the hip is also not appropriate at this stage, as these investigations would be considered by a paediatrician after an initial urgent assessment.
Causes of Limping in Children
Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 10-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department by her mother. She has had a barking cough for the past 2 days and her mother says she has been eating poorly for the past 3 days. During examination, the infant appears calm and is easily entertained by her toys. The barking cough is audible even at rest and there is slight sternal retraction. Vital signs are stable. The diagnosis is croup and treatment is initiated. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this infant?
Your Answer: Oral dexamethasone
Explanation:The infant’s condition is stable.
If oral administration is not possible, IV hydrocortisone may be required, but it is not the preferred option.
Antibiotics are not the primary treatment for croup as it is mostly caused by a viral infection.Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 2-year-old child is brought in for a routine check-up, with concerns from the parents that the child is smaller than expected for their age. The parents mention that the child has difficulty with eating and mainly consumes milk and soft foods. The child appears healthy upon examination, but is found to be on the 3rd percentile for weight. During a cardiac examination, a systolic murmur is detected in the pulmonary area and a fixed splitting to the second heart sound is heard. All pulses are palpable and within normal range. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Most children with atrial septal defects (ASDs) do not show any symptoms. However, if these heart defects are not detected before birth, children with severe ASD may experience shortness of breath, fatigue, poor appetite and growth, and increased susceptibility to respiratory infections. During a physical examination, a doctor may detect an ejection systolic murmur and fixed splitting of the second heart sound.
Other congenital heart defects can be identified by the following murmurs:
– Ventricular septal defect: A pansystolic murmur in the lower left sternal border
– Coarctation of the aorta: A crescendo-decrescendo murmur in the upper left sternal border
– Patent ductus arteriosus: A diastolic machinery murmur in the upper left sternal borderCongenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 5-month-old baby girl is admitted under the paediatric team with a suspicion of possible neglect and non-accidental injury. Both parents have a history of intravenous (IV) drug misuse, and the baby’s older sibling had been taken into care two years previously. The baby girl and her parents have been under regular review by Social Services. When the social worker visited today, she was concerned that the child seemed unkempt and distressed. She also noted some bruising on the child’s arms and left thigh and decided to act on her concerns by calling an ambulance.
Which of the conditions below would be most likely to lead to a suspicion of non-accidental injury?Your Answer: Torn frenulum labii superioris in a 4-month-old infant
Explanation:Recognizing Signs of Possible Child Abuse
Child abuse can take many forms, and healthcare professionals must be vigilant in recognizing signs of possible abuse. Some common signs include bite marks, torn frenulum from forced bottle-feeding, ligature marks, burns, and scalds. However, it is important to note that some harmless conditions, such as dermal melanocytosis, can be mistaken for abuse. Other signs to watch for include mid-clavicular fractures in neonates, bruises of different ages on young children, and widespread petechial rashes. It is crucial for healthcare providers to document any suspicious findings and report them to the appropriate authorities. By recognizing and reporting signs of possible abuse, healthcare professionals can help protect vulnerable children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
Which one of the following statements regarding cow's milk protein intolerance/allergy in toddlers is true?
Your Answer: The majority of cases resolve before the age of 5 years
Explanation:Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
A 5-month-old baby presents with symptoms of shortness of breath and difficulty taking feeds. During examination, a systolic murmur is heard at the left lower sternal edge, and a thrill is felt in the pulmonary area. A rough ejection systolic murmur is best heard in the same area. An ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy with right axis deviation, and the liver is palpable. The baby's oxygen saturation intermittently drops to 88%, causing cyanotic spells. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Understanding Congenital Heart Disorders: Tetralogy of Fallot and Other Conditions
Congenital heart disorders are conditions that affect the heart’s structure and function from birth. One such disorder is Tetralogy of Fallot, which is characterized by several abnormalities, including right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis, VSD, and an overriding aorta. Symptoms usually appear at birth or within the first year of life and are caused by a right-to-left shunt, leading to systemic hypoxemia.
Cyanotic spells are common in Tetralogy of Fallot and can cause marked desaturation due to a decrease in systemic vascular resistance or an increase in pulmonary resistance. In some cases, a left-to-right shunt may initially be present, leading to pulmonary hypertension and eventually causing a right-to-left shunt and heart failure.
Other congenital heart disorders include VSD, which may not manifest until childhood or adulthood, transposition of the great vessels, which presents at birth with severe hypoxemia, ASD, which may not manifest until later in life, and coarctation of the aorta, which typically does not present until later in life unless extremely severe.
Understanding these congenital heart disorders and their symptoms is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment, which can improve outcomes and quality of life for affected individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 25-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of fevers, myalgia, and painful eyes that have been bothering her for the past two days. She recently returned from a trip to the Democratic Republic of the Congo, where she failed to comply with her anti-malarial medication due to gastrointestinal side effects. Upon examination, she has a temperature of 38.8ºC, and she displays clustered white lesions on her buccal mucosa and conjunctivitis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Measles
Explanation:Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease
Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.
The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 2-month-old baby, born at 38 weeks, is brought in due to increasing fussiness around 30-60 minutes after feeds, frequent regurgitation, 'colic' episodes, and non-bloody diarrhea. The baby has not experienced fever, urticaria, angioedema, or wheezing. The baby is exclusively formula-fed and has mild eczema in the flexural areas. The baby's weight remains stable between the 50-75th centile. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this baby's symptoms?
Your Answer: Extensively hydrolysed formula trial
Explanation:Soya milk is not a suitable alternative as a significant proportion of infants who have an allergy to cow’s milk protein are also unable to tolerate it.
Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 3-day-old infant is presenting with increased work of breathing. The baby was born via elective caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation and the pregnancy was uncomplicated. On examination, the infant has a respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute (normal: 30-60) and an oxygen saturation of 94% (normal: >90%). Nasal flaring is also observed. A chest x-ray reveals hyperinflated lung fields and a line of fluid in the horizontal fissure of the left lung. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Supportive care
Explanation:The primary treatment for uncomplicated transient tachypnoea of the newborn is observation and supportive care, which may include oxygen supplementation if necessary. In this case, the symptoms and chest x-ray results suggest a diagnosis of transient tachypnoea of the newborn, which is caused by excess fluid in the lungs due to caesarean delivery. This condition is not life-threatening and can be managed with careful monitoring and appropriate care. Corticosteroids are not recommended for newborns with this condition, and humidified oxygen and nebulised salbutamol are not necessary in this case.
Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 3-year-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency department with symptoms of malaise, rash, vomiting and fever. The mother reports that the child has not been eating well for the past day and has been running a low-grade temperature. Additionally, the mother points out a partial thickness burn on the child's arm that has been treated with dressings by their GP. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Toxic shock syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for an unwell child with an unhealed burn
When a child with an unhealed burn appears acutely unwell, several life-threatening conditions must be considered and ruled out promptly. Among them, toxic shock syndrome and meningococcal septicaemia are particularly concerning and require urgent management in the intensive care unit. Anaphylaxis, although a rare possibility, should also be considered and treated promptly with intramuscular adrenaline. Haemophilus influenzae and Salmonella are less likely causes, as they typically present with respiratory or gastrointestinal symptoms, respectively, which are not evident in this case. A thorough assessment and appropriate interventions are crucial to ensure the best possible outcome for the child.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
As a paediatrician, you are reviewing a 1-month-old who was delivered at 39+2 weeks vaginally and without any complications. The parents of the child have a concern that their child might have achondroplasia as the child's father has been diagnosed with this condition. Apart from measuring the child's length, what other physical characteristic should you look for to determine if the child has achondroplasia?
Your Answer: Trident hand deformity
Explanation:Identifying physical features of congenital conditions is crucial for exam purposes and diagnosis. One such feature of achondroplasia is trident hands, characterized by short, stubby fingers with a gap between the middle and ring fingers. Other physical features include short limbs (rhizomelia), lumbar lordosis, and midface hypoplasia. Fragile X syndrome is associated with low set ears, while Down’s syndrome is characterized by saddle-gap deformity and a single palmar crease. It is important to note that achondroplasia is characterized by macrocephaly with frontal bossing, not microcephaly.
Understanding Achondroplasia
Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) gene, which leads to abnormal cartilage development. This results in short stature, with affected individuals having short limbs (rhizomelia) and shortened fingers (brachydactyly). They also have a large head with frontal bossing and a narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis.
In most cases, achondroplasia occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age at the time of conception being a risk factor. There is no specific therapy for achondroplasia, but some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures. These procedures involve the application of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures, with a clearly defined need and endpoint being essential for success.
Overall, understanding achondroplasia is important for individuals and families affected by this condition. While there is no cure, there are treatment options available that can improve quality of life for those living with achondroplasia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 6-week-old infant is experiencing projectile vomiting following feeds. The vomit is abundant but not bile-tinged and happens shortly after a feed. During examination, a small mass in the pylorus can be felt. What electrolyte abnormality is most likely to be observed in this baby?
Your Answer: Hypochloremic hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:The infant is suffering from pyloric stenosis, which leads to a typical imbalance of electrolytes and acid-base known as hypochloremic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. The continuous vomiting results in a gradual loss of fluids that contain hydrochloric acid, causing the kidneys to retain hydrogen ions over potassium. If the illness is brief, there may not be any electrolyte abnormalities.
Understanding Pyloric Stenosis
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.
The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.
Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 4-week-old female neonate is brought to the hospital with a 1-week history of vomiting and regurgitation of non-bilious materials, mostly consisting of ingested milk. The vomiting has lately become projectile. On examination, an olive-shaped mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant, and a periodic wave of peristalsis is visible in the epigastric region. The neonate has puffy hands and feet and redundant skin in the neck. A systolic murmur is noted on the cardiac apex. Laboratory tests reveal hypokalaemic, hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Neonate with Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis and Other Symptoms
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition that causes gastric outlet obstruction and is more common in neonates with Turner syndrome. Other symptoms in this scenario include puffy hands and feet due to lymphoedema, redundant skin in the neck due to early resolution of cystic hygroma, and a systolic murmur likely caused by coarctation of the aorta. Non-bilious vomiting distinguishes pyloric stenosis from duodenal atresia.
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia presents with vomiting, hypoxia, and a scaphoid abdomen, but is not typically associated with chromosomal abnormalities.
Down syndrome is characterized by flat and broad facies, epicanthal folds, simian creases, low-set ears, and a protruding tongue, but does not typically present with puffiness and redundant skin in the neck.
Duodenal atresia is associated with Down syndrome and presents with bilious vomiting, while this scenario involves non-bilious vomiting.
Tracheoesophageal fistula is associated with Down syndrome and VACTERL association, but does not typically present with puffiness and redundant skin in the neck.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
A newborn delivered at 36 weeks gestation through a normal vaginal delivery is exhibiting irritability and has experienced a convulsion 72 hours after birth. No visible head trauma or swelling is present. What type of cranial injury is most probable in this case?
Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage
Explanation:Caput succedaneum is a condition that occurs when pressure is applied to the fetal scalp during birth, resulting in a swollen and bruised area. This condition typically resolves on its own within a few days and does not require treatment.
Cephalohaematoma, on the other hand, can occur after a vaginal delivery or due to trauma from obstetric tools. This condition results in bleeding between the skull and the periosteum, causing a tense swelling that is limited to the outline of the bone. Cephalohaematoma typically resolves over a period of weeks to months.
