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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old woman presents with a history of melaena on three separate occasions...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents with a history of melaena on three separate occasions in the past three years. She reports having had many tests, including barium enemas, flexible sigmoidoscopies, and oesophagogastroduodenoscopies, which were all normal.

      One year ago she required two units of blood to raise her haematocrit from 24% to 30%. She has been taking iron, 300 mg orally BD, since then.

      The patient has hypertension, coronary artery disease, and heart failure treated with digoxin, enalapril, furosemide, and metoprolol. She does not have chest pain or dyspnoea.

      Her body mass index is 32, her pulse is 88 per minute, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg supine and 118/82 mm Hg standing. The conjunctivae are pale. A ventricular gallop is heard. There are bruits over both femoral arteries.

      Rectal examination reveals dark brown stool that is positive for occult blood. Other findings of the physical examination are normal.

      Barium enema shows a few diverticula scattered throughout the descending and transverse colon.

      Colonoscopy shows angiodysplasia of the caecum but no bleeding is seen.

      Technetium (99mTc) red cell scan of the colon is negative.

      Haemoglobin is 105 g/L (115-165) and her haematocrit is 30% (36-47).

      What would be the most appropriate course of action at this time?

      Your Answer: Mesenteric angiography

      Correct Answer: Continued observation

      Explanation:

      Angiodysplasia

      Angiodysplasia is a condition where previously healthy blood vessels degenerate, commonly found in the caecum and proximal ascending colon. The majority of angiodysplasias, around 77%, are located in these areas. Symptoms of angiodysplasia include maroon-coloured stool, melaena, haematochezia, and haematemesis. Bleeding is usually low-grade, but in some cases, around 15%, it can be massive. However, bleeding stops spontaneously in over 90% of cases.

      Radionuclide scanning using technetium Tc99 labelled red blood cells can help detect and locate active bleeding from angiodysplasia, even at low rates of 0.1 ml/min. However, the intermittent nature of bleeding in angiodysplasia limits the usefulness of this method. For patients who are haemodynamically stable, a conservative approach is recommended as most bleeding angiodysplasias will stop on their own. Treatment is usually not necessary for asymptomatic patients who incidentally discover they have angiodysplasias.

      Overall, angiodysplasia and its symptoms is important for early detection and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating that has persisted for six months. The GP initially suspected bowel cancer and referred her for a colonoscopy, which came back negative. The gastroenterologist who performed the colonoscopy suggested that the patient may have irritable bowel syndrome. The patient has no prior history of digestive issues. What should the GP do next?

      Your Answer: Treat as irritable bowel syndrome for now and review in one month

      Correct Answer: Measure serum CA125 level

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, women over the age of 50 who experience regular symptoms such as abdominal bloating, loss of appetite, pelvic or abdominal pain, and increased urinary urgency and/or frequency should undergo serum CA125 testing. It is important to note that irritable bowel disease rarely presents for the first time in women over 50, so any symptoms suggestive of IBD should prompt appropriate tests for ovarian cancer. If serum CA125 levels are elevated, an ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis should be arranged. If malignancy is suspected, urgent referral must be made. Physical examination may also warrant direct referral to gynaecology if ascites and/or a suspicious abdominal or pelvic mass is identified.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      18.6
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man who has recently had a gastrectomy is informed that he...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man who has recently had a gastrectomy is informed that he will experience a deficiency in vitamin B12. What is the probable physiological reasoning behind this?

      Your Answer: Loss of intrinsic factors

      Explanation:

      Effects of Gastrectomy on Nutrient Absorption and Digestion

      Gastrectomy, whether partial or complete, can have significant effects on nutrient absorption and digestion. One of the most important consequences is the loss of intrinsic factors, which are necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum. Intrinsic factor is produced by the gastric parietal cells, which are mostly found in the body of the stomach. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed and stored in the liver, leading to megaloblastic anemia and potentially serious complications such as dilated cardiomyopathy or subacute degeneration of the spinal cord.

      Another consequence of gastrectomy is the loss of storage ability, which can cause early satiety and abdominal bloating after meals. This is due to the fact that the stomach is no longer able to hold as much food as before, and the remaining small intestine has to compensate for the missing stomach volume.

      Achlorohydria is another common problem after gastrectomy, as the parietal cells that produce hydrochloric acid are also lost. This can lead to a range of symptoms such as abdominal bloating, diarrhea, indigestion, weight loss, malabsorption, and bacterial overgrowth of the small intestine.

