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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is FALSE with regards to vitiligo?
Your Answer: Vitiligo shows the Koebner phenomenon
Correct Answer: A positive family history is not a risk factor
Explanation:The cause of Vitiligo is typically unknown. It is believed to be due to genetic susceptibility that is triggered by an environmental factor such that an autoimmune disease occurs. This results in the destruction of skin pigment cells. Risk factors include a family history of the condition or other autoimmune diseases, such as hyperthyroidism, alopecia areata, and pernicious anaemia. Vitiligo is classified into two main types: segmental and non-segmental. Most cases are non-segmental meaning they affect both sides and typically get worse with time. The prevalence of vitiligo is 0.5-1% of populations worldwide. Typical sites include backs of hands, wrists, knees, neck and around body orifices. The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma. This occurs in vitiligo secondary to scratching.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A rise in which of the following antibodies would indicate severe systemic involvement?
Your Answer: Anti double-stranded DNA antibodies
Explanation:Anti ds-DNA antibodies are very specific for SLE and their presence most often indicates systemic spread of the disease. These antibodies are present in about 30 percent of the total cases of SLE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific to the disease?
Your Answer: Anti-TSH receptor stimulating antibodies
Correct Answer: Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies
Explanation:Hashimoto thyroiditis is part of the spectrum of autoimmune thyroid diseases (AITDs) and is characterized by the destruction of thyroid cells by various cell- and antibody mediated immune processes. It usually presents with hypothyroidism, insidious in onset, with signs and symptoms slowly progressing over months to years.
The diagnosis of Hashimoto thyroiditis relies on the demonstration of circulating antibodies to thyroid antigens (mainly thyroperoxidase and thyroglobulin) and reduced echogenicity on thyroid sonogram in a patient with proper clinical features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 2 year old child was brought to casualty with recurrent episodes of eczematoid rash over the cheeks and flexural regions of his body. Which one of the following statement best suit this condition?
Your Answer: Hydrocortisone 1% ointment should be applied sparingly to areas of active eczema
Explanation:Atopic dermatitis is an allergic condition which is more apparent in those children who have a positive family history in their 1st or 2nd degree relatives. In some cases, there might be a positive history of bronchial asthma. The best treatment option in this case would be topical application of 1% hydrocortisone ointment to the affected areas of the child. We cannot prescribe a strong ointment to the face because it may lead to skin atrophy, telangiectasia and other steroid related topical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which is the formula to calculate the number needed to treat?
Your Answer: ((Control event rate) - (Experimental event rate)) / (Control event rate)
Correct Answer: 1 / (Absolute risk reduction)
Explanation:The number needed to treat (NNT) is valuable information in treatment decisions. NNT is the inverse of the absolute risk reduction (1/ARR) between two treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung?
Your Answer: On the right side the transverse fissure separates the upper lobe from the lower lobe
Correct Answer: The medial basal segment is absent in the left lower lobe
Explanation:The right and left lung anatomy are similar but asymmetrical. The right lung consists of three lobes: right upper lobe (RUL), right middle lobe (RML), and right lower lobe (RLL). The left lung consists of two lobes: right upper lobe (RUL) and right lower lobe (RLL). The right lobe is divided by an oblique and horizontal fissure, where the horizontal fissure divides the upper and middle lobe, and the oblique fissure divides the middle and lower lobes. In the left lobe there is only an oblique fissure that separates the upper and lower lobe.
The lobes further divide into segments which are associated with specific segmental bronchi. Segmental bronchi are the third-order branches off the second-order branches (lobar bronchi) that come off the main bronchus.
The right lung consists of ten segments. There are three segments in the RUL (apical, anterior and posterior), two in the RML (medial and lateral), and five in the RLL (superior, medial, anterior, lateral, and posterior). The oblique fissure separates the RUL from the RML, and the horizontal fissure separates the RLL from the RML and RUL.
