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  • Question 1 - A 58-year-old woman is brought to the doctors by her son. Three weeks...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman is brought to the doctors by her son. Three weeks ago her husband died from pancreatic cancer. She reports being tearful every day but her son is concerned because she is constantly 'picking fights' with him over minor matters and issues relating to their family past. The son also reports that she has on occasion described hearing her husband talking to her and on one occasion she set a place for him at the dinner table.

      Despite this she has started going to yoga classes again with friends and says that she is determined to get 'back on track'.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal grief reaction

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief Reactions

      Grief is a natural response to the loss of a loved one, but it can be helpful to have an understanding of the potential stages a person may go through while grieving. One popular model divides grief into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. However, not everyone will experience all five stages.

      Abnormal or atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women and when the death is sudden or unexpected. Other risk factors include a problematic relationship before death or a lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving doesn’t begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which can last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.

      It is important to note that grief doesn’t necessarily need to be medicalized, but understanding the potential stages and risk factors can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal grief reaction or if they may need additional support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television. You suspect he may have schizophrenia.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the treatment of schizophrenia.

      Your Answer: Clozapine is indicated for treatment-resistant schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic Medication for Schizophrenia: Types, Side-Effects, and Treatment Options

      Antipsychotic medication is commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly positive symptoms. However, they may not be as effective for negative symptoms. Newer or atypical antipsychotics, such as amisulpride, aripiprazole, clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, and sertindole, are often preferred as they have a better balance between efficacy and side-effects.

      First-generation antipsychotic drugs, also known as typical antipsychotics, primarily block dopamine D2 receptors in the brain, which can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin. Second-generation antipsychotic drugs, or atypical antipsychotics, act on a wider range of receptors and have more distinct clinical profiles. Both types of antipsychotics are effective in treating schizophrenia.

      Early treatment is recommended to prevent further deterioration of brain functioning. In some cases, long-acting antipsychotic injections may be used to improve compliance. Benzodiazepines may also be used as a short-term adjunct therapy for behavior disturbances, insomnia, aggression, and agitation, although the evidence supporting this is limited.

      Clozapine is indicated for patients with schizophrenia who are unresponsive to or intolerant of conventional antipsychotic drugs. It can only be prescribed by a specialist and requires at least two previous trials of antipsychotics, including one newer/atypical antipsychotic, at adequate dosages and treatment periods. However, it carries a risk of life-threatening neutropenia as a potential side-effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 3 - A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose...

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    • A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose following a recent break-up. He has entered into a new relationship but is struggling with frequent outbursts of anger. The patient has a history of childhood abuse and struggles with maintaining healthy relationships. He reports experiencing frequent mood swings between low and elevated states. The overdose was not premeditated and the patient has a history of similar incidents. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The young woman who overdosed on paracetamol after breaking up with her boyfriend is now in a new relationship that is plagued by her frequent angry outbursts, indicating borderline personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by rapidly changing intense emotions, difficulties in maintaining relationships, feelings of emptiness, fear of abandonment, impulsive behavior, and self-harm. Bipolar affective disorder is not the correct diagnosis as it involves periods of depression and mania, which are not reported in this case. Dependent personality disorder and histrionic personality disorder are also not applicable as they have different symptoms such as low confidence, difficulty making decisions without support, and a need for attention.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old woman is concerned about the possibility of developing dementia. What are...

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    • A 75-year-old woman is concerned about the possibility of developing dementia. What are the typical initial symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Progressive memory impairment, apraxia and dysphasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Alzheimer’s Disease

      Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is a neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects the brain’s temporoparietal cortex. The most common symptom of AD is progressive memory loss, which is often accompanied by other cognitive deficits such as apraxia, aphasia, acalculia, and visuospatial dysfunction. However, it is important to note that not all cognitive deficits are indicative of AD. For example, the combination of progressive memory impairment and pyramidal signs is an unusual presentation for AD, as pyramidal signs are not typically associated with this condition. Similarly, personality changes and extrapyramidal signs are unlikely to be caused by AD, as these symptoms are more commonly seen in frontotemporal dementia. While some patients with advanced stages of AD may experience seizures or myoclonic jerks, these symptoms are not typically present during the early stages of the disease. Overall, a thorough understanding of the symptoms of AD is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity and impulsivity. There is no history of substance abuse, general medical problems, emotional stresses or depressive episodes. Laboratory tests for liver and thyroid functions are normal. Mental status examination reveals a well-oriented woman with pressured speech and mood lability, but no psychotic symptoms.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Hypomania

