00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old male in the postoperative ICU with a central line catheter is...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male in the postoperative ICU with a central line catheter is experiencing intermittent fevers. What is the probable microorganism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Beta haemolytic group A Streptococcus

      Correct Answer: Coagulase-negative Staphylococci

      Explanation:

      Coagulase-Negative Staphylococci: Commonly Isolated Bacteria in Clinical Microbiology Laboratories

      Coagulase-negative Staphylococci are frequently encountered in clinical microbiology laboratories. These bacteria, including Staphylococcus epidermidis, are susceptible to novobiocin and have become a significant cause of infection, especially in patients who are hospitalized and have foreign bodies implanted or those who have weakened immune systems.

      The prevalence of coagulase-negative Staphylococci in clinical settings highlights the importance of identifying and treating these bacteria promptly. With the rise of antibiotic resistance, it is crucial to monitor the susceptibility patterns of these organisms to ensure effective treatment. By the characteristics and potential risks associated with coagulase-negative Staphylococci, healthcare providers can take appropriate measures to prevent and manage infections caused by these bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You have watched the anaesthetist anaesthetise a 70-year-old patient for a laparoscopic appendicectomy...

    Incorrect

    • You have watched the anaesthetist anaesthetise a 70-year-old patient for a laparoscopic appendicectomy using thiopentone and suxamethonium. She has never had an anaesthetic before. The patient is transferred from the anaesthetic room into theatre and you notice that she becomes difficult to ventilate with high airway pressures. She has an endotracheal tube (ETT) in situ, with equal chest rise and sats of 95% on 15 l of oxygen. On examining her cardiovascular system, she has a heart rate of 110 bpm with a blood pressure of 68/45 mmHg. She has an erythematosus rash across her chest and face.
      What is your first line of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 adrenaline intramuscularly (im)

      Explanation:

      Management of Anaphylaxis: Medications and Dosages

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The first-line management for anaphylaxis is the administration of adrenaline, also known as epinephrine. The dosage of adrenaline varies depending on the age of the patient. For adults, 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 adrenaline should be given intramuscularly (im), and the dose can be repeated after 5 minutes if there is no response. In children, the dosage ranges from 150 to 500 micrograms depending on age.

      Intravenous (iv) administration of adrenaline is not recommended at a concentration of 1 : 1000. However, iv adrenaline can be administered at a concentration of 1 : 10 000 by an anaesthetist, titrated according to effect. An adrenaline infusion may be necessary for cardiovascular support of the patient.

      Chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone are also part of the treatment for anaphylaxis, but adrenaline takes priority. The dosages of these drugs vary depending on the age of the patient and can be given either im or through a slow iv injection.

      It is important to note that anaphylaxis is a medical emergency, and prompt treatment with the appropriate medications is crucial for a positive outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the commonly used curved-blade laryngoscope in adult practice? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the commonly used curved-blade laryngoscope in adult practice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macintosh

      Explanation:

      Types of Laryngoscopes

      Laryngoscopes are medical instruments used to visualize the larynx and facilitate intubation. There are several types of laryngoscopes, each with its own unique features. The Miller, Oxford, and Wisconsin laryngoscopes have straight blades, while the Macintosh and McCoy laryngoscopes have curved blades. The McCoy laryngoscope is typically used for difficult intubations, as its blade tip is hinged and can be operated by a lever mechanism on the handle. Overall, the choice of laryngoscope depends on the individual patient and the specific needs of the intubation procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient is brought into the Resuscitation Room. Paramedics were called after he...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is brought into the Resuscitation Room. Paramedics were called after he was found face down, unconscious on the road. He smells strongly of alcohol. He has a nasopharyngeal airway in situ (inserted by the ambulance service). There are no visible injuries, except for a small abrasion on his left knee and another on his left shoulder. He is currently on 15 l of high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
      In which of the following scenarios is a nasopharyngeal airway indicated for an elderly patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seizures

      Explanation:

      The Use of Nasopharyngeal Airways in Seizure Management

      Nasopharyngeal airways are a valuable tool in managing patients with seizures. During a seizure, jaw rigidity can make it difficult to position an oropharyngeal airway, making a nasopharyngeal airway a better option. These airways are used to secure an open airway in patients with a decreased Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score and those who cannot tolerate an oropharyngeal airway due to an intact gag reflex. The correct size of the airway is chosen by sizing the width of the patient’s nostril to the circumference of the tube, and insertion is facilitated by using a water-based lubricant. However, nasopharyngeal airways should not be used in patients with a patent airway or those with basal skull fractures and coagulopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the preferred intravenous induction agent for anesthesia in day case procedures?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the preferred intravenous induction agent for anesthesia in day case procedures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Different Anesthetic Agents

      Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic agent with an elimination half-life of four hours. It is commonly used for day case procedures and sedation in intensive care units. On the other hand, etomidate is no longer preferred due to its side effects such as postoperative nausea and vomiting, venous thrombosis, and interference with glucocorticoid production. Ketamine, a phencyclidine derivative, can cause hallucinations and nightmares. Methohexitone may lead to involuntary muscular movement and epileptiform activity on an EEG. Lastly, thiopentone has the longest elimination half-life of 12 hours, which can cause a prolonged hangover effect.

