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Question 1
Correct
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A 44-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment regarding her treatment. She visited two weeks ago and was diagnosed with moderate depression and a few symptoms of anxiety. You prescribed Citalopram 20 mg to treat her condition.
During the review, she reports feeling terrible. She experiences muscle twitches, tremors, and constant stomach gurgling. She used to feel sluggish and lethargic, but now she can't sit still and paces around the room. These symptoms worsened after a recent migraine attack.
Upon examination, she appears agitated, and her pulse is 90 bpm sinus rhythm with a BP of 160/90. Abdominal examination is unremarkable, and a brief neurological examination of the limbs is normal, except for brisk reflexes all around. Recent thyroid function tests, urea and electrolytes, and full blood count were normal.
Her medical history includes endometriosis and migraines. She takes co-codamol 8/500 tablets and Sumatriptan tablets as needed. She has also been taking St John's wort for the past three months. She used to drink two units of alcohol per week.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Withdraw the Citalopram completely
Explanation:Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a condition that is often overlooked in primary care. It occurs when there is an excessive amount of serotonergic activity in the body, which can be caused by the initiation of medication affecting serotonin activity or an interaction between medicines that affect serotonin activity. Patients who take medications such as codeine, triptans, and St. John’s wort are at a higher risk of developing serotonin syndrome when co-prescribed with an SSRI.
If a patient presents with symptoms of serotonin syndrome, it is important to withdraw the offending medicine, such as Citalopram. However, it is also important to consider other factors that may have contributed to the onset of symptoms, such as the use of a triptan for a migraine. Prescribing pizotifen or referring the patient for counseling may not alleviate their symptoms.
It is important to note that some authorities caution against the use of propranolol, as it can result in hypotension and mask the response to treatment by slowing the pulse. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms of serotonin syndrome, healthcare providers can better diagnose and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. He has been diagnosed with Raynaud's phenomenon and is struggling to manage the symptoms during the colder months. He asks if there are any medications that could help alleviate his condition.
Which of the following drugs has the strongest evidence to support its effectiveness in improving this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Raynaud’s Phenomenon
Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition that causes the blood vessels in the fingers and toes to narrow, leading to reduced blood flow and pain. The most commonly used drug for treatment is nifedipine, which causes vasodilatation and reduces the number and severity of attacks. However, patients may experience side-effects such as hypotension, flushing, headache, and tachycardia.
For those who cannot tolerate nifedipine, other agents such as nicardipine, amlodipine, or diltiazem can be tried. Limited evidence suggests that angiotensin receptor-blockers, fluoxetine, and topical nitrates may also provide some benefit. However, there is no evidence to support the use of antiplatelet agents.
In secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, management of the underlying cause may help alleviate symptoms. Treatment options are similar to primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, with the addition of the prostacyclin analogue iloprost, which has shown to be effective in systemic sclerosis.
Overall, treatment options for Raynaud’s phenomenon aim to improve blood flow and reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective treatment plan for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A patient who is well known to you and is a minor has applied for Disability Living Allowance (DLA). The Department of Work and Pensions (DWP) contact you requesting an associated medical report to be completed.
What would be the next most appropriate step?Your Answer: Invite them in for a face to face review before completing the report
Correct Answer: Complete the report from your medical records and knowledge of the patient
Explanation:ESA113 Medical Report for Employment and Support Allowance
When a person applies for Employment and Support Allowance (ESA), the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) may request additional information from the patient’s doctor through an ESA113 medical report. This report is used to determine if the patient is unwell enough to receive ESA benefits.
It is important to note that the doctor is not required to interview or examine the patient in order to complete the report. Instead, they can provide a computer printout of the patient’s medical history, but any unanswered sections on the form must still be completed.
To assist doctors in completing the ESA113 report, the DWP has provided helpful guidance. This ensures that the report is accurate and provides the necessary information to determine the patient’s eligibility for ESA benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She visits surgery with worries about reduced fetal movement. You decide to refer her to the maternal health unit.