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypomania and Antisocial Personality Disorder

      Hypomania is a mood disorder characterized by an elevated and euphoric mood, increased activity, decreased need for sleep, and impaired judgement. It is a feature of bipolar disorder 2 and cyclothymia, and can also occur in drug-induced mood disorders. Antisocial personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by a disregard for and violation of others’ rights since age 15, and typically presents in adulthood. It is important to distinguish between these two disorders, as they have different diagnostic criteria and treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 6 - While working in psychiatry, you are taking a history from a patient with...

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    • While working in psychiatry, you are taking a history from a patient with a new diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). You take a thorough past medical history. Which of the following is a risk factor for GAD development?

      Your Answer: Being divorced or separated

      Explanation:

      Generalised anxiety disorder is more likely to occur in individuals who are divorced or separated, as well as those who are aged 35-54, living alone, or a lone parent. Conversely, being married or cohabiting and aged 16-24 are protective factors against the development of GAD. It is important to note that having a hyperthyroid disease or atrial fibrillation may cause symptoms similar to GAD, but they do not increase the risk of developing the disorder.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 7 - A 49-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to the psychiatrist who recommended an increase in her lithium dose for better symptom control. Her renal function is stable and you prescribe the recommended higher dose of lithium. When should her levels be rechecked?

      Your Answer: In 1 week

      Explanation:

      Lithium levels should be monitored weekly after a change in dose until they become stable. This means that after an increase in lithium dose, the levels should be checked again after one week, and then weekly until they stabilize. The ideal time to check lithium levels is 12 hours after the dose is taken. Waiting for a month after a dose adjustment is too long, while checking after three days is too soon. Once the levels become stable, they can be checked every three months for the first year. After a year, low-risk patients can have their lithium testing reduced to every six months, according to the BNF. However, NICE guidance recommends that three-monthly testing should continue indefinitely. Additionally, patients on lithium should have their thyroid function tests monitored every six months.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.

      Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old patient complains of nausea, headaches, and palpitations. He has been admitted...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient complains of nausea, headaches, and palpitations. He has been admitted multiple times in the past 2 years with similar symptoms, but no organic cause has been identified. What type of disorder is likely to be the cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.

      Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry

      In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman has been taking with citalopram 40 mg daily for 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been taking with citalopram 40 mg daily for 6 weeks for moderately severe depression. She doesn't feel there has been much improvement. She has had suicidal thoughts but these have been only transient. She does have a history of a previous drug overdose. She has refused psychological treatments.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer: Refer to a psychiatrist

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Managing Partial or No Response to Antidepressant Medication

      When a patient shows partial or no response to antidepressant medication within 2-4 weeks, it is important to check for adherence to and side-effects from the drug. If these factors are not the issue, the doctor should consider increasing the dose. However, if the patient is already receiving the highest dose of a medication such as citalopram (40 mg daily), switching to an alternative antidepressant may be necessary. This could include another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor or a newer, better-tolerated antidepressant like mirtazapine, moclobemide, or reboxetine. It is important to consult guidance regarding switching, particularly in regards to washout times. Tricyclic antidepressants or venlafaxine should be avoided if there is a risk of overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 10 - Your practice nurse brings her 14-year-old daughter to see you.
    She has recently...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice nurse brings her 14-year-old daughter to see you.
      She has recently been seen by a child and adolescent psychiatrist, who has diagnosed mild to moderate depression. She is being seen again tomorrow and mother wants to talk through the treatment options with you.
      What is the first line treatment for mild to moderate depression in a 14-year-old?