      In summary, different anesthetic agents have their own advantages and disadvantages. It is important to choose the appropriate agent based on the patient’s condition and the type of procedure being performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 7-year-old girl is scheduled for an elective tonsillectomy. Your consultant has requested...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is scheduled for an elective tonsillectomy. Your consultant has requested that you prepare all the airway equipment. What size of endotracheal tube (ETT) do you anticipate she will require?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5.5 cuffed ETT

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Correct Endotracheal Tube Size for an 8-Year-Old Child

      When it comes to intubating an 8-year-old child, choosing the correct endotracheal tube (ETT) size is crucial. Cuffed ETTs are now considered safe for use in children, but not in neonates. To calculate the appropriate size of a cuffed ETT, use the formula (Child’s age/4) + 3.5. For an 8-year-old child, the correct size of a cuffed ETT would be 5.5 mm. If an uncuffed tube is preferred, use the formula (Child’s age/4) + 4 to calculate the tube size, which would be 6.0 mm for an 8-year-old child. It is important to note that using a cuffed tube offers more protection from aspiration. Avoid using a 4.5 mm cuffed ETT, as it is too small for an 8-year-old child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old woman presents with a sudden and severe headache. Upon examination, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with a sudden and severe headache. Upon examination, she is spontaneously opening her eyes and localising to painful stimuli, but is disoriented. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage can be diagnosed with a high degree of accuracy through an urgent CT scan, which can confirm the condition in 95% of patients. In most cases, a lumbar puncture is not necessary unless the patient’s medical history suggests the need for one and the CT scan results are normal. If a bloody tap is suspected, the number of red blood cells should decrease with each successive sample. If an LP is performed six hours after the onset of symptoms, the supernatant fluid should be examined for xanthochromia after centrifugation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old man on the Medical Ward develops status epilepticus. He is immediately...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man on the Medical Ward develops status epilepticus. He is immediately attended by the Foundation Year One Doctor who notices that his airway has been compromised. The patient is immediately examined and found to be haemodynamically stable, with a history of hypertension and asthma. The anaesthetist immediately performs a rapid sequence induction and intubation (RSII) to clear the patient’s airway.
      Which of the following inducing agents used in RSII is most likely to be used in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Common Inducing Anaesthetic Agents and Their Uses

      Propofol, etomidate, ketamine, midazolam, and thiopental are all commonly used inducing anaesthetic agents with varying properties and uses.

      Propofol is the drug of choice for RSII procedures in normotensive individuals without obvious cardiovascular pathology. It has amnesic, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant properties, but no analgesic effects.

      Etomidate provides haemodynamic stability without histamine activity and minimal analgesic effects. It is used in RSI procedures in patients with raised intracranial pressure and cardiovascular conditions, often in combination with fentanyl.

      Ketamine is a non-competitive glutamate N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor blocker that produces dissociative anaesthesia. It can be used for induction of anaesthesia in patients with hypotension, status asthmaticus, and shock, but is avoided in hypertensive patients due to relative contraindications.

      Midazolam is a benzodiazepine with anticonvulsive, muscle relaxant, and anaesthetic actions. At higher doses or in combination with other opioids, it induces significant cardiovascular and respiratory depression.

      Thiopental is administered intravenously as an inducing anaesthetic agent or as a short-acting anaesthetic. It is also used as an anticonvulsant agent and to decrease intracranial pressure in neurosurgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, asthma and porphyria requires emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, asthma and porphyria requires emergency surgery. His blood pressure and asthma are under control. What is the most suitable anaesthetic induction agent for the rapid sequence induction (RSI) procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      An Overview of Common Anaesthetic Induction Agents and Their Advantages and Adverse Effects