What would be the most suitable initial investigation to perform?Your Answer: Handheld Doppler for fetal heartbeat
Explanation:When a pregnant woman reports reduced fetal movements, it is important to investigate the cause as it can indicate a risk of stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. The first step in this investigation should be to use a handheld Doppler to confirm the presence of a fetal heartbeat.
If a fetal heartbeat is detected with the handheld Doppler and the pregnancy is over 28 weeks gestation, a CTG should be used to monitor the fetal heart rate for at least 20 minutes to assess for any fetal compromise.
The guidelines recommend assessing fetal movements based on the subjective perception of the mother. If a mother reports reduced fetal movements, there is no need for further counting of fetal movements.
If no fetal heartbeat is detected with the handheld Doppler, an immediate ultrasound should be offered. If there is still concern about reduced fetal movements despite a normal CTG, an urgent ultrasound can be used to assess abdominal circumference or estimated fetal weight and amniotic fluid volume measurement, rather than ultrasound with Doppler.
Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements
Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a cause for concern as they can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that there may also be a link between reduced fetal movements and placental insufficiency. Fetal movements usually start between 18-20 weeks gestation and increase until 32 weeks gestation, after which the frequency of movement tends to plateau. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner, from 16-18 weeks gestation. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy.
There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but the RCOG considers less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) an indication for further assessment. Reduced fetal movements are a fairly common presentation, affecting up to 15% of pregnancies. Risk factors for reduced fetal movements include posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size.
Investigations for reduced fetal movements are dependent on gestation at onset. If past 28 weeks gestation, handheld Doppler should be used to confirm fetal heartbeat. If no fetal heartbeat is detectable, immediate ultrasound should be offered. If fetal heartbeat is present, CTG should be used for at least 20 minutes to monitor fetal heart rate which can assist in excluding fetal compromise. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used. If between 24 and 28 weeks gestation, a handheld Doppler should be used to confirm the presence of fetal heartbeat. If below 24 weeks gestation, and fetal movements have previously been felt, a handheld Doppler should be used. If fetal movements have not yet been felt by 24 weeks, onward referral should be made to a maternal fetal medicine unit.
While reduced fetal movements can be a cause for concern, in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Therefore, it is important for expectant mothers to be aware of their baby’s movements and seek medical attention if they notice a decrease in fetal movements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 5
Correct
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One morning you go to see a 20-year-old female patient on the ward who has a painful eye. She was admitted yesterday with a broken arm, for which she had a successful surgery and is due to be discharged today, past medical history is unremarkable except for being nearsighted and wearing contact lenses. The patient explains her right eye has been sore since she woke up. She cannot recall if she removed her contact lenses the night before. An examination reveals diffuse redness of her right eye with both contact lenses in place but is otherwise unremarkable. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Refer immediately to ophthalmology
Explanation:If the patient is using contact lenses, there is a possibility that she has a corneal ulcer. This is a serious eye condition that requires urgent attention from an ophthalmologist. Therefore, the other options are not appropriate. Removing the contact lenses could aggravate the situation, and asking her to visit an optician would only delay the diagnosis.
Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. Some causes of red eye require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Here are some key distinguishing features of different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and a semi-dilated pupil. The patient may also see haloes and have a hazy cornea.
Anterior uveitis has an acute onset and is accompanied by pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may be worse on movement. It may be associated with an underlying autoimmune disease such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is characterized by purulent discharge, while viral conjunctivitis has a clear discharge.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and is characterized by a red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis (UC) is found to have sigmoid adenocarcinoma on surveillance colonoscopy. He was diagnosed with UC at the age of 14, with the disease mostly confined to the sigmoid colon and rectum. Although his symptoms have generally been well controlled on mesalazine, he has had relapses associated with poor compliance every 1–2 years.
Which single factor is this patient’s history most associated with the risk of developing colonic cancer?
Your Answer: Poor compliance with therapy
Correct Answer: Onset of disease in childhood
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Colonic Adenocarcinoma in Ulcerative Colitis Patients
Colonic adenocarcinoma is a serious complication that can develop in 3-5% of patients with ulcerative colitis (UC). The cancer tends to be multicentric and atypical in appearance, and it can rapidly metastasize. To prevent this, it is important to understand the risk factors associated with the onset of the disease in childhood.