      Failed gastric emptying is not a major concern after gastrectomy, as it is unlikely to cause vitamin B12 deficiency. However, increased upper GI gut transit can affect the rate of nutrient absorption and lead to symptoms such as diarrhea and weight loss. Overall, gastrectomy can have significant effects on nutrient absorption and digestion, and patients should be closely monitored for any signs of malnutrition or complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man, who has been a heavy drinker for many years, arrives...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man, who has been a heavy drinker for many years, arrives at the Emergency Department with intense abdominal pain. During the abdominal examination, caput medusae is observed. Which vessels combine to form the obstructed blood vessel in this patient?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric and paraumbilical veins

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric and splenic veins

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Hepatic Portal Vein and Caput Medusae

      The hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins. When this vein is obstructed, it can lead to caput medusae, a clinical sign characterized by dilated varicose veins that emanate from the umbilicus, resembling Medusa’s head. This condition is often seen in patients with cirrhotic livers, particularly those who are alcoholics.

      While the inferior mesenteric vein can sometimes contribute to the formation of the hepatic portal vein, this is only true for about one-third of individuals. The left gastric vein, on the other hand, does not play a role in the formation of the hepatic portal vein.

      It’s important to note that the right and left common iliac arteries are not involved in this condition. Additionally, neither the inferior mesenteric artery nor the paraumbilical veins contribute to the formation of the hepatic portal vein.

      Understanding the anatomy and physiology of the hepatic portal vein and caput medusae can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      11.8
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  • Question 5 - A 3-day-old baby born at term is brought to the Neonatal Unit with...

    Correct

    • A 3-day-old baby born at term is brought to the Neonatal Unit with green fluid vomiting and a swollen belly. The baby was doing fine after birth and was being breastfed. The parents mention that the baby has urinated but has not yet passed meconium. During the examination, the baby seems weak, pale, and breathing rapidly.

      What could be the probable reason for the baby's deteriorating condition?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a neonate with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium

      Hirschsprung’s disease, NEC, biliary atresia, GBS sepsis, and haemolytic disease of the newborn are among the possible causes of abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium in a neonate. Hirschsprung’s disease is the most likely diagnosis in a term neonate with bilious vomiting and absence of meconium, as it results from a developmental failure of the gut’s parasympathetic plexus. Surgical intervention via colostomy is necessary to relieve obstruction and prevent enterocolitis. NEC, which involves bowel necrosis, is more common in preterm neonates and may present with similar symptoms. Biliary atresia, a cause of neonatal jaundice, is less likely in this case, as the baby is pale and has not yet passed meconium. GBS sepsis is a potential diagnosis in any unwell neonate, but the history of not passing meconium within the first 48 hours and the presence of bilious vomit and distended abdomen suggest Hirschsprung’s disease as a more likely cause. Haemolytic disease of the newborn, caused by rhesus antibodies crossing the placenta, would not present with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium. Accurate diagnosis and prompt management are crucial in ensuring the best outcome for the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A patient presents with jaundice. The following results are available:
    HBsAg +ve, HBeAg +ve,...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with jaundice. The following results are available:
      HBsAg +ve, HBeAg +ve, HBeAb −ve, HBc IgM +ve
      Which one of the following interpretations is correct for a patient who is slightly older?

      Your Answer: Chronic hepatitis B with low infectivity

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B with high infectivity

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Testing for hepatitis B involves several blood tests that can provide information about the patient’s current infection status, susceptibility to the virus, and immunity. Here are some key points to understand about hepatitis B test results:

      Chronic Hepatitis B with High Infectivity
      If a patient tests positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, it indicates a current infection with high infectivity. This means that the virus is highly active and can easily spread to others.

      Susceptible to Hepatitis B
      If a patient tests negative for HBsAg, anti-HBc, IgM anti-HBc, and anti-HBs, it indicates that they are susceptible to hepatitis B and have not been infected or vaccinated against it.

      Chronic Hepatitis B with Low Infectivity
      If a patient tests positive for HBeAg but negative for HBeAb, it indicates a chronic carrier state with low infectivity. This means that the virus is less active and less likely to spread to others.

      Previous Immunisation Against Hepatitis B
      If a patient tests positive for HBV surface antibody, it indicates immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination or natural infection. However, if they also test positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, it indicates an active infection rather than immunisation.

      Natural Immunity Against Hepatitis B
      If a patient tests positive for HBV surface antibody, it indicates immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination or natural infection. This means that they have been exposed to the virus in the past and have developed immunity to it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old male presents with massive haematemesis and is diagnosed with splenomegaly. What...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male presents with massive haematemesis and is diagnosed with splenomegaly. What is the probable origin of the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      Portal Hypertension and its Manifestations

      Portal hypertension is a condition that often leads to splenomegaly and upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. The primary cause of bleeding is oesophageal varices, which are dilated veins in the oesophagus. In addition to these symptoms, portal hypertension can also cause ascites, a buildup of fluid in the abdomen, and acute or chronic hepatic encephalopathy, a neurological disorder that affects the brain. Another common manifestation of portal hypertension is splenomegaly with hypersplenism, which occurs when the spleen becomes enlarged and overactive, leading to a decrease in the number of blood cells in circulation. the various symptoms of portal hypertension is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      26.5
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old stockbroker has been experiencing difficulty swallowing solids for the past few...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old stockbroker has been experiencing difficulty swallowing solids for the past few months, while having no trouble swallowing liquids. He does not smoke and denies any alcohol consumption. His medical history is unremarkable except for the fact that he has been using antacids and H2-receptor blockers for gastro-oesophageal reflux disease for the past 5 years, with little relief from symptoms. Upon examination, there are no notable findings.
      What is the probable reason for this man's dysphagia?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal squamous carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Benign oesophageal stricture

