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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man experienced acute kidney injury caused by rhabdomyolysis after completing his first marathon. He was started on haemodialysis due to uraemic pericarditis. What symptom or sign would indicate the presence of cardiac tamponade?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus
Explanation:Understanding Pericarditis and Related Symptoms
Pericarditis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart. One of the signs of pericarditis is pulsus paradoxus, which is a drop in systolic blood pressure of more than 10 mmHg during inspiration. This occurs when the pericardial effusion normalizes the wall pressures across all the chambers, causing the septum to bulge into the left ventricle, reducing stroke volume and blood pressure. Pleuritic chest pain is not a common symptom of pericarditis, and confusion is not related to pericarditis or incipient tamponade. A pericardial friction rub is an audible medical sign used in the diagnosis of pericarditis, while a pericardial knock is a pulse synchronous sound that can be heard in constrictive pericarditis. Understanding these symptoms can aid in the diagnosis and management of pericarditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea that has lasted for four days. He has been unable to keep down any fluids and is dehydrated, so he is started on an intravenous infusion. Upon investigation, his potassium level is found to be 2.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9). What ECG abnormality would you anticipate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S-T segment depression
Explanation:Hypokalaemia and Hyperkalaemia
Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This can be caused by excess loss of potassium from the gastrointestinal or renal tract, decreased oral intake of potassium, alkalosis, or insulin excess. Additionally, hypokalaemia can be seen if blood is taken from an arm in which IV fluid is being run. The characteristic ECG changes associated with hypokalaemia include S-T segment depression, U-waves, inverted T waves, and prolonged P-R interval.
On the other hand, hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. This can be caused by kidney failure, medications, or other medical conditions. The changes that may be seen with hyperkalaemia include tall, tented T-waves, wide QRS complexes, and small P waves.
It is important to understand the causes and symptoms of both hypokalaemia and hyperkalaemia in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions. Regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECG changes can help in the management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A woman with known angina currently managed on glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray presents to Accident and Emergency with crushing central chest pain. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST depression and flat T waves. She is managed as acute coronary syndrome without ST elevation.
Which one of the following options is most likely to be used in her immediate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fondaparinux
Explanation:Medications for Acute Coronary Syndrome: Indications and Uses
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a medical emergency that requires prompt and appropriate treatment to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. The management of ACS involves a combination of medications and interventions, depending on the type and severity of the condition. Here are some commonly used medications for ACS and their indications:
1. Fondaparinux: This medication is a factor Xa inhibitor that is used for anticoagulation in ACS without ST-segment elevation. It is usually given along with other drugs such as aspirin, clopidogrel, and nitrates to prevent blood clots and reduce the risk of future cardiovascular events.
2. Warfarin: This medication is used for the treatment and prevention of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism. It is not indicated for the immediate management of ACS.
3. Furosemide: This medication is a diuretic that is used to treat pulmonary edema in patients with heart failure. It is not indicated for ACS as it may cause dehydration.
4. Paracetamol: This medication is not effective as an analgesic option for ACS. Morphine is commonly used for pain relief in ACS.
5. Simvastatin: This medication is a statin that is used for the long-term management of high cholesterol levels. It is not indicated for the initial management of ACS.
In summary, the management of ACS involves a combination of medications and interventions that are tailored to the individual patient’s needs. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help improve outcomes and reduce the risk of future cardiovascular events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old patient is evaluated in the Pre-Assessment Clinic before undergoing elective surgery for varicose veins. The patient is in good health, with the only significant medical history being well-controlled hypertension with lisinopril. During the examination, the clinician hears an early opening snap in diastole when listening to the patient's heart. What is the most probable cause of this finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:
Mitral Stenosis: This condition causes a mid-diastolic murmur that is best heard with the bell of the stethoscope over the apex while the patient is lying in the left lateral position. Severe mitral stenosis can also cause a quiet first heart sound and an early opening snap.
Pulmonary Stenosis: Pulmonary stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur.
Ventricular Septal Defect: This condition causes a pan-systolic murmur.
Mitral Valve Prolapse: Mitral valve prolapse may cause a mid-systolic click, followed by a late systolic murmur.
Right Bundle Branch Block: This condition is a cause of wide splitting of the second heart sound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man with valvular heart disease is urgently admitted with fever, worsening shortness of breath and a letter from his GP confirming the presence of a new murmur. During examination, a harsh pansystolic murmur and early diastolic murmur are detected, along with a temperature of 38.3 °C and bilateral fine basal crepitations. Initial blood cultures have been collected.
What is the most pressing concern that needs to be addressed immediately?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administration of intravenous antibiotics
Explanation:Prioritizing Interventions in Suspected Infective Endocarditis
When dealing with suspected infective endocarditis, time is of the essence. The following interventions should be prioritized in order to limit valve destruction and improve patient outcomes.
