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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a follow-up on her ambulatory blood pressure test results. The test shows an average blood pressure of 150/92 mmHg. You suggest starting antihypertensive medication and recommend ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for her age group. These medications work by inhibiting the action of angiotensin-converting-enzyme, which converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Renin catalyzes the hydrolysis of angiotensinogen to produce angiotensin I. Where in the body is renin produced?
Your Answer: Adrenal cortex
Correct Answer: Kidneys
Explanation:Renin, which is produced in the kidneys’ juxtaglomerular cells, plays a crucial role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by converting angiotensinogen into angiotensin I. Angiotensin-converting-enzyme, which is primarily located in the lungs, converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. The adrenal cortex produces aldosterone, a vital compound in the system, while the liver produces angiotensinogen. The pancreas, on the other hand, has no involvement in this system and produces insulin, glucagon, and other hormones and enzymes. Based on the World Health Organisation’s hypertension classification, the patient in question has mild hypertension, and according to current NICE guidelines, individuals under 55 years old with mild hypertension should receive lifestyle advice and be prescribed ACE inhibitors.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 2
Correct
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A 58-year-old man is diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia and is prescribed finasteride. He is informed that the drug works by inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, thereby preventing further enlargement of the prostate. What is the mechanism of action of finasteride?
Your Answer: 5-alpha reductase inhibitor
Explanation:The enzyme 5-alpha-reductase is responsible for converting testosterone into dihydrotestosterone (DHT) in the testes and prostate. DHT is a more active form of testosterone. Finasteride is a medication that inhibits 5-alpha-reductase, preventing the conversion of testosterone to DHT. This can help prevent further growth of the prostate and is why finasteride is used clinically.
Alpha-1 agonist is an incorrect answer as it refers to adrenergic receptors and does not affect the conversion of testosterone to DHT. These drugs are used for benign prostate hyperplasia to relax smooth muscles in the bladder, reducing urinary symptoms. Tamsulosin is an example of an alpha-1 agonist.
Androgen antagonist is also incorrect as these drugs block the action of testosterone and DHT by preventing their attachment to receptors. They do not affect the conversion of testosterone to DHT.
Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone modulators are also an incorrect answer. These drugs affect the hypothalamus and the production of gonadotrophs, such as luteinizing hormone. They do not affect the conversion of testosterone to DHT.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old patient is being evaluated after being admitted for treatment of a persistent Clostridium difficile infection. The patient had received treatment for a previous infection three weeks ago, but the symptoms did not subside, and she continued to experience diarrhoea. The patient was hospitalized three days ago due to a life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection.
The patient has been receiving oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole for the past few days, but there has been no improvement in her symptoms. What would be the venous blood gas results in this case?Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis + hypokalaemia
Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis + hypokalaemia
Explanation:If a patient experiences prolonged diarrhoea, they may develop metabolic acidosis and hypokalaemia. This is likely the case for a patient with a history of prolonged Clostridium difficile infection, as the loss of bicarbonate ions from the GI tract during diarrhoea can lead to metabolic acidosis. Prolonged diarrhoea can also result in hypokalaemia due to the direct loss of potassium from the GI tract, which the body may be unable to compensate for. Therefore, metabolic acidosis and hypokalaemia are the expected outcomes in this scenario.
Understanding Metabolic Acidosis
Metabolic acidosis is a condition that can be classified based on the anion gap, which is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question provides the chloride level, it may be an indication to calculate the anion gap.
Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. It can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs like acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.
Lactic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis that is caused by high lactate levels. It can be further classified into two types: lactic acidosis type A, which is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, and lactic acidosis type B, which is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types and causes of metabolic acidosis is important in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 4
Correct
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At which of the following locations is the highest amount of water absorbed?
Your Answer: Jejunum
Explanation:The small bowel, specifically the jejunum and ileum, is the primary location for water absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. While the colon does play a role in water absorption, its contribution is minor in comparison. However, if there is a significant removal of the small bowel, the importance of the colon in water absorption may become more significant.
Water Absorption in the Human Body
Water absorption in the human body is a crucial process that occurs in the small bowel and colon. On average, a person ingests up to 2000ml of liquid orally within a 24-hour period. Additionally, gastrointestinal secretions contribute to a further 8000ml of fluid entering the small bowel. The process of intestinal water absorption is passive and is dependent on the solute load. In the jejunum, the active absorption of glucose and amino acids creates a concentration gradient that facilitates the flow of water across the membrane. On the other hand, in the ileum, most water is absorbed through facilitated diffusion, which involves the movement of water molecules with sodium ions.
The colon also plays a significant role in water absorption, with approximately 150ml of water entering it daily. However, the colon can adapt and increase this amount following resection. Overall, water absorption is a complex process that involves various mechanisms and is essential for maintaining proper hydration levels in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man is admitted to the neurology ward and complains to the nurse that he is experiencing difficulty urinating. He expresses significant distress and reports feeling pain due to urinary retention. To alleviate his discomfort, the nurse places him in a warm bath, which finally allows him to relax his sphincter and urinate.
