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Question 1
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman complains of intermittent attacks of severe pain in her hands. These symptoms occur on exposure to cold. She describes her fingers becoming white and numb. Episodes last for 1-2 hours after which her fingers become blue, then red and painful. The examination is normal.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Raynaud’s disease
Explanation:Common Causes of Hand and Arm Symptoms
Raynaud’s Disease and Syndrome, Subclavian Artery Insufficiency, Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, Systemic Sclerosis, and Vibration White Finger are all potential causes of hand and arm symptoms. Raynaud’s Disease is the primary form of Raynaud’s Phenomenon and can be treated by avoiding triggers. Secondary Raynaud’s Phenomenon, or Raynaud’s Syndrome, is less common and may indicate an underlying connective tissue disorder. Subclavian Artery Insufficiency can cause arm claudication and other neurological symptoms. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome presents with pain, numbness, and tingling in specific fingers without vascular instability. Systemic Sclerosis, specifically CREST Syndrome, can cause calcinosis, Raynaud’s Phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. Vibration White Finger is caused by the use of vibrating tools and is another potential cause of secondary Raynaud’s Phenomenon in the hands.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease is experiencing erectile dysfunction. The decision is made to try sildenafil therapy. Is there any existing medication that can be continued without requiring adjustments?
Your Answer: Doxazosin
Correct Answer: Nateglinide
Explanation:The BNF advises against using alpha-blockers within 4 hours of taking sildenafil.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Correct
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You start a patient on atorvastatin after their cholesterol was found to be raised in the context of a QRISK of 15%. You repeat the blood tests 6 months after starting treatment.
Which of the following blood results does NICE recommend using to determine the next course of action?Your Answer: Non-HDL cholesterol
Explanation:Monitoring Statin Treatment for Primary Prevention
Following the initiation of statin treatment for primary prevention, it is recommended to have a repeat blood test after 3 months. The non-HDL cholesterol level should be interpreted to guide the next steps in management. The goal of treatment is to reduce non-HDL levels by 40% of the patient’s baseline. If adherence, timing of the dose, and lifestyle measures are in place, an increase in dose may be necessary.
It is not routine to investigate creatine kinase in this context, but it would be helpful to investigate unexplained muscle symptoms. Liver function tests are not an option, but NICE advises testing these 3 months and 12 months following statin initiation. If stable, no further monitoring for LFTs is required after this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 58-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision that have been present for two days. He has been taking amlodipine 5 mg, which was prescribed at the same clinic two weeks ago. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 190/115 mmHg. Although his cardiovascular examination is unremarkable, retinal hemorrhages are observed during fundoscopy, but no papilledema is present. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Refer for urgent specialist care on the same day
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Referral to Specialist Care for Hypertension
According to NICE guidelines, patients with accelerated hypertension or suspected phaeochromocytoma should be referred to specialist care on the same day. Accelerated hypertension is defined as having a blood pressure usually higher than 180/120 mmHg with signs of papilloedema and/or retinal haemorrhage. Suspected phaeochromocytoma is characterized by labile or postural hypotension, headache, palpitations, pallor, and diaphoresis.
It is important to note that if a patient presents with a blood pressure higher than 180/120 mmHg, it is crucial to examine their fundi and check for the presence or absence of papilloedema or retinal haemorrhages. Additionally, healthcare professionals should consider the need for specialist investigations in patients with signs and symptoms suggesting a secondary cause of hypertension. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents for follow-up at the hypertension clinic. He is currently on a regimen of amlodipine and ramipril and has no significant medical history. He regularly checks his blood pressure at home and brings in a printed spreadsheet of his readings. What is the recommended target blood pressure for these home measurements?
Your Answer: <= 150/90 mmHg
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The threshold for stage 1 hypertension, as measured by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM), is a reading of 135/85 mmHg.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes in for a medication review. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, and heart failure. Which of the following medications should be prescribed using brand names only?
Your Answer: Clopidogrel
Correct Answer: Modified-release verapamil
Explanation:To ensure effective symptom control, it is important to prescribe modified release calcium channel blockers by their specific brand names, as their release characteristics can vary. Therefore, it is necessary to maintain consistency in the brand prescribed.