Subaponeurotic haemorrhage, also known as subgaleal haemorrhage, is a rare condition that can occur due to a traumatic birth. This condition can result in significant blood loss in the infant.
Intracranial haemorrhage refers to bleeding within the brain, including subarachnoid, subdural, and intraventricular haemorrhages. Subarachnoid haemorrhages are common and can cause irritability and convulsions in the first few days of life. Subdural haemorrhages can occur due to the use of forceps during delivery. Intraventricular haemorrhages are most common in preterm infants and can be diagnosed using ultrasound examinations.
Understanding Intraventricular Haemorrhage
Intraventricular haemorrhage is a rare condition that involves bleeding into the ventricular system of the brain. While it is typically associated with severe head injuries in adults, it can occur spontaneously in premature neonates. In fact, the majority of cases occur within the first 72 hours after birth. The exact cause of this condition is not well understood, but it is believed to be a result of birth trauma and cellular hypoxia in the delicate neonatal central nervous system.
Treatment for intraventricular haemorrhage is largely supportive, as therapies such as intraventricular thrombolysis and prophylactic cerebrospinal fluid drainage have not been shown to be effective. However, if hydrocephalus and rising intracranial pressure occur, shunting may be necessary. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of this condition and its potential complications in order to provide appropriate care for affected patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 31
Correct
-
A 16-year-old girl comes to her family doctor complaining of bilateral knee pain that has been bothering her for the past four weeks. She mentions that she is a member of her school's track and field team but denies any recent injuries or falls. During the physical examination, the doctor notes tenderness in both of her tibial tuberosities. However, her anterior and posterior cruciate ligament stress tests, as well as the Apley's and McMurray's tests, all yield normal results.
What would be the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Do no further investigations - advise analgesia, reduce physical exertion and consider physiotherapy
Explanation:Osgood-Schlatter Disease: Diagnosis and Treatment
Osgood-Schlatter disease is a common condition that affects teenagers who are very active in sports. It is caused by traction, which results in numerous microscopic avulsion fractures at the tibial tuberosity. The diagnosis is clinical, and treatment is conservative. X-rays and imaging are usually normal. Physiotherapy may help by strengthening the quadriceps muscles. The pain reduces and resolves, as the bones mature and ossification is completed. It is important to avoid unnecessary investigations and refer to secondary care only if there is suspicion of other conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 32
Correct
-
As a junior doctor in the emergency department, you are asked by a senior doctor to examine a child with a persistent cough. However, they caution you against examining the child's throat as it may lead to airway obstruction. What could be the possible diagnosis for this case?
Your Answer: Croup
Explanation:It is not recommended to conduct a throat examination on a patient with croup as it may lead to airway obstruction. This risk is higher in cases of acute epiglottitis, which is a less common condition. However, for the other conditions, throat examination is not contraindicated.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 33
Correct
-
A 5-year-old girl is seen by the orthopaedic specialist after experiencing a worsening limp for 4 weeks. Her blood tests were normal, and x-rays revealed a hip joint effusion without any significant femoral head structural abnormalities. The doctor diagnosed her with Perthes' disease. What would be the most suitable initial management plan for this child?
Your Answer: Observation
Explanation:If Perthes’ disease is diagnosed in children under the age of 6 years and there is no significant collapse of the femoral head or gross structural abnormalities, observation is the recommended course of action. This involves regular x-rays, monitoring, and physiotherapy. The Pavlik harness, serial casting, and steroid injections are not appropriate treatments for this condition.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 34
Correct
-
At what age do children usually outgrow these episodes?
A 2-year-old toddler is brought in by ambulance after experiencing a seizure-like episode witnessed by their parent. The parent recorded the episode on their phone, which lasted for 30 seconds, and showed it to the pediatric team. The child has no previous history of seizures and no known medical conditions. The parent reports that the child has had a cough and runny nose for the past 4 days and has been restless at night, requiring acetaminophen for a fever of 39.2ºC. In the emergency department, the child is irritable and coughing but does not have any further seizures. The pediatric team reassures the parent that this episode is not a cause for concern and advises them that the child should eventually outgrow them.Your Answer: 5 years old
Explanation:Febrile convulsions are commonly observed in children aged between 6 months to 5 years. The symptoms include a flushed and hot appearance followed by loss of consciousness. Febrile convulsions are usually characterized by tonic-clonic seizure-like episodes and a postictal period. Parents should be informed that most children experience only one episode. However, in children over 1-year-old who have had their first febrile convulsion, there is a 33% chance of recurrence, which is higher in children under 1. Although most children experience their first febrile convulsion by the age of 3, it can continue up to 5 years, especially in those who have had previous episodes. Children over 5 years old are less likely to experience febrile convulsions. If a child aged 7, 9, or 11 years experiences convulsions, they should be referred for neurological testing as it may indicate epilepsy.
Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 35
Correct
-
A 10-month-old infant is brought to the ward following a visit to the emergency department due to seizures. The parents present a video of the contractions that seem to resemble colic. They also express worry about their child's development, noting a change. An EEG and MRI head are conducted, revealing hypsarrhythmia and an abnormality, respectively. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: West's syndrome
Explanation:West’s syndrome is characterized by infantile spasms, which can be mistaken for colic by families. However, it is crucial to recognize that there is an underlying pathology indicated by abnormal EEG and MRI results, with hypsarrhythmia being a classic feature of West’s syndrome. While seizures in babies may resemble infantile colic or pseudo seizures, the presence of abnormal EEG readings confirms a brain pathology. There is no evidence of infection or fever to suggest febrile convulsions. Partial seizures with sensory auras are often associated with temporal lobe seizures.
Understanding Infantile Spasms
Infantile spasms, also known as West syndrome, is a form of epilepsy that typically occurs in infants between 4 to 8 months old, with a higher incidence in male infants. This condition is often associated with a serious underlying condition and has a poor prognosis. The characteristic feature of infantile spasms is the salaam attacks, which involve the flexion of the head, trunk, and arms followed by the extension of the arms. These attacks last only 1-2 seconds but can be repeated up to 50 times.
Infants with infantile spasms may also experience progressive mental handicap. To diagnose this condition, an EEG is typically performed, which shows hypsarrhythmia in two-thirds of infants. Additionally, a CT scan may be used to identify any diffuse or localized brain disease, which is present in 70% of cases, such as tuberous sclerosis.
Unfortunately, infantile spasms carry a poor prognosis. However, there are treatment options available. Vigabatrin is now considered the first-line therapy, and ACTH is also used.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 36
Correct
-
A 4-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a fever, poor feeding, and cough. The infant has received all routine vaccinations. Upon examination, the baby is alert and responsive, but there is increased work of breathing. Coarse crackles and a wheeze can be heard throughout the chest. The infant's heart sounds and ECG are normal, and a lumbar puncture is performed and reported as unremarkable. However, one hour later, the patient experiences a cardiac arrest. What is the most probable underlying cause of this arrest?
Your Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:The most frequent reason for children’s cardiac arrest is respiratory issues, with bronchiolitis being the most common cause. Bronchiolitis is characterized by symptoms such as cough, fever, and poor feeding, as well as physical examination findings like wheezing, crackles, and increased respiratory effort. Congenital cardiac disease is an incorrect option since the patient has normal cardiac findings and ECG. Croup is also an incorrect option as it causes a distinct barking noise and is more prevalent in children aged 6 months to 2 years. Meningitis is another incorrect option as it typically results in an unwell infant with a fever and rapid breathing, but the analysis of cerebrospinal fluid would show abnormalities, which is not the case for this patient.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 37
Correct
-
A 4-day-old neonate born prematurely at 33 weeks' gestation has been experiencing difficulty in weaning off the ventilator. During a physical examination, a continuous heart murmur was detected. An echocardiogram revealed the presence of a patent ductus arteriosus, while no other structural heart abnormalities were found. Additionally, a chest x-ray showed cardiomegaly and mildly congested lung fields. What is the recommended initial treatment for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Indomethacin
Explanation:Indomethacin and ibuprofen are commonly used to promote closure of the patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), a condition where the ductus arteriosus (DA) fails to close after birth. This can result in a left-to-right shunt of oxygenated blood from the descending aorta to the pulmonary artery, leading to pulmonary edema, particularly in preterm infants. The DA allows blood from the right ventricle to bypass the non-functioning lungs in the developing fetus, and endogenous prostaglandins maintain its patency. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, accelerating DA closure and serving as an effective non-surgical treatment. Surgery is only considered if non-surgical measures fail. Beta-blockers have no role in treating PDA, and intravenous fluids are not beneficial and may worsen heart failure.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 38
Correct
-
A 16-month-old boy has been diagnosed with roseola infantum. What is the most frequent complication associated with this illness?
Your Answer: Febrile convulsions
Explanation:Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 39
Correct
-
A 10-year-old child presented with headaches, vomiting and a staggering gait. A cerebellar neoplasm was identified.
What is the most frequent cerebellar neoplasm in childhood?Your Answer: Astrocytoma
Explanation:Overview of Common Brain Tumors in Children and Adults
Brain tumors can occur in both children and adults, and they can be benign or malignant. Here are some of the most common types of brain tumors:
Cerebellar Astrocytoma: This is a type of glioma that originates from astrocytes, a type of glial cell. It is most commonly found in children and can be benign or malignant. Symptoms include headache, vomiting, and gait disturbances. Diagnosis is made through imaging tests such as CT or MRI scans, and treatment may include radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery.
Glioblastoma Multiforme: This is the most common intracranial tumor in adults and is an aggressive astrocytoma with a poor prognosis. It is resistant to therapy, making treatment difficult.
Ependymoma: This is a glial tumor that arises within the ventricular system or spinal cord. It is the second most common type of pediatric intracranial tumor and is most commonly found in the posterior intracranial fossa. Symptoms depend on the location of the tumor and may include headache, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, nerve palsies, and cerebellar symptoms. Treatment may include surgery and radiotherapy.
Neuroblastoma: This is the most common extracranial tumor in children and is most commonly found in the adrenal glands. Symptoms may include abdominal pain, vomiting, and fatigue. Treatment may include surgery.
Oligodendroglioma: This type of tumor arises in the cerebral white matter and is most commonly found in middle-aged patients. It is rare in children, accounting for only 6% of intracranial pediatric tumors.
In conclusion, brain tumors can present with a variety of symptoms and require prompt diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 40
Correct
-
You are conducting an 8-month well-baby visit for a boy and his mother. The physical examination is normal, and you proceed to discuss the child's immunizations. The mother expresses concern about recent measles outbreaks and asks when her son should receive the first dose of the MMR vaccine.
When is the MMR vaccine typically administered as part of routine immunizations?Your Answer: At 12-13 months of age
Explanation:The MMR vaccine is administered as a standard practice when a child reaches 12-13 months of age, and then again during the preschool booster at 3-4 years old.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.
It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 41
Correct
-
A 14-year-old boy comes to your clinic with a complaint of right groin pain that has been bothering him for the past 6 weeks. You observe him walking into the consultation room with an antalgic gait. He reports that the pain started after he jumped down from a tree and landed on his right leg.