What nervous structure was responsible for maintaining detrusor capacity and causing the patient's difficulty in urinating?Your Answer: Pelvic splanchnic nerves
Correct Answer: Hypogastric plexuses
Explanation:The superior and inferior hypogastric plexuses are responsible for providing sympathetic innervation to the bladder, which helps maintain detrusor capacity by preventing parasympathetic contraction of the bladder.
Bladder Anatomy and Innervation
The bladder is a three-sided pyramid-shaped organ located in the pelvic cavity. Its apex points towards the symphysis pubis, while the base lies anterior to the rectum or vagina. The bladder’s inferior aspect is retroperitoneal, while the superior aspect is covered by peritoneum. The trigone, the least mobile part of the bladder, contains the ureteric orifices and internal urethral orifice. The bladder’s blood supply comes from the superior and inferior vesical arteries, while venous drainage occurs through the vesicoprostatic or vesicouterine venous plexus. Lymphatic drainage occurs mainly to the external iliac and internal iliac nodes, with the obturator nodes also playing a role. The bladder is innervated by parasympathetic nerve fibers from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and sympathetic nerve fibers from L1 and L2 via the hypogastric nerve plexuses. The parasympathetic fibers cause detrusor muscle contraction, while the sympathetic fibers innervate the trigone muscle. The external urethral sphincter is under conscious control, and voiding occurs when the rate of neuronal firing to the detrusor muscle increases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the effect of vasodilation of the efferent arterioles of the kidney?
Your Answer: Glomerular filtration rate
Correct Answer: Renal blood flow
Explanation:Effects of Dilatation of Efferent Arterioles on Renal Function
Dilatation of the efferent arterioles results in a decrease in glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure, which in turn reduces the resistance to flow through the afferent arterioles. This leads to an increase in renal blood flow, although to a lesser extent than if the afferent arterioles were dilated. However, the reduction in glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure causes a decrease in glomerular filtration rate. The peritubular capillary oncotic pressure is influenced by the filtration fraction, which increases with a rise in GFR and no change in renal blood flow. Consequently, a greater filtration fraction would result in an increase in peritubular capillary oncotic pressure. Therefore, dilatation of the efferent arterioles causes a decrease in peritubular capillary oncotic pressure. Although urine volume is not significantly affected by this change, a sustained reduction in GFR may lead to a decrease in urine volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 7
Correct
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A 70-year-old man visits the endocrinology clinic complaining of muscle cramps, headaches, and lethargy. During the clinic visit, his vital signs are heart rate 80/min, respiratory rate 18/min, blood pressure 150/100 mmHg, temperature 36.5ºC, and saturations 99% on air. Recent blood tests reveal:
- Na+ 147 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Urea 6.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 95 µmol/L (55 - 120)
An adrenal mass is detected on his abdominal CT scan. Can you identify where the hormone responsible for his symptoms is produced?Your Answer: Zona glomerulosa
Explanation:The correct answer is the zona glomerulosa. This patient is experiencing symptoms of hyperaldosteronism, which is likely caused by an adenoma in the zona glomerulosa, as indicated by the mass seen on CT scan (also known as Conn’s syndrome). The adenoma stimulates the production of aldosterone, leading to hypertension and hypokalemia.
The adrenal medulla produces catecholamines, such as adrenaline and noradrenaline.
The juxtaglomerular apparatus is located in the kidney and produces renin in response to decreased renal perfusion.
The zona fasciculata is the middle layer of the adrenal cortex and is responsible for producing glucocorticoids, such as cortisol.
The zona reticularis is the innermost layer of the adrenal cortex and produces androgens, such as dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA).
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 8
Correct
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A 50-year-old male is brought back to a surgical ward after a renal transplant. Diuresis suddenly decreases 2 hours after the transplantation. The patient is quickly transferred back to surgery where the transplanted kidney displays signs of hyperacute rejection and is removed. Histopathological examination confirms hyperacute rejection.
What type of reaction has this patient undergone?Your Answer: Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:Hyperacute transplant rejection is a type II hypersensitivity reaction, which is characterized by a cytotoxic response caused by pre-existing antibodies to the ABO or HLA antigens. This reaction leads to widespread thrombosis and ischaemia/necrosis within the transplanted organ, necessitating its surgical removal.
In contrast, type I hypersensitivity is an immediate IgE-mediated reaction that occurs within minutes, while type III hypersensitivity is an IgM-mediated reaction that involves the formation of circulating immune complexes. Type IV hypersensitivity is a cell-mediated response that takes weeks to develop and is seen in chronic graft rejections. Finally, type V hypersensitivity is an autoimmune reaction that involves the binding of auto-antibodies to cell surface receptors, either preventing the intended ligand binding or mimicking its effects.
The HLA system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and is responsible for human leucocyte antigens. Class 1 antigens include A, B, and C, while class 2 antigens include DP, DQ, and DR. When matching for a renal transplant, the importance of HLA antigens is ranked as DR > B > A.