Prescribing Guidance for Healthcare Professionals
Prescribing medication is a crucial aspect of healthcare practice, and it is essential to follow good practice guidelines to ensure patient safety and effective treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidance on prescribing medication, including the recommendation to prescribe drugs by their generic name, except for specific preparations where the clinical effect may differ. It is also important to avoid unnecessary decimal points when writing numbers, such as prescribing 250 ml instead of 0.25 l. Additionally, it is a legal requirement to specify the age of children under 12 on their prescription.
However, there are certain drugs that should be prescribed by their brand name, including modified release calcium channel blockers, antiepileptics, ciclosporin and tacrolimus, mesalazine, lithium, aminophylline and theophylline, methylphenidate, CFC-free formulations of beclomethasone, and dry powder inhaler devices. By following these prescribing guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective medication management for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 60-year-old man has recently been discharged from hospital with a new diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. His symptoms of breathlessness and ankle swelling have now resolved and he has been commenced on ramipril, bisoprolol and furosemide. He also has type 2 diabetes, for which he is already taking metformin and gliclazide. His renal function is normal and his serum potassium is 4.9 mmol/L.
What ongoing care interventions should be included for this patient?Your Answer: Annual influenza vaccination
Explanation:An annual influenza vaccine should be offered as part of the comprehensive lifestyle approach to managing heart failure.
Individuals diagnosed with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction should receive an annual influenza vaccine and a one-time pneumococcal vaccination.
Typically, only those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease require pneumococcal revaccination every five years.
Following a myocardial infarction, patients are typically advised to abstain from sexual activity for four weeks, rather than heart failure.
While patients should limit their salt intake to no more than 6 g per day, they should not replace it with potassium-containing salt substitutes due to the risk of hyperkalemia when used concurrently with ACE inhibitors.
For group 1 entitlement (cars, motorcycles), driving may continue as long as there are no symptoms that could distract the driver’s attention, and there is no need to notify the DVLA.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a 75-year-old woman.
You saw her several weeks ago with a clinical diagnosis of heart failure and a high brain natriuretic peptide level. You referred her for echocardiography and cardiology assessment. Following the referral she now has a diagnosis of 'Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction'.
Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following combinations of medication should be used as first line treatment in this patient?Your Answer: Beta-blocker and angiotensin receptor blocker
Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor and beta blocker
Explanation:Treatment for Heart Failure with Left Ventricular Systolic Dysfunction
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta-blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The 2003 NICE guidance suggests starting with ACE inhibitors and then adding beta-blockers, but the 2010 update recommends using clinical judgement to determine which drug to start first. For example, a beta-blocker may be more appropriate for a patient with angina or tachycardia. However, combination treatment with an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular dysfunction. It is important to start drug treatment in a stepwise manner and to ensure the patient’s condition is stable before initiating therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man collapses in the hospital during a nurse-led hypertension clinic. He is unresponsive and has no pulse in his carotid artery. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?
Your Answer: 20:02
Correct Answer: 30:02:00
Explanation:The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest. Patients are divided into those with ‘shockable’ rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia) and ‘non-shockable’ rhythms (asystole/pulseless-electrical activity). Key points include the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation (30:2), continuing chest compressions while a defibrillator is charged, and delivering drugs via IV access or the intraosseous route. Adrenaline and amiodarone are recommended for non-shockable rhythms and VF/pulseless VT, respectively. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Following successful resuscitation, oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98%. The ‘Hs’ and ‘Ts’ outline reversible causes of cardiac arrest, including hypoxia, hypovolaemia, and thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with heart failure and his cardiologist recommends starting a beta-blocker along with other medications. He is currently stable hemodynamically. What is the most suitable beta-blocker to use in this case?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure: Medications and Contraindications
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to reduce mortality. Beta-blockers are a class of medications that have been shown to be effective in treating heart failure. Despite some relative contraindications, beta-blockers can be safely initiated in general practice. However, there are still absolute contraindications that should be considered before prescribing beta-blockers, such as asthma, second or third-degree heart block, sick sinus syndrome (without pacemaker), and sinus bradycardia (<50 bpm). Bisoprolol, carvedilol, and nebivolol are all licensed for the treatment of heart failure in the United Kingdom. Among these medications, bisoprolol is the recommended choice and should be started at a low dose of 1.25 mg daily and gradually increased to the maximum tolerated dose (up to 10 mg). Other beta-blockers such as labetalol, atenolol, propranolol, and sotalol have different indications and are not licensed for the treatment of heart failure. Labetalol is mainly used for hypertension in pregnancy, while atenolol is used for arrhythmias, angina, and hypertension. Propranolol is indicated for tachycardia linked to thyrotoxicosis, anxiety, migraine prophylaxis, and benign essential tremor. Sotalol is commonly used to treat atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, particularly atrial fibrillation. In summary, beta-blockers are an important class of medications for the treatment of heart failure. However, careful consideration of contraindications and appropriate medication selection is crucial for optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.
Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.
What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes
This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension is seen in clinic. There is no evidence of diabetic retinopathy, chronic kidney disease or cardiovascular disease in his records.
He is currently taking the following medications:
simvastatin 20 mg once daily
ramipril 10 mg once daily
amlodipine 5mg once daily
metformin 1g twice daily
Recent blood results are as follows:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 4.4 mmol/l
Urea 7.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 86 µmol/l
HbA1c 45 mmol/mol (6.3%)
The urine dipstick shows no proteinuria. His blood pressure in clinic today is 134/76 mmHg.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No changes to medication required
Explanation:Since there are no complications from her diabetes, the target blood pressure remains < 140/80 mmHg and her antihypertensive regime doesn't need to be altered. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers. Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight. Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age. The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man has been feeling ill for 2 weeks with fatigue, loss of appetite, and night sweats. During examination, he has a temperature of 38.5oC and a loud mid-systolic ejection murmur in the second right intercostal space with a palpable thrill. What is the most appropriate intervention for this man?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood culture
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis of Infective Endocarditis and Criteria for Diagnosis
Infective endocarditis is a condition that involves inflammation of the heart valves caused by various organisms, including Streptococcus viridans. The lack of a dedicated blood supply to the valves reduces the immune response in these areas, making them susceptible to infection, especially if they are already damaged. A new or changing heart murmur, typical of aortic stenosis, may indicate the presence of infective endocarditis, particularly if accompanied by a fever.
To diagnose infective endocarditis, the Duke criteria require the presence of two major criteria, one major and three minor criteria, or five minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical infective endocarditis microorganisms and evidence of vegetations on heart valves on an echocardiogram. Minor criteria include a predisposing factor such as a heart valve lesion or intravenous drug abuse, fever, embolism, immunological problems, or a single positive blood culture.
Immediate hospital admission is necessary for patients suspected of having infective endocarditis. Blood cultures should be taken before starting antibiotics, and an echocardiogram should be carried out urgently. While aortic stenosis is a common cause of heart murmurs, a new or changing murmur accompanied by a fever should raise suspicion of infective endocarditis.
Criteria for Diagnosing Infective Endocarditis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You have a phone review scheduled with Mrs. Johansson, a 55-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension, which had been detected during a routine check-up. Subsequent ambulatory home blood pressure monitoring showed an average home BP of 148/84 mmHg.
You arranged an ECG, urine albumin-creatinine ratio (ACR), and some blood tests, and scheduled the appointment to discuss the findings. The ACR and blood tests are within normal limits. The ECG shows sinus rhythm with a rate of 70 beats per minute. You entered her cholesterol results into a cardiovascular risk calculator, which estimates a 10-year CV risk of 6.5%.
What is the appropriate management plan for her hypertension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice, and discuss commencing a calcium-channel blocker
Explanation:Consider medication for stage 1 hypertension in patients aged 60 or under, but for those aged 55 or over, a calcium channel blocker is the first-line option. Lifestyle advice should also be given. Referral to cardiology is not necessary at this stage.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You see a 65-year-old man in a 'hypertension review' appointment. You have been struggling to control his blood pressure. He is now taking valsartan 320 mg (his initial ACE inhibitor, Perindopril, was stopped due to persistent coughing), amlodipine 10 mg and chlorthalidone 12.5 mg. He is also taking aspirin and simvastatin for primary prevention. His blood pressure today is 158/91. His recent renal function (done for annual hypertension) showed a sodium of 138, a potassium of 4.7, a urea of 4.2 and a creatinine of 80. His eGFR is 67. He is otherwise well in himself.