There are eight to nine segments on the left depending on the division of the lobe. In general, there are four segments in the left upper lobe (anterior, apicoposterior, inferior and superior lingula) and four or five in the left lower lobe (lateral, anteromedial, superior and posterior). The medium sized airways offer the maximum airway resistance, not smaller ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Correct
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A 58-year-old psychologist with small cell lung cancer complains of muscle weakness. Each one of the following are features of Lambert-Eaton syndrome, except:
Your Answer: Repeated muscle contractions lead to decreased muscle strength
Explanation:In myasthenia gravis, repeated muscle contractions lead to reduced muscle strength. The opposite is however classically seen in the related disorder Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is seen in association with small cell lung cancer, and to a lesser extent breast and ovarian cancer. It may also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by an antibody directed against pre-synaptic voltage gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old female inpatient in a psychiatric hospital has stopped eating or drinking as she believes she is dead and does not require food anymore. Which syndrome is characteristic of this finding?
Your Answer: Couvade syndrome
Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis of this patient is Cotard syndrome.
Cotard syndrome is a rare mental disorder where the affected patient believes that they (or in some cases just a part of their body) is either dead or non-existent. This delusion is often difficult to treat and can result in significant problems due to patients stopping eating or drinking as they deem it not necessary. Cotard syndrome is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders.
Other delusional syndromes:
– Othello syndrome is a delusional belief that a patients partner is committing infidelity despite no evidence of this. It can often result in violence and controlling behaviour.
– De Clerambault syndrome (otherwise known as erotomania), is where a patient believes that a person of higher social or professional standing is in love with them. Often this presents with people who believe celebrities are in love with them.
– Capgras syndrome is characterised by a person believing their friend or relative had been replaced by an exact double.
– Couvade syndrome is also known as ‘sympathetic pregnancy’. It affects fathers, particularly during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy, who suffer the somatic features of pregnancy.
– Ekbom syndrome is also known as delusional parasitosis and is the belief that they are infected with parasites or have ‘bugs’ under their skin. This can vary from the classic psychosis symptoms in narcotic use where the user can ‘see’ bugs crawling under their skin or can be a patient who believes that they are infested with snakes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30 year old male is reviewed following treatment using cognitive behaviour therapy for bulimia. He thinks there has been no improvement in his condition and is interested in using pharmacological therapy. Which of the following is most suitable?
Your Answer: Low-dose amitriptyline
Correct Answer: High-dose fluoxetine
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa is a serious, potentially life-threatening eating disorder characterized by a cycle of bingeing and compensatory behaviours such as self-induced vomiting designed to undo or compensate for the effects of binge eating.
According to the DSM-5, the official diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa are:
Recurrent episodes of binge eating. An episode of binge eating is characterized by both of the following:
Eating, in a discrete period of time (e.g. within any 2-hour period), an amount of food that is definitely larger than most people would eat during a similar period of time and under similar circumstances.
A sense of lack of control over eating during the episode (e.g. a feeling that one cannot stop eating or control what or how much one is eating).
Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviour in order to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or other medications, fasting, or excessive exercise.
The binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviours both occur, on average, at least once a week for three months.
Self-evaluation is unduly influenced by body shape and weight.
The disturbance does not occur exclusively during episodes of anorexia nervosa.Antidepressants as a group – particularly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) – are the mainstay of pharmacotherapy for bulimia nervosa. These may be helpful for patients with substantial concurrent symptoms of depression, anxiety, obsessions, or certain impulse disorder symptoms. They may be particularly good for patients who have not benefited from or had suboptimal response to suitable psychosocial therapy or who have a chronic, difficult course in combination with other treatments.
Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved treatments
Fluoxetine (Prozac): Initial dose 20 mg/d with advance over 1–2 weeks to 60 mg/d in the morning as tolerated. Some patients may need to begin at a lower dose if side effects are intolerable. A maximum dose of 80 mg/d may be used in some cases. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Primarily, funnel plots are used to do what?
Your Answer: Demonstrate the heterogeneity of a meta-analysis
Correct Answer: Demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses
Explanation:Funnel plots are graphical tools to assess and compare clinical performance of a group of care professionals or care institutions on a quality indicator against a benchmark. Incorrect construction of funnel plots may lead to erroneous assessment and incorrect decisions potentially with severe consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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