      Propofol, ketamine, fentanyl, methohexital, and thiopental are commonly used anaesthetic induction agents. Propofol is the preferred choice for most people due to its rapid onset and offset of action, antiemetic and anticonvulsive effects, bronchodilation, and decreased cerebral metabolic oxygen demand and cerebral blood pressure. Ketamine is ideal for hypotensive patients due to its rapid onset, analgesic effects, bronchodilation, and maintenance of airway reflexes and respiratory drive. Fentanyl is an opiate analgesic used for pain relief, while methohexital is used for electroconvulsive therapy. Thiopental is a barbiturate used in general and regional anaesthesia. However, each agent has its own set of advantages and adverse effects that must be considered before use. For example, ketamine can increase intracranial pressure, cardiac output, and blood pressure, while thiopental can cause bronchoconstriction and is contraindicated in asthmatics and patients with a history of porphyria. It is important to carefully evaluate each patient’s medical history and condition before selecting an appropriate anaesthetic induction agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are on call for the pediatric ward at night and are urgently...

    Incorrect

    • You are on call for the pediatric ward at night and are urgently called to a child who is choking on a piece of hot dog visible in their oropharynx. The child is in extremis with saturations of 87% and there is no effective cough.

      What is the most appropriate immediate management for this pediatric patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Back blows

      Explanation:

      Resuscitation Council (UK) Recommendations for Choking Emergencies

      When faced with a choking emergency, the Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a specific course of action. If the patient is able to cough effectively, encourage them to do so. If not, but they are conscious, try five back blows followed by five abdominal thrusts (Heimlich manoeuvre) and repeat if necessary. However, if the patient becomes unconscious, begin CPR immediately. It is important to note that a finger sweep is no longer recommended as it can push the obstruction further into the airway. Additionally, high flow oxygen is necessary for breathing, but nasopharyngeal airways will not help in this situation. Removal with forceps is also not recommended as it can be hazardous. If the Heimlich manoeuvre fails, a cricothyroidotomy should be considered. While this procedure is recommended in the US and UK, it is not encouraged in some countries like Australia due to the risk of internal injury from over-vigorous use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - How should neuropathic pain be managed? ...

    Incorrect

    • How should neuropathic pain be managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anticonvulsants are prescribed in similar doses to the treatment of epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Neuropathic Pain and Treatment Options

      Neuropathic pain is a chronic condition that affects neuronal membrane excitability and often results in allodynia, hyperalgesia, and hyperpathia. Unlike nociceptive pain, neuropathic pain is less responsive to opioids and can be more difficult to treat. To manage this type of pain, coanalgesics such as antidepressants, anticonvulsants, and antiarrhythmics are commonly prescribed. Anticonvulsants are typically administered at similar doses and schedules as in the treatment of epilepsy. The analgesic response to mexiletine can be predicted by evaluating the improvement in pain after an intravenous lidocaine infusion. Amitriptyline, on the other hand, has a faster analgesic response than its antidepressant effect, with pain relief occurring within a week of treatment. Overall, managing neuropathic pain requires a multifaceted approach that may involve a combination of medications and other therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are due to transfer a critically unwell patient from theatre to intensive...

    Incorrect

    • You are due to transfer a critically unwell patient from theatre to intensive care. The oxygen cylinder is size D (contains 340 l of oxygen when full) and has been running for 12 minutes. The oxygen is running at 5 l/min.
      How long do you have to transfer the patient before the oxygen cylinder is empty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 28 minutes

      Explanation:

      Calculating Oxygen Remaining in a Cylinder

      When using an oxygen cylinder, it’s important to know how much oxygen is left to avoid running out. To calculate the remaining oxygen, you need to know the cylinder size and the flow rate. For example, if a cylinder has 340 litres of oxygen and is flowing at 10 litres per minute, how much oxygen is left after 6 minutes?

      In 6 minutes, 60 litres of oxygen would have already been used (6 min × 10 l/min = 60 l). To find out how much oxygen is left, subtract the amount used from the total amount: 340 – 60 = 280 litres. Then, divide the remaining gas (280 l) by the flow rate (10 l/min) to get the remaining time: 280/10 = 28 minutes.

      It’s important to note that if the flow rate is higher or the cylinder size is smaller, the remaining time will be shorter. Therefore, it’s crucial to monitor the oxygen levels and have a backup cylinder on hand in case of emergency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the correct information about Entonox? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct information about Entonox?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is an effective short term analgesic

      Explanation:

      Entonox: A Mixture of Nitrous Oxide and Oxygen

      Entonox is a gas mixture of 50% nitrous oxide and 50% oxygen that is stored in cylinders. The cylinders have a French blue body with blue and white quarters at the top. It is important to note that if the gas mixture cools below its pseudocritical temperature of −6°C, the nitrous oxide and oxygen may separate out through a process called lamination. This can result in a potentially dangerous and hypoxic gas being administered.