Which of the following options would be appropriate for him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Try ramipril
Explanation:Managing Resistant Hypertension
Resistant hypertension can be a challenging condition to manage, often requiring up to four different Antihypertensive agents. If a person is already taking three Antihypertensive drugs and their blood pressure is still not controlled, increasing chlorthalidone to a maximum of 50 mg may be considered, provided that blood potassium levels are higher than 4.5mmol/L. However, caution should be exercised when using co-amilofruse, a potassium-sparing diuretic, in conjunction with valsartan, especially if the patient has a recent history of having a potassium level of 4.5 or higher.
If a patient has previously developed a cough with an ACE inhibitor, switching to a different ACE inhibitor is unlikely to make any difference. In such cases, bisoprolol may be added if further diuretic treatment is not tolerated, is contraindicated, or is ineffective. It is important to seek specialist advice if secondary causes for hypertension are likely or if a patient’s blood pressure is not controlled on the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four Antihypertensive drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population aged 60 and above. Over a five year period, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. The results showed that there were 150 myocardial infarcts (MI) in the placebo group and 100 in the group treated with the new statin. What is the number needed to treat to prevent one MI in this population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10
Explanation:Understanding the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)
When evaluating the efficacy of a treatment, it’s important to look beyond statistical significance and consider the practical impact on patients. The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is a statistical figure that provides valuable information about the effectiveness of a treatment. For example, if 1000 patients are treated with a new statin for five years and 50 MIs are prevented, the NNT to prevent one MI is 20 (1000/50). This means that by treating just 20 patients, one MI can be prevented over a five-year period.
The NNT can also be used to calculate cost economic data by factoring in the cost of the drug against the costs of treating and rehabilitating a patient with an MI. By understanding the NNT, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about the most effective and cost-efficient treatments for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old patient is being evaluated post-hospitalization for chest pain and has been prescribed standard release isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN) for ongoing angina. The medication instructions indicate taking it twice daily, but with an 8-hour interval between doses. What is the rationale behind this uneven dosing schedule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevent nitrate tolerance
Explanation:To prevent nitrate tolerance, it is recommended to use asymmetric dosing regimens for standard-release ISMN when taken regularly for angina relief. This involves taking the medication twice daily, with an 8-hour gap in between to create a nitrate-free period. It is important to note that nitrates only provide relief for angina symptoms and do not improve cardiovascular outcomes. While asymmetric dosing doesn’t affect the efficacy of nitrates, it can prevent tolerance from developing. However, patients should still be aware of potential adverse effects such as dizziness and headaches, which can occur even with asymmetric dosing. Proper counseling on these side effects can help prevent falls and discomfort.
Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 75-year-old patient who has just been diagnosed with heart failure after an echocardiogram revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%. He has been experiencing mild shortness of breath during physical activity and has no other known medical conditions. He is not currently taking any medications.
What is the most suitable recommendation to provide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Yearly influenza and one off pneumococcal vaccines
Explanation:It is recommended that patients diagnosed with heart failure receive an annual influenza vaccine and a single pneumococcal vaccine.
The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.
The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to the clinic seeking advice on controlling his blood pressure. He has been experiencing high blood pressure readings at home for the past week, with an average reading of 150/95 mmHg. He is currently asymptomatic and denies any chest discomfort. He is a non-smoker and non-drinker. His current medications include amlodipine and allopurinol, which he has been tolerating well. He has no known drug allergies. His recent blood test results are as follows:
- Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- Potassium (K+): 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Bicarbonate: 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Urea: 6.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add an angiotensin receptor blocker
Explanation:To improve poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker, NICE recommends adding an angiotensin receptor blocker, an ACE inhibitor, or a thiazide-like diuretic as step 2 management. In this case, the correct answer is to add an angiotensin receptor blocker, as the patient’s home blood pressure readings have remained uncontrolled despite maximum dose of amlodipine. Increasing amlodipine to 20 mg once a day is not recommended, and thiazide-like diuretic should be used with caution due to the patient’s history of gout. Aldosterone antagonist and alpha-blocker are not appropriate at this stage of hypertensive management.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year old man has had syncopal attacks and exertional chest pain which settles spontaneously with rest. He presents to his General Practitioner