Graft survival rates for renal transplants are high, with a 90% survival rate at one year and a 60% survival rate at ten years for cadaveric transplants. Living-donor transplants have even higher survival rates, with a 95% survival rate at one year and a 70% survival rate at ten years. However, postoperative problems can occur, such as acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections.
Hyperacute rejection can occur within minutes to hours after a transplant and is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens. This type of rejection is an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in ischemia and necrosis of the transplanted organ. Unfortunately, there is no treatment available for hyperacute rejection, and the graft must be removed.
Acute graft failure, which occurs within six months of a transplant, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is caused by cell-mediated cytotoxic T cells. This type of failure is usually asymptomatic and is detected by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Other causes of acute graft failure include cytomegalovirus infection, but it may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.
Chronic graft failure, which occurs after six months of a transplant, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms that lead to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, known as chronic allograft nephropathy. The recurrence of the original renal disease, such as MCGN, IgA, or FSGS, can also cause chronic graft failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 9
Correct
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A senior citizen who is unfamiliar to you arrives with seizures. A companion describes that he had been experiencing a prickling sensation around his mouth and muscle contractions in his extremities.
What blood test outcomes would you anticipate from these indications?Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:The correct answer is hypocalcaemia, which is characterized by perioral paraesthesia, cramps, tetany, and convulsions. Hypophosphatemia and hypokalaemia are not the most appropriate answers, as they would not cause these symptoms. Sepsis is also an incorrect answer.
Hypocalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs
Hypocalcaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. As calcium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function, many of the symptoms and signs of hypocalcaemia are related to neuromuscular excitability. The most common features of hypocalcaemia include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. In chronic cases, patients may experience depression and cataracts. An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show a prolonged QT interval.
Two specific signs that are commonly used to diagnose hypocalcaemia are Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign. Trousseau’s sign is observed when the brachial artery is occluded by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining pressure above systolic. This causes wrist flexion and fingers to be drawn together, which is seen in around 95% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 1% of normocalcaemic people. Chvostek’s sign is observed when tapping over the parotid gland causes facial muscles to twitch. This sign is seen in around 70% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 10% of normocalcaemic people. Overall, hypocalcaemia can cause a range of symptoms and signs that are related to neuromuscular excitability, and specific diagnostic signs can be used to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old male presents with multiple episodes of haematuria. He has a history of COPD due to prolonged smoking. What could be the probable root cause?
Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder
Explanation:TCC is the most common subtype of renal cancer and is strongly associated with smoking. Renal adenocarcinoma may also cause similar symptoms but is less likely.
Bladder cancer is a common urological cancer that primarily affects males aged 50-80 years old. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons increase the risk of developing the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is also a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, such as inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are rare. The most common bladder malignancies are urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and adenocarcinoma. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with papillary growth patterns having a better prognosis. The remaining tumors may be of higher grade and prone to local invasion, resulting in a worse prognosis.
The TNM staging system is used to describe the extent of bladder cancer. Most patients present with painless, macroscopic hematuria, and a cystoscopy and biopsies or TURBT are used to provide a histological diagnosis and information on depth of invasion. Pelvic MRI and CT scanning are used to determine locoregional spread, and PET CT may be used to investigate nodes of uncertain significance. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, surgery (radical cystectomy and ileal conduit), and radical radiotherapy. The prognosis varies depending on the stage of the cancer, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T, N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 11
Correct
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A 70-year-old male was admitted to the hospital due to delirium observed in the nursing home. Upon diagnosis, he was found to have a lower respiratory tract infection which progressed to sepsis. During his stay in the ICU, he was discovered to have severe hyponatremia. The medical team has prescribed tolvaptan along with other medications.
What is the mechanism of action of tolvaptan?Your Answer: Vasopressin V2 receptor antagonist
Explanation:Tolvaptan is a drug that blocks the action of vasopressin at the V2 receptor, which reduces water absorption and increases aquaresis without sodium loss. Vasopressin is a hormone that regulates water balance in the body.
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a commonly inherited kidney disease that affects 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2 respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for 15% of cases. ADPKD type 1 is caused by a mutation in the PKD1 gene on chromosome 16, while ADPKD type 2 is caused by a mutation in the PKD2 gene on chromosome 4. ADPKD type 1 tends to present with renal failure earlier than ADPKD type 2.
To screen for ADPKD in relatives of affected individuals, an abdominal ultrasound is recommended. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, if the individual is under 30 years old. If the individual is between 30-59 years old, two cysts in both kidneys are required for diagnosis. If the individual is over 60 years old, four cysts in both kidneys are necessary for diagnosis.
For some patients with ADPKD, tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, may be an option to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. However, NICE recommends tolvaptan only for adults with ADPKD who have chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 12
Correct
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A 2-year-old girl presents with recurrent urinary tract infections. During the diagnostic work-up, abnormal renal function is noted and an ultrasound scan reveals bilateral hydronephrosis.