      Your Answer: Referral for psychological therapy

      Correct Answer: Treatment with a tricyclic antidepressant alone

      Explanation:

      First Line Treatment for Psychological Disorders

      When it comes to treating psychological disorders, it is important to offer the right therapy as a first line treatment. According to experts, one of the following specific psychological therapies should be offered for at least three months: individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive behavioural therapy, or guided self-help. However, before starting any therapy, it is recommended to wait for up to four weeks and monitor the symptoms. This is known as watchful waiting. If the symptoms persist, then one of the psychological therapies mentioned above should be offered. By following this approach, patients can receive the most effective treatment for their psychological disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to tension in his relationship with his girlfriend. He expresses concerns that she may be spending time with her ex-boyfriend who works in the same office as her. He has had similar experiences in past relationships and feels as though he will never find the perfect partner, leading to mood swings and feelings of loneliness. He also admits to self-harming but denies any suicidal thoughts. Following a risk assessment, he is referred to psychiatry and diagnosed with borderline personality disorder.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this 28-year-old man with borderline personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Interpersonal therapy

      Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)

      Explanation:

      Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) is an effective treatment for borderline personality disorder, as it is specifically designed to help individuals who experience intense emotions. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is not a targeted therapy for personality disorder patients and is more beneficial for those with depression or anxiety-related conditions. Exposure and response prevention therapy (ERP) is a treatment option for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, while eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy (EMDR) is a treatment option for patients with post-traumatic stress disorder.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic after four weeks of starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic after four weeks of starting fluoxetine treatment for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior history of taking antidepressants and has no other medical conditions. During the assessment, she denies any suicidal thoughts and has good support from her partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She reports no adverse effects from fluoxetine but has heard positive feedback about St John's Wort from a friend. What would be the most appropriate action to take for this patient?

      Your Answer: Increase the dose of Fluoxetine and arrange weekly telephone contact to increase support

      Correct Answer: Change to a tricyclic antidepressant

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs

      When a patient has been taking a Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.

      There are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, it is important to note that switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics requires great caution as it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.

      Although there is some evidence of the benefit of St John’s Wort, it is not recommended that doctors prescribe or advocate its use due to the lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and antiepileptics.

      For moderate depression, Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication. It is important to monitor the patient’s response to treatment and adjust accordingly to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 13 - You suspect a 45-year-old man is abusing alcohol. You wish to use the...

    Correct

    • You suspect a 45-year-old man is abusing alcohol. You wish to use the CAGE questionnaire.
      Select from the list below the single item that is NOT part of the CAGE questionnaire.

      Your Answer: Amount of alcohol consumed per week in units

      Explanation:

      The CAGE: A Brief Tool for Screening Alcohol Misuse/Dependence

      The CAGE is a concise screening tool used to identify individuals who may be misusing or dependent on alcohol. It consists of four questions, and a positive response to two or more questions indicates probable alcohol misuse/dependence. However, a definitive diagnosis can only be made through a diagnostic evaluation to determine the individual’s actual treatment needs. The four questions ask if the individual has ever considered cutting down on their drinking, if they get annoyed by others commenting on their drinking, if they feel guilty about their drinking, and if they have an eye-opener. The CAGE is a quick and effective way to identify potential alcohol-related issues and guide individuals towards appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 14 - Sarah is a 44-year-old who undergoes regular blood tests for a health assessment....

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 44-year-old who undergoes regular blood tests for a health assessment. Her blood results reveal the following:

      Na+ 125 mmol/l
      K+ 4.3 mmol/l
      Urea 5.3 mmol/l
      Creatinine 60 µmol/l

      She is currently taking the following medications: sertraline, carbimazole, amlodipine, metformin, aspirin. Which of her prescribed drugs is likely responsible for her low sodium levels?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia is a known side effect of SSRIs, with sertraline being the specific medication associated with this condition. Other drugs that can cause low sodium levels include chlorpropramide, carbamazepine, tricyclic antidepressants, lithium, MDMA/ecstasy, tramadol, haloperidol, vincristine, desmopressin, and fluphenazine.

      Side-Effects of SSRIs

      SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.

      When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.

      When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 15 - A 36-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behavior....

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behavior. Her husband reports that the changes have occurred mostly in the past week and he has never seen this behavior before. He often wakes up to find her walking around the house and talking to people who are not there. During the consultation, the patient appears distracted and occasionally smiles and waves at the wall behind the doctor. There is no history of psychiatric illness in the patient or her family. The patient doesn't seem distressed and politely asks if she can leave as she believes the appointment is a waste of time.