      Explanation:

      Causes of dysphagia: differential diagnosis based on patient history

      Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can have various causes, including structural abnormalities, functional disorders, and neoplastic conditions. Based on the patient’s history, several possibilities can be considered. For example, a benign oesophageal stricture may develop in patients with acid gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and can be treated with endoscopic dilation and reflux management. Diffuse oesophageal spasm, on the other hand, may cause dysphagia for both solids and liquids and be accompanied by chest pain. A lower oesophageal web can produce episodic dysphagia when food gets stuck in the distal oesophagus. Oesophageal squamous carcinoma is less likely in a young non-smoking patient, but should not be ruled out entirely. Scleroderma, a connective tissue disorder, may also cause dysphagia along with Raynaud’s phenomenon and skin changes. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to determine the underlying cause of dysphagia and guide the treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to recurrent indigestion. During the procedure, a small duodenal ulcer is discovered and Helicobacter pylori is found to be present. What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole, amoxicillin and metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter Pylori and Peptic Ulceration

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of bacteria that is classified as a gram negative curved rod. It has been linked to the development of peptic ulceration by inhibiting the processes involved in healing. In fact, up to 90% of patients with duodenal ulceration and 70% of cases of peptic ulceration may be caused by Helicobacter infection.

      To treat this condition, therapy should focus on acid suppression and eradication of Helicobacter. Triple therapy is the most effective treatment, which involves using a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole along with two antibiotics such as amoxicillin and metronidazole or clarithromycin. This treatment is required for one week, and proton pump therapy should continue thereafter.

      Overall, it is important to address Helicobacter pylori infection in patients with peptic ulceration to promote healing and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      11.3
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman presents with complaints of intermittent abdominal distension and bloating. She...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with complaints of intermittent abdominal distension and bloating. She experiences bouts of loose motions that provide relief from the symptoms. There is no history of rectal bleeding or weight loss. The patient works as a manager in a busy office and finds work to be stressful. She has previously taken a course of fluoxetine for depression/anxiety. Abdominal examination is unremarkable.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

      Explanation:

      IBS is a chronic condition that affects bowel function, but its cause is unknown. To diagnose IBS, patients must have experienced abdominal pain or discomfort for at least 3 months, along with two or more of the following symptoms: relief after defecation, changes in stool frequency or appearance, and abdominal bloating. Other symptoms may include altered stool passage, mucorrhoea, and headaches. Blood tests are recommended to rule out other conditions, and further investigation is not necessary unless symptoms of organic disease are present. Diverticulitis, anxiety disorder, Crohn’s disease, and ulcerative colitis are all conditions that can be ruled out based on the absence of certain symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old medical student is worried that she might have coeliac disease after...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old medical student is worried that she might have coeliac disease after learning about it during her gastroenterology rotation. She schedules an appointment with her GP to address her concerns, and the GP orders routine blood tests and coeliac serology as the initial investigation. What is the most frequently linked condition to coeliac disease?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease and Common Associated Conditions

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that causes the small intestine villi to atrophy upon exposure to gliadin, resulting in malabsorption syndrome and steatorrhoea. This condition often leads to deficiencies in iron, other minerals, nutrients, and fat-soluble vitamins. While the incidence of gastrointestinal malignancies is increased in people with coeliac disease, it is a relatively rare occurrence. Dermatitis herpetiformis, an itchy, vesicular rash, is commonly linked to coeliac disease and managed with a gluten-free diet. Osteoporosis is also common due to malabsorption of calcium and vitamin D. Infertility is not commonly associated with coeliac disease, especially in those on a gluten-free diet. However, untreated coeliac disease may have an impact on fertility, but results of studies are inconclusive. The most common associated condition with coeliac disease is iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with constipation that has worsened...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with constipation that has worsened over the past six weeks. She reports straining during defecation. She has a feeling of incomplete evacuation. She has two children who were born via vaginal delivery without history of tears. She has had bladder suspension surgery. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-distended without palpable masses.
      On digital rectal examination, she has an empty rectum. Her resting anal tone is weak but her squeeze tone is normal. She does not relax the puborectalis muscle or the external anal sphincter when simulating defecation; she also has 4-cm perineal descent with straining.
      What is the most appropriate investigation to carry out next?