What could be the probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Posterior urethral valves
Explanation:A developmental uropathy known as a posterior urethral valve typically affects male infants with an incidence of 1 in 8000. The condition is characterized by bladder wall hypertrophy, hydronephrosis, and bladder diverticula, which are used as diagnostic features.
Posterior urethral valves are a frequent cause of blockage in the lower urinary tract in males. They can be detected during prenatal ultrasound screenings. Due to the high pressure required for bladder emptying during fetal development, the child may experience damage to the renal parenchyma, resulting in renal impairment in 70% of boys upon diagnosis. Treatment involves the use of a bladder catheter, and endoscopic valvotomy is the preferred definitive treatment. Cystoscopic and renal follow-up is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 13
Correct
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What electrolyte imbalance is probable in a patient experiencing diarrhea and a palpable soft mass during digital rectal examination?
Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Rectal secretions from large villous adenomas of the rectum can cause hypokalaemia due to their high potassium content, which is a result of the marked secretory activity of the adenomas.
Understanding Hypokalaemia and its Causes
Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium and hydrogen ions are competitors, and as potassium levels decrease, more hydrogen ions enter the cells. Hypokalaemia can occur with either alkalosis or acidosis. In cases of alkalosis, hypokalaemia may be caused by vomiting, thiazide and loop diuretics, Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome. On the other hand, hypokalaemia with acidosis may be caused by diarrhoea, renal tubular acidosis, acetazolamide, or partially treated diabetic ketoacidosis.
It is important to note that magnesium deficiency may also cause hypokalaemia. In such cases, normalizing potassium levels may be difficult until the magnesium deficiency has been corrected. Understanding the causes of hypokalaemia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old teenage boy comes to see his General Practitioner with swelling in his left scrotum. He reports no pain or other symptoms. During examination in a supine position, the GP notes that the left testicle is smaller than the right and there are no abnormal masses on either side. The GP diagnoses the patient with a varicocele, which is caused by increased hydrostatic pressure in the venous plexus of the left scrotum. The question is, where does the left testicular (gonadal) vein drain into?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Correct Answer: Left renal vein
Explanation:The left renal vein receives drainage from the left testicular vein, while the common iliac and internal iliac veins do not receive any blood from the testicles. The internal iliac veins collect blood from the pelvic internal organs and join the external iliac vein, which drains blood from the legs, to form the common iliac vein. On the other hand, the right testicular vein directly drains into the inferior vena cava since it is situated to the right of the midline. The great saphenous veins, which are located superficially, collect blood from the toes.
Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele
Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.
Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 15
Correct
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A 50-year-old male is undergoing evaluation for persistent proteinuria. He has a medical history of relapsed multiple myeloma. A renal biopsy is performed, and the Congo red stain with light microscopy shows apple-green birefringence under polarised light.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Amyloidosis
Explanation:Understanding Amyloidosis
Amyloidosis is a medical condition that occurs when an insoluble fibrillar protein called amyloid accumulates outside the cells. This protein is derived from various precursor proteins and contains non-fibrillary components such as amyloid-P component, apolipoprotein E, and heparan sulphate proteoglycans. The accumulation of amyloid fibrils can lead to tissue or organ dysfunction.
Amyloidosis can be classified as systemic or localized, and further characterized by the type of precursor protein involved. For instance, in myeloma, the precursor protein is immunoglobulin light chain fragments, which is abbreviated as AL (A for amyloid and L for light chain fragments).
To diagnose amyloidosis, doctors may use Congo red staining, which shows apple-green birefringence, or a serum amyloid precursor (SAP) scan. Biopsy of skin, rectal mucosa, or abdominal fat may also be necessary. Understanding amyloidosis is crucial for early detection and treatment of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An elderly man of 74 years old complains of symptoms and displays signs of benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which structure is most likely to be enlarged in his case?
Your Answer: Left lateral lobe of the prostate
Correct Answer: Median lobe of the prostate
Explanation:Prostate carcinoma commonly develops in the posterior lobe, while BPH often causes enlargement of the median lobe. The anterior lobe, which contains minimal glandular tissue, is rarely affected by enlargement.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 17
Correct
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A 59-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of lower back pain, weight loss, an abdominal mass, and visible haematuria. The GP eliminates the possibility of a UTI and refers him through a 2-week wait pathway. An ultrasound reveals a tumour, and a biopsy confirms renal cell carcinoma. From which part of the kidney does his cancer originate?
Your Answer: Proximal renal tubular epithelium
Explanation:Renal cell carcinoma originates from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, while the other options, such as blood vessels, distal renal tubular epithelium, and glomerular basement membrane, are all parts of the kidney but not the site of origin for renal cell carcinoma. Transitional cell carcinoma, on the other hand, arises from the transitional cells in the lining of the renal pelvis.
Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It originates from the proximal renal tubular epithelium and is commonly associated with smoking and conditions such as von Hippel-Lindau syndrome and tuberous sclerosis. The clear cell subtype is the most prevalent, comprising 75-85% of tumors.
Renal cell cancer is more common in middle-aged men and may present with classical symptoms such as haematuria, loin pain, and an abdominal mass. Other features include endocrine effects, such as the secretion of erythropoietin, parathyroid hormone-related protein, renin, and ACTH. Metastases are present in 25% of cases at presentation, and paraneoplastic syndromes such as Stauffer syndrome may also occur.
The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on tumor size and extent of invasion. Management options include partial or total nephrectomy, depending on the tumor size and extent of disease. Patients with a T1 tumor are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while alpha-interferon and interleukin-2 may be used to reduce tumor size and treat metastases. Receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib have shown superior efficacy compared to interferon-alpha.
In summary, renal cell cancer is a common primary renal neoplasm that is associated with various risk factors and may present with classical symptoms and endocrine effects. Management options depend on the extent of disease and may include surgery and targeted therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 18
Correct
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A 65-year-old man has been prescribed dapagliflozin by his physician to improve management of his pre-existing type 2 diabetes mellitus following a raised HbA1c reading.
What is the main site of action for this medication?Your Answer: Renal proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:The proximal convoluted tubule in the nephron is responsible for the majority of glucose reabsorption. Dapagliflozin, a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor, acts on this area to reduce glucose reabsorption, resulting in glycosuria. While this can aid in glycaemic control and weight loss, it also increases the risk of urinary tract infections. Other SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin and empagliflozin. The distal convoluted tubule is important for ion absorption, while the cortical collecting duct regulates water reabsorption. Sulfonylureas act on pancreatic beta cells, not acinar cells, which are responsible for exocrine function and are not targeted by SGLT-2 inhibitors.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A health-conscious 45-year-old presents with an unexplained acute kidney injury (AKI) and a kidney biopsy reveals the presence of calcium oxalate crystals in the renal tubules. The patient's calcium levels are normal, oxalate levels are elevated, and vitamin D levels are within normal range. Which vitamin overdose could potentially account for this condition?
Your Answer: Vitamin E
Correct Answer: Vitamin C
Explanation:The deposition of calcium oxalate in the renal tubules indicates that the patient is experiencing oxalate nephropathy, which is commonly caused by an overdose of vitamin C. Therefore, the correct answer is vitamin C overdose. It should be noted that elevated calcium levels are associated with vitamin D overdose, which is not applicable in this case.
Understanding Oxalate Nephropathy
Oxalate nephropathy is a type of sudden kidney damage that occurs when calcium oxalate crystals accumulate in the renal tubules. This condition can be caused by various factors, including the ingestion of ethylene glycol or an overdose of vitamin C. When these crystals build up in the renal tubules, they can cause damage to the tubular epithelium, leading to kidney dysfunction.
To better understand oxalate nephropathy, it is important to note that the renal tubules are responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and excreting them in the urine. When calcium oxalate crystals accumulate in these tubules, they can disrupt this process and cause damage to the tubular epithelium. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including decreased urine output, swelling in the legs and feet, and fatigue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which serum protein is most likely to increase in a patient with severe sepsis?
Your Answer: Cortisol binding protein
Correct Answer: Ferritin
Explanation:During an acute phase response, ferritin levels can significantly rise while other parameters typically decrease.
Acute Phase Proteins and their Role in the Body’s Response to Infection
During an infection or injury, the body undergoes an acute phase response where it produces a variety of proteins to help fight off the infection and promote healing. These proteins are known as acute phase proteins and include CRP, procalcitonin, ferritin, fibrinogen, alpha-1 antitrypsin, ceruloplasmin, serum amyloid A, serum amyloid P component, haptoglobin, and complement.
CRP is a commonly measured acute phase protein that is synthesized in the liver and binds to bacterial cells and those undergoing apoptosis. It is able to activate the complement system and its levels are known to rise in patients following surgery. Procalcitonin is another acute phase protein that is used as a marker for bacterial infections. Ferritin is involved in iron storage and transport, while fibrinogen is important for blood clotting. Alpha-1 antitrypsin helps protect the lungs from damage, and ceruloplasmin is involved in copper transport. Serum amyloid A and serum amyloid P component are involved in inflammation, while haptoglobin binds to hemoglobin to prevent its breakdown. Complement is a group of proteins that help to destroy pathogens.
During the acute phase response, the liver decreases the production of other proteins known as negative acute phase proteins, including albumin, transthyretin, transferrin, retinol binding protein, and cortisol binding protein. These proteins are important for maintaining normal bodily functions, but their production is decreased during an infection or injury to allow for the production of acute phase proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 21
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department with confusion and lethargy. Arterial blood gas results indicate an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis. After identifying the underlying cause, appropriate treatment is initiated. Within a few hours, the patient's mental status significantly improves.
Upon repeat laboratory studies, there is an increase in serum bicarbonate and sodium levels, a decrease in serum osmolarity, and a drop in serum potassium levels.