One of the main risk factors for colon cancer in colitis is the early age of onset, which is before the age of 15 years. Other risk factors include extensive disease (pancolitis), duration (more than ten years), and unremitting disease. Colonoscopic surveillance is recommended for all patients, starting about ten years after the onset of symptoms.
It is important to note that annual relapses are not a risk factor for colonic carcinoma since there is remittance in between episodes. Chronic active inflammation and unremitting disease are the main risk factors.
Left-sided colitis is also a risk factor, but extensive disease and pancolitis carry a higher risk of developing colon cancer. Poor compliance with therapy is not a risk factor in itself, but unremitting disease is a risk factor for colon cancer in UC.
Finally, patients with proctitis alone do not need colonoscopy surveillance, as they are not at increased risk of developing colon cancer compared to the general population. Understanding these risk factors can help prevent the onset of colonic adenocarcinoma in UC patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female presents for contraception advice. She had the intrauterine device inserted after being diagnosed with breast cancer seven years ago, which was treated successfully. However, she has noticed that her periods have become heavier since having the device and is interested in exploring other contraceptive options. What advice should be given regarding her contraception?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be advised to use barrier contraception or the intrauterine device only
Explanation:Contraception Options for Patients with Past Breast Cancer
Patients with a past history of breast cancer should be advised to use barrier contraception or the intrauterine device (IUD) only. Hormonal containing contraception, including progestogens, are UKMEC 3 in these patients. This means that the benefits of using hormonal contraception may outweigh the risks, but caution should be taken and alternative options should be considered.
The IUD and implant are also UKMEC 3 in patients with past breast cancer, while the IUD and progesterone-only pill are also considered UKMEC 3. It is important for patients to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and weigh the potential benefits and risks of each method before making a decision. By considering all options and taking precautions, patients with past breast cancer can still have access to effective contraception while minimizing potential risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female is six weeks pregnant. She has had some vaginal bleeding and RIF pain.
On examination she is pyrexial 37.6°C and tender in the RIF, her urine contains blood ++ and protein +. Her past history includes pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a miscarriage and two terminations. Her urine pregnancy test is still positive.
What is the most suitable next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an emergency admission
Explanation:Possible Ectopic Pregnancy: A Gynaecological Emergency
If you have a history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), previous terminations, and a positive pregnancy test, you should be aware of the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. This condition occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate admission to a hospital. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications, such as internal bleeding and infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old man who has developed acute urinary retention on a background of 2 years of urinary hesitancy and poor stream. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and he tells you that his usual GP has recently started him on a new medication for neuropathic pain.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused the urinary retention?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Urinary retention may be caused by tricyclic antidepressants, particularly Amitriptyline, due to its anticholinergic effects. This can result in symptoms such as tachycardia, dry mouth, mydriasis, and urinary retention. However, SSRIs like fluoxetine and SNRIs like venlafaxine are not typically associated with these side effects, with dry mouth and urinary retention being rare occurrences. Unlike Amitriptyline, Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, doesn’t have anticholinergic effects.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with lower urinary tract symptoms. He presented six months ago with complaints of weak urinary stream, hesitancy, intermittency, terminal dribbling, and nocturia ×2. He denies any history of visible haematuria or erectile dysfunction. Urine dipstick testing is normal, his eGFR is stable at 84, and his PSA is 0.9 ng/mL. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is less than 30 g in size with no sinister features.
Despite conservative management and modification of his fluid intake, his symptoms persist and he has returned seeking advice on taking a tablet. His international prostate symptom score was 17 at his initial visit and is now 15. He reports that his quality of life is affected by his urinary symptoms and he is unhappy. He is otherwise healthy and not taking any other medications.