      Your Answer: Barium enema

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance defecography

      Explanation:

      Magnetic resonance defecography is the most appropriate investigation for a patient with abnormal pelvic floor muscle tone, perineal descent, and symptoms of incomplete evacuation during defecation. This test evaluates global pelvic floor anatomy and dynamic motion, identifying prolapse, rectocele, and pelvic floor dysfunctions. Other tests, such as abdominal ultrasound, barium enema, colonoscopy, and CT abdomen, may not provide sufficient information on the underlying pathology of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 44-year-old woman is scheduled for splenectomy due to an enlarged spleen. The...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old woman is scheduled for splenectomy due to an enlarged spleen. The consultant advises the registrar to locate the tail of the pancreas during the procedure to prevent postoperative pancreatic fistula. Where should the tail of the pancreas be identified during the splenectomy?

      Your Answer: Splenorenal ligament

      Explanation:

      Peritoneal Structures Connecting Abdominal Organs

      The human body has several peritoneal structures that connect abdominal organs to each other or to the posterior abdominal wall. These structures play an important role in maintaining the position and stability of the organs. Here are some examples:

      1. Splenorenal Ligament: This ligament connects the spleen to the posterior abdominal wall over the left kidney. It also contains the tail of the pancreas.

      2. Gastrosplenic Ligament: This ligament connects the greater curvature of the stomach with the hilum of the spleen.

      3. Transverse Mesocolon: This structure connects the transverse colon to the posterior abdominal wall.

      4. Gastrocolic Ligament: This ligament connects the greater curvature of the stomach with the transverse colon.

      5. Phrenicocolic Ligament: This ligament connects the splenic flexure of the colon to the diaphragm.

      These peritoneal structures are important for the proper functioning of the digestive system and for maintaining the position of the organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      32.8
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  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old man returns from a trip to Thailand and experiences fatigue, malaise,...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man returns from a trip to Thailand and experiences fatigue, malaise, loss of appetite, and jaundice. He has no significant medical history and denies excessive alcohol consumption. Upon investigation, his serum total bilirubin is 71 μmol/L (1-22), serum alanine aminotransferase is 195 U/L (5-35), and serum alkaline phosphatase is 100 U/L (45-105). His serum IgM antihepatitis A is negative, but serum IgG antihepatitis A is positive. Additionally, his serum hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is positive, but serum antibody to hepatitis C is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hepatitis and Leptospirosis

      Hepatitis B is a sexually transmitted disease that can be diagnosed by the presence of HBsAg and IgM anti-HBc antibodies. On the other hand, acute hepatitis A can be diagnosed by positive IgM anti-HAV antibodies, while the presence of IgG anti-HAV antibodies indicates that the illness is not caused by HAV. Acute hepatitis C is usually asymptomatic, but can be diagnosed through the demonstration of anti-HCV antibodies or HCV RNA. Meanwhile, acute hepatitis E is characterized by a more pronounced elevation of alkaline phosphatase and can be diagnosed through the presence of serum IgM anti-HEV antibodies.

      Leptospirosis, also known as Weil’s disease, is caused by the spirochaete Leptospira and can cause acute hepatitis. It is transmitted through direct contact with infected soil, water, or urine, and can enter the body through skin abrasions or cuts. Diagnosis of leptospirosis is done through an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for Leptospira IgM antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 33-year-old university teacher returned to the United Kingdom after spending 2 years...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old university teacher returned to the United Kingdom after spending 2 years in India on a spiritual journey. During his time there, he stayed in various ashrams and ate local food with the local disciples. Unfortunately, he contracted malaria twice, suffered from diarrhoea once, and had a urinary tract infection. Upon returning to the UK, he complained of chronic diarrhoea and abdominal pain, which worsened after consuming milk. Blood tests showed a low haemoglobin level of 92 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), a high mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 109 fl (normal range: 76-98 fl), and a white cell count (WCC) of 8 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l). Stool samples and blood tests for IgA Ttg and HIV antibodies were negative. What test would be most helpful in diagnosing this patient?

      Your Answer: Small intestinal aspirate culture

      Correct Answer: Small intestinal biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Chronic Diarrhoea: A Comparison

      Chronic diarrhoea can have various causes, including intestinal parasitic infection and malabsorption syndromes like tropical sprue. Here, we compare different diagnostic tests that can help in identifying the underlying cause of chronic diarrhoea.

      Small Intestinal Biopsy: This test can diagnose parasites like Giardia or Cryptosporidium, which may be missed in stool tests. It can also diagnose villous atrophy, suggestive of tropical sprue.

      Colonoscopy: While colonoscopy can show amoebic ulcers or other intestinal parasites, it is unlikely to be of use in investigating malabsorption.

      Lactose Breath Test: This test diagnoses lactase deficiency only and does not tell us about the aetiology of chronic diarrhoea.

      Serum Vitamin B12 Level: This test diagnoses a deficiency of the vitamin, but it will not tell about the aetiology, eg dietary insufficiency or malabsorption.

      Small Intestinal Aspirate Culture: This test is done if bacterial overgrowth is suspected, which occurs in cases with a previous intestinal surgery or in motility disorders like scleroderma. However, there is no mention of this history in the case presented here.