During the examination, you notice that the boy has been in the 90th percentile for weight for several years. He has a reduced ability to internally rotate his right leg when flexed, and it appears slightly shorter than his left. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis, and what would be the appropriate management?Your Answer: Refer to orthopaedics for in situ fixation with a cannulated screw
Explanation:A boy who is obese is experiencing pain in his groin, thigh, and knee. This could potentially be a case of slipped capital femoral epiphysis.
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.
The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.
The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.
In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 42
Correct
-
A 14-month-old child presents to the emergency department with symptoms of feeling generally unwell, being off food, and bleeding from the back passage. The child's mother reports no nausea or vomiting. On examination, the patient appears distressed and is tender in the right lower quadrant. No masses are felt in the abdomen. Vital signs show a heart rate of 170 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 68/37 mmHg, and temperature of 36.2 ºC. The patient has no known medical conditions or regular medications. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:The patient does not exhibit any of the typical symptoms associated with appendicitis, such as fever, nausea, vomiting, or loss of appetite. While paroxysmal abdominal colic pain is a common feature of many conditions, an underlying pathological cause has not been identified in this case. The child does not display the sudden onset of inconsolable crying episodes or pallor that is often seen in cases of colic. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, a rare genetic disorder that causes hamartomatous polyposis, is unlikely given the patient’s age. Cecal volvulus, which is characterized by sudden onset colicky lower abdominal pain, abdominal distension, and a failure to pass flatus or stool, is also an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.
In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.
To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.
Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 43
Correct
-
A mother presents with her 3-month-old baby boy to ask advice about his failed newborn hearing screening. Further tests were normal; however, she has been advised to seek medical advice if she has any concerns about his hearing in the future. Which one of the following would warrant referral for a further hearing test?
Your Answer: Not babbling or imitating sounds by the age of nine months old
Explanation:Developmental Milestones for Language Acquisition in Children
Language acquisition is an important developmental milestone in children. Here are some key markers to look out for:
– Not babbling or imitating sounds by the age of nine months old: If a baby is not babbling or imitating sounds by this age, it could be a sign of a social, cognitive, speech, or hearing problem. A full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– Putting two words together by the age of 18 months old: By this age, a child should be using 50+ words and be able to put two words together. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– More than 200 spoken words by the age of two years: A 30-month-old child should be using 200+ words. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– Not responding to his own name by the age of six months old: By the age of one year, a child should respond to their own name. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– Speaking 6-20 words by the age of one year: By the age of one, a child should be using 6-20 words. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are any concerns. Early intervention can make a significant difference in a child’s language acquisition and overall development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 44
Correct
-
A 10-year-old boy is brought to you by his parents due to his three-year history of nocturnal enuresis. Despite attempts at toileting, reducing fluid intake before bed, and implementing a reward system, there has been little improvement. The use of an enuresis alarm for the past six months has also been unsuccessful, with the boy still experiencing four to five wet nights per week. Both the parents and you agree that pharmacological intervention is necessary, in addition to the other measures. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment option from the following list?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Explanation:Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 45
Correct
-
A 16-year-old girl visits her doctor with primary amenorrhoea and cyclical abdominal pain. The patient has normal secondary sexual characteristics on examination.
What is the probable cause of her absence of menstrual periods?Your Answer: Imperforate hymen
Explanation:The patient is experiencing cyclical abdominal pain and amenorrhoea, indicating a pathological delay in menarche rather than a normal physiological delay. A specialist should assess the patient, as an imperforate hymen may be present, causing obstruction of menstrual blood outflow. An ultrasound scan can confirm the presence of haematocolpos, and initial treatment involves using oral contraceptives to suppress menses and analgesia to manage pain until surgical correction and drainage of collected blood occurs. Congenital uterine deformities are associated with pelvic pain, abnormal bleeding, recurrent miscarriages, and premature delivery. Hyperprolactinaemia and hypothyroidism are less likely causes, as the patient does not exhibit symptoms such as headaches, galactorrhoea, breast pain, fatigue, constipation, weight gain, cold intolerance, muscle weakness, depression, or altered mental function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 46
Correct
-
Parents bring their infant to see you because their child is not growing normally. There is no family history of note. On examination, he is noted to have a large head relative to the limbs. The limbs are relatively shortened, compared to the trunk.
What is the molecular basis for this condition?Your Answer: Activation of the fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF3) receptor
Explanation:There are several genetic mutations that can cause developmental abnormalities and disorders. One such mutation is the activation of the fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF3) receptor, which leads to achondroplasia and stunted bone growth. Another mutation affects the fibrillin-1 gene, causing Marfan’s syndrome and resulting in tall stature, joint hypermobility, and cardiac abnormalities. Mutations in collagen genes can lead to disorders like osteogenesis imperfecta, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and Alport disease. Trisomy 18, or Edwards’ syndrome, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 18 and results in severe developmental abnormalities and organ system dysfunction. Trisomy 21, or Down syndrome, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 and leads to characteristic physical features such as dysplastic ears and a high arched palate, as well as intellectual disability.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 47
Correct
-
A 2-year-old girl presents with bilious vomiting, abdominal distension and has been constipated since birth and did not pass meconium until she was 3 days old. Height and weight are at the fifth percentile. On examination, the abdomen is distended and a PR examination causes stool ejection. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hirschsprung disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung disease is a bowel disease that is present at birth and is more common in boys than girls, occurring five times more frequently. The typical symptoms include vomiting of bile, swelling of the abdomen, difficulty passing stool, and failure to pass meconium within the first two days of life. However, in some cases, the disease may not become apparent until later in childhood or adolescence. A colon biopsy is used to diagnose the condition, which reveals a segment of bowel that lacks nerve cells.
Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.
Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.
In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 48
Correct
-
A 14-year-old boy comes to the GP complaining of left groin pain and a limp that has been gradually developing over the past 5 weeks. He has no medical or family history and his right leg is unaffected. Upon examination, there is a noticeable decrease in internal rotation of the left leg, but no swelling or warmth around the joints. The patient's vital signs are normal, and his height is in the 50th percentile while his weight is in the 95th percentile. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
Explanation:Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is more likely to occur in obese boys aged 10-15, as obesity is a risk factor for this condition. It is caused by a weakness in the proximal femoral growth plate, which can also be due to endocrine disorders or rapid growth. Loss of internal rotation of the affected leg is a common finding during examination. Perthes’ disease can also cause groin pain, but it typically affects children aged 4 to 8 years old. Being male and having a lower socioeconomic status are also risk factors for this condition. Septic arthritis is unlikely in this case as the child’s vital signs are normal, and it usually presents with a hot and swollen joint and systemic illness. Developmental dysplasia of the hip is usually detected during routine hip examinations in the first year of life, using Barlow/Ortolani tests and assessing hip abduction.
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.
The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.
The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.
In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 49
Correct
-
A 5-day-old boy who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome and born at 39 weeks gestation is brought to the hospital with complaints of bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. He has not passed meconium yet.
What is the probable diagnosis for this infant?Your Answer: Hirschsprung's disease
Explanation:Delayed passage or failure to pass meconium is a typical indication of Hirschsprung’s disease, which often manifests shortly after birth. Other symptoms include a swollen belly, vomiting of bile, fatigue, and dehydration. This condition is more prevalent in males and is linked to Down’s syndrome.
Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.
Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.
In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 50
Correct
-
A 36 hour old neonate is presented to the GP by the parents due to the absence of bowel movement since birth at home and vomiting of yellow/green liquid after feeding. During the examination, the child's stomach appears significantly distended, but no palpable masses are detected. What is the gold standard diagnostic test for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rectal biopsy
Explanation:Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.
Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.
In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 51
Correct
-
A 3-year-old child has a 24-hour history of being generally unwell with a barking cough. Their parent says they make a loud noise when they breathe in and their symptoms are worse at night. They have a temperature of 38.5 °C.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Croup
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Child with Inspiratory Stridor and Barking Cough
Croup is a common respiratory illness in children under 2 years old, characterized by inspiratory stridor and a barking cough. Other symptoms include hoarseness, fever, and dyspnea, which are usually worse at night. The illness can last up to 7 days, with the first 24-48 hours being the most severe.
Asthma, on the other hand, presents differently with wheezing and chest tightness, rather than inspiratory stridor. While shortness of breath, especially at night, is a common symptom, it does not account for the fever.
Simple viral cough is a possible differential, but the absence of other systemic symptoms makes croup more likely.
Whooping cough is not indicated by this history.
Bronchiolitis usually presents less acutely, with difficulty feeding and general malaise during the incubation period, followed by dyspnea and wheezing. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 52
Correct
-
A 12-hour-old baby on the maternity ward has developed cyanosis, especially noticeable during crying, and a systolic murmur is audible on auscultation. The suspected diagnosis is transposition of the great arteries. What is the initial management for this infant?
Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1
Explanation:The first step in managing duct dependent congenital heart disease is to maintain the ductus arteriosus using prostaglandins. In newborns less than 24-hours-old, the most common cause of cyanosis is transposition of the great arteries (TGA). Administering prostaglandins is the initial emergency management for TGA, as it keeps the ductus arteriosus open, allowing oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to mix and ensuring tissues receive oxygen until definitive management can be performed. Echocardiograms are performed alongside prostaglandin administration. Ibuprofen is not used to keep the ductus arteriosus open, but rather to close it in newborns. Indomethacin, a type of NSAID, is used to close the ductus arteriosus in newborns. Intubation and ventilation are not the initial management for TGA, but may be used in extreme cases or for transport to a tertiary center. Definitive management for TGA involves performing surgery on the infant before they are 4-weeks-old, but prostaglandin E1 must be administered prior to surgical intervention to keep the ductus arteriosus patent.
Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries
Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in a lack of oxygenated blood flow to the body. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Children born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.
The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2 heart sound, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance.
To manage TGA, it is important to maintain the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. Surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition. Understanding the basic anatomical changes and clinical features of TGA can help with early diagnosis and appropriate management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 53
Correct
-
A toddler is brought to the emergency department after a near-drowning incident in a swimming pool. The child is unresponsive and requires intubation for airway management. Upon examination, the child is found to have global hypotonia and abnormal reflexes, indicating possible hypoxic brain injury. What is the most crucial intervention for this child?
Your Answer: Therapeutic cooling
Explanation:The most important intervention for reducing the likelihood of significant hypoxic-ischaemic brain injury in neonates with poor neurological status following a traumatic delivery and acidosis is therapeutic cooling at 33-35 degrees. This approach attempts to prevent severe brain damage. The use of sodium bicarbonate correction, blood transfusion, skin to skin contact with mum, and vitamin K are not essential or effective in reducing brain damage from hypoxic injury.
Therapeutic Cooling for Neonates with Hypoxic Brain Injury
Therapeutic cooling, also known as therapeutic hypothermia, is a medical procedure that involves deliberately lowering a patient’s body temperature to cool the brain and prevent brain damage. This procedure has been proposed for several therapeutic uses, including neuroprotection during open-heart and neurosurgical procedures, in patients following a return of spontaneous circulation post-ventricular fibrillation arrest, in patients with trauma head injuries, in patients who have suffered acute ischemic stroke, and in neonates with moderate to severe hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE). However, the only use whose efficacy has been consistently proven in existing literature is the use of therapeutic cooling in neonates.
