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Question 1
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A 30-year-old donor experiences a sudden fainting spell during blood donation. What should be the immediate course of action to manage this adverse event?
Your Answer: Temporarily cease the donation, consider fluid replacement and elevate the donor's legs
Explanation:Donor safety is important in blood donation. Fainting is a common adverse event and should be treated by stopping the donation and reviving the donor. Elevation of the legs and monitoring vitals is necessary. Donors should be counseled on pre-donation expectations and encouraged to drink fluids after recovery. Hemoglobin checks are no longer required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
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A 28-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency assessment unit with concerns of fluid leakage from her vagina. Upon examination, her pad is saturated with what appears to be amniotic fluid. What component of the fluid may indicate premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?
Your Answer: Alpha fetoprotein
Explanation:Using Biomarkers to Detect Premature Rupture of Membranes
Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) can be difficult to diagnose in some cases. In 2006, a study was conducted to determine if measuring certain biomarkers in vaginal fluid could be used as an indicator of membrane rupture. The study found that alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) had the highest accuracy in predicting PROM, with a specificity and sensitivity of 94%. This suggests that AFP could be used as a marker in cases where diagnosis is uncertain.
In addition to AFP, other biomarkers have been identified for different purposes. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker for colon cancer, while cancer antigen 125 (CA125) is a tumor marker for ovarian cancer. By measuring these biomarkers, doctors can detect the presence of cancer and monitor its progression. Overall, biomarkers have proven to be a valuable tool in diagnosing and monitoring various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
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A plasma donor on a continuous flow separator machine experiences light headedness, muscle cramps, and circumoral paraesthesia. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Investigate and treat citrate toxicity
Explanation:Citrate Toxicity and Hypocalcaemia in Apheresis Patients
This patient is experiencing symptoms of citrate toxicity, which has led to hypocalcaemia. While it is possible for haemorrhage to occur at the site of venepuncture or venous access, this is typically easy to identify through clinical examination. Sepsis is an uncommon occurrence if proper aseptic precautions have been taken, and the symptoms described here are not indicative of an infection. Immediate treatment is necessary, and this can be achieved by slowing or stopping the apheresis process. Treatment options include the administration of oral or intravenous calcium replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 19-year-old Afro-Caribbean male with sickle cell disease complains of right upper abdominal pain and exhibits tenderness upon palpation. What diagnostic test should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan
Explanation:Pigment Gallstones and High Haem Turnover
In cases of chronic haemolysis, such as sickle cell disease or thalassaemia, the presence of unconjugated bilirubin in bile can lead to the formation of pigment gallstones. These stones are black in color and are caused by the precipitation of calcium bilirubinate from solution. The high concentration of unconjugated bilirubin in bile is a result of the increased turnover of haemoglobin. This can cause pain and discomfort for the patient. It is important to manage the underlying condition causing the high haem turnover to prevent the formation of pigment gallstones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
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A patient on a medical ward received a transfusion 72 hours ago for symptomatic anaemia on a background of chronic renal disease and obstructive airways disease. He has a history of previous transfusions in the last six months. The patient, who is in his 60s, has now dropped his Hb by 20 g/L compared to his pretransfusion level and reports a dark coloured urine. The LDH and bilirubin are elevated. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Your Answer: Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction
Explanation:Delayed Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction
A delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction can occur 24 hours after a transfusion in patients who have been previously immunised through transfusions or pregnancy. Initially, the antibodies are not detectable, but they become apparent as a secondary immune response to the antigen exposure during the transfusion. In such cases, it is essential to carry out a haemoglobin level, blood film, LDH, direct antiglobulin test, renal profile, serum bilirubin, haptoglobin, and urinalysis for haemoglobinuria. Additionally, the group and antibody screen should be repeated.
It is unlikely that the patient is experiencing a transfusion-associated graft versus host disease or acute hepatitis as both would occur within a week or two. Furthermore, this is not an acute haemolysis that would be expected to occur during the transfusion. The rise in bilirubin and LDH levels indicates a haemolytic reaction. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor the patient’s condition and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate management for a 65-year-old woman with confusion, profuse sweating, bluish discoloration of toes and fingertips, and a petechial rash on the left side of her anterior abdominal wall, who has a history of dysuria and was prescribed antibiotics by her GP three days ago, and is now found to have disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) based on her blood results?
Your Answer: Therapeutic dose low molecular weight (LMW) heparin, emergency blood transfusion of O-negative (universal donor) blood, urine output monitoring, 500 ml 0.9% saline stat, serum lactate measurement, blood and urine cultures, empirical IV antibiotics and titration of oxygen to ≥94%
Correct Answer: Blood cross-match, urine output monitoring, 500 ml 0.9% saline stat, serum lactate measurement, blood and urine cultures, empirical IV antibiotics and titration of oxygen to ≥94%
Explanation:Managing DIC in a Patient with Septic Shock: Evaluating Treatment Options
When managing a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), it is important to consider the underlying condition causing the DIC. In the case of a patient with septic shock secondary to a urinary tract infection, the sepsis 6 protocol should be initiated alongside pre-emptive management for potential blood loss.
While a blood cross-match is sensible, emergency blood products such as platelets are unwarranted in the absence of acute bleeding. Activated protein C, previously recommended for DIC management, has been removed from guidelines due to increased bleeding risk without overall mortality benefit.