What is the most probable treatment administered to this patient?Your Answer: Insulin and normal saline
Explanation:Insulin and hydration are the primary treatments for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which causes an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis. Insulin allows cells to use glucose as an energy source, decreasing ketone body production and causing an intracellular shift of potassium. Loop diuretics, mineralocorticoid injections, and opioid antagonists are not appropriate treatments for DKA.
Managing Hyperkalaemia: A Step-by-Step Guide
Hyperkalaemia is a serious condition that can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias if left untreated. To manage hyperkalaemia, it is important to address any underlying factors that may be contributing to the condition, such as acute kidney injury, and to stop any aggravating drugs, such as ACE inhibitors. Treatment can be categorised based on the severity of the hyperkalaemia, which is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the patient’s potassium levels.
ECG changes are also important in determining the appropriate management for hyperkalaemia. Peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, and a sinusoidal wave pattern are all associated with hyperkalaemia and should be evaluated in all patients with new hyperkalaemia.
The principles of treatment modalities for hyperkalaemia include stabilising the cardiac membrane, shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments, and removing potassium from the body. IV calcium gluconate is used to stabilise the myocardium, while insulin/dextrose infusion and nebulised salbutamol can be used to shift potassium from the extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments. Calcium resonium, loop diuretics, and dialysis can be used to remove potassium from the body.
In practical terms, all patients with severe hyperkalaemia or ECG changes should receive emergency treatment, including IV calcium gluconate to stabilise the myocardium and insulin/dextrose infusion to shift potassium from the extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments. Other treatments, such as nebulised salbutamol, may also be used to temporarily lower serum potassium levels. Further management may involve stopping exacerbating drugs, treating any underlying causes, and lowering total body potassium through the use of calcium resonium, loop diuretics, or dialysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of haematuria. He has experienced two episodes of haematuria in the past week and has not experienced any abdominal pain or fevers. He is asymptomatic, but did have a cough and runny nose that resolved about a week ago. Upon examination, nothing unusual is found.
The GP refers the patient to a nephrologist and performs an ultrasound and cystoscopy, both of which come back negative. However, the patient continues to experience microscopic haematuria, prompting the decision to perform a renal biopsy. The biopsy results reveal mesangial hypercellularity.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute proliferative glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and renal biopsy findings are consistent with IgA nephropathy, which is characterized by mesangial hypercellularity and positive immunofluorescence for IgA and C3. The patient experienced episodes of macroscopic hematuria with ongoing microscopic hematuria, which were preceded by recent infection within 1-2 days. In contrast, acute proliferative glomerulonephritis typically presents with hematuria weeks after an upper respiratory or cutaneous infection with Streptococcus pyogenes, and histology shows enlarged glomeruli and the presence of IgG and IgM on immunofluorescence. Alport syndrome, a genetic disorder that causes hematuria, is characterized by frank hematuria from early adolescence, and kidney biopsy findings are usually non-specific. Henoch-Schonlein purpura, also known as IgA vasculitis, can present with hematuria following infection and can be similar to IgA nephropathy on kidney biopsy, but it also involves palpable purpura, abdominal pain, and arthritis. Lupus nephritis, which is glomerulonephritis secondary to systemic lupus erythematosus, is unlikely in the absence of other symptoms or signs of systemic lupus erythematosus.
Understanding IgA Nephropathy
IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It typically presents as macroscopic haematuria in young people following an upper respiratory tract infection. The condition is thought to be caused by mesangial deposition of IgA immune complexes, and there is considerable pathological overlap with Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). Histology shows mesangial hypercellularity and positive immunofluorescence for IgA and C3.
Differentiating between IgA nephropathy and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is important. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is associated with low complement levels and the main symptom is proteinuria, although haematuria can occur. There is typically an interval between URTI and the onset of renal problems in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
Management of IgA nephropathy depends on the severity of the condition. If there is isolated hematuria, no or minimal proteinuria, and a normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR), no treatment is needed other than follow-up to check renal function. If there is persistent proteinuria and a normal or only slightly reduced GFR, initial treatment is with ACE inhibitors. If there is active disease or failure to respond to ACE inhibitors, immunosuppression with corticosteroids may be necessary.
The prognosis for IgA nephropathy varies. 25% of patients develop ESRF. Markers of good prognosis include frank haematuria, while markers of poor prognosis include male gender, proteinuria (especially > 2 g/day), hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidaemia, and ACE genotype DD.
Overall, understanding IgA nephropathy is important for proper diagnosis and management of the condition. Proper management can help improve outcomes and prevent progression to ESRF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 23
Correct
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A 26-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with polyuria. He complains that it has been affecting his social life, as he often has to go to the bathroom in the middle of social situations. The patient mentions that he notices this mostly when he drinks alcohol with his friends. He is otherwise feeling well. There is no significant past medical history and he is not on any regular medication. Clinical examinations are normal. A urine dipstick test shows no abnormalities. Blood results show no electrolyte abnormalities. The general practitioner explains that his symptoms are likely related to alcohol intake, as alcohol can cause polyuria.