The use of therapeutic cooling in carefully selected term neonates with moderate to severe HIE has been recommended as standard care by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). It has been shown in studies to decrease mortality and improve the neurological and neurodevelopmental outcomes of treated neonates. Hypoxic perinatal brain injury is caused by a decrease in the amount of oxygen supplied to an infant’s brain just prior to, or during the process of, labor. Neonates who survive a hypoxic brain injury can develop HIE, which occurs in an estimated 2.5/1000 term births in developed countries and 26/1000 term births in the developing world.
Therapeutic cooling remains the only intervention shown to reduce neuronal damage caused by perinatal hypoxia. The procedure is thought to influence the extent of secondary neuronal death in a multifactorial manner, although the exact way in which it achieves this is not fully understood. The procedure involves placing the infant on a cooling blanket or mattress circulated with coolant fluid or circulating cold water in a cap fitted around the head. Temperature is continuously monitored throughout the treatment using either a rectal or nasopharyngeal thermometer. Close surveillance of infants during the cooling process is required given the risk for complications of both HIE and the process of cooling itself.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 54
Correct
-
A 7-year-old boy presents to his GP with recurrent head lice. The GP notices that the child has had several attendances to the Emergency Department with asthma exacerbations, but has not attended an asthma review for several years and his inhalers have not been ordered for several months.
When would a social services referral be indicated in the first instance?Your Answer: If you suspect a child is being maltreated or you feel the family could benefit from some extra support
Explanation:When to Make a Referral to Social Services for Child Protection
As a healthcare professional, it is important to know when to make a referral to social services for child protection. Here are some situations that require immediate action:
1. Suspected maltreatment or need for extra support: If you suspect a child is being maltreated or you feel the family could benefit from some extra support, a referral must be made urgently to social services. Follow up within 48 hours with written confirmation.
2. Immediate danger: If you feel a child needs to be removed from premises immediately for their safety, inform the police immediately. Once the child is considered to be in a place of safety, social services will be informed.
3. Recent sexual assault: If the child has disclosed a recent sexual assault, they would need to be referred urgently for forensic examination. Following this, social services will be likely to be informed.
4. Discussion with safeguarding lead: If you feel confident in your judgement, you do not have to seek advice from the safeguarding lead before every referral. If you suspect a child is at risk of harm, it is your responsibility to take action to ensure the child’s safety.
5. Consent of parent and/or patient: Always try to gain consent from the parent or patient before making a referral to social services. If consent is refused, the referral can still be made, but it is important that the patient/parent is fully informed of your actions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 55
Correct
-
A worried 28-year-old mother expresses concern about a lump that has emerged on her infant's head, stating with certainty that it was not present at birth and was only noticed half an hour ago. The baby was delivered vaginally with forceps 10 hours ago at 39 weeks gestation.
Upon examination, there is a clearly defined, soft swelling that does not cross suture lines and is located on the parietal bone. The baby appears to be in good health otherwise, with normal skin color and tone, as well as regular vital signs.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cephalhaematoma
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the newborn baby’s well-demarcated, fluctuant swelling that appeared two days after birth is cephalohaematoma. This is a haemorrhage between the skull and periosteum that occurs when blood vessels crossing the periosteum rupture. The swelling is limited by the individual bones and does not cross suture lines. It may take months to resolve as the blood clot is reabsorbed. Cephalohaematoma is more common in prolonged and/or instrumental deliveries and may lead to jaundice, anaemia or hypotension if severe. It may also indicate a linear skull fracture or risk of infection. Caput succedaneum, chignon, normal skull shape, and subgaleal haemorrhage are less likely diagnoses.
A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.
In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 56
Correct
-
What feature is typical of patent ductus arteriosus in children?
Your Answer: It causes a murmur which is typically loudest in systole
Explanation:Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is a condition where the ductus arteriosus, which normally closes within a month after birth, remains open. This duct is responsible for transmitting blood from the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch in fetal circulation. However, after birth, the duct should close as the body’s prostaglandin levels decrease, resulting in the formation of the ligamentum arteriosum. In PDA, the duct remains open, creating a channel between the pulmonary and systemic circulations. The severity of the condition depends on the size of the duct, with larger PDAs causing increased pulmonary artery pressures that may lead to Eisenmenger syndrome.
Most PDAs are asymptomatic or present with cardiac failure. A continuous murmur, louder in systole and best heard under the left clavicle, is a typical sign. Patients with PDA may also have a large pulse pressure, collapsing pulse, and prominent femoral pulses. Treatment options include NSAIDs to promote duct closure or IV prostaglandin for neonates with duct-dependent cardiac lesions. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for dental extraction, although the risk of bacterial endocarditis is relatively low. Asymptomatic PDAs usually undergo closure via cardiac catheterization and the use of a coil within a year.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 57
Correct
-
A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the paediatric emergency department. She has a fever and he has noticed raised nodes on her neck. Despite giving her paracetamol and ibuprofen, her temperature is not decreasing. Her lips have become extremely dry and cracked, and her tongue is red and slightly swollen. The father has also noticed that her feet are now red and puffy, and she is developing a widespread fine rash. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Kawasaki's disease
Explanation:An eruption characterized by tender papules and vesicles can develop on the hands and feet. Measles typically presents with a fever and symptoms of a cold. Koplik’s spots, which are bright red with a bluish white center, may appear on the oral mucosa. A maculopapular rash usually appears 3-5 days later. Parvovirus B19 is commonly referred to as slapped cheek syndrome. Scarlet fever may also cause an inflamed tongue, but it would not account for the red and swollen feet that later peel.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 58
Correct
-
Which of the features below, following a head injury, is not an indication for an immediate CT head scan in adolescents?
Your Answer: A single, discrete episode of vomiting
Explanation:Although immediate CT is not necessary, patients should be admitted and closely monitored with a low threshold.
Criteria for Immediate CT Scan of Head in Paediatric Head Injury Cases
Head injuries in children can be serious and require immediate medical attention. In some cases, a CT scan of the head may be necessary to assess the extent of the injury. The following criteria are used to determine when an immediate CT scan is required:
– Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
– Amnesia (antegrade or retrograde) lasting more than 5 minutes
– Abnormal drowsiness
– Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
– Clinical suspicion of non-accidental injury
– Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
– GCS less than 14, or for a baby under 1 year GCS (paediatric) less than 15, on assessment in the emergency department
– Suspicion of open or depressed skull injury or tense fontanelle
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– Focal neurological deficit
– If under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head
– Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident either as pedestrian, cyclist or vehicle occupant, fall from a height of greater than 3 m, high-speed injury from a projectile or an object)It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to promptly order a CT scan when necessary to ensure the best possible outcome for the child.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 59
Correct
-
A 6-year-old Chinese boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents because his skin and face turned blue after playing with his friends. The boy was born in China, and soon after his birth he and his parents moved to the United Kingdom. An ultrasound examination revealed a large gap in the upper portion of the ventricular septum and a slightly enlarged right ventricle. The doctor explained to the parents the severity of the disease and the importance of a surgical intervention.
If the parents decide not to go ahead with surgery to correct this condition, which of the following is most likely to happen to their child in the future?Your Answer: Pulmonary vascular hypertrophy with shunt reversal leading to congestive heart failure
Explanation:Complications of Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a condition where there is an opening in the septum between the left and right ventricles of the heart. This can cause a shunt of blood from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, leading to complications if left untreated.
Pulmonary vascular hypertrophy with shunt reversal leading to congestive heart failure is a common complication of VSD. If the defect is not corrected, it can cause compensatory pulmonary vascular hypertrophy, leading to pulmonary hypertension and shunt reversal (right to left), known as Eisenmenger’s syndrome. This can ultimately lead to congestive heart failure.
Dilated cardiomyopathy is not a complication of VSD, as it is a condition where the heart becomes enlarged and weakened.
Development of a persistent foramen ovale is also not a complication of VSD, as it is a condition where the foramen ovale, a hole between the atria of the heart, fails to close after birth.
Atrial fibrillation is not a complication of VSD, as it is a condition where the heart beats irregularly.
Progressive lengthening of the PR interval is also not a complication of VSD, as it is a condition where the electrical signal that controls the heartbeat is delayed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 60
Correct
-
Sarah is a 3-month-old baby who was brought in by her father. He is extremely worried as his baby is generally unwell. Sarah has not been feeding well over the past 24 hours and has been very irritable. Her father had noted a fever of 38.5ºC this morning and this prompted him to seek medical attention. Her nappies continued to appear wet over this time and her father noted she had vomited once at home. No other symptoms were noted without cough.
On examination, Sarah's general tone is maintained and she does not appear to display any signs of hypotonia. She is moving all 4 limbs equally. The chest remains clear. An area of non-blanching petechiae was noted.
A lumbar puncture was performed with the following results:
Parameter Value Normal range
White cell count 200 cells <3
Neutrophils 180 cells 0
Lymphocytes 20 cells <22
Protein 1.8g/L <1g/L
CSF: serum glucose ratio 0.3 >=0.6
What is the appropriate treatment for Sarah's likely diagnosis?Your Answer: IV cefotaxime and IV amoxicillin
Explanation:Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 61
Correct
-
A 14-year-old girl from Germany comes to the clinic complaining of chronic diarrhoea that has been ongoing for the past 10 months. She also reports having foul smelling stools. Her medical history includes recurrent chest infections since childhood and a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Regional research programs and voluntary early-detection programs test a significant number of neonates for cystic fibrosis. While coeliac disease and type 1 diabetes mellitus are often associated due to their auto-immune nature, the recurring chest infections are not indicative of coeliac disease.
Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Characteristics
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but there are some common features that are often present. In the neonatal period, around 20% of infants with cystic fibrosis may experience meconium ileus, which is a blockage in the intestine caused by thick, sticky mucous. Prolonged jaundice may also occur, but less commonly. Recurrent chest infections are a common symptom, affecting around 40% of patients. Malabsorption is another common feature, with around 30% of patients experiencing steatorrhoea (excessive fat in the stool) and failure to thrive. Liver disease may also occur in around 10% of patients.
It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed with cystic fibrosis during newborn screening or early childhood, around 5% of patients are not diagnosed until after the age of 18. Other features of cystic fibrosis may include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools), nasal polyps, male infertility, and female subfertility. Overall, the symptoms and characteristics of cystic fibrosis can vary widely, but early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the condition and improve quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 62
Correct
-
A 31-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant reaches out to you seeking details about the newborn hearing screening program. She expresses concerns about potential harm to her baby's ears and is uncertain about giving consent for the screening. What specific test is provided to all newborns as part of this screening program?
Your Answer: Automated otoacoustic emission test
Explanation:The automated otoacoustic emission test is the appropriate method for screening newborns for hearing problems. This test involves inserting a soft-tipped earpiece into the baby’s outer ear and emitting clicking sounds to detect a healthy cochlea. The auditory brainstem response test may be used if the baby does not pass the automated otoacoustic emission test. Play audiometry is only suitable for children between two and five years old, while pure tone audiometry is used for older children and adults and is not appropriate for newborns.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 63
Correct
-
You are in a genetics clinic and explaining to a couple the reason why their daughter has Prader-Willi syndrome. What is the term used to describe the mode of inheritance for Prader-Willi syndrome?