Administration of Intravenous Antibiotics
Prompt initiation of intravenous antibiotics is crucial. An empirical regime of gentamicin and benzylpenicillin may be used until microbiological advice suggests any alternative.Electrocardiogram (ECG)
An ECG provides important diagnostic information and should be performed as part of the initial work-up. However, it does not take priority over antibiotic administration.Echocardiogram (ECHO)
An ECHO should be performed in all patients with suspected infective endocarditis, but it does not take priority over administration of antibiotics. A transoesophageal ECHO is more sensitive and should be considered if necessary.Throat Swab
While a throat swab may be useful in identifying the causative organism of infective endocarditis, it should not take precedence over commencing antibiotics. Careful examination of a patient’s dentition is also crucial to evaluate for a possible infectious source.Administration of Paracetamol
Symptomatic relief is important, but administration of paracetamol should not take priority over antibiotic delivery. Both interventions should be given as soon as possible to improve patient outcomes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An overweight 46-year-old Caucasian male patient attends for the results of a health check arranged by your surgery. He smokes 12 cigarettes a day and is trying to cut down. Alcohol intake is 8 units per week. He tells you that his father underwent a ‘triple bypass’ aged 48 years. His results are as follows:
Total cholesterol : HDL ratio 6
HbA1c: 39 mmol/mol
Urea and electrolytes: normal
Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR): 97 ml/min/1.73m2
Liver function tests: normal
Blood pressure (daytime average on 24-h ambulatory monitor): 140/87
Body mass index (BMI): 25
His QRISK2 10-year cardiovascular risk is calculated at 22.7%.
In addition to assisting with smoking cessation and providing lifestyle advice, what is the most appropriate means of managing his risk?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence atorvastatin 20 mg once a night and start a calcium channel blocker, review after three months
Explanation:Treatment Plan for a Patient with High Cholesterol and Hypertension
Introduction:
This patient has high cholesterol and hypertension, both of which require immediate attention. In this treatment plan, we will discuss the appropriate medications and monitoring for this patient.Treatment Plan for a Patient with High Cholesterol and Hypertension
Medications:
The patient will start taking atorvastatin 20 mg once a night to address their high cholesterol. After three months, their cholesterol and full lipid profile will be rechecked, and the therapy will be titrated to maintain a total cholesterol of <5. If necessary, the dose may be increased to 40 mg once a night. For hypertension, the patient will start taking a calcium channel blocker as they are over the age of 55. The blood pressure will be monitored regularly, and if it rises above 150/90, additional treatment may be necessary. Monitoring:
The patient’s cholesterol and full lipid profile will be rechecked after three months of treatment with atorvastatin. The aim is to see a 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol. If this is not achieved, a discussion of adherence, lifestyle measures, and the possibility of increasing the dose will take place.The patient’s blood pressure will also be monitored regularly. If it rises above 150/90, additional treatment may be necessary.
Conclusion:
This treatment plan addresses both the patient’s high cholesterol and hypertension. By starting atorvastatin and a calcium channel blocker, we can reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease. Regular monitoring will ensure that the patient’s cholesterol and blood pressure are under control. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraception options, specifically the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has no medical history, is a non-smoker, and reports no health concerns. During her check-up, her GP measures her blood pressure and finds it to be 168/96 mmHg, which is consistent on repeat testing and in both arms. Upon examination, her BMI is 24 kg/m2, her pulse is 70 bpm, femoral pulses are palpable, and there is an audible renal bruit. Urinalysis is normal, and blood tests reveal no abnormalities in full blood count, urea, creatinine, electrolytes, or thyroid function. What is the most conclusive test to determine the underlying cause of her hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast of renal arteries
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
Secondary hypertension is a condition where high blood pressure is caused by an underlying medical condition. To diagnose the cause of secondary hypertension, various diagnostic tests are available. Here are some of the tests that can be done:
Magnetic Resonance Imaging with Gadolinium Contrast of Renal Arteries
This test is used to diagnose renal artery stenosis, which is the most common cause of secondary hypertension in young people, especially young women. It is done when a renal bruit is detected. Fibromuscular dysplasia, a vascular disorder that affects the renal arteries, is one of the most common causes of renal artery stenosis in young adults, particularly women.Echocardiogram
While an echocardiogram can assess for end-organ damage resulting from hypertension, it cannot provide the actual cause of hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta is unlikely if there is no blood pressure differential between arms.24-Hour Urine Cortisol
This test is done to diagnose Cushing syndrome, which is unlikely in this case. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is exogenous steroid use, which the patient does not have. In addition, the patient has a normal BMI and does not have a cushingoid appearance on examination.Plasma Metanephrines
This test is done to diagnose phaeochromocytoma, which is unlikely in this case. The patient does not have symptoms suggestive of it, such as sweating, headache, palpitations, and syncope. Phaeochromocytoma is also a rare tumour, causing less than 1% of cases of secondary hypertension.Renal Ultrasound
This test is a less accurate method for assessing the renal arteries. Renal parenchymal disease is unlikely in this case as urinalysis, urea, and creatinine are normal.Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman attends a new patient health check at the General Practice surgery she has recently joined. She mentions she occasionally gets episodes of palpitations and light-headedness and has done so for several years. Her pulse is currently regular, with a rate of 70 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg. A full blood count is sent, which comes back as normal. The general practitioner requests an electrocardiogram (ECG), which shows a widened QRS complex with a slurred upstroke and a shortened PR interval.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome
Explanation:Common Cardiac Conditions and Their ECG Findings
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is a condition that affects young people and is characterized by episodes of syncope and palpitations. It is caused by an accessory pathway from the atria to the ventricles that bypasses the normal atrioventricular node. The ECG shows a slurred upstroke to the QRS complex, known as a delta wave, which reflects ventricular pre-excitation. Re-entry circuits can form, leading to tachyarrhythmias and an increased risk of ventricular fibrillation.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an inherited condition that presents in young adulthood and is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in the young. Symptoms include syncope, dyspnea, palpitations, and abnormal ECG findings, which may include conduction abnormalities, arrhythmias, left ventricular hypertrophy, and ST or T wave changes.