      Despite being a flammable mixture, Entonox is not considered explosive. It is effective in providing short-term analgesia and is safe for both infants and mothers. The onset of action occurs approximately 30 seconds after inhalation, and the duration of action after analgesia is approximately one minute.

      It is important to distinguish nitrous oxide (N2O) from nitric oxide (NO) as they are not the same. Overall, Entonox is a useful gas mixture for providing short-term pain relief, but it must be stored and administered properly to avoid any potential risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Before undergoing general anaesthesia, which regular medications need to be stopped? ...

    Incorrect

    • Before undergoing general anaesthesia, which regular medications need to be stopped?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenelzine

      Explanation:

      Medication Management in Perioperative Period

      Phenelzine and tranylcypromine are monoamine oxidase inhibitors that need to be discontinued at least two weeks before elective surgery due to their potential life-threatening interactions with pethidine and indirect sympathomimetics. Additionally, they can prolong the action of suxamethonium by decreasing the concentration of plasma cholinesterase. Carbamazepine, an anticonvulsant, should be continued throughout the perioperative period. Gliclazide, a short-acting oral hypoglycemic, can be taken if the surgery’s anticipated duration is short.

      Lisinopril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi), and digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, should be continued pre-operatively. Morphine sulfate tablets should also be continued pre-operatively, and a morphine infusion (PCA) should be considered for postoperative analgesia. Pyridostigmine is used in the management of myasthenia gravis and should be continued before minor surgery. However, if perioperative muscle relaxation is required, omitting one or more doses of pyridostigmine would allow a reduction in the dose of the muscle relaxant. Proper medication management in the perioperative period is crucial to ensure patient safety and optimal surgical outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - To visualize the vocal cords, where should the tip of a Macintosh laryngoscope...

    Incorrect

    • To visualize the vocal cords, where should the tip of a Macintosh laryngoscope be inserted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Into the vallecula

      Explanation:

      Macintosh Laryngoscope: A Tool for Visualizing the Vocal Cords

      The Macintosh laryngoscope is a medical instrument designed to aid in the visualization of the vocal cords. Its curved blade is specifically shaped to fit into the oral and oropharyngeal cavity. To use it, the blade is inserted through the right side of the mouth and gradually advanced, pushing the tongue to the left and out of view. The blade has a small bulbous tip that is intended to sit in the vallecula, a small depression between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis.

      By lifting the laryngoscope up and forwards, the larynx is elevated, allowing for a clear view of the vocal cords. This tool is commonly used in medical settings, such as during intubation procedures or when examining the airway. Its design allows for a safe and effective way to visualize the vocal cords, aiding in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A nasogastric (NG) tube was inserted, and he has been prescribed intravenous (IV) fluids. Three days later, he reports feeling short of breath, and on examination, he has widespread fine crackles and pitting sacral oedema. His notes show that he has been receiving 2 litres of fluid a day and that he weighs 50 kg. You treat him, and once his symptoms have resolved, you're-calculate his daily maintenance fluid requirements.
      Which of the following options is the most suitable amount of daily fluid to give to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1000–1500 ml

      Explanation:

      Calculating Fluid Requirements for a Patient with Fluid Overload

      When determining a patient’s fluid requirements, it is important to consider their weight and any underlying medical conditions. For this particular patient, who weighs 48 kg, her maintenance fluid requirement is between 1200-1440 ml per day, calculated using 25-30 ml/kg/day.

      However, this patient has developed fluid overload and pulmonary edema, likely due to receiving 2 liters of fluid per day. While this may have been necessary initially due to fluid loss from bowel obstruction, it is now important to step down to normal maintenance levels.

      Giving the patient 1500-2000 ml of fluid per day would still be too much, as evidenced by examination findings of pitting sacral edema and widespread fine crackles. The maximum amount of fluid needed for maintenance therapy is 1440 ml per day.

      It is crucial to monitor fluid intake and adjust as necessary to prevent further complications from fluid overload. Giving too much fluid, such as 2500-3500 ml per day, can be harmful for a patient with fluid overload and should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - How can suxamethonium be described accurately? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can suxamethonium be described accurately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May cause bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Suxamethonium: A Depolarising Muscle Relaxant

      Suxamethonium is a type of muscle relaxant that causes muscular fasciculations after being injected intravenously. It quickly induces neuromuscular paralysis, but recovery is spontaneous once it is metabolized by the enzyme pseudo or plasma cholinesterase, which is produced in the liver. However, certain pesticides and drugs, such as ecothiopate iodide, can inhibit cholinesterase activity and prolong the effects of suxamethonium. Additionally, reduced levels of plasma cholinesterase can be caused by liver disease, malnutrition, and pregnancy, while genetically determined abnormal enzymes can also lead to a prolonged action of suxamethonium. It’s important to note that neostigmine and other anticholinesterase drugs do not serve as reversal agents and can actually potentiate the neuromuscular block caused by suxamethonium.