Anticoagulation with low molecular weight heparin is unnecessary at this time, especially when given with blood products, which are pro-coagulant. Tranexamic acid and platelet transfusions are only warranted in the presence of severe active bleeding.
Prophylactic dose unfractionated heparin may be a good management strategy in the presence of both thrombotic complications and increased bleeding risk, but should be given at a treatment dose if deemed necessary. Ultimately, managing the underlying septic shock is the best way to manage DIC in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
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A 35-year-old man comes to you seeking advice. He had a splenectomy ten years ago after a cycling accident and has been in good health since. However, a friend recently told him that he should be receiving treatment for his splenectomy. He is currently not taking any medication.
What would you recommend to him?Your Answer: Pneumococcal vaccination
Explanation:Asplenic Patients and the Importance of Vaccination
Asplenic patients are individuals who have had their spleen removed, leaving them at risk of overwhelming bacterial infections, particularly from pneumococcus and meningococcus. To prevent such infections, it is recommended that these patients receive the Pneumovax vaccine two weeks before surgery or immediately after emergency surgery. This vaccine should be repeated every five years. Additionally, influenzae vaccination is also recommended to prevent super added bacterial infections.
While oral penicillin is recommended for children, its long-term use in adults is a topic of debate. However, current guidance suggests that splenectomized patients should receive both antibiotic prophylaxis and appropriate immunization. It is crucial to take these preventative measures to protect asplenic patients from potentially life-threatening infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman comes in with a swollen and hot right calf. She had undergone a right knee arthroscopy and had been immobile for a while. She only takes paracetamol and codeine for osteoarthritis as needed. An above-knee deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is detected on ultrasound, which is her first DVT. What is the recommended treatment?
Your Answer: Three months of apixaban
Explanation:Management of Deep Vein Thrombosis and Pulmonary Embolism
Apixaban and rivaroxaban are the preferred medications for treating deep vein thrombosis (DVT), except for patients with renal impairment or antiphospholipid syndrome. Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) and warfarin are alternative options for those who cannot take apixaban or rivaroxaban. Thrombolysis is used to manage pulmonary embolism (PE) in patients with haemodynamic instability.
The duration of anticoagulation treatment depends on the type of DVT. For provoked DVTs, which have an identifiable cause, treatment is recommended for at least three months. After this period, the risks and benefits of continuing anticoagulation treatment must be assessed to determine further treatment. For unprovoked DVTs, which have no identifiable cause, treatment is recommended for at least six months. After this period, a risk and benefit assessment is required to determine further treatment.
NICE has provided a helpful visual summary to assist in the management of DVT and PE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with a painful and swollen right leg that has been bothering her for the past three days. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis in the same leg ten years ago after returning from her honeymoon in Australia. Additionally, she was treated for pleurisy three years ago by her general practitioner. She has been experiencing recurrent water infections for the past two years, with intermittent bouts of flank pain and dark urine in the morning. Her general practitioner has recently investigated this issue, but the ultrasound scan of her renal tract and intravenous pyelogram were normal. She works as a cashier in a building society and lives with her husband and two children. She does not have a recent history of travel, but she smokes 10 cigarettes daily and occasionally drinks alcohol. On examination, her right calf is swollen, red, and tender, but she appears otherwise well. Her blood tests show low hemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets, as well as elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
Explanation:Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria: A Clonal Defect of Red Cells
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) is a condition where red blood cells have an increased susceptibility to lysis by complement due to an acquired clonal defect. This disorder typically presents in young adults and is often associated with other stem cell disorders, such as aplastic anaemia. The classic symptom of PNH is the intermittent passage of bloody urine, which tends to occur more frequently at night for unknown reasons. Diagnosis is often made through investigation of anaemia, pancytopenia, or recurrent thrombotic episodes, which are likely caused by complement-induced platelet aggregation. Flow cytometry can confirm the diagnosis by demonstrating a lack of erythrocyte membrane proteins CD59 and decay accelerating factor (DAF).
Overall, PNH is a rare but serious condition that can lead to significant complications if left untreated. Early diagnosis and management are crucial for improving outcomes and preventing further damage to the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
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A 65-year-old African-American has marked left-sided weakness and an expressive aphasia. He is diagnosed with a stroke. Blood results show the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 90 g/l 135–175 g/l
Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
calcium 3.80 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
creatinine 128 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which investigation is likely to reveal the cause of this man’s stroke?Your Answer: Urinary Bence Jones proteins
Explanation:Investigations for a Patient with Stroke and Suspected Multiple Myeloma
When a patient presents with symptoms of stroke and possible multiple myeloma, several investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the cause of the stroke. The mnemonic CRAB (high Calcium, Renal insufficiency, Anaemia and Bone lesions) can help identify the key symptoms of multiple myeloma.
One potential test is a urinary Bence Jones protein test, which can confirm the presence of multiple myeloma. However, this test alone cannot determine the cause of the stroke.
An MRI of the head may show areas of damage, but it will not reveal the cause of the stroke. A CT scan of the head, on the other hand, can identify changes caused by an ischaemic stroke, but it cannot differentiate the cause of the clot.
Liver function tests and X-rays of the spine are not first-line investigations for this condition, but they may be useful in identifying bone lesions associated with multiple myeloma.
Overall, a combination of tests and imaging may be necessary to diagnose and treat a patient with stroke and suspected multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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