First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval and may be caused by medication, electrolyte imbalances, or post-myocardial infarction. It may also be a normal variant in young, healthy individuals.
Ebstein’s anomaly typically presents in childhood and young adulthood with fatigue, palpitations, cyanosis, and breathlessness on exertion. The ECG shows right bundle branch block and signs of atrial enlargement, such as tall, broad P waves.
Mobitz type II atrioventricular block is a type of second-degree heart block that is characterized by a stable PR interval with some non-conducted beats. It often progresses to complete heart block. Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) block, on the other hand, is characterized by a progressively lengthening PR interval, followed by a non-conducted beat and a reset of the PR interval back to a shorter value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The cardiologist is examining a 48-year-old man with chest pain and is using his stethoscope to listen to the heart. Which part of the chest is most likely to correspond to the location of the heart's apex?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left fifth intercostal space
Explanation:Anatomy of the Heart: Intercostal Spaces and Auscultation Positions
The human heart is a vital organ responsible for pumping blood throughout the body. Understanding its anatomy is crucial for medical professionals to diagnose and treat various heart conditions. In this article, we will discuss the intercostal spaces and auscultation positions related to the heart.
Left Fifth Intercostal Space: Apex of the Heart
The apex of the heart is located deep to the left fifth intercostal space, approximately 8-9 cm from the mid-sternal line. This is an important landmark for cardiac examination and procedures.Left Fourth Intercostal Space: Left Ventricle
The left ventricle, one of the four chambers of the heart, is located superior to the apex and can be auscultated in the left fourth intercostal space.Right Fourth Intercostal Space: Right Atrium
The right atrium, another chamber of the heart, is located immediately lateral to the right sternal margin at the right fourth intercostal space.Left Second Intercostal Space: Pulmonary Valve
The pulmonary valve, which regulates blood flow from the right ventricle to the lungs, can be auscultated in the left second intercostal space, immediately lateral to the left sternal margin.Right Fifth Intercostal Space: Incorrect Location
The right fifth intercostal space is an incorrect location for cardiac examination because the apex of the heart is located on the left side.In conclusion, understanding the intercostal spaces and auscultation positions related to the heart is essential for medical professionals to accurately diagnose and treat various heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Examine the cardiac catheter data provided below for a patient. Which of the following clinical scenarios is most consistent with the given information?
Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg) End systolic/End diastolic
Superior vena cava 74 -
Inferior vena cava 72 -
Right atrium 73 5
Right ventricle 74 20/4
Pulmonary artery 74 20/5
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 15
Left ventricle 98 210/15
Aorta 99 125/75Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 17-year-old boy who presents after an episode of exercise-induced syncope
Explanation:Left Ventricular Pressure and Cardiac Conditions
Left ventricular pressures that exhibit a sharp decline between the LV and aortic systolic pressures are indicative of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. This condition is consistent with the catheter data obtained from the patient. However, the data are not consistent with other cardiac conditions such as cyanotic congenital heart disease, post-MI VSD or mitral regurgitation, mitral stenosis, or mitral regurgitation. Although aortic stenosis may also present with a left ventricular outflow obstruction, it is not typically associated with exercise-induced syncope. These findings suggest that the patient’s symptoms are likely due to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a 1-hour history of chest pain and is found to have an acute ST elevation inferior myocardial infarct. His blood pressure is 126/78 mmHg and has a pulse of 58 bpm. He is loaded with anti-platelets, and the cardiac monitor shows second-degree heart block (Wenckebach’s phenomenon).