What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological approach for this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Finasteride 5 mg OD and oxybutynin 5 mg BD
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Drug Treatment of Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms
NICE recommends drug treatment for bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) if conservative measures fail. For moderate to severe LUTS, an alpha-blocker like tamsulosin should be offered. Patients should be reviewed after four to six weeks until stable. If LUTS is accompanied by an enlarged prostate or a high PSA level, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor like finasteride should be prescribed. Anticholinergic drugs like oxybutynin can be used to manage storage symptoms. For patients with moderate to severe LUTS and an enlarged prostate or high PSA level, both an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor can be started. In the case of a patient with moderate LUTS, a prostate less than 30 g, and a PSA level less than 1.4, starting an alpha-blocker like tamsulosin and reviewing the patient in four to six weeks is the most appropriate approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old Caucasian lady comes to the clinic with a complaint of left vision becoming wavy and blurry for the past week. She reports that her venetian blinds appear distorted with her left eye. She has no other medical issues. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent ophthalmology referral
Explanation:Macular Degeneration: A Common Cause of Distorted Vision in Elderly Patients
An elderly patient complaining of wavy distorted vision should raise suspicion of macular degeneration, a common age-related eye condition. There are two types of macular degeneration: dry and wet. Unfortunately, there is no treatment for the dry type, but patients can be advised on good lighting and the use of magnifying glasses to aid their vision. However, patients should be aware that there is a 10% chance of the dry type converting into the more aggressive wet type.
The wet type of macular degeneration can be treated with anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) injections, which are given directly into the eye. This treatment aims to stabilize the condition and prevent further loss of central vision. While it is not a cure, a large minority of patients may experience some improvement in their vision. Therefore, it is crucial to refer patients with suspected macular degeneration to an ophthalmologist urgently, as delays may impact the prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old woman is noted to have poor self-care with symptoms of early morning waking and decreased appetite. She has poor concentration and is easily agitated. There is a history of a recent death in the family. She also recently lost her job as a volunteer. She has difficulty answering short-term recall questions. Her family think that her symptoms have been deteriorating over the past 6 months.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depressive pseudodementia
Explanation:Physical Signs and Symptoms of Depression in Elderly Patients
Depression in elderly patients can manifest in various physical signs and symptoms. Early morning waking and decreased appetite are common symptoms, often accompanied by short-term memory loss. While memory loss is also seen in dementia, it improves with treatment of depression. Other physical signs include weight loss, constipation, loss of libido, impotence in men, fatigue, and body aches and pains. Retardation or agitation of behavior may also occur. These symptoms may be precipitated by life events and should be addressed promptly to improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A mother of an 8-year-old boy is worried that her son might have developed an egg allergy. The child is experiencing abdominal pain, constipation, and atopic eczema/erythema. What is the most appropriate test to explore the likelihood of a food allergy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elimination diet
Explanation:It is recommended to try eliminating egg as the symptoms indicate a non-IgE-mediated food allergy.
Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized as either IgE-mediated or non-IgE-mediated. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, as well as gastrointestinal and respiratory symptoms. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms such as gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, and abdominal pain. If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to suspected foods and co-allergens should be offered. If the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced, with consultation from a dietitian for nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with lethargy, abdominal bloating and loose stools. He has lost 5 kg in weight over the last six months. Examination confirms a thin teenager with obvious pallor.
What is the most appropriate test to investigate possible malabsorption?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs)
Explanation:Understanding Coeliac Disease Testing: Differentiating Between IgA tTGAs, IgA Gliadin Antibodies, IgA EMAs, HLA Genetic Testing, and IgG tTGAs
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. While small-bowel biopsy is the most reliable way to diagnose coeliac disease, IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs) are the preferred initial investigation. This test is highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease, but should not be performed on children younger than two years as it may give a false negative result.
It is important to note that around 0.4% of the population has selective IgA deficiency, which can lead to a false-negative result. In such cases, the laboratory should measure IgA levels. Some laboratories may do this routinely when measuring tTGAs.
IgA gliadin antibodies are not commonly used to diagnose coeliac disease. Instead, IgA EMAs are autoantibodies against tissue transglutaminase type 2 (tTGA2) and are highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease. However, IgA EMAs should be measured if IgA tTG is only weakly positive.
HLA genetic testing is not recommended for diagnosing coeliac disease in primary care. Coeliac disease is strongly associated with the genes HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8, but testing for these genes is not necessary for diagnosis.
Finally, IgG tTGAs should only be considered in people who are IgA deficient to avoid the risk of a false-negative IgA tTGA result.