      In conclusion, the choice of diagnostic test depends on the suspected underlying cause of chronic diarrhoea. A small intestinal biopsy is a useful test for diagnosing both parasitic infections and malabsorption syndromes like tropical sprue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      67.3
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  • Question 16 - A 38-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites presented with clinical...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites presented with clinical deterioration. Diagnostic aspiration of the ascites fluid shows a raised neutrophil count in the ascites fluid.
      Which of the following statements best fits this scenario?

      Your Answer: There is a high mortality and high recurrence rate

      Explanation:

      Understanding Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis: Mortality, Prevention, and Treatment

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a serious complication of ascites, occurring in 8% of cirrhosis cases with ascites. This condition has a high mortality rate of 25% and recurs in 70% of patients within a year. While there is some evidence that secondary prevention with oral quinolones may decrease mortality in certain patient groups, it is not an indication for liver transplantation. The most common infecting organisms are enteric, such as Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Streptococcus, and Enterococcus. While an ascitic tap can decrease discomfort, it cannot prevent recurrence. Understanding the mortality, prevention, and treatment options for SBP is crucial for managing this serious complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 39-year-old male with a history of alcoholism was admitted to the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old male with a history of alcoholism was admitted to the hospital with jaundice and altered consciousness. He had been previously admitted for ascites and jaundice. Upon investigation, his bilirubin levels were found to be 44 µmol/L (5.1-22), serum albumin levels were 28 g/L (40-50), and his prothrombin time was 21 seconds (13 seconds). The patient had a fluid thrill in his abdomen and exhibited asterixis. Although he was awake, he was unable to distinguish between day and night. What is the patient's Child-Pugh score (CTP)?

      Your Answer: 9

      Correct Answer: 12

      Explanation:

      The Child-Turcotte-Pugh score (CTP) is used to assess disease severity in cirrhosis of liver. It consists of five clinical measures, each scored from 1 to 3 according to severity. The minimum score is 5 and maximum score is 15. Once a score has been calculated, the patient is graded A, B, or C for severity. The CTP score is primarily used to decide the need for liver transplantation. However, some criticisms of this scoring system highlight the fact that each of the five categories is given equal weighting, which is not always appropriate. Additionally, in two specific diseases, primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC), the bilirubin cut-off levels in the table are markedly different.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs)....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs). He reports drinking no more than 3 units of alcohol per week and has no significant medical history. The patient was prescribed amoxicillin by his primary care physician for a sinus infection two weeks ago.

      During the physical examination, the patient's BMI is found to be 40 kg/m2, indicating obesity. The LFTs reveal:

      - ALT 120 U/L (5-40)
      - AST 130 U/L (10-40)
      - Alkaline phosphatase 200 U/L (45-105)

      What is the most likely cause of this liver function test derangement?

      Your Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

      Explanation:

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) as a Cause of Liver Enzyme Abnormalities

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a common cause of liver enzyme abnormalities, characterized by the accumulation of fat in the liver leading to inflammation. It is often associated with obesity, hypertension, dyslipidemia, and insulin resistance, which are part of the metabolic syndrome. However, other causes of hepatitis should be ruled out before making a diagnosis of NAFLD.

      Patients who are obese and diabetic are advised to lose weight and control their diabetes. A low-fat, low-calorie diet is usually recommended alongside treatment to lower HbA1c. Patients with NAFLD should avoid alcohol or other substances that could be harmful to the liver.

      It is important to note that deranged liver enzymes are not listed as side effects for amoxicillin in the British National Formulary. Therefore, if a patient presents with liver enzyme abnormalities, NAFLD should be considered as a possible cause and appropriate investigations should be carried out to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 31-year-old woman presents to your Surgical Clinic referred by her General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman presents to your Surgical Clinic referred by her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of heartburn and indigestion that have been worsening at night. She denies any other gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. She has a normal diet but smokes 20 cigarettes a day. On examination, you note that she is a large woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 37. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. An endoscopy is ordered, and the report is as follows:
      Endoscopy – oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD)
      The OGD was performed with xylocaine throat spray, and intubation was uncomplicated. The oesophagus appears normal. A 5-cm hiatus hernia is observed and confirmed on J-manoeuvre. The stomach and duodenum up to D2 appear to be normal. CLO test was negative. Z-line at 45 cm.
      What would be your next best step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Conservative therapy with weight loss, smoking cessation and dietary advice, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)

      GERD is a common condition that affects the digestive system. It occurs when stomach acid flows back into the esophagus, causing discomfort and other symptoms. There are several treatment options available for GERD, depending on the severity of the condition.

      Conservative Therapy

      Conservative therapy is the first line of treatment for GERD. This includes weight loss, smoking cessation, dietary advice, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. PPIs are effective at reducing acid volume and can provide relief from symptoms. Patients should be encouraged to make lifestyle changes to improve their overall health and reduce the risk of complications.