What would you consider next for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temporary pacing and primary PCI
Explanation:Management of Heart Block in Acute Myocardial Infarction
Wenckebach’s phenomenon is usually not a cause for concern in patients with normal haemodynamics. However, if it occurs alongside acute myocardial infarction, complete heart block, or symptomatic Mobitz type II block, temporary pacing is necessary. Even with complete heart block, revascularisation can improve conduction if the patient is haemodynamically stable. Beta blockers should be avoided in second- and third-degree heart block as they can worsen the situation. Temporary pacing is required before proceeding to primary percutaneous intervention (PCI). A permanent pacemaker may be necessary for patients with irreversible heart block, but revascularisation should be prioritised as it may improve conduction. The block may be complete or second- or third-degree. If the heart block is reversible, temporary pacing should be followed by an assessment for permanent pacing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman comes to you for consultation after being seen two days ago for a fall. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, bilateral knee replacements, chronic hypotension, and heart failure, which limits her mobility. Her weight is 120 kg. During her previous visit, her ECG showed that she had AF with a heart rate of 180 bpm. She was prescribed bisoprolol and advised to undergo a 48-hour ECG monitoring. Upon her return, it was discovered that she has non-paroxysmal AF.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start her on digoxin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation in a Patient with Heart Failure
When treating a patient with atrial fibrillation (AF) and heart failure, the aim should be rate control. While bisoprolol is a good choice, it may not be suitable for a patient with chronic low blood pressure. In this case, digoxin would be the treatment of choice. Anticoagulation with a NOAC or warfarin is also necessary. Cardioversion with amiodarone should not be the first line of treatment due to the patient’s heart failure. Increasing the dose of bisoprolol may not be the best option either. Amlodipine is not effective for rate control in AF, and calcium-channel blockers should not be used in heart failure. Electrical cardioversion is not appropriate for this patient. Overall, the treatment plan should be tailored to the patient’s individual needs and medical history.
Managing Atrial Fibrillation and Heart Failure: Treatment Options
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a persistent cough with yellow sputum, mild breathlessness, and fever for the past three days. He had a heart attack nine months ago and received treatment with a bare metal stent during angioplasty. Due to his penicillin allergy, the doctor prescribed oral clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily for a week to treat his chest infection. However, after five days, the patient returns to the doctor with severe muscle pains in his thighs and shoulders, weakness, lethargy, nausea, and dark urine. Which medication has interacted with clarithromycin to cause these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Clarithromycin and its Drug Interactions
Clarithromycin is an antibiotic used to treat various bacterial infections. It is effective against many Gram positive and some Gram negative bacteria that cause community acquired pneumonias, atypical pneumonias, upper respiratory tract infections, and skin infections. Unlike other macrolide antibiotics, clarithromycin is highly stable in acidic environments and has fewer gastric side effects. It is also safe to use in patients with penicillin allergies.
However, clarithromycin can interact with other drugs by inhibiting the hepatic cytochrome P450 enzyme system. This can lead to increased levels of other drugs that are metabolized via this route, such as warfarin, aminophylline, and statin drugs. When taken with statins, clarithromycin can cause muscle breakdown and rhabdomyolysis, which can lead to renal failure. Elderly patients who take both drugs may experience reduced mobility and require prolonged rehabilitation physiotherapy.
To avoid these interactions, it is recommended that patients taking simvastatin or another statin drug discontinue its use during the course of clarithromycin treatment and for one week after. Clarithromycin can also potentially interact with clopidogrel, a drug used to prevent stent thrombosis, by reducing its efficacy. However, clarithromycin does not have any recognized interactions with bisoprolol, lisinopril, or aspirin.
In summary, while clarithromycin is an effective antibiotic, it is important to be aware of its potential drug interactions, particularly with statin drugs and clopidogrel. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital after collapsing while shopping. During her inpatient investigations, she underwent cardiac catheterisation. The results of the procedure are listed below, including oxygen saturation levels, pressure measurements, and end systolic/end diastolic readings at various anatomical sites.
- Superior vena cava: 75% oxygen saturation, no pressure measurement available
- Right atrium: 73% oxygen saturation, 6 mmHg pressure
- Right ventricle: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/8 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Pulmonary artery: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/12 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 18 mmHg
- Left ventricle: 98% oxygen saturation, 219/18 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Aorta: 99% oxygen saturation, 138/80 mmHg pressure
Based on these results, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Aortic Stenosis
There is a significant difference in pressure (81 mmHg) between the left ventricle and the aortic valve, indicating a critical case of aortic stenosis. Although hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) can also cause similar pressure differences, the patient’s age and clinical information suggest that aortic stenosis is more likely.