In summary, understanding the differences between these tests is crucial in accurately diagnosing coeliac disease and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old woman comes in seeking post-coital contraception after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse four days ago.
Which one of these statements is true regarding post-coital contraception?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An IUD cannot be fitted more than five days from sexual intercourse
Explanation:Timing and Options for Emergency Contraception
When it comes to emergency contraception, timing is crucial. If ovulation can be estimated, an IUD can be inserted up to five days after the expected date of ovulation. On the other hand, levonorgestrel can be taken beyond the recommended 72-hour window, but its effectiveness may be reduced. It can also be repeated within the same menstrual cycle. In cases where condoms are the only form of contraception, additional levonorgestrel may be prescribed. However, it’s important to note that pharmacists will not sell levonorgestrel to males. By understanding the timing and options for emergency contraception, individuals can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man attends for diabetic annual review. His current medication consists of metformin 500 mg TDS, pioglitazone 30 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, and atorvastatin 20 mg ON. His latest HbA1c blood test result is 66 mmol/mol. His renal function shows an eGFR of >90 ml/min.
As part of his review his urine is dipstick tested and shows blood+. It is negative for glucose, protein, leucocytes, nitrites and ketones.
The patient feels well and denies any urinary symptoms or frank haematuria. His blood pressure is 126/82 mmHg.
You provide him with two urine containers and ask him to submit further samples in one and two weeks time for repeat testing. You also send a urine sample to the laboratory for microalbuminuria testing.
The repeat tests show persisting blood+ only. His urine albumin:creatinine ratio is 1.9 and there is a leucocytosis on blood testing.
What is the most appropriate approach in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Review his medications and refer urgently to a urologist
Explanation:Managing Microscopic Haematuria
Persistent microscopic haematuria should be considered clinically relevant if present on at least two out of three samples tested at weekly intervals. A dipstick showing ‘trace’ blood should be considered negative. Blood 1+ or more is significant. If a patient is aged 60 and over and has unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, referral to a Urologist as an urgent suspected cancer is advised according to NICE guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer.
It is important to note that certain medications, such as clopidogrel, aspirin, and warfarin, should not be attributed to microscopic haematuria. Additionally, if the sample is painless, it must have 1+ of blood or more on at least 2 out of 3 occasions to be considered abnormal.
If a patient is on pioglitazone, which carries a small but significant increased risk of bladder cancer, it would be prudent to stop the medication at least until the microscopic haematuria has been investigated.
In summary, managing microscopic haematuria involves careful consideration of the frequency and amount of blood present in the sample, as well as referral to a specialist for further investigation in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are asked to organise a tutorial on child protection for nursing students attached to the pediatric ward. When discussing patterns of behaviour which may point towards child abuse, which one of the following is least likely to be relevant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frequent attendances to see the GP
Explanation:If parents take their child to the A&E department instead of a GP on a regular basis, it could be an indication of child abuse. This is because they may assume that seeing a different doctor each time will decrease the likelihood of any suspicions being raised.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to protect vulnerable children. One way that abuse may come to light is through a child’s own disclosure. However, there are other factors that may indicate abuse, such as inconsistencies in a child’s story or repeated visits to emergency departments. Children who appear frightened or withdrawn may also be experiencing abuse, exhibiting a state of frozen watchfulness.
Physical signs of abuse can also be indicative of maltreatment. Bruising, fractures (especially in the metaphyseal area or posterior ribs), and burns or scalds are all possible signs of abuse. Additionally, a child who is failing to thrive or who has contracted a sexually transmitted infection may be experiencing abuse. It is important to be aware of these signs and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities. By recognizing and addressing child abuse, we can help protect vulnerable children and promote their safety and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes is prescribed insulin by the diabetic specialist nurses. He holds a group 1 driving licence and drives to his job as an accountant and auditor. Occasionally, he has to travel longer distances for work, which can involve 4-hour car rides.