What is the most likely physiological explanation for this patient's polyuria?Your Answer: Suppressed antidiuretic hormone secretion
Explanation:Polyuria in the patient is most likely caused by alcohol bingeing, which can suppress ADH secretion in the posterior pituitary gland. This leads to decreased water reabsorption in the kidneys and subsequent polyuria. Other potential causes such as ADH resistance from chronic lithium ingestion, diabetes insipidus, osmotic diuresis from hyperglycemia, and chronic kidney disease are less likely based on the patient’s symptoms and investigative findings.
Polyuria, or excessive urination, can be caused by a variety of factors. A recent review in the BMJ categorizes these causes by their frequency of occurrence. The most common causes of polyuria include the use of diuretics, caffeine, and alcohol, as well as diabetes mellitus, lithium, and heart failure. Less common causes include hypercalcaemia and hyperthyroidism, while rare causes include chronic renal failure, primary polydipsia, and hypokalaemia. The least common cause of polyuria is diabetes insipidus, which occurs in less than 1 in 10,000 cases. It is important to note that while these frequencies may not align with exam questions, understanding the potential causes of polyuria can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 24
Correct
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A 28-year-old man is on day 9 of his cycle from Land's End to John O'Groats. He made a wrong turn and ran out of fluids. After getting back on track, he found a shop and purchased a 2L bottle of water.
Which part of the nephron is responsible for reabsorbing the majority of this water?Your Answer: Proximal tubule
Explanation:The correct answer is the proximal tubule. This is where the majority of filtered water is reabsorbed, due to the osmotic force generated by Na+ reabsorption. Bowman’s capsule only allows for ultrafiltration, while the collecting duct allows for variable water reabsorption, but not to the same extent as the proximal tubule. The distal tubule also plays a role in Na+ reabsorption, but water reabsorption is dependent on this mechanism.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney?
Your Answer: It is responsible for absorbing more than 50% of filtered water
Correct Answer: Its secretory function is most effective at low systolic blood pressures (typically less than 100 mmHg)
Explanation:Compartment syndrome can lead to necrosis of the proximal convoluted tubule, which plays a crucial role in reabsorbing up to two thirds of filtered water. Acute tubular necrosis is more likely to occur when systolic blood pressure falls below the renal autoregulatory range, particularly if it is low. However, within this range, the absolute value of systolic BP has minimal impact.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting for a few hours. He has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus, which is managed with insulin. He admits to running out of his insulin a few days ago. On examination, his temperature is 37.8ºC, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 25/min, and blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. Dry mucous membranes are noted, and he has a fruity odour on his breath.
The following laboratory results are obtained:
Hb 142 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 250 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 11.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 5.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 2.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Glucose 28 mmol/L (4 - 7)
Which of the following laboratory findings is most likely to be seen in this patient?Your Answer: PH 7.2; pCO2 6.5 kPa; Anion Gap 11
Correct Answer: PH 7.1; pCO2 2.3 kPa; Anion Gap 21
Explanation:The patient is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis, which results in a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. To determine the correct answer, we must eliminate options with a normal or raised pH (7.4 and 7.5), as well as those with respiratory acidosis (as the patient has an increased respiratory rate and should have a low pCO2). The anion gap is also a crucial factor, with a normal range of 3 to 16. Therefore, the correct option is the one with an anion gap of 21.
Understanding Metabolic Acidosis
Metabolic acidosis is a condition that can be classified based on the anion gap, which is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question provides the chloride level, it may be an indication to calculate the anion gap.
Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. It can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs like acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.
Lactic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis that is caused by high lactate levels. It can be further classified into two types: lactic acidosis type A, which is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, and lactic acidosis type B, which is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types and causes of metabolic acidosis is important in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 27
Correct
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A 45-year-old female is admitted to the hospital for investigation of recently developed hypertension, myalgia, and a facial rash. She experiences a decline in kidney function and complains of muscle aches and ankle swelling during her hospital stay. A kidney biopsy and urine sample are taken, revealing a proliferative 'wire-loop' glomerular lesion on histopathological assessment. The urinalysis shows proteinuria but no presence of leukocytes or nitrites. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation:Lupus nephritis is characterized by proliferative ‘wire-loop’ glomerular histology, proteinuria, and systemic symptoms. This condition occurs when autoimmune processes in SLE cause inflammation and damage to the glomeruli. Symptoms may include oedema, myalgia, arthralgia, hypertension, and foamy-appearing urine due to high levels of protein. Acute tubular necrosis primarily affects the tubules and does not typically present with proteinuria. Congestive heart failure and IgA nephropathy can cause proteinuria, but they do not result in the ‘wire-loop’ glomerular lesion seen in lupus nephritis. Pyelonephritis may also cause proteinuria, but it is an infectious process and would present with additional symptoms such as nitrites, leukocytes, and blood in the urine.