To determine the severity of aortic stenosis, the valve area and mean gradient are measured. A valve area greater than 1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient less than 25 mmHg indicate mild aortic stenosis. A valve area between 1.0-1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient between 25-50 mmHg indicate moderate aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 1.0 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 50 mmHg indicate severe aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 0.7 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 80 mmHg indicate critical aortic stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A patient presents to the Emergency Department following a fracture dislocation of his ankle after a night out drinking vodka red-bulls. His blood pressure is low at 90/50 mmHg. He insists that it is never normally that low.
Which one of these is a possible cause for this reading?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incorrect cuff size (cuff too large)
Explanation:Common Factors Affecting Blood Pressure Readings
Blood pressure readings can be affected by various factors, including cuff size, alcohol and caffeine consumption, white coat hypertension, pain, and more. It is important to be aware of these factors to ensure accurate readings.
Incorrect Cuff Size:
Using a cuff that is too large can result in an underestimation of blood pressure, while a cuff that is too small can cause a falsely elevated reading.Alcohol and Caffeine:
Both alcohol and caffeine can cause a temporary increase in blood pressure.White Coat Hypertension:
Many patients experience elevated blood pressure in medical settings due to anxiety. To obtain an accurate reading, blood pressure should be measured repeatedly on separate occasions.Pain:
Pain is a common cause of blood pressure increase and should be taken into consideration during medical procedures. A significant rise in blood pressure during a procedure may indicate inadequate anesthesia.Factors Affecting Blood Pressure Readings
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man undergoes a workplace medical and has an ECG performed. What is the electrophysiological basis of the T wave on a typical ECG?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular repolarisation
Explanation:The T wave on an ECG indicates ventricular repolarisation and is typically positive in all leads except AvR and V1. Abnormal T wave findings may suggest strain, bundle branch block, ischaemia/infarction, hyperkalaemia, Prinzmetal angina, or early STEMI. The P wave represents atrial depolarisation, while atrial repolarisation is hidden by the QRS complex. The PR interval is determined by the duration of conduction delay through the atrioventricular node. Finally, the QRS complex indicates ventricular depolarisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with rheumatic fever after presenting with a 3-day history of fever and polyarthralgia. The patient’s mother is concerned about any potential lasting damage to the heart.
What is the most common cardiac sequelae of rheumatic fever?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Rheumatic Fever and its Effects on Cardiac Valves
Rheumatic fever is a condition caused by group A β-haemolytic streptococcal infection. To diagnose it, the revised Duckett-Jones criteria are used, which require evidence of streptococcal infection and the presence of certain criteria. While all four cardiac valves may be damaged as a result of rheumatic fever, the mitral valve is the most commonly affected, with major criteria including carditis, subcutaneous nodule, migratory polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, and Sydenham’s chorea. Minor criteria include arthralgia, fever, raised CRP or ESR, raised WCC, heart block, and previous rheumatic fever. Mitral stenosis is the most common result of rheumatic fever, but it is becoming less frequently seen in clinical practice. Pulmonary regurgitation, aortic sclerosis, and tricuspid regurgitation are also possible effects, but they are less common than mitral valve damage. Ventricular septal defect is not commonly associated with rheumatic fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of hypertension visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He mentions experiencing a painful, burning sensation in his legs when he walks long distances and feeling cold in his lower extremities. He has no history of dyslipidaemia. During the examination, his temperature is recorded as 37.1 °C, and his blood pressure in the left arm is 174/96 mmHg, with a heart rate of 78 bpm, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Bilateral 1+ dorsalis pedis pulses are noted, and his lower extremities feel cool to the touch. Cardiac auscultation does not reveal any murmurs, rubs, or gallops. His abdominal examination is unremarkable, and no bruits are heard on auscultation. His renal function tests show a creatinine level of 71 μmol/l (50–120 μmol/l), which is his baseline. What is the most likely defect present in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest coarctation of the aorta, a condition where the aortic lumen narrows just after the branches of the aortic arch. This causes hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities, leading to lower extremity claudication. Chest X-rays may show notching of the ribs. Treatment involves surgical resection of the narrowed lumen. Bilateral lower extremity deep vein thrombosis, patent ductus arteriosus, renal artery stenosis, and atrial septal defects are other conditions that can cause different symptoms and require different treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain. He has a medical history of angina, hypertension, high cholesterol, and is a current smoker. Upon arrival, a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is conducted, revealing ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:ECG Changes and Localisation of Infarct in Coronary Artery Disease
Patients with chest pain and multiple risk factors for cardiac disease require prompt evaluation to determine the underlying cause. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes can help localise the infarct to a particular territory, which can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
Inferior infarcts are often due to lesions in the right coronary artery, as evidenced by ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. However, in 20% of cases, this can also be caused by an occlusion of a dominant left circumflex artery.