The nurses advise him to check his blood glucose before starting his car journey and to monitor it during longer trips. What is the recommended frequency for this patient to check his blood glucose?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Every 2 hours
Explanation:Individuals with insulin-dependent diabetes who are driving must monitor their blood glucose levels every 2 hours, according to DVLA guidelines. This man falls under this category and must adhere to this requirement. It would not be advisable to suggest that he only check his blood glucose when experiencing symptoms, as this could lead to impaired cognitive function and potentially cause an accident while driving before he has a chance to check his levels.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has observed an increase in his blood glucose levels after starting a new medication for his lipids. Despite maintaining his usual diet and exercise routine, his HbA1c has worsened by approximately 0.5%. Which of the following drugs is the probable culprit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ezetimibe
Explanation:Effects of Cholesterol-Lowering Medications on Glucose Control
The mechanism by which nicotinic acid affects glucose levels is not fully understood, but it may increase blood glucose in some patients by stimulating hepatic glucose output or blocking glucose uptake by skeletal muscle. However, for most patients with diabetes, nicotinic acid has minimal effect. A meta-analysis in 2011 suggested an increased risk of inducing diabetes in patients treated with intensive statin therapy, but this did not examine whether statins worsened glucose control in established diabetics. Cholestyramine may interact with oral hypoglycemics, but it doesn’t typically worsen diabetic control and may even improve it. Fenofibrate and ezetimibe have not been shown to worsen diabetic control. Overall, the effects of cholesterol-lowering medications on glucose control vary and should be monitored closely in patients with diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male with type 1 diabetes has been diagnosed with microalbuminuria during his yearly check-up. He is aware of other patients with type 1 diabetes who have developed renal failure and required dialysis a few years after being diagnosed with nephropathy. When examining his vascular risk profile, which parameter is most likely to decrease the risk of future renal failure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Managing Nephropathy Progression
Tight control of blood pressure and glucose levels is crucial in managing the progression of nephropathy. The recommended target for systolic blood pressure is 130 or less, while the HbA1c target should be less than 53 mmol/mol. Although BMI, diastolic blood pressure, and cholesterol are relevant factors, they are less significant compared to blood pressure and glucose control.
Among all antihypertensives, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) have the strongest evidence for reducing nephropathy progression. Therefore, it is important to prioritize these medications in the management of nephropathy. Proper management of blood pressure and glucose levels, along with the use of ACE inhibitors and ARBs, can significantly slow down the progression of nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old long-distance runner who is currently preparing for a regional marathon approaches the team doctor with an unusual sensation in her legs. She reports feeling numbness below her knee. Upon examination, the doctor notes sensory loss below the left knee in a non-dermatomal distribution. The doctor suspects a non-organic cause of her symptoms. What type of disorder is this an example of?
Conversion disorder - typically involves loss of motor or sensory function. May be caused by stress.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conversion disorder
Explanation:Conversion disorder is a condition that often results in the loss of motor or sensory function and is believed to be triggered by stress.
Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry
In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man who has recently started a new relationship complains of low libido. On further questioning, he admits to feeling lethargic and weak and has noticed that he has less stubble than previously. He takes no regular medication and is otherwise well, and doesn't suffer from headaches.
What is the most appropriate investigation to conduct in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), LH (luteinising hormone) and testosterone levels
Explanation:Investigating Hypogonadism: Appropriate Tests and Procedures
Hypogonadism is a condition that can be caused by primary or secondary factors. To determine the presence and type of hypogonadism, appropriate investigations should be conducted. In cases of primary hypogonadism, gonadotrophin levels are elevated while testosterone levels are low. Secondary hypogonadism, on the other hand, is characterized by low to normal gonadotrophin levels and low testosterone levels.
While investigating hypogonadism, it is important to conduct the appropriate tests and procedures. An MRI scan of the brain is not always necessary, but it may be appropriate in cases of hypopituitarism or hyperprolactinaemia to investigate a pituitary tumour. Depression screening may be appropriate as depression often co-exists with physical illness, but objective evidence of hypogonadism should not be ignored. Semen analysis is not necessary unless investigating infertility, as oligospermia is a consequence of hypogonadism. The Short Synacthen test is used to investigate adrenocortical insufficiency and is not relevant to investigating hypogonadism.
In summary, appropriate investigations for hypogonadism include determining whether it is primary or secondary through gonadotrophin and testosterone level testing. Other tests and procedures may be appropriate depending on the individual case, but should be carefully considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old factory worker is brought in by her boyfriend. He says that she was suicidal when they argued after she accidentally scratched his car while parking.