      The patient takes loratadine 10 mg once daily for hay-fever, salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma, and has recently started a combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She is also taking a course of prednisolone tablets following a recent exacerbation of her asthma.

      Which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      When a person experiences sudden onset psychosis after taking corticosteroids, it is important to consider the possibility of steroid-induced psychosis. Although both the beclomethasone inhaler and prednisolone are corticosteroids, the higher dose of prednisolone makes it the more likely culprit for the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.

      Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.

      The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 16 - A patient with chronic depression in their 50s comes for advice about changing...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with chronic depression in their 50s comes for advice about changing medication. They have been to the psychiatrist who wants to change them from their monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) to a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).

      The patient cannot remember how long they were told to wait between stopping the MAOI and starting the SSRI.

      What is the recommended time interval between stopping the MAOI and starting the SSRI?

      Your Answer: 14 days

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Recommended Interval Before Starting Antidepressants After Stopping MAOI

      After stopping a MAOI, it is recommended to wait before starting most other antidepressants. The interval should be two weeks, except for imipramine or clomipramine, where the interval should be three weeks. This is important to avoid potential adverse reactions and interactions between the medications. It is crucial to follow the recommended interval to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the antidepressant treatment.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of coronary...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of coronary artery disease and hypertension and has, over the past week, become suspicious of her neighbours and daughter. She has accused her daughter of trying to steal her fiancé (who doesn't exist) and accused her neighbours of entering her house at night and stealing her belongings, although she is unable to state what is missing. The daughter reports that, over the previous year, the patient has become increasingly forgetful and functioned less well, to the point that she is now no longer able to cook or manage her own finances.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Dementia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Diagnoses in Older Adults

      Dementia is a condition that affects memory, thinking, and social abilities, leading to a decline in daily functioning. Symptoms worsen gradually over time, unlike delirium, which has a sudden onset and can coexist with dementia. Late-onset schizophrenia-like psychosis may also occur in older adults, often due to underlying medical conditions. Depression is common but not present in this case. Drug-induced psychosis is a possibility with polypharmacy, but not in this patient’s case, where dementia is the likely diagnosis. Understanding these different diagnoses is crucial in providing appropriate care for older adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 18 - What is the correct statement regarding ADHD in teenagers and adults? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding ADHD in teenagers and adults?

      Your Answer: ADHD doesn't present for the first time in these age groups

      Correct Answer: Dyslexia may co-exist

      Explanation:

      Understanding Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

      Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a condition characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that is more severe than what is typically seen in individuals at a comparable level of development. While it is usually diagnosed in children aged 3-7 years, it can also be recognized later in life, sometimes only in adulthood. To qualify for a diagnosis of ADHD, symptoms must be present before the age of 12, although recalling past symptoms can be challenging, making diagnosis more difficult.

      ADHD is more common in children with learning disabilities and is part of a spectrum of disorders. Around 70% of individuals with ADHD also have other conditions, such as dyslexia, language disorders, autistic spectrum disorder, dyspraxia, Tourette syndrome, or tic disorder. Oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder is present in most children with ADHD. Associated problems include self-harm, a predisposition to accidents, substance misuse, delinquency, anxiety states, mood disorder, and academic underachievement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 19 - A 20-year-old woman with a history of anorexia nervosa has a body mass...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman with a history of anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16 kg/m2. She has lost 2 kg steadily over the past four weeks. She is unable to sit up from lying flat without using her hands or to stand from the squatting position without using her hands. Lanugo is present. Her hands feel cold to the touch.
      Which feature of the patient’s physical examination would be most suggestive of impending high risk to life?

      Your Answer: Inability to sit up or squat without using the hands

      Explanation:

      Identifying High Risk Factors in Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that can lead to life-threatening complications. The Royal College of Psychiatrists in the United Kingdom has issued guidance on recognising medical emergencies in eating disorders. Here are some key factors to consider when assessing the risk to life in anorexia nervosa:

      Sit up–Squat–Stand (SUSS) test: This test involves asking a patient to sit up from a lying position and to stand up from a squatting position without using their hands. Inability to do this is associated with impending high risk to life.