Lateral infarcts involve branches of the left anterior descending (LAD) and left circumflex arteries, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads I, aVL, and V5-6. It is unusual for a lateral STEMI to occur in isolation, and it usually occurs as part of a larger territory infarction.
Anterior infarcts are caused by blockage of the LAD artery, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads V1-V6.
Blockage of the right marginal artery does not have a specific pattern of ECG changes associated with it, and it is not one of the major coronary vessels.
In summary, understanding the ECG changes associated with different coronary arteries can aid in localising the infarct and guiding appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man with heart failure and depression is discovered to have a sodium level of 130. He is not experiencing any symptoms, and his heart failure and depression are under control. He has slight pitting pedal oedema. He is currently taking ramipril, bisoprolol, simvastatin and citalopram.
What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Restrict his fluid input to 1.5 l/day and recheck in 3 days
Explanation:Managing Hyponatraemia: Considerations and Options
Hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low serum sodium levels, requires careful management to avoid potential complications. The first step in treating hyponatraemia is to restrict fluid intake to reverse any dilution and address the underlying cause. Administering saline should only be considered if fluid restriction fails, as treating hyponatraemia too quickly can lead to central pontine myelinolysis.
In cases where hyponatraemia is caused by medication, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it may be necessary to adjust or discontinue the medication. However, abrupt discontinuation of SSRIs can cause withdrawal symptoms, so patients should be gradually weaned off over several weeks or months.
It is also important to consider other factors that may contribute to hyponatraemia, such as heart failure or hypokalaemia. However, administering intravenous saline or increasing salt intake may not be appropriate in all cases and could worsen underlying conditions.
Overall, managing hyponatraemia requires careful consideration of the underlying cause and potential treatment options to avoid complications and promote optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old intravenous drug user presents with a systolic murmur that is most audible at the fifth costal cartilage on the left sternal edge. What is the most probable anatomical site of the disease causing the murmur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricuspid valve
Explanation:Auscultation of Heart Murmurs and Associated Cardiac Structures
When listening to heart sounds, the location of the murmur can provide clues about the underlying cardiac structure involved. A pansystolic murmur heard at the left sternal margin at the fifth costal cartilage suggests tricuspid regurgitation, likely caused by infective endocarditis in an intravenous drug user. A ventricular septal defect can be auscultated as a pansystolic murmur, while an atrial septal defect is associated with an ejection systolic murmur and split second heart sound over the pulmonary area. Abnormalities of the mitral valve are heard in the fifth intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line, and the aortic valve can be auscultated at the second intercostal space in the right sternal edge. Understanding the relationship between heart murmurs and associated cardiac structures can aid in diagnosis and management of cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s with idiopathic pericarditis becomes increasingly unwell, with hypotension, jugular venous distention and muffled heart sounds on auscultation. Echocardiogram confirms a pericardial effusion.
At which of the following sites does this effusion occur?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Between the visceral pericardium and the parietal pericardium
Explanation:Understanding the Site of Pericardial Effusion
Pericardial effusion is a condition where excess fluid accumulates in the pericardial cavity, causing compression of the heart. To understand the site of pericardial effusion, it is important to know the layers of the pericardium.
The pericardium has three layers: the fibrous pericardium, the parietal pericardium, and the visceral pericardium. The pericardial fluid is located in between the visceral and parietal pericardium, which is the site where a pericardial effusion occurs.
It is important to note that pericardial effusion does not occur between the parietal pericardium and the fibrous pericardium, the visceral pericardium and the myocardium, the fibrous pericardium and the mediastinal pleura, or the fibrous pericardium and the central tendon of the diaphragm.
In summary, pericardial effusion occurs at the site where pericardial fluid is normally produced – between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium. Understanding the site of pericardial effusion is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man comes for his 6-week post-myocardial infarction (MI) follow-up. He was discharged without medication. His total cholesterol is 9 mmol/l, with triglycerides of 1.2 mmol/l. He is a non-smoker with a blood pressure of 145/75. His father passed away from an MI at the age of 43.
What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High-dose atorvastatin
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Hypercholesterolemia and Recent MI
When treating a patient with hypercholesterolemia and a recent myocardial infarction (MI), it is important to choose the most appropriate treatment option. In this case, high-dose atorvastatin is the best choice due to the patient’s high cholesterol levels and family history. It is crucial to note that medication should have been prescribed before the patient’s discharge.
While dietary advice can be helpful, it is not the most urgent treatment option. Ezetimibe would only be prescribed if a statin were contraindicated. In this high-risk patient, low-dose atorvastatin is not sufficient, and high-dose atorvastatin is required, provided it is tolerated. If cholesterol control does not improve with high-dose atorvastatin, ezetimibe can be added at a later check-up. Overall, the priority is to control the patient’s high cholesterol levels with medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain and nausea. He reports not having a bowel movement in 3 days, despite normal bowel habits prior to this. The patient has a history of coronary stents placed after a heart attack 10 years ago. He has been asymptomatic since then and takes aspirin for his cardiac condition and NSAIDs for knee arthritis. He has not consumed alcohol in the past 5 years due to a previous episode of acute gastritis.