There have been no recent major life events and there is no mention of any suicide attempt in her past medical history. She drinks six cans of beer over the weekend and is a former smoker.
In her free time, she enjoys singing karaoke at the local bar with her friends. She still lives with her parents, but she and her boyfriend are considering moving in together.
Which of the following is a risk factor for suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Employed
Explanation:Enquiring about Suicide Risk Factors in Depressed Patients
When speaking with patients who are experiencing depression, it is important to always ask about suicide. Even if depression is not explicitly mentioned, it is helpful to identify any potential risk factors for suicide in the patient’s history. One example of a risk factor listed in this case is the patient’s low socio-economic status. Other risk factors include advancing age, male gender, recent major life events, unemployment, living alone, previous suicide attempts, and concurrent mental disorders.
To identify high-risk patients, clinicians may use formal assessments such as the PATHOS self-harm assessment. This tool is used after an overdose attempt to identify patients who are at a higher risk for suicide. By enquiring about suicide risk factors and using appropriate assessments, clinicians can better identify and support patients who may be at risk for self-harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with multiple symptoms affecting his nose and throat. He has long-standing nasal congestion, but over the past week has also been suffering from a painful lesion in his mouth, sore throat and hoarse voice. On examination, he has bilateral, grey nasal swellings, a solitary yellow ulcer of 4 mm diameter on the oral mucosa, a multinodular goitre and unilateral parotid enlargement. He states that the parotid lump has been there for a few months, at least. His GP suspects cancer.
Which of the following presentations warrants specialist referral under the 2-week rule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The discrete slow-growing lump in the right parotid gland
Explanation:Common Head and Neck Symptoms and Referral Guidelines
The following are common head and neck symptoms and the appropriate referral guidelines:
1. Discrete slow-growing lump in the right parotid gland: Any unexplained lump in the head or neck requires a 2-week rule referral. A discrete, persistent, unilateral lump in the parotid gland requires an urgent referral, imaging, and further investigation to determine the nature of the mass.
2. Solitary, painful ulcer on the oral mucosa, of 1-week duration: This is most likely to be an aphthous ulcer. An unexplained oral ulceration lasting more than three weeks, or an unexplained neck lump, would warrant a 2-week wait referral.
3. A 7-day history of hoarseness and sore throat: Patients over the age of 45 with persistent unexplained hoarseness should be referred using the cancer pathway. After seven days, this is most likely to be an upper respiratory tract infection.
4. Diffuse multinodular thyroid swelling: For suspected thyroid cancer, the single referral criterion is an ‘unexplained thyroid lump’. The most likely diagnosis in this patient is a multinodular goitre.
5. Nasal obstruction and bilateral grey swellings visible by nasal speculum: Bilateral nasal swellings of this description are almost certainly polyps. These can initially be managed in primary care. Unilateral polyps should be referred to the ear, nose and throat clinic.
Head and Neck Symptoms and Referral Guidelines
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man suffers a myocardial infarction (MI) and is prescribed aspirin, atorvastatin, ramipril and bisoprolol upon discharge. After a month, he experiences some muscle aches and undergoes routine blood tests at the clinic. His serum creatine kinase (CK) activity is found to be 650 u/l (normal range 30–300 u/l). What is the probable reason for the elevated CK levels in this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Effect of statin therapy
Explanation:Interpreting Elevated CK Levels in a Post-MI Patient on Statin Therapy
When a patient complains of symptoms while on statin therapy, it is reasonable to check their CK levels. An elevated level suggests statin-induced myopathy, and the statin should be discontinued. However, if the patient doesn’t complain of further chest pain suggestive of another MI, CK is no longer routinely measured as a cardiac marker. Heavy exercise should also be avoided, and CK levels usually return to baseline within 72 hours post-MI. While undiagnosed hypothyroidism can cause a rise in CK, it is less likely than statin-induced myopathy, and other clinical features of hypothyroidism are not mentioned in the scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You assess a 75-year-old patient who presents with a tremor in their right hand. What are the common symptoms observed in Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Resting tremor + bradykinesia + rigidity
Explanation:Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is prescribed lithium for his bipolar disorder. What is the appropriate time interval before his plasma lithium should be checked for the first time?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Monitoring Lithium Treatment: Guidelines and Recommendations
Before starting lithium treatment, it is important to conduct several tests, including ECG, thyroid function tests, renal function tests, and U&Es. After starting treatment, the plasma level should be checked after 7 days and then every 7 days until the required level is reached. The blood sample should be taken 12 hours after the dose has been taken. Once stable, the level should be checked every 3 months for the first year and 3-6 monthly depending on risk thereafter.