Your Answer: Imprinting
Explanation:Prader-Willi is an instance of imprinting, where the patient does not inherit the gene from their father. Although the mother’s gene may be normal, the phenotype can still occur, resulting in learning difficulties, hypotonia, obesity, and an insatiable appetite.
Autosomal recessive occurs when a person inherits a defective gene from both parents, leading to the development of a particular condition. Cystic fibrosis is an example of this.
Autosomal dominant only requires the inheritance of one defective gene from either parent to develop a condition. Huntington’s disease is an example of this.
Pleiotropy refers to a single gene causing multiple clinical effects that may seem unrelated when defective.
Variable expressivity occurs when an inherited genetic defect results in varying levels of clinical effects.
Prader-Willi Syndrome: A Genetic Imprinting Disorder
Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15. This disorder is an example of genetic imprinting, where the phenotype of the individual depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father. If the gene is deleted from the father, it results in Prader-Willi syndrome, while if it is deleted from the mother, it results in Angelman syndrome.
There are two main causes of Prader-Willi syndrome: microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13, which accounts for 70% of cases, and maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15. Individuals with Prader-Willi syndrome exhibit a range of symptoms, including hypotonia during infancy, dysmorphic features, short stature, hypogonadism and infertility, learning difficulties, childhood obesity, and behavioral problems in adolescence.
In summary, Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that results from the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15. It is an example of genetic imprinting, and the phenotype of the individual depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father. Individuals with Prader-Willi syndrome exhibit a range of symptoms, and the disorder can be caused by microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13 or maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 64
Correct
-
A three-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a high fever of 39ºC that has persisted for the past five days. The parents are worried as they have noticed redness in the child's eyes, swelling in the neck, and a new rash.
During the examination, the child is found to have a widespread maculopapular rash and bilateral conjunctivitis. Additionally, there is unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy, cracked and erythematosus lips, and a strawberry tongue.
What is the initial treatment that should be given to this three-year-old child?Your Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Kawasaki disease is a systemic vasculitis that typically affects children under the age of 5. Symptoms include a fever lasting over 5 days, bilateral non-purulent conjunctivitis, a rash, mucosal erythema with a strawberry tongue, and unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. In some cases, swelling of the hands and feet can occur, followed by desquamation in the second week. If left untreated, up to one-quarter of patients can develop coronary aneurysms. The main goal of treatment is to reduce the risk of cardiac complications. In the UK, the standard treatment is intravenous immunoglobulin and high dose aspirin, despite the fact that aspirin is usually contraindicated in children. Benzylpenicillin is not indicated in the treatment of Kawasaki disease. Conservative management is also not appropriate, as specific treatment is required to reduce inflammation and prevent the risk of coronary complications. Corticosteroids may be used as a second-line treatment if the patient does not respond to intravenous immunoglobulins.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 65
Correct
-
A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father following a 2-day history of a non-productive cough. Her father denies any recent viral illness.
On examination, the patient has no accessory muscle usage and is afebrile. On auscultation, she is noted to have a left-sided wheeze without crepitations. The patient has been developing normally and has never had any respiratory problems before. She has no significant past medical or family history. Her immunisation records are up to date.
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Inhaled foreign body
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Child with Respiratory Symptoms
When a child presents with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of a short duration of non-productive cough, an audible wheeze, and unilateral wheeze on auscultation, an inhaled foreign body should be considered as a possible cause. Other potential diagnoses include croup, bronchiolitis, pneumonia, and asthma.
Croup, caused by a virus such as the parainfluenza virus, is characterized by a barking-seal-like cough and may be accompanied by stridor. Bronchiolitis, on the other hand, typically follows a coryzal period of cough and/or cold and causes respiratory distress as evidenced by accessory muscle usage, nasal flare, and tachypnea. It is also characterized by widespread inspiratory crepitations.
Pneumonia should also be included in the differential diagnosis, but the lack of respiratory distress and fever, as well as the absence of a productive cough, make it less likely. Asthma, which is rarely diagnosed in children of this age, would present with sudden onset respiratory distress and widespread wheezing.
In summary, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and clinical findings is necessary to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 66
Correct
-
A 6-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department with a high fever, difficulty breathing, severe sore throat, and drooling of saliva. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Call the ear, nose and throat (ENT) surgeon/senior anaesthetist to secure her airway
Explanation:Managing Acute Epiglottitis: Prioritizing Airway Security
Acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to secure the patient’s airway. While medical therapies and investigations are important, the priority should be given to securing the airway via endo-/nasotracheal intubation or tracheostomy guided by a senior anaesthetist and ENT surgeon. Oral instrumentation is contraindicated until the airway has been secured. Lateral neck X-ray may be useful in diagnosing less acute presentations, but in this case, the child requires intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and admission to an Intensive Therapy Unit/High-dependency Unit bed in the hospital. Intubating a child with acute epiglottitis can be challenging and should only be undertaken by an experienced anaesthetist.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 67
Correct
-
A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father. For the past few days, she has been experiencing pain while walking. Her father is concerned as this has never happened before and he cannot think of any reason for it.
During the examination, the girl refuses to walk. Her vital signs are stable, except for a temperature of 38ºC. On examining her legs, there is no visible inflammation, but the left hip is tender. When attempting to move the left leg, the child screams in pain. The right leg appears to be normal. She has no medical history and is not taking any medications.
What is the most appropriate management for the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Advise to attend the emergency department
Explanation:If a child is experiencing hip pain or a limp and has a fever, it is important to refer them for same-day assessment, even if the suspected diagnosis is transient synovitis.
The correct course of action in this case is to advise the patient to attend the emergency department. Although the patient appears to be well, the presence of a fever raises concerns about septic arthritis, which can cause long-term complications. Further investigations cannot be performed in a general practice setting, making it necessary to seek urgent medical attention.
Advising the patient to attend a local minor injury unit is not appropriate, as the staff there would most likely transfer the patient to an emergency department, causing unnecessary delays. Similarly, arranging an urgent orthopaedic outpatient appointment is not appropriate in this acute situation.
Prescribing aspirin and providing a safety net is not a suitable option, as aspirin should never be given to children due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. It is also unwise to exclude septic arthritis without further supporting evidence.
Finally, growing pains are an unlikely diagnosis in this case, as they are typically bilateral and do not interfere with daily activities.
Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 68
Correct
-
A 6-day-old baby boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his parents due to his projectile vomiting and failure to thrive. You arrange a blood gas reading.
What is the metabolic disorder likely to develop in this patient?Your Answer: Hypochloreamic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:Acid-Base Imbalance in Infantile Pyloric Stenosis
Infantile pyloric stenosis is a condition that causes projectile vomiting on feeding in newborns. This condition leads to a specific type of acid-base imbalance known as hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. The loss of hydrochloric acid due to persistent vomiting results in a high pH and bicarbonate level, and a low chloride level.
The initial treatment for this condition involves resuscitation with sodium chloride, followed by surgical management once the chloride level has reached a near-normal level. It is important to note that persistent vomiting would not cause metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, hypochloremic acidosis, hyperchloremic acidosis, or hyperchloremic alkalosis. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial in preventing complications associated with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 69
Correct
-
A 38-year-old woman has just found out that she has Huntington disease and is worried that she may have passed it on to her children. The father of the children does not have the disease. What is the probability that each of her children has inherited the condition?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant condition, which implies that the patient has one normal and one faulty copy of the gene. The faulty copy is dominant and causes the disease. If an affected patient has a child, the child has a 50% chance of inheriting the faulty gene and developing the condition, and a 50% chance of inheriting the normal gene and not developing the disease.
Autosomal Dominant Diseases: Characteristics and Complicating Factors
Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited from one parent who carries the abnormal gene. In these diseases, both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and both males and females can be affected. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.
However, there are complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Non-penetrance is a phenomenon where an individual carries the abnormal gene but does not show any clinical signs or symptoms of the disease. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis do not show any symptoms despite carrying the abnormal gene. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, where a new mutation occurs in one of the gametes. This can result in the disease appearing in a child even if both parents do not carry the abnormal gene. For instance, 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.
In summary, autosomal dominant diseases have distinct characteristics such as their inheritance pattern and the fact that affected individuals can pass on the disease. However, complicating factors such as non-penetrance and spontaneous mutation can affect the expression of the disease and make it more difficult to predict its occurrence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 70
Correct
-
A preterm baby is admitted to the hospital with signs of heart failure shortly after birth. The infant is experiencing poor feeding, excessive sweating, and fatigue, resulting in inadequate weight gain. The parents also report irritability and episodes of apnea. During the examination, a continuous machinery murmur and bounding peripheral pulses are detected. An echocardiogram reveals left ventricular enlargement and a shunt between two of the great vessels, indicating a possible patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). What non-surgical intervention can be utilized to manage this patient?
Your Answer: Indomethacin
Explanation:To promote duct closure in patent ductus arteriosus, indomethacin or ibuprofen is used.
The incomplete closure of the ductus arteriosus after birth is known as patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which is causing the patient’s symptoms. During fetal development, this vessel allows blood to bypass the immature fetal lungs. However, if the duct remains open after birth, a large amount of blood can bypass the functioning lungs, resulting in reduced oxygen saturation and a murmur.
Prostaglandin E2 maintains the ductus arteriosus, so medications like indomethacin or ibuprofen, which inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, can be effective in closing the duct. However, in some cases, surgery may be necessary to close particularly large PDAs.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 71
Correct
-
A 9-year-old girl presents to a general practice appointment with her mother complaining of right-sided hip pain and occasional limp for the past month. The patient is feeling well, has no fever, and is in the 90th percentile for weight. She was born via spontaneous vertex vaginal delivery at term and had a normal newborn physical examination. On examination, there is limited range of motion in her right hip. A frog-leg hip x-ray is ordered, which reveals sclerosis of the right upper femoral epiphysis and moderate resorption of the femoral head. What is the most accurate diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: The condition is 5 times more common in boys
Explanation:Perthes disease is a condition that primarily affects one hip, with only a minority of patients experiencing it in both hips. It is not associated with obesity, unlike slipped capital femoral epiphysis which is more common in overweight children. The management of Perthes disease typically involves conservative measures such as casting or bracing, although surgery may be necessary for older children or those with significant damage to the hip socket. The use of a Pavlik harness is not appropriate for treating Perthes disease, as it is typically used for developmental dysplasia of the hip.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 72
Correct
-
A 10-year-old girl is brought to the Accident and Emergency department by her parents. On a background of high-grade fever and lethargy over the last 12 hours, the child had an episode of jerking of the limbs, frothing at the mouth and incontinence of urine. She has failed to recover full consciousness after the episode. At presentation, she is poorly responsive to name-calling, but responsive to pain. She is however maintaining her airway and oxygen saturation is 95% on air. Limited neurological examination is unremarkable. Non-contrast computerised tomography (CT) scan of the brain is normal. Lumbar puncture is performed and reveals a slightly raised opening pressure, moderately increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein, CSF lymphocytosis and normal glucose.