On examination, there is mild tenderness over the epigastrium but no guarding. Bowel sounds are normal. An erect CXR and abdominal X-ray are unremarkable. Blood gases and routine blood tests (FBC, U&E, LFTs) are normal, with a normal amylase. Upper GI endoscopy reveals gastric erosions.
What is the most important differential diagnosis to consider for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Epigastric Pain and History of Cardiac Stents
Introduction:
A patient with a history of cardiac stents presents with epigastric pain. The following are possible diagnoses that should be considered.Myocardial Infarction:
Due to the patient’s history of cardiac stents, ruling out a myocardial infarction (MI) is crucial. An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed early to treat any existing cardiac condition without delay.Duodenal Ulcer:
A duodenal ulcer would have likely been visualized on an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD). However, a normal erect CXR and absence of peritonitis exclude a perforated duodenal ulcer.Acute Gastritis:
Given the patient’s history of aspirin and NSAID use, as well as the gastric erosions visualized on endoscopy, acute gastritis is the most likely diagnosis. However, it is important to first exclude MI as a cause of the patient’s symptoms due to their history of MI and presentation of epigastric pain.Pancreatitis:
Pancreatitis is unlikely, given the normal amylase. However, on occasion, this can be normal in cases depending on the timing of the blood test or whether the pancreas has had previous chronic inflammation.Ischaemic Bowel:
Ischaemic bowel would present with more generalized abdominal pain and metabolic lactic acidosis on blood gas. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old patient visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath when climbing stairs. She reports no other health issues. During the examination, the GP notes a slow-rising pulse, a blood pressure reading of 130/100 mmHg, and detects a murmur on auscultation.
What is the most probable type of murmur heard in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur (ESM)
Explanation:Common Heart Murmurs and Their Associations
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat. They can be innocent or pathological, and their characteristics can provide clues to the underlying condition. Here are some common heart murmurs and their associations:
1. Ejection systolic murmur (ESM): This murmur is associated with aortic stenosis and is related to the ventricular outflow tract. It may be innocent in children and high-output states, but pathological causes include aortic stenosis and sclerosis, pulmonary stenosis, and hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy.
2. Mid-diastolic murmur: This murmur is commonly associated with tricuspid or mitral stenosis and starts after the second heart sound and ends before the first heart sound. Rheumatic fever is a common cause of mitral valve stenosis.
3. Pansystolic murmur: This murmur is associated with mitral regurgitation and is of uniform intensity that starts immediately after S1 and merges with S2. It is also found in tricuspid regurgitation and ventricular septal defects.
4. Early diastolic murmur (EDM): This high-pitched murmur occurs in pulmonary and aortic regurgitation and is caused by blood flowing through a dysfunctional valve back into the ventricle. It may be accentuated by asking the patient to lean forward.
5. Continuous murmur: This murmur is commonly associated with a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), a connection between the aorta and the pulmonary artery. It causes a continuous murmur, sometimes described as a machinery murmur, heard throughout both systole and diastole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He reports feeling well today but has a history of chronic respiratory tract infections and lung issues. He is immunocompetent.
During the examination, his temperature and blood pressure are normal. His heart rate is regular and his breathing is effortless. The GP detects a diastolic murmur with a snap that is most audible at the right fifth intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary ciliary dyskinesia
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for a Patient with Chronic Respiratory Infections and a Heart Murmur
Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia: A Congenital Syndrome of Ciliary Dysfunction
The patient described in the case likely has primary ciliary dyskinesia, also known as Kartagener’s syndrome, which is a congenital syndrome of ciliary dysfunction. This disorder affects the proper beating of Ciliary, leading to the accumulation of infectious material within the respiratory tree and abnormal cell migration during development, resulting in situs inversus. Additionally, abnormal Ciliary can lead to non-motile sperm and infertility.
Other Possible Diagnoses
Although the GP noticed a diastolic murmur suggestive of mitral stenosis, the patient does not have symptoms of congestive heart failure. Asthma could be associated with chronic lung and respiratory tract infections, but it would not explain the heart murmur. Squamous cell lung cancer is less likely in a man who is 40 years old with a normal respiratory examination and would not explain the heart murmur. Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension usually causes progressive breathlessness, a dry cough, and fine inspiratory crepitations on examination, rather than the picture here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman attends her general practice for a medication review. She is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, atenolol, captopril and furosemide. The general practitioner (GP) performs an examination and notes an irregular pulse with a rate of 100 bpm. The GP makes a referral to the Cardiology Department with a view to establishing whether this woman’s atrial fibrillation (AF) is permanent or paroxysmal and to obtaining the appropriate treatment for her.