      Fundoplication

      Fundoplication may be necessary for patients with severe GERD who do not respond to conservative measures. This surgical procedure involves wrapping the upper part of the stomach around the lower esophageal sphincter to strengthen it and prevent acid reflux.

      Oesophageal Manometry Studies

      Oesophageal manometry studies may be recommended if conservative measures and fundoplication fail. This test measures the strength and coordination of the muscles in the esophagus and can help identify any underlying issues.

      24-Hour pH Studies

      24-hour pH studies may also be recommended if conservative measures and fundoplication fail. This test measures the amount of acid in the esophagus over a 24-hour period and can help determine the severity of GERD.

      Triple Therapy for Helicobacter Pylori

      Triple therapy may be necessary if the CLO test for Helicobacter pylori is positive. This treatment involves a combination of antibiotics and PPIs to eradicate the bacteria and reduce acid production.

      In conclusion, there are several treatment options available for GERD, ranging from conservative measures to surgical intervention. Patients should work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action based on their individual needs and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with epigastric pain and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with epigastric pain and small volume coffee-ground vomiting. He has a history of peptic ulcers, and another ulcer is suspected. What initial first-line investigation is most appropriate to check if the ulcer might have perforated?

      Your Answer: Erect chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      Investigating Perforated Peptic Ulcers: Imaging Modalities

      When investigating a possible perforated peptic ulcer, there are several imaging modalities available. However, not all of them are equally effective. The most appropriate first-line investigation is an erect chest X-ray, which can quickly and cost-effectively show air under the diaphragm if a perforation has occurred.

      A supine chest X-ray is not effective for this purpose, as lying down changes the direction of gravitational effect and will not show the air under the diaphragm. Similarly, an ultrasound of the abdomen is not useful for identifying a perforated ulcer, as it is better suited for visualizing soft tissue structures and blood flow.

      While a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis can be useful for investigating perforation, an erect chest X-ray is still the preferred first-line investigation due to its simplicity and speed. An X-ray of the abdomen may be appropriate in some cases, but if the patient has vomited coffee-ground liquid, an erect chest X-ray is necessary to investigate possible upper gastrointestinal bleeding.

      In summary, an erect chest X-ray is the most appropriate first-line investigation for a possible perforated peptic ulcer, as it is quick, cost-effective, and can show air under the diaphragm. Other imaging modalities may be useful in certain cases, but should not be relied upon as the primary investigation.

      Investigating Perforated Peptic Ulcers: Imaging Modalities

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with complaints of difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with complaints of difficulty swallowing. He mentions that solid food like meat often gets stuck in his throat. He is also beginning to lose weight and have difficulty swallowing thick liquids like soups. There is some pain on swallowing. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and depression. His current medications include amlodipine and sertraline. He has no drug allergies. He has a 30-pack-year history of smoking and drinks approximately 3–4 pints of beer per day. He is unsure of his family medical history, as he was adopted.
      Physical examination is normal, and his observations are shown below:
      Temperature 37.1°C
      Blood pressure 145/81 mmHg
      Heart rate 71 bpm
      Respiratory rate 14 breaths/min
      Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 97% (room air)
      Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Oesophageal Pathology: Indications and Limitations

      Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is the preferred diagnostic test for patients with progressive dysphagia and odynophagia, especially those with risk factors for oesophageal malignancy. Abdominal plain film and ultrasound are rarely diagnostic and should be used sparingly, with specific indications such as inflammatory bowel disease or bowel obstruction. Chest plain film may be useful in detecting free gas in the mediastinum, but is not necessary for stable patients. Oesophageal manometry is indicated for diffuse oesophageal spasm, which presents differently from the progressive dysphagia seen in the patient described above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old woman is seen in the Gastroenterology Clinic with complaints of weight...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is seen in the Gastroenterology Clinic with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and a severely itchy rash on her buttocks and upper legs. Upon conducting an endoscopy with small bowel biopsy, villous atrophy is discovered. What is the most crucial step in managing her underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Gluten-free diet

      Explanation:

      Understanding Treatment Options for Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition that requires strict avoidance of gluten to resolve symptoms. Failure to avoid gluten can lead to persistent symptoms and increase the risk of small bowel lymphoma. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a common symptom of coeliac disease. While lactose intolerance may also be present, avoiding lactose alone will not resolve symptoms. Cyclophosphamide and mesalamine are not effective treatments for coeliac disease, but may be used in combination regimens for gastrointestinal lymphoma and inflammatory bowel disease, respectively. Prednisolone may be used as an acute intervention for patients with refractory symptoms despite following a gluten-free diet. Overall, the most important intervention for coeliac disease is strict avoidance of gluten.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 86-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and...