What is the most important step in management?Your Answer: IV acyclovir
Explanation:The child in question is suffering from viral encephalitis, which is typically treated with IV acyclovir. The recommended dosage is 5 mg/kg every 8 hours for 5 days, or 10 mg/kg every 8 hours for at least 14 days in cases of encephalitis. Encephalitis should be suspected when a patient presents with altered behavior, decreased consciousness, focal neurology, or seizures, along with a viral prodrome of fever and lethargy. The most common cause of encephalitis is the herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1), with other common causes including cytomegalovirus (CMV), Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), and Japanese encephalitis. Diagnostic tests should include a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, inflammatory markers, blood glucose, blood cultures, and serum for viral polymerase chain reaction (PCR). A CT scan of the brain is necessary to rule out structural brain lesions and raised intracranial pressure. Lumbar puncture is then performed. Mortality in untreated viral encephalitis is high, so IV acyclovir should be started within 30 minutes of the patient arriving. Intubation and ventilation may be necessary in severe cases, but in this case, acyclovir is the most appropriate treatment. While MRI may aid in diagnosis, CSF analysis is sufficient, and IV cefotaxime and IV mannitol are not the most urgent steps in management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 73
Correct
-
A 3-month-old infant is brought in with progressive noisy breathing that is particularly noticeable during feeding. The baby is below average in weight gain and has a poor appetite. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Laryngomalacia
Explanation:The primary reason for stridor in infants is laryngomalacia, which is characterized by a soft epiglottis that collapses into the airway during inhalation. Although it typically resolves on its own, if the stridor worsens and causes respiratory distress or hinders feeding, surgery may be necessary to enhance the airway.
Stridor in Children: Causes and Symptoms
Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is commonly seen in children. There are several causes of stridor in children, including croup, acute epiglottitis, inhaled foreign body, and laryngomalacia. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract and is characterized by stridor, barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms. Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, which can lead to airway obstruction. Inhaled foreign body can cause sudden onset of coughing, choking, vomiting, and stridor, depending on the site of impaction. Laryngomalacia is a congenital abnormality of the larynx that typically presents at 4 weeks of age with stridor.
It is important to recognize the symptoms of stridor in children and seek prompt medical attention, especially if the child appears unwell or toxic. Treatment may include medications, such as corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine, or in severe cases, intubation or tracheostomy. Prevention measures, such as vaccination against Haemophilus influenzae type B, can also help reduce the incidence of acute epiglottitis. Overall, early recognition and management of stridor in children can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 74
Incorrect
-
A 14-month-old boy is brought to the children's emergency department by his parents who report loss of consciousness and seizure activity. Paramedics state that he was not seizing when they arrived. He has a temperature of 38.5ºC and has been unwell recently. His other observations are normal. He has no known past medical history.
After investigations, the child is diagnosed with a febrile convulsion. What advice should you give his parents regarding this new diagnosis?Your Answer: Call an ambulance only when a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 15 minutes
Correct Answer: Call an ambulance only when a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 5 minutes
Explanation:Febrile convulsions are a common occurrence in young children, with up to 5% of children experiencing them. However, only a small percentage of these children will develop epilepsy. Risk factors for febrile convulsions include a family history of the condition and a background of neurodevelopmental disorder. The use of regular antipyretics has not been proven to decrease the likelihood of febrile convulsions.
Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 75
Correct
-
You are a nurse in the pediatric ward and you assess a 7-year-old girl with a sprained ankle. During your examination, you observe some bruises on her arms. When you ask her about it, she becomes quiet and avoids eye contact. Her father quickly intervenes and explains that she fell off her bike. However, you have a gut feeling that something is not right. What steps do you take next?
Your Answer: Put the child's arm in a cast and admit them, then contact child protection
Explanation:The GMC’s good medical practice provides guidelines for safeguarding children and young people. It emphasizes the importance of considering all possible causes of an injury or signs of abuse or neglect, including rare genetic conditions. However, the clinical needs of the child must not be overlooked in the process. If concerns persist after discussing with parents, it is necessary to report to the appropriate agency. In this scenario, delaying action while the child is under your care is not acceptable. Therefore, contacting child protection would be the appropriate course of action.
NICE Guidelines for Suspecting Child Maltreatment
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on when to suspect child maltreatment, which includes physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that should raise suspicion of abuse, with selected features highlighted for each type of abuse.
For neglect, features such as severe and persistent infestations, failure to administer essential prescribed treatment, and inadequate provision of food and living environment that affects the child’s health should be considered as abuse. On the other hand, neglect should be suspected when parents persistently fail to obtain treatment for tooth decay, attend essential follow-up appointments, or engage with child health promotion.
For sexual abuse, persistent or recurrent genital or anal symptoms associated with a behavioral or emotional change, sexualized behavior in a prepubertal child, and STI in a child younger than 12 years without evidence of vertical or blood transmission should be considered as abuse. Suspected sexual abuse should be reported when there is a gaping anus in a child during examination without a medical explanation, pregnancy in a young woman aged 13-15 years, or hepatitis B or anogenital warts in a child aged 13-15 years.
For physical abuse, any serious or unusual injury with an absent or unsuitable explanation, bruises, lacerations, or burns in a non-mobile child, and one or more fractures with an unsuitable explanation, including fractures of different ages and X-ray evidence of occult fractures, should be considered as abuse. Physical abuse should be suspected when there is an oral injury in a child with an absent or suitable explanation, cold injuries or hypothermia in a child without a suitable explanation, or a human bite mark not by a young child.
Overall, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying signs of child maltreatment and report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
You are a junior doctor in paediatrics. You are called to attend an emergency Caesarean section for a baby at 32 weeks’ gestation due to fetal distress. The baby is delivered and does not cry immediately. The cord is cut, and the baby is dried and placed on the Resuscitaire®. There is no spontaneous respiratory effort from the baby who is pale and floppy, with a heart rate of 30 bpm.
When would it be appropriate to start chest compressions in a premature neonate?Your Answer: After a total of ten inflation breaths and 30 seconds of effective ventilation breaths if the baby’s heart rate is < 60 bpm
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Neonatal Resuscitation Guidelines for Heart Rate and Ventilation
In neonatal resuscitation, it is important to follow guidelines for heart rate and ventilation to ensure the best possible outcome for the baby. Here are the guidelines for different scenarios:
– After a total of ten inflation breaths and 30 seconds of effective ventilation breaths if the baby’s heart rate is < 60 bpm: Chest compressions are indicated at a ratio of 3:1 (compression:ventilation). The heart rate should be checked every 30 seconds. If the heart rate is not detectable or very slow (<60), consider venous access and drugs.
– After ten inflation breaths if the baby’s heart rate is < 120 bpm: Give 30 seconds of effective ventilation breaths before starting compressions if the heart rate is < 60 bpm.
– After five inflation breaths if the baby is not spontaneously breathing: Ventilate for 30 seconds before starting compressions, unless there is an underlying cardiac cause for the cardiorespiratory arrest.
– After ten inflation breaths and two minutes of effective ventilation breaths if the baby’s heart rate is < 60 bpm: This scenario is not applicable as compressions should have been started after the initial 30 seconds of ventilation.
– Before any inflation breaths if the baby’s heart rate is < 60 bpm: Give 30 seconds of effective ventilation breaths before starting compressions if ten inflation breaths are not successful and the heart rate is still < 60 bpm. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 77
Correct
-
A full-term female neonate has bilateral palpable flank masses and oliguria and is in respiratory distress. The mother had little prenatal care, but a third-trimester ultrasound right before delivery showed severe oligohydramnios. An ultrasound of the neonate now shows multiple renal cysts and hepatic fibrosis.
What is the most likely cause of these findings?Your Answer: Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Neonatal Renal Conditions: A Comparison
Two common neonatal renal conditions are autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) and renal agenesis. ARPKD is characterized by the replacement of renal parenchyma with cysts, leading to renal failure and hepatic fibrosis. This condition typically presents in the neonatal period and can cause death perinatally or within the first year of life. In utero, ARPKD can cause oligohydramnios and pulmonary hypoplasia. On the other hand, renal agenesis is lethal in utero and is characterized by the absence of one or both kidneys.
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is another renal condition that manifests later in life, typically between the ages of 15-30. It is caused by a mutation in ADPKD1 or ADPKD2 and is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. ADPKD is characterized by renal failure and hypertension, as well as other associated findings such as liver cysts, berry aneurysms of the circle of Willis in the brain, and mitral valve prolapse.
Potter syndrome refers to oligohydramnios and resultant pulmonary hypoplasia seen with in-utero renal failure. This condition is a result of an underlying diagnosis, such as ARPKD.
Nephroblastoma is a rare condition that can present as a palpable flank mass in infants, but it is very uncommon in neonates. Renal ultrasound would show a solid mass, rather than multiple cysts.
In summary, neonatal renal conditions can present with various symptoms and have different underlying causes. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage these conditions to prevent further complications and improve outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 78
Correct
-
A 3-year-old girl is presented to the clinic by her mother complaining of ear pain and fever. During the examination of the chest, a murmur is detected. Which of the following features is not in line with an innocent murmur?
Your Answer: Diastolic murmur
Explanation:Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. There are different types of innocent murmurs, including ejection murmurs, venous hums, and Still’s murmur. Ejection murmurs are caused by turbulent blood flow at the outflow tract of the heart, while venous hums are due to turbulent blood flow in the great veins returning to the heart. Still’s murmur is a low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge.
An innocent ejection murmur is characterized by a soft-blowing murmur in the pulmonary area or a short buzzing murmur in the aortic area. It may vary with posture and is localized without radiation. There is no diastolic component, no thrill, and no added sounds such as clicks. The child is usually asymptomatic, and there are no other abnormalities.
Overall, innocent murmurs are not a cause for concern and do not require treatment. However, if a child has symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fainting, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out any underlying heart conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 79
Correct
-
A 10-year-old boy is seen in the paediatric clinic for a follow-up appointment. His standing height is below the 0.4th centile, while his sitting height is on the 9th centile. These measurements have been consistent with their respective centiles for the past three years. What genetic diagnosis is most probable for this boy?
Your Answer: Achondroplasia
Explanation:Achondroplasia and Other Causes of Short Stature
Achondroplasia is a genetic condition that affects bone growth, resulting in disproportionately short limbs and a greater sitting height compared to standing height. This is because the condition impairs the growth of cartilaginous bone, leading to much shorter arms and legs than the spine. Measuring sitting height can help estimate axial skeleton growth compared to standing height, which includes the limbs.
Other causes of short stature include Down’s syndrome and Noonan’s syndrome, which result in proportionate short stature and a similar standing and sitting centile. However, Fragile X syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome typically do not cause short stature. It is important to understand the underlying causes of short stature in order to provide appropriate medical care and support for individuals affected by these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 80
Correct
-
A mother brings her 8-week-old baby to the GP clinic for their routine 7-week check-up. The baby appears happy and responsive during the assessment. During the examination, you observe weak femoral pulses on both sides. The rest of the examination is normal.
What is the most suitable course of action to take?Your Answer: Same day discussion with paediatrics
Explanation:If a baby’s femoral pulses are absent or weak during their 6-8 week check, it is important to discuss this immediately with paediatrics. Any signs of a critical or major congenital heart abnormality should also be seen urgently by a specialist. Advising the mother that these findings are normal would be inappropriate, as they are abnormal. While safety netting is important, the child should still be seen urgently by the appropriate specialist. Taking the child to the emergency department is not the best option, as they may not be equipped to deal with this issue and will likely refer to the paediatrics team themselves. Referring routinely to paediatrics or making an appointment in 2 weeks would waste valuable time in a potentially unwell child who needs urgent referral.
Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 81
Correct
-
A five-year-old boy is rescued with his asylum-seeking parents from a boat off the coast. The child is visibly malnourished, and his parents reveal that due to conflict in their home country, he has spent most of his life hidden indoors and in shelters.
Upon skeletal examination, the child displays bossing of the forehead, bowing of his legs, and significant kyphoscoliosis of the spine. What radiological feature is commonly associated with this condition?Your Answer: Widening of joints
Explanation:The widening of wrist joints in a child may indicate the presence of Rickets, a bone disease caused by vitamin D deficiency. This condition results in poorly mineralized bones during growth and development. Radiologically, Rickets is characterized by excess non-mineralized osteoid at the growth plate, leading to joint widening. Ballooning, osteolysis, periarticular erosions, and sclerotic rims are not associated with Rickets, but rather with other bone conditions such as rare bone malignancies, Paget’s disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout.
Understanding Rickets: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Rickets is a condition that occurs when bones in developing and growing bodies are inadequately mineralized, resulting in soft and easily deformed bones. This condition is usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. In adults, a similar condition called osteomalacia can occur.
There are several factors that can predispose individuals to rickets, including a dietary deficiency of calcium, prolonged breastfeeding, unsupplemented cow’s milk formula, and lack of sunlight. Symptoms of rickets include aching bones and joints, lower limb abnormalities such as bow legs or knock knees, swelling at the costochondral junction (known as the rickety rosary), kyphoscoliosis, and soft skull bones in early life (known as craniotabes).
To diagnose rickets, doctors may perform tests to measure vitamin D levels, serum calcium levels, and alkaline phosphatase levels. Treatment for rickets typically involves oral vitamin D supplementation.
In summary, rickets is a condition that affects bone development and can lead to soft and easily deformed bones. It is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D and can be predisposed by several factors. Symptoms include bone and joint pain, limb abnormalities, and swelling at the costochondral junction. Treatment involves oral vitamin D supplementation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 82
Correct
-
A toddler appears normal during mealtime and is given her food to eat. While eating, she develops respiratory distress with choking and spits out much of the food through her nose and mouth. The caregiver stops the meal and seeks medical evaluation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Oesophageal atresia
Explanation:There are several congenital conditions that can affect the digestive system in newborns. Oesophageal atresia is a rare condition where the oesophageal tube is interrupted, leading to a blind-ended pouch. This can cause aspiration of milk in the lungs and respiratory distress. Duodenal atresia is another congenital condition that can cause obstruction in the duodenum. It is usually detected before birth and is associated with polyhydramnios. Annular pancreas is a rare disorder where a ring of pancreas surrounds the second part of the duodenum, leading to duodenal obstruction. Infantile pyloric stenosis is a result of a hypertrophied and hyperplastic pyloric muscle, causing gastric outlet obstruction. Midgut malrotation is a disrupted development of the bowel during embryonic development, which can present with an acute volvulus in the first year of life. These conditions require prompt medical attention and may require surgical intervention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 83
Correct
-
A 6-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her parents for a follow-up appointment. She has been experiencing nocturnal enuresis for the past eight months. During her last visit four months ago, she was wetting the bed six to seven nights a week. You advised her parents to limit her fluid intake before bedtime, establish a toileting routine before bed, and implement a reward system for positive behavior. Despite following these recommendations, she continues to wet the bed six to seven nights a week. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her nocturnal enuresis?
Your Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:When general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment option for nocturnal enuresis. However, there are exceptions to this, such as when the child and family find the alarm unacceptable or if the child is over 8 years old and needs rapid short-term reduction in enuresis. Additionally, it is important to note that enuresis alarms have a lower relapse rate compared to other treatments.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 84
Correct
-
Sophie is a 6-year-old girl who requires a blood transfusion after a serious accident. Her condition is critical and she needs urgent resuscitation. Sophie has suffered significant blood loss and will not survive without a transfusion. However, her parents are Jehovah's Witnesses and are present, but they refuse to provide consent for the blood transfusion. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Give the blood transfusion because it is a life threatening situation and it is in James' best interest
Explanation:According to the GMC guidelines, if a child lacks the capacity to make a decision and both parents refuse treatment due to their religious or moral beliefs, healthcare professionals must discuss their concerns and explore treatment options that align with their beliefs. The child should also be involved in a manner that is appropriate for their age and maturity. If an agreement cannot be reached after discussing all options, and treatment is necessary to preserve life or prevent serious health deterioration, healthcare professionals should seek advice on approaching the court. In emergency situations, treatment that is immediately necessary to save a life or prevent health deterioration can be provided without consent or, in rare cases, against the wishes of a person with parental responsibility.
Understanding Consent in Children
The issue of consent in children can be complex and confusing. However, there are some general guidelines to follow. If a patient is under 16 years old, they may be able to consent to treatment if they are deemed competent. This is determined by the Fraser guidelines, which were previously known as Gillick competence. However, even if a child is competent, they cannot refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest.
For patients between the ages of 16 and 18, it is generally assumed that they are competent to give consent to treatment. Patients who are 18 years or older can consent to or refuse treatment.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years old, the Fraser Guidelines outline specific requirements that must be met. These include ensuring that the young person understands the advice given by the healthcare professional, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to engage in sexual activity with or without treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without treatment. Ultimately, the young person’s best interests must be taken into account when deciding whether to provide contraceptive advice or treatment, with or without parental consent.
In summary, understanding consent in children requires careful consideration of age, competence, and best interests. The Fraser Guidelines provide a useful framework for healthcare professionals to follow when providing treatment and advice to young patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 85
Correct
-
A 15-year-old boy is presented to the General Practitioner by his mother who reports that he has been having difficulties at school for the past year. The patient has a medical history of recurrent otitis media. The mother mentions that her nephew and niece have both required extra assistance at school, and the latter has been diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). The patient had a normal birth history and early childhood development. On examination, he has an elongated face and protruding ears. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder
Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.
Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 86
Correct
-
A neighbor has a grandchild diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot and asks you about this condition.
Which of the following is a characteristic of this condition?Your Answer: Right ventricular hypertrophy
Explanation:Common Congenital Heart Defects and Acquired Valvular Defects
Congenital heart defects are present at birth and can affect the structure and function of the heart. Tetralogy of Fallot is a common congenital heart defect that includes right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, right-sided outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. On the other hand, patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) and atrial septal defect (ASD) are not part of the tetralogy of Fallot but are commonly occurring congenital heart defects.
PDA is characterized by a persistent communication between the descending thoracic aorta and the pulmonary artery, while ASD is characterized by a defect in the interatrial septum, allowing shunting of blood from left to right. If left untreated, patients with a large PDA are at risk of developing Eisenmenger syndrome in later life.
Acquired valvular defects, on the other hand, are not present at birth but develop over time. Aortic stenosis is an acquired valvular defect that results from progressive narrowing of the aortic valve area over several years. Tricuspid stenosis, which is caused by obstruction of the tricuspid valve, can be a result of several conditions, including rheumatic heart disease, congenital abnormalities, active infective endocarditis, and carcinoid tumors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 87
Correct
-
A 3-month-old baby girl has just been registered with the surgery. Her parents have recently arrived in the UK from Syria, seeking refuge. She received a Hepatitis B vaccination before leaving Syria.
What other vaccinations should she be provided with now?Your Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, rotavirus and meningitis B
Explanation:Paediatric Vaccination Schedule for 2-Month-Old Babies in the UK
The correct vaccination regime for a 2-month-old baby in the UK includes diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, rotavirus and meningitis B. However, the guidelines have been updated since 2015, and now include pneumococcus (PCV) vaccination at 12 weeks. Meningitis B is vaccinated against at 8 weeks, 16 weeks, and one year, while meningitis C and PCV are vaccinated against at 12 months. Rotavirus and meningitis B are also recommended in the vaccination schedule at 8 weeks old, but meningitis C is not included in this particular regime.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 88
Correct
-
A 7-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her parents due to concerns about her weight loss. She has been experiencing abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and a poor appetite. She denies having polyuria and her urinalysis results are normal. Upon examination, she is found to be below the 0.4th centile for both height and weight, having previously been on the 9th centile. What series of investigations would be most helpful in confirming a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Autoantibodies and CRP
Explanation:Investigating Short Stature in a Child with GI Symptoms
When a child presents with short stature and symptoms suggestive of gastrointestinal (GI) pathology, it is important to consider chronic disease as a possible cause. In this case, the child has fallen across two height and weight centiles, indicating a potential secondary cause. Autoantibodies such as anti-endomysial and anti-tissue transglutaminase may be present in coeliac disease, while a significantly raised CRP would be consistent with inflammatory bowel disease. Further investigation, such as a full blood count and U&E, should also be conducted to exclude chronic kidney disease and anaemia.
While a glucose tolerance test may be used to diagnose diabetes, it is unlikely to be associated with abdominal pain in the absence of glycosuria or ketonuria. Similarly, an insulin stress test may be used for confirmation of growth hormone deficiency, but this condition would not account for the child’s GI symptoms or weight loss. A TSH test may suggest hyper- or hypo-thyroidism, but it is unlikely to support the diagnosis in this case.
It is important to consider all possible causes of short stature in children, especially when accompanied by other symptoms. In this case, measuring autoantibodies and CRP can be useful in making a diagnosis, but further investigation may be necessary for confirmation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 89
Correct
-
A 3-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician due to frequent respiratory infections that have resulted in hospitalization. Her parents have also noticed a decrease in her weight from the 50th to the 25th percentile on the growth chart. She was born at term with a normal birth weight. During the physical examination, the pediatrician observes the presence of nasal polyps. What is the probable underlying condition?
Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Consideration of cystic fibrosis is warranted when a child experiences recurrent serious respiratory tract infections and weight loss, particularly if nasal polyps are present. While bronchiolitis may lead to hospitalisations and potential weight loss due to poor feeding, it is not associated with nasal polyps. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia typically affects premature infants with low birth weights and is not linked to nasal polyps. Neglect is not a factor in this scenario, and the presence of nasal polyps suggests an underlying medical condition.
Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Characteristics
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but there are some common features that are often present. In the neonatal period, around 20% of infants with cystic fibrosis may experience meconium ileus, which is a blockage in the intestine caused by thick, sticky mucous. Prolonged jaundice may also occur, but less commonly. Recurrent chest infections are a common symptom, affecting around 40% of patients. Malabsorption is another common feature, with around 30% of patients experiencing steatorrhoea (excessive fat in the stool) and failure to thrive. Liver disease may also occur in around 10% of patients.
It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed with cystic fibrosis during newborn screening or early childhood, around 5% of patients are not diagnosed until after the age of 18. Other features of cystic fibrosis may include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools), nasal polyps, male infertility, and female subfertility. Overall, the symptoms and characteristics of cystic fibrosis can vary widely, but early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the condition and improve quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 90
Correct
-
A 14-year-old high school student comes to your office with symptoms of depression. During the consultation, she reveals that she has been bullied for having sex with an 18-year-old boy in the same school. The sexual encounter was consensual and occurred only once, without the influence of drugs or alcohol.