Renal Complications in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can lead to severe renal complications, including lupus nephritis, which can result in end-stage renal disease. Regular check-ups with urinalysis are necessary to detect proteinuria in SLE patients. The WHO classification system categorizes lupus nephritis into six classes, with class IV being the most common and severe form. Renal biopsy shows characteristic findings such as endothelial and mesangial proliferation, a wire-loop appearance, and subendothelial immune complex deposits.
Management of lupus nephritis involves treating hypertension and using glucocorticoids with either mycophenolate or cyclophosphamide for initial therapy in cases of focal (class III) or diffuse (class IV) lupus nephritis. Mycophenolate is generally preferred over azathioprine for subsequent therapy to decrease the risk of developing end-stage renal disease. Early detection and proper management of renal complications in SLE patients are crucial to prevent irreversible damage to the kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is undergoing his annual diabetic examination. He reports feeling more fatigued than usual and has missed his previous three annual check-ups. His blood glucose control has been inadequate, and he has not been adhering to his medications. His blood pressure measures 170/90 mmHg, and a urinalysis reveals microalbuminuria. A blood test shows that his glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 27mL/min per 1.73m².
Assuming a renal biopsy is conducted on this patient, what are the anticipated findings?Your Answer: Crescent moon shaped glomeruli
Correct Answer: Nodular glomerulosclerosis and hyaline arteriosclerosis
Explanation:The patient in question is suffering from T2DM that is poorly controlled, resulting in diabetic nephropathy. The histological examination reveals the presence of Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions (nodular glomerulosclerosis) and hyaline arteriosclerosis, which are caused by nonenzymatic glycosylation.
Amyloidosis is characterized by apple-green birefringence under polarised light.
Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is identified by enlarged and hypercellular glomeruli.
Rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis is characterized by crescent moon-shaped glomeruli.
Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (often due to SLE) is identified by wire looping of capillaries in the glomeruli.
Understanding Diabetic Nephropathy: The Common Cause of End-Stage Renal Disease
Diabetic nephropathy is the leading cause of end-stage renal disease in the western world. It affects approximately 33% of patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus by the age of 40 years, and around 5-10% of patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus develop end-stage renal disease. The pathophysiology of diabetic nephropathy is not fully understood, but changes to the haemodynamics of the glomerulus, such as increased glomerular capillary pressure, and non-enzymatic glycosylation of the basement membrane are thought to play a key role. Histological changes include basement membrane thickening, capillary obliteration, mesangial widening, and the development of nodular hyaline areas in the glomeruli, known as Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules.
There are both modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors for developing diabetic nephropathy. Modifiable risk factors include hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, smoking, poor glycaemic control, and raised dietary protein. On the other hand, non-modifiable risk factors include male sex, duration of diabetes, and genetic predisposition, such as ACE gene polymorphisms. Understanding these risk factors and the pathophysiology of diabetic nephropathy is crucial in the prevention and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 90-year-old man is discovered unconscious in his residence. He is transported to the hospital for further evaluation and is diagnosed with dehydration-induced hypotension. What is the most probable physiological response?
Your Answer: Vasodilation of the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus due to increased levels of angiotensin II
Correct Answer: Renin release due to reduced perfusion of organs
Explanation:Renin is released when there is a decrease in renal perfusion.
The secretion of aldosterone would increase due to elevated levels of angiotensin II.
Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole to the glomerulus, which increases the pressure across the glomerulus and filtration fraction, ultimately preserving GFR.
Angiotensin II stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete more ADH, which acts on the collecting duct to increase water absorption.
The baroreceptor reflex is another mechanism that helps maintain blood pressure homeostasis, along with the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. When blood pressure increases, baroreceptors in the aortic arch/carotid sinus detect the stretching of the vessel, leading to inhibition of sympathetic tone and increased parasympathetic tone, which decreases blood pressure. In hypotension, the baroreceptors detect less stretching in the vessel, leading to increased sympathetic tone and decreased parasympathetic tone. In this case, increased sympathetic tone would result in an increase in heart rate.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 30
Correct
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A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after collapsing at work due to dizziness. The paramedic reports that his ECG indicates hyperkalaemia. What is an ECG sign of hyperkalaemia?
Your Answer: Sinusoidal waveform
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia can be identified on an ECG by the presence of a sinusoidal waveform, as well as small or absent P waves, tall-tented T waves, and broad bizarre QRS complexes. In severe cases, the QRS complexes may even form a sinusoidal wave pattern. Asystole can also occur as a result of hyperkalaemia.
On the other hand, ECG signs of hypokalaemia include small or inverted T waves, ST segment depression, and prominent U waves. A prolonged PR interval and long QT interval may also be present, although the latter can also be a sign of hyperkalaemia. In healthy individuals, narrow QRS complexes are typically observed, whereas hyperkalaemia can cause the QRS complexes to become wide and abnormal.
Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.
There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.
It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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