    Correct

    • A 86-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, there is decreased airflow in the left base. A chest X-ray shows an air-fluid level located behind the mediastinum. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diaphragmatic hiatal hernia

      Explanation:

      Diaphragmatic Hiatal Hernia

      Diaphragmatic hiatal hernia is a condition where the fundus or gastro-oesophageal junction of the stomach herniates upwards in the chest due to an abnormal defect in the diaphragm. A chest X-ray may reveal gastric air and fluid behind the mediastinum, and reduced air entry at the lung bases due to compression of the lung lobes. Immediate management involves stabilizing the patient with ABCDE and seeking an urgent surgical review for a possible Nissen fundoplication.

      Other conditions such as early cholangitis, aspiration pneumonia of the left lower lobe of the lung, ruptured left ventricle, or ruptured right ventricle may present with different symptoms and would not cause the air and fluid level behind the mediastinum seen in diaphragmatic hiatal hernia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A 23-year-old woman developed sudden-onset, severe epigastric pain 12 hours ago. She subsequently...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman developed sudden-onset, severe epigastric pain 12 hours ago. She subsequently began having episodes of nausea and vomiting, especially after trying to eat or drink. The pain now feels more generalised, and even slight movement makes it worse. She has diminished bowel sounds and exquisite tenderness in the mid-epigastrium with rebound tenderness and board-like rigidity. Her pulse is 110 bpm and blood pressure 130/75. She reports taking ibuprofen for dysmenorrhoea. She had last taken ibuprofen the day before the pain began.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Perforated peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Pain: Perforated Peptic Ulcer

      Abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to consider the differential diagnosis to determine the appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) suggests a possible perforated peptic ulcer as the cause of her symptoms.

      Perforated peptic ulcer is a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease that can result from the use of NSAIDs. The patient’s symptoms, including increasing generalised abdominal pain that is worse on moving, rebound tenderness, and board-like rigidity, are classic signs of generalised peritonitis. These symptoms suggest urgent surgical review and definitive surgical management.

      Other possible causes of abdominal pain, such as acute gastritis, acute pancreatitis, appendicitis, and cholecystitis, have been considered but are less likely based on the patient’s symptoms. It is important to consider the differential diagnosis carefully to ensure appropriate treatment and avoid potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old man with a history of chronic active hepatitis B presents with...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of chronic active hepatitis B presents with abdominal distension and bilateral ankle oedema, worsening over the previous 2 weeks. Three months ago, he was admitted for bleeding oesophageal varices, which was treated endoscopically. There was shifting dullness without tenderness on abdominal examination, and splenomegaly was also noted. His serum albumin concentration was diminished. Prothrombin time was elevated.
      Which one of the following diuretics will best help this patient?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Diuretics for Ascites in Liver Cirrhosis: Mechanisms and Options

      Ascites is a common complication of liver cirrhosis, caused by both Na/water retention and portal hypertension. Spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, is the first-line diuretic for ascites in liver cirrhosis. It promotes natriuresis and diuresis, while also preventing hypokalaemia and subsequent hepatic encephalopathy. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can be used as an adjunct or second-line therapy. Bumetanide and amiloride are alternatives, but less preferred. Acetazolamide and thiazide diuretics are not recommended. Common side-effects of diuretics include electrolyte imbalances and renal impairment. Careful monitoring is necessary to ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 26 - Which of these options does NOT contribute to abdominal swelling? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these options does NOT contribute to abdominal swelling?

      Your Answer: Hypomagnesaemia

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia and Hirschsprung’s Disease

      Severe hyperkalaemia can be dangerous and may lead to sudden death from asystolic cardiac arrest. However, it may not always present with symptoms, except for muscle weakness. In some cases, hyperkalaemia may be associated with metabolic acidosis, which can cause Kussmaul respiration. On the other hand, Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from the absence of colonic enteric ganglion cells. This absence causes paralysis of a distal segment of the colon and rectum, leading to proximal colon dilation. In contrast, other conditions cause distension through a paralytic ileus or large bowel pseudo-obstruction. these conditions is crucial in managing and treating them effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      37
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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old man is admitted to Emergency Department (ED) with haematemesis of bright...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man is admitted to Emergency Department (ED) with haematemesis of bright red blood. He is an alcoholic. He has cool extremities, guarding over the epigastric region, he is ascitic, and has eight spider naevi on his neck and chest. An ABCD management is begun along with fluid resuscitation.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what medication is it most important to start?