In addition to monitoring lithium levels, it is also important to regularly check thyroid function, calcium, eGFR, and U&Es every 6 months. Normal lithium levels vary between different laboratories but are generally about 0.6 – 1.0 mmol/l.
Lithium toxicity can occur at levels above the normal range and usually consists of gastrointestinal (anorexia, nausea, diarrhea) and central nervous system effects (muscle weakness, drowsiness, ataxia, coarse tremor, muscle twitching). Therefore, serum levels should also be taken during any intercurrent illness as this can increase toxicity.
Overall, monitoring lithium treatment is crucial for ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35 years old soccer player injures his knee while pivoting. He is brought to the emergency department and reports hearing a 'pop' sound and is unable to put weight on the affected knee. Upon examination, the doctor observes that the affected knee is also swollen.
What diagnostic test can aid in the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thessaly's test
Explanation:Meniscal Tear: Causes and Symptoms
A meniscal tear is a common knee injury that usually occurs due to twisting injuries. The symptoms of a meniscal tear include pain that worsens when the knee is straightened, a feeling that the knee may give way, tenderness along the joint line, and knee locking in cases of displaced tears. A positive Thessaly’s test, which involves weight-bearing at 20 degrees of knee flexion while the patient is supported by a doctor, indicates pain on twisting the knee.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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During the past month, have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed, or hopeless?
A 55-year-old man is attending the diabetic clinic. You are aware that people with a chronic physical health problem such as diabetes are more likely to suffer from depression. You wish to screen for this.
Select from the list the most suitable question to ask him.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?
Explanation:Screening for Depression: Two Questions Recommended by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends two questions for screening depression: Have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things? and Have you been feeling down, depressed or hopeless? These questions relate to the past month and have a sensitivity of 96% and a specificity of 57%. While useful for screening, they are not sufficient for diagnosis.
Screening for depression is particularly important for those with a history of depression, significant physical illness, or other mental health problems like dementia. Depression and dementia can have similar symptoms, making screening crucial. Other high-risk groups include women in the puerperium, alcoholics and drug abusers, socially isolated individuals (especially the elderly), people in stressful situations, and those with unexplained symptoms.
If a patient answers yes to the screening questions, further questions about worthlessness, concentration, and thoughts of death should follow. Early detection and treatment of depression can improve outcomes and quality of life for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy has developed involuntary movements of his arms and face over the last few days. Some of these he converts into apparently purposeful movement by pushing back his hair or scratching his nose. There is reduced tone in the limbs, and he is unsteady. He seems unconcerned and intermittently giggles. His mother tells you that he had a sore throat four weeks previously.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sydenham’s chorea
Explanation:Understanding Sydenham’s Chorea: A Common Cause of Acute Chorea Worldwide
Sydenham’s chorea, also known as St Vitus’ dance, is a neurological manifestation of rheumatic fever and remains the most common cause of acute chorea worldwide. While it was commonly seen in the 1930s, it occurs less frequently in the UK today. This condition can occur with or without symptoms of rheumatic fever and is usually self-limiting. Improvement occurs over about two weeks, but total recovery can take up to nine months, and may recur in some patients.
In this scenario, the short time course of the chorea and the girl’s age are useful diagnostically. It is important to note that psychological changes may precede or accompany the choreiform movements, as demonstrated by the girl’s emotional lability.
It is important to consider other potential causes of chorea, such as cerebral tumour, cerebrovascular accident, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and Huntington’s chorea. However, in this case, these conditions are unlikely as they do not fit with the girl’s symptoms and age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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