      Rate of weight loss: A weight loss of 500-999 g per week presents a moderate risk to life, whereas weight loss of >1 kg per week confers a high risk.

      BMI: A BMI of greater than 15 kg/m2 represents a low impending risk to life, whereas a BMI of <13 kg/m2 is a high risk. Cool peripheries: Although cool peripheries may be seen on examination in anorexia nervosa, they are not associated with a high risk to life. However, a core temperature of less than 35 °C is. Lanugo: Lanugo is a covering of soft downy hair often seen in people with anorexia, but it is not identified as being associated with an increased risk to life in anorexia nervosa. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate interventions to prevent life-threatening complications.

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  • Question 20 - A 40-year-old female patient presents to you for a follow-up after commencing sertraline...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old female patient presents to you for a follow-up after commencing sertraline for depression one week ago. She reports no improvement in her mood and mentions experiencing abdominal pain, nausea, and occasional diarrhoea since starting the medication. Despite this, you determine that she still requires antidepressant treatment. What is the optimal approach to address this issue?

      Your Answer: Continue the sertraline and review in one week

      Explanation:

      Given that the patient has been experiencing GI symptoms for only a week, it may be prudent to maintain the current treatment regimen while conducting a more thorough evaluation.

      Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants

      When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.

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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his sister. He has...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his sister. He has been convinced that aliens are monitoring his every move for 4 months, without any history of substance abuse. He claims to have heard their voices in his head and believes that they are planning to abduct him. His sister is worried that he might harm himself and reports that he has been talking about ways to escape from the aliens. When asked directly, the patient denies having suicidal thoughts but says he will do whatever it takes to avoid being taken by the aliens. He appears to have a blunted affect but is otherwise calm.

      What is the percentage of patients with this diagnosis who complete suicide?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      It is common for individuals with schizophrenia to make statements about doing what it takes to avoid their perceived pursuers, such as taking a cyanide pill. However, these statements may not necessarily indicate overt suicidal plans or thoughts, but rather stem from delusions. Therefore, a comprehensive assessment of their mental state and other risk factors is necessary to accurately evaluate their level of risk for suicide.

      The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 22 - A 52-year-old man is a frequent attendee at his General Practice Surgery with...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man is a frequent attendee at his General Practice Surgery with health worries. He has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease and is worried he may have heart disease although he has no symptoms of this, no risk factors and his QRisk2 score is 2.5%. He has consulted several doctors in the practice with this concern in the past 12 months.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Illness anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Illness Anxiety Disorder from Other Conditions

      Illness anxiety disorder is a mental health condition characterized by excessive worry about having or acquiring a serious health condition. This preoccupation can lead to excessive health-seeking behavior or maladaptive avoidance techniques. It is important to differentiate illness anxiety disorder from other conditions with similar symptoms.

      Somatic symptom disorder, for example, is a condition where the patient experiences distressing physical symptoms that cause persistent thoughts about the seriousness of the cause. However, the patient described in this case doesn’t have any physical symptoms.

      Generalized anxiety disorder is another condition where excessive worry is present, but it is not specific to health concerns. In this case, the patient’s worries are focused solely on his own health.

      Ischemic heart disease is unlikely as the patient has no symptoms or risk factors.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder is a condition where intrusive, recurrent thoughts and compulsive behaviors are present. However, there are no obsessions or compulsions described in this case.

      Therefore, based on the patient’s symptoms and history, illness anxiety disorder is the most likely diagnosis.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 23 - A 38-year-old recently divorced woman has been a frequent consulter with different physical...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old recently divorced woman has been a frequent consulter with different physical symptoms. You suspect she may be suffering from a generalised anxiety disorder (GAD).
      Select from the list the problem that is least likely to be due to GAD.

      Your Answer: Eczematous rash

      Explanation:

      The Relationship Between Generalized Anxiety Disorder and Eczematous Rash

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is not typically the direct cause of an eczematous rash, but it can exacerbate itching and scratching. Patients with GAD may experience a range of physical symptoms, including autonomic arousal symptoms like palpitations, sweating, shaking, and dry mouth. Chest and abdominal symptoms, such as choking, dyspnea, chest pain, nausea, and discomfort, are also common. Other symptoms may include dizziness, hot flashes, tingling, aches and pains, or a lump in the throat with difficulty swallowing (not true dysphagia).