      Your Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      In cases of suspected variceal bleeding, the priority medication to administer is terlipressin. This drug causes constriction of the mesenteric arterial circulation, leading to a decrease in portal venous inflow and subsequent reduction in portal pressure, which can help to control bleeding. Band ligation should be performed after administering terlipressin, and if bleeding persists, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be necessary. Antibiotics may also be given prophylactically, but they do not directly affect bleeding. Clopidogrel should be avoided as it can worsen bleeding, while omeprazole may be used according to hospital guidelines. Tranexamic acid is not indicated for oesophageal variceal bleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      17.6
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  • Question 28 - A 43-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with four months of...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with four months of difficulty swallowing both liquids and solid food. He also complains of regurgitation of undigested food and retrosternal chest pain when this happens. He no longer looks forward to his meals and thinks he may be starting to lose weight. He has no other medical problems. He has never smoked or drank alcohol and denies drug use. He presented two months ago with similar symptoms and a different GP treated the patient with a proton-pump inhibitor (PPI), which his symptoms did not respond to.
      Physical examination is normal. A recent chest radiograph appears to be normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) does not show any ischaemic changes.
      His observations and blood tests results are shown below:
      Temperature 36.9 °C
      Blood pressure 125/59 mmHg
      Heart rate 65 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 14 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 96% (room air)
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Dysphagia: Achalasia, Acute Coronary Syndrome, Diffuse Oesophageal Spasm, Oesophageal Carcinoma, and Pill-Induced Oesophagitis

      Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can be caused by various conditions. Among the possible diagnoses, achalasia is the most suitable response for a patient who presents with dysphagia to both solids and liquids with regurgitation of food. Achalasia is a rare motility disorder that affects the oesophagus, resulting in the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax. The patient may also have a normal ECG and no atherosclerotic risk factors, ruling out acute coronary syndrome. Diffuse oesophageal spasm, which causes intermittent and poorly coordinated contractions of the distal oesophagus, is less likely as the patient has continuous symptoms. Oesophageal carcinoma, which typically presents with progressive dysphagia from solids to liquids, is also unlikely as the patient lacks risk factors for the disease. Pill-induced oesophagitis, on the other hand, should be suspected in patients with heartburn or dysphagia and a history of ingestion of medications known to cause oesophageal injury. In summary, the differential diagnosis for dysphagia includes achalasia, acute coronary syndrome, diffuse oesophageal spasm, oesophageal carcinoma, and pill-induced oesophagitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - A 56-year-old man presents with progressively worsening dysphagia, which is worse for food...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents with progressively worsening dysphagia, which is worse for food than liquid. He has lost several stones in weight and, on examination, he is cachexia. An oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) confirms oesophageal cancer.
      Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for oesophageal adenocarcinoma?

      Your Answer: Barrett's oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk Factors for Oesophageal Cancer

      Oesophageal cancer is a type of cancer that is becoming increasingly common. It often presents with symptoms such as dysphagia, weight loss, and retrosternal chest pain. Adenocarcinomas, which are the most common type of oesophageal cancer, typically develop in the lower third of the oesophagus due to inflammation related to gastric reflux.

      One of the risk factors for oesophageal cancer is Barrett’s oesophagus, which is the metaplasia of the squamous epithelium of the lower oesophagus when exposed to an acidic environment. This adaptive change significantly increases the risk of malignant change. Treatment options for Barrett’s oesophagus include ablative or excisional therapy and acid-lowering medications. Follow-up with repeat endoscopy every 2–5 years is required.

      Blood group A is not a risk factor for oesophageal cancer, but it is associated with a 20% higher risk of stomach cancer compared to those with blood group O. A diet low in calcium is also not a risk factor for oesophageal carcinoma, but consumption of red meat is classified as a possible cause of oesophageal cancer. Those with the highest red meat intake have a 57% higher risk of oesophageal squamous cell carcinoma compared to those with the lowest intake.

      Ulcerative colitis is not a risk factor for oesophageal cancer, but it is a risk factor for bowel cancer. On the other hand, alcohol is typically a risk factor for squamous cell carcinomas. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk of developing oesophageal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man presents to the upper gastrointestinal surgeon with a 9-month history...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the upper gastrointestinal surgeon with a 9-month history of difficulty swallowing both liquids and solid foods. He also complains of regurgitating food. He has been eating smaller and smaller meals given the above symptoms. He has a past medical history of depression for which he takes citalopram. He has never smoked or drank alcohol. He has trialled over-the-counter proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) medication without any symptom relief.
      Physical examination is normal. A recent chest radiograph also appears to be normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is also normal.
      His observations are shown below:
      Temperature 36.8 °C
      Blood pressure 127/79 mmHg
      Heart rate 75 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 98% (room air)
      A diagnosis of achalasia is likely.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management for this condition?

      Your Answer: Pneumatic dilation

      Explanation:

      Achalasia is a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax, causing difficulty in swallowing and regurgitation. Pneumatic dilation is a treatment option that involves using a balloon to stretch the sphincter and reduce pressure in the esophagus. However, this procedure carries a risk of perforation and is only recommended for patients who are good surgical candidates. Botulinum toxin A injections can also be used to inhibit the neurons that increase sphincter tone, but may require repeat treatments. Gastrostomy, or creating an artificial opening into the stomach, is reserved for severe cases where other treatments have failed and the patient is not a surgical candidate. Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate and nifedipine are pharmacological options that can temporarily relax the sphincter and may be used as a bridge while waiting for definitive treatment or for patients who cannot tolerate invasive procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (21/30) 70%
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