What is the best immediate step to take?Your Answer: You should disclose that this girl has been sexually active to the relevant authority
Explanation:When it comes to sexual issues involving young people, the topics of consent and confidentiality can be challenging. However, in this particular case, there is no ambiguity. Legally, individuals under the age of 13 are incapable of giving consent for sexual activity. Therefore, it is typically necessary to disclose this information. If there is a decision to withhold this information, it should be discussed with a designated doctor for child protection and documented appropriately. This is an uncommon occurrence. As the patient is under 13, she is unable to provide consent for sexual activity. While it may be necessary to discuss the situation with the patient’s mother, this is not the most urgent responsibility. The primary duty is to report the incident to the appropriate authority, and it cannot be left in the hands of the patient.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 91
Correct
-
A 10-year-old boy is the shortest in his class, measuring only 125 cm. His parents are worried about his growth. His last three recorded heights have been between the 0.4th and 2nd centile. His mother is 160 cm tall and his father is 175 cm tall. He has no other health issues.
What could be the probable reason for his short stature?Your Answer: Familial short stature
Explanation:Familial Short Stature in Children
Children who have short parents and are otherwise healthy may have familial short stature. This means that their height and weight fall within the expected range based on their parents’ heights, and growth charts can be used to predict their adult height. In the case of a girl with familial short stature, her predicted adult height would be 154 cm, which falls within the mid-parental range of heights. Delayed puberty would cause a failure to gain height at the beginning of puberty and crossing of height centiles, while inadequate nutrition would cause crossing of both height and weight centiles. Low birth weight can also cause short stature in children, but in the absence of any other history, familial short stature is the most likely explanation. Precocious puberty, on the other hand, causes children to be tall for their age at the onset of puberty, not short.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 92
Correct
-
A 10-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of stiffness, swelling, and pain in both knees. During the examination, the doctor observes a salmon-pink rash on her legs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Explanation:Juvenile idiopathic arthritis, also known as Still’s disease, is identified by the presence of a distinct salmon-pink rash along with joint pain. While joint pain may also be present in Henoch-Schonlein purpura, the rash in this condition is palpable and purpuric. Meningitis, on the other hand, is characterized by a non-blanching purpuric rash but does not cause joint pain.
Understanding Systemic Onset Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is a condition that affects individuals under the age of 16 and lasts for more than six weeks. It is also known as juvenile chronic arthritis. Systemic onset JIA, also referred to as Still’s disease, is a type of JIA that presents with several symptoms. These symptoms include pyrexia, a salmon-pink rash, lymphadenopathy, arthritis, uveitis, anorexia, and weight loss.
When investigating systemic onset JIA, doctors may find that the antinuclear antibody (ANA) is positive, especially in oligoarticular JIA. However, the rheumatoid factor is usually negative. It is important to note that systemic onset JIA can be challenging to diagnose, as its symptoms can mimic other conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 93
Correct
-
What is the most frequent location for osteoclastoma to occur?
Your Answer: Lower end of femur
Explanation:Distribution and Characteristics of Giant Cell Tumours
Giant cell tumours, also known as osteoclastomas, are commonly found in the knee area, specifically at the distal femur and proximal tibia. The proximal humerus and distal radius are also common sites for these tumours. In fact, approximately 50% of giant cell tumours are located in the knee area.
These tumours are usually solitary, with less than 1% being multicentric. It is important to note that giant cell tumours can be benign or malignant, and their treatment depends on their location, size, and aggressiveness. Early detection and treatment are crucial in preventing complications and ensuring a better prognosis for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 94
Correct
-
A 9-month-old infant is experiencing feeding difficulties accompanied by a cough and wheeze, leading to a diagnosis of bronchiolitis. What is a triggering factor that can cause a more severe episode of bronchiolitis, rather than just an increased likelihood of developing the condition?
Your Answer: Underlying congenital heart disease
Explanation:Bronchiolitis can be more severe in individuals with congenital heart disease, particularly those with a ventricular septal defect. Fragile X is not associated with increased severity, but Down’s syndrome has been linked to worse episodes. Formula milk feeding is a risk factor for bronchiolitis, but does not affect the severity of the disease once contracted. While bronchiolitis is most common in infants aged 3-6 months, this age range is not indicative of a more severe episode. However, infants younger than 12 weeks are at higher risk. Being born at term is not a risk factor, but premature birth is associated with more severe episodes.
Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.
Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 95
Correct
-
A father attends his GP to discuss concerns he has about his 12-year-old daughter. Since the age of three, she has had a lot of routines, such as how she organizes her toys and which way she walks to school, and is very rigid about following them. She does not cope at all well with changes to the routine. She struggles to make friends and seems very uncomfortable in social situations. Apart from going to school, she avoids meeting children; she has been to a few birthday parties, but she was very clingy to her father and demanded to be taken home after a few minutes. On examination, the GP is unable to build a rapport with the girl, as she refuses to speak and will not maintain eye contact. She appears fidgety and gets up and down out of her chair on several occasions to try and leave the room. You suspect a diagnosis but advise her father that more assessment will be needed to confirm a diagnosis.
The sign to support the diagnosis is the child's rigid adherence to routines and difficulty coping with changes to the routine, as well as their struggles with social situations and avoidance of meeting other children.Your Answer: Less than ten spoken words by age two years
Explanation:Developmental Milestones and Red Flags in Early Childhood
By the age of two years, children should be using 50 or more words. If they do not meet this milestone, there may be a social, speech or hearing issue that needs to be assessed by a paediatric team. Lack of spoken words could be a sign of autistic spectrum disorder (ASD).
A lack of social smile by age three months is considered abnormal and could indicate a social, visual, or cognitive problem. However, it may also signal ASD in some cases.
Parallel play is normal behavior for two-year-olds. They will happily play next to each other but rarely play with each other. It isn’t until the age of three when they usually start to involve other children in playing.
Separation anxiety from parents or carers at age ten months is normal behavior. Children can become upset if they are not with their parents or carer until the new person becomes more familiar to them, usually between the ages of six months and three years.
Temper tantrums at age 18 months are normal behavior. However, if these tantrums persist into later childhood, it could indicate a social or developmental problem.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 96
Correct
-
A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother, who reports that the child has been feeling unwell for the past day. The mother explains that the girl has a fever and has not been eating properly. The child has no significant medical history. Upon examination, the child appears pale and flushed. There is a widespread maculopapular rash on her chest and back, and small white papules are visible on the inside of her cheeks.
What is the most common complication associated with the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Otitis media
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of fever, maculopapular rash, and koplik spots suggest a diagnosis of measles. The most common complication of measles is otitis media, which can cause unilateral ear pain, fever, and redness/swelling of the tympanic membrane. While bronchitis and encephalitis are possible complications of measles, they are less common than otitis media. Meningitis is also a serious complication of measles, but it typically presents with different symptoms such as neck stiffness and a non-blanching rash. Orchitis, which causes scrotal pain, is a complication of mumps rather than measles.
Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease
Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.
The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 97
Correct
-
A 6-week-old baby girl is brought to her pediatrician's office by her mother who is worried about her poor feeding over the past 24 hours. The mother has noticed that the baby feels warm but has not observed any signs of cough or cold. The baby is scheduled to receive her vaccinations next week. She has had a wet and dirty diaper today and her urine has a strong odor.
During the examination, the baby has a fever of 38.9ºC and is fussy, but her chest and abdomen appear normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this infant?Your Answer: Admit same day to the paediatrics ward for assessment
Explanation:If a child under 3 months old is suspected to have a UTI, it is important to refer them to specialist paediatrics services. In the case of a baby with a persistent fever and no clear source of infection, a urine sample should be collected to check for a UTI. It is important to note that a raised temperature alone is considered a red sign according to NICE guidance for assessing fever in children, and the child should be referred for urgent paediatric assessment. It would be inappropriate to reassure the mother that this is just a virus and can be managed at home, and using paracetamol to manage the fever would not be acceptable in this case. While antibiotics may treat the infection, waiting a week for a review could be dangerous for an unwell child who may deteriorate rapidly. Referring the child for a routine review with paediatrics would also not be appropriate, as urgent attention is required. While a health visitor may be helpful for feeding issues, the short history of poor feeding and fever suggests that the baby is struggling to feed due to illness, and this would not address the current presentation.
Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 98
Correct
-
A 9-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician with her parents. She has a history of bedwetting and has been using an enuresis alarm which has been helping her. However, she expresses her fear of going to a sleepover because she doesn't want her friends to know about her bedwetting. Her mother is hesitant to let her go without the alarm. Upon examination, the girl appears healthy and a urine dipstick test is normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Offer a short course of desmopressin
Explanation:Desmopressin is a suitable option for managing enuresis in the short term. Starting a short course of desmopressin may be beneficial if the priority is to improve bed wetting. However, commencing long-term use of desmopressin is not recommended in this case, as the patient has been responding well to an enuresis alarm and requires a short-term solution. Encouraging the parents to pack the enuresis alarm may not be helpful, as it could cause the patient further distress and worsen their nocturnal enuresis. Similarly, recommending a short-term rewards system is not the best option, as reward systems are designed for longer-term use and may not address the immediate concern.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 99
Correct
-
A 24-hour old baby is evaluated in the neonatal intensive care unit due to tremors in his limbs, as observed by his nurse. He is also experiencing poor feeding, increased irritability, and excessive drowsiness. The baby was delivered via emergency caesarean section at 34 weeks due to reduced foetal movements and foetal bradycardia. The mother had an otherwise healthy pregnancy, but was taking lamotrigine for epilepsy. During the examination, the baby appeared larger than expected for his prematurity and exhibited visible arm tremors. Based on these symptoms, which aspect of the baby's medical history is most likely responsible for his condition?
Your Answer: Prematurity
Explanation:Prematurity is a significant risk factor for neonatal hypoglycaemia, which is characterized by autonomic symptoms such as irritability and jitteriness, as well as neuroglycopenic symptoms like drowsiness and poor feeding. This is because preterm infants have not yet developed the same glycogen reserve as term infants. Admission to the neonatal intensive care unit, delivery via emergency caesarean section, formula feeding, and maternal lamotrigine use are not independent risk factors for neonatal hypoglycaemia. While caesarean section may result in transient hypoglycaemia, it is not typically symptomatic due to the lack of catecholamine release present during vaginal delivery. Terbutaline use, on the other hand, may increase the risk of hypoglycaemia.
Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.
Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 100
Correct
-
A 32-week neonate is brought to the neonatal intensive care unit. The baby was delivered via emergency Caesarean section to a 17-year-old mother who had not received adequate antenatal care. The mother had a history of significant tobacco and alcohol use. During examination, it was observed that the baby had intestinal loops protruding through a hole on the left side of the umbilicus. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gastroschisis
Explanation:Socioeconomic deprivation, maternal alcohol/tobacco use, and maternal age under 20 are all associated with gastroschisis.
While gastroschisis and omphalocele have similar presentations, gastroschisis refers to a defect located to the side of the umbilicus, while omphalocele refers to a defect in the umbilicus itself.
Foetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by a small head, flattened philtrum, and thin upper lip.
Anencephaly is a neural tube defect that results in the absence of the brain, skull, and scalp.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)