      When administering suxamethonium, it’s important to be aware that bradycardia (a slow heart rate) may occur in children after the first dose and in adults after repeated doses. Premedication with atropine should be considered to prevent this. It’s also crucial to note that suxamethonium is a potent trigger of both anaphylaxis and malignant hyperpyrexia, with the incidence of anaphylaxis being highest with rocuronium, atracurium, and suxamethonium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which volatile agent was linked to the development of fulminant hepatitis after secondary...

    Incorrect

    • Which volatile agent was linked to the development of fulminant hepatitis after secondary exposure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Halothane

      Explanation:

      Halothane Hepatitis and Precautions

      Halothane hepatitis is a condition that can range from minor liver function issues to severe liver failure. It occurs when liver damage appears within 28 days of exposure to halothane, after excluding other known causes of liver disease. About 75% of patients with halothane hepatitis have antibodies that react to halothane-altered antigens. Therefore, it is important to take precautions when using halothane.

      Halothane should be avoided if there has been a previous exposure within three months, if there is a known adverse reaction to halothane, if there is a family history of adverse reactions, or if there is pre-existing liver disease. These precautions can help prevent the occurrence of halothane hepatitis and ensure the safety of patients. It is important to carefully consider the use of halothane and take necessary measures to avoid any potential harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old man has been resuscitated after a cardiac arrest and is now...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been resuscitated after a cardiac arrest and is now being treated for hypoxic brain injury in the Neuro-Intensive Care Unit. His family is concerned about his prognosis. What is the most reliable source of information regarding his potential outcome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilaterally absent somatosensory evoked responses (SSEPs) at 24–72 hours

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Indicators for Hypoxic Brain Injury Patients

      Hypoxic brain injury patients require ancillary tests to aid in determining their prognosis. Bilaterally absent somatosensory evoked responses (SSEPs) at 24–72 hours and complete generalised suppression of electroencephalographic (EEG) waves on day three are reliable indicators of poor prognosis. Absent pupillary or corneal reflexes at three days after cardiac arrest, along with the absence of motor response, is also a better prognostic marker. However, in the absence of either one of these factors, the prognosis should be evaluated using results from ancillary tests (SSEP/EEG). Extensor motor response on day three, despite the absence of motor response, is a reliable indicator for poor prognosis. Myoclonic status epilepticus (MSE) – bilateral and synchronous myoclonus of the face, limbs and axial skeleton – has been studied as a reliable marker for poor prognosis in these patients, even in the presence of brainstem and motor responses. However, it should not be considered in isolation as a prognostic indicator. It is important to note that the reliability of these indicators may be affected by factors such as noise interferences, hypothermia, and drugs given during resuscitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are on an anaesthetic attachment in Day Surgery and are reviewing patients...

    Incorrect

    • You are on an anaesthetic attachment in Day Surgery and are reviewing patients preoperatively. You review a 25-year-old man who is having an elective knee arthroscopy. He has not had a general anaesthetic before, but he tells you that his father had problems following suxamethonium anaesthetic, and he had to have a muscle sample sent off to find out the cause, which came back positive. His father is still alive.
      Which of these is his father’s most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Explanation:

      Common Complications of Suxamethonium Administration

      Suxamethonium is a commonly used muscle relaxant during anesthesia. However, it can lead to several complications, including malignant hyperthermia, raised intraocular pressure, anaphylaxis, prolonged paralysis, and hyperkalemia.

      Malignant hyperthermia is a genetic myopathy that causes a hypermetabolic state, leading to circulatory collapse and death. Treatment involves recognition, removal of stimuli, continuation of anesthesia with intravenous agents, cooling, and administration of dantrolene.

      Raised intraocular pressure and intracranial pressure can occur after suxamethonium administration, but this is only relevant to patients with ocular and intracranial diseases.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur after suxamethonium administration. Diagnosis is based on signs and symptoms.

      Prolonged paralysis can occur in patients with abnormal pseudocholinesterase level or function, which is generally due to inherited genetic alleles. Diagnosis is by blood test.

      Hyperkalemia can occur after suxamethonium administration, especially in patients with severe muscle damage or recent burns. Diagnosis does not require a muscle biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anaesthetics & ITU (0/1) 0%
Passmed