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 24 - You are caring for a 34-year-old female patient on the ward when you...

    Correct

    • You are caring for a 34-year-old female patient on the ward when you start to feel uneasy about her behavior towards you. She has been making sexually suggestive remarks and during your last check, she was wearing provocative lingerie. She frequently causes disturbances on the ward and is easily influenced by other patients. Your consultant advises you to refrain from seeing the patient alone and informs you that the patient has a personality disorder.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Histrionic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Histrionic personality disorder is a condition where individuals have a strong desire to be the center of attention, often displaying inappropriate sexual behavior or dress and being easily influenced by others. They may form intense relationships, but may also misinterpret the level of intimacy in these relationships.

      Schizoid personality disorder is unlikely in this case as individuals with this condition typically lack interest in sexual interactions and prefer to be alone rather than forming close friendships.

      Schizotypal personality disorder may involve odd or eccentric beliefs or behavior, but individuals with this condition often struggle to form friendships and may be paranoid or suspicious, making it less likely to be the correct diagnosis for this patient.

      Antisocial personality disorder involves a disregard for social norms and lawful behavior, often resulting in multiple arrests. These individuals can be aggressive and deceitful, but this doesn’t match the behavior of the patient in the stem.

      Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and recurrent self-harm attempts. Like histrionic personality disorder, individuals with borderline personality disorder may form intense relationships, but these relationships are often unstable.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 25 - A 22-year-old college student presents with insomnia, anxiety, and flashbacks. She experienced a...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old college student presents with insomnia, anxiety, and flashbacks. She experienced a traumatic event two weeks ago when a young man demanded her phone and purse while she was walking home from a party. She was alone and feared for her safety. Since then, she has been struggling with nightmares and flashbacks, which have disrupted her sleep. She has also been avoiding going out alone. Can you prescribe something to help her sleep?

      Is this response appropriate for a patient who has experienced a traumatic event?

      Your Answer: Acute stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within four weeks of a traumatic event. It is different from PTSD, which is diagnosed after four weeks have passed.

      Although this scenario has the potential to develop into post-traumatic stress disorder, it is currently classified as acute stress disorder as it has only been two weeks since the event. It is important to monitor the patient’s progress and reassess in two weeks.

      Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks and is often accompanied by agoraphobia. To be diagnosed with panic disorder, the individual must experience persisting anxiety about the recurrence of attacks for at least one month.

      Depression is characterized by persistent low mood and/or loss of pleasure in most activities, along with a range of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.

      Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive, pervasive, and uncontrollable worry, along with a range of somatic, cognitive, and behavioral symptoms that occur on a continuum of severity. To be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, the symptoms must be pervasive and persistent for longer than two weeks.

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.

      The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.

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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and dizziness in her arms and legs for the past three days. She has a medical history of chronic pain, depression, and schizophrenia. When you inquire about her medications and drug use, she seems hesitant to provide a clear response.

      What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer: SSRI discontinuation syndrome

      Explanation:

      SSRI discontinuation syndrome can cause symptoms such as dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety when SSRIs are suddenly stopped or reduced. It is possible that the woman in question has decided to stop taking her antidepressants. On the other hand, alcohol withdrawal typically results in anxiety, tremors, and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare reaction that can occur with antipsychotic use and may cause fever, confusion, and muscle rigidity. Opiate withdrawal may cause anxiety, sweating, and gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea and vomiting.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her son for...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her son for a review. She has a history of Parkinson disease, which was first diagnosed eight years ago.
      Which of the following mental health problems the is most frequently associated with this patient's established diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Mental Health Abnormalities in Parkinson’s Disease: Understanding Depression and Other Disorders

      Parkinson’s disease (PD) is not just a motor disorder, as more than 60% of patients experience one or more psychiatric symptoms. Depression is the most common, affecting approximately 45% of all patients with PD. Interestingly, depression doesn’t correlate with the stage of motor deficits and can reduce the quality of life independently of motor symptoms. Anxiety and depression may even be present many years before the appearance of motor symptoms.