Which of the following is the most recognised risk factor for the development of AF?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Understanding Risk Factors for Atrial Fibrillation
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, shortness of breath, and fatigue. It is most commonly associated with alcohol consumption, chest disease, and hyperthyroidism. Other risk factors include hypertension, pericardial disease, congenital heart disease, cardiomyopathy, valvular heart disease, and coronary heart disease. AF can be classified as paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent, and may be diagnosed incidentally through an electrocardiogram (ECG) finding.
Once diagnosed, management includes investigating with a 12-lead ECG, echocardiogram, and thyroid function tests. The main objectives are rate control, rhythm control, and reducing the risk of thromboembolic disease. Rhythm control can be achieved through electrical cardioversion or drug therapy, while rate control is managed using medications such as digoxin, β-blockers, or rate-limiting calcium antagonists. Warfarin is indicated for patients with risk factors for stroke, and the risk of ischaemic stroke is calculated using the CHADS2vasc scoring system. Novel oral anticoagulants are also available as an alternative to warfarin in certain patients.
While hyperthyroidism is a recognized risk factor for AF, obesity and smoking are also associated with an increased risk of developing the condition. Pneumothorax, however, is not a recognized risk factor for AF. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk of developing AF and manage the condition if diagnosed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman with a history of two episodes of pneumothorax over the last 12 months was found to have ectopia lentis, during a recent examination by an ophthalmologist. It is noted that she has pectus excavatum, pes planus, a high arched palate and a positive wrist and thumb sign.
What is the likely finding from her echocardiogram?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dilated aortic root
Explanation:Cardiovascular Conditions and Marfan Syndrome
Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue and can lead to various cardiovascular conditions. One of the most common complications is aortic aneurysm, which occurs when the ascending aorta becomes dilated and can result in acute aortic dissection. Additionally, the stretching of the aortic valve annulus can cause aortic regurgitation. Marfan syndrome is caused by a mutation in the FBN1 gene and can be differentiated from other connective tissue disorders such as Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, pseudoxanthoma elasticum, and homocystinuria.
Aortic valve stenosis, on the other hand, is not associated with Marfan syndrome and is caused by either senile calcific degeneration or a congenital bicuspid aortic valve. Coarctation of the aorta is associated with Turner syndrome and presents with hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities. Ventricular septal defects and Ebstein’s anomaly are also not associated with Marfan syndrome.
In summary, Marfan syndrome can lead to various cardiovascular complications, and it is important to differentiate it from other connective tissue disorders and understand the associated conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Accident and Emergency department. He is visibly distressed but gives a history of sudden onset central compressive chest pain radiating to his left upper limb. He is also nauseous and very sweaty. He has had previous myocardial infarctions (MI) in the past and claims the pain is identical to those episodes. ECG reveals an anterior ST elevation MI.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to thrombolysis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brain neoplasm
Explanation:Relative and Absolute Contraindications to Thrombolysis
Thrombolysis is a treatment option for patients with ongoing cardiac ischemia and presentation within 12 hours of onset of pain. However, there are both relative and absolute contraindications to this treatment.
Absolute contraindications include internal or heavy PV bleeding, acute pancreatitis or severe liver disease, esophageal varices, active lung disease with cavitation, recent trauma or surgery within the past 2 weeks, severe hypertension (>200/120 mmHg), suspected aortic dissection, recent hemorrhagic stroke, cerebral neoplasm, and previous allergic reaction.
Relative contraindications include prolonged CPR, history of CVA, bleeding diathesis, anticoagulation, blood pressure of 180/100 mmHg, peptic ulcer, and pregnancy or recent delivery.
It is important to consider these contraindications before administering thrombolysis as they can increase the risk of complications. Primary percutaneous coronary intervention is the preferred treatment option, but if not available, thrombolysis can be a viable alternative. The benefit of thrombolysis decreases over time, and a target time of <30 minutes from admission for commencement of thrombolysis is typically recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are urgently requested to assess a 23-year-old male who has presented to the Emergency department after confessing to consuming 14 units of alcohol and taking 2 ecstasy tablets tonight. He is alert and oriented but is experiencing palpitations. He denies any chest pain or difficulty breathing.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 180 beats per minute, regular rhythm, blood pressure of 115/80 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed and reveals an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (SVT).
What would be your first course of action in terms of treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vagal manoeuvres
Explanation:SVT is a type of arrhythmia that occurs above the ventricles and is commonly seen in patients in their 20s with alcohol and drug use as precipitating factors. Early evaluation of ABC is important, and vagal manoeuvres are recommended as the first line of treatment. Adenosine is the drug of choice if vagal manoeuvres fail, and DC cardioversion is required if signs of decompensation are present. Amiodarone is not a first-line treatment for regular narrow complex SVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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