      Other mental health disorders associated with PD include psychosis, impulse-control disorders, mania, and sleep disturbances. Impulse control disorders are not associated with the frequency of depression, while mania is less frequently associated with PD than depression. Psychosis and mania are not as well associated with PD as depression. Sleep disturbances are also associated with PD, but depression is the most frequently associated condition.

      The origins of these mental health disorders have been attributed to both the underlying pathophysiology of PD and the adverse effects of antiparkinsonian drugs. Additionally, dementia is common in PD, affecting 20-40% of patients with a 2-fold to 6-fold increased risk compared to control populations.

      Overall, understanding the various mental health abnormalities associated with PD is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant.

      Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a proton pump inhibitor as a precautionary measure?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      When prescribing an SSRI such as citalopram for depression, it is important to consider the potential risk of GI bleeding, especially if the patient is already taking an NSAID. This is because SSRIs can deplete platelet serotonin, which can reduce clot formation and increase the risk of bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a PPI should also be prescribed.

      Other antidepressants such as TCAs like amitriptyline, typical antipsychotics like haloperidol, and MAOIs like selegiline are not commonly associated with GI bleeds. St John’s Wort, an alternative treatment for depression, has not been linked to an increased risk of GI bleeding but can interact with other medications and increase the risk of serotonin syndrome when used with other antidepressants.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old teacher comes to see you because she feels depressed.

    She was recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old teacher comes to see you because she feels depressed.

      She was recently given a new class to teach and feels overwhelmed. She believes that her colleagues think she is not capable of handling the class and that her teaching is not up to par. She has started to wake up in the early hours and then worry about her job.

      Her reason for coming to the clinic is that she has been feeling irritable and short-tempered with her students, and her partner thinks she should seek help. She doesn't smoke or drink alcohol.

      How would you evaluate her symptoms of depression?

      Your Answer: A PHQ-9 questionnaire

      Correct Answer: An IPSS symptom score

      Explanation:

      Popular Questionnaires in General Practice

      Questionnaires are commonly used in general practice to detect and assess the severity of illnesses. One such questionnaire is the PHQ-9, which is a nine-item depression scale that assists general practitioners in diagnosing depression and monitoring treatment. The PHQ-2, a two-item questionnaire, is also used for screening depression.

      The CAGE questionnaire, on the other hand, is a screening test for alcohol problem drinking and is not used to assess depression. The GPCOG assessment is a screening tool for symptoms of dementia, while the GPPAQ questionnaire is a validated short measure of physical activity commissioned by the Department of Health.

      It is important to note that the IPSS questionnaire, which is an international prostate symptom score questionnaire, is not relevant to the assessment of depression. Overall, these questionnaires serve as powerful tools for general practitioners in diagnosing and monitoring various illnesses.

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  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes to your clinic with his sister....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes to your clinic with his sister. She is worried about him as he has been acting differently lately. Until about a year ago, he was doing well in his job and spent a lot of time with his friends. However, over the past 6 months, he has become increasingly withdrawn and appears to be depressed. He rarely leaves his apartment, preferring to stay inside all day. His sister has noticed that he has been smoking marijuana and has become increasingly suspicious of her. He has lost interest in his hobbies and his work performance has suffered. Their father is no longer in the picture, but she remembers him as being a very suspicious man who had difficulty trusting others.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Prodromal schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Recognizing the Schizophrenia Prodrome and Differentiating it from Normal Teenage Behaviour

      The early signs of schizophrenia, known as the prodrome, are often overlooked and misdiagnosed as typical teenage behaviour or depression. These symptoms include a loss of motivation and performance, increased withdrawal and preference for solitary activities, personality changes with heightened suspicion, poor sleep, and irritability. While not all individuals with these symptoms will develop schizophrenia, there is a higher risk. It is crucial to be vigilant in recognizing and managing the first episode of psychosis to ensure proper treatment and a better prognosis. On the other hand, normal teenage behaviour may involve aloofness, a desire for more independence, feeling misunderstood, rejecting parental affection, or appearing moody. Conduct disorder, characterized by oppositional and defiant behaviour and antisocial activities, and paranoid personality disorder, marked by pervasive distrust and suspicion, are distinct from the schizophrenia prodrome and require different approaches to treatment.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Mental Health (21/30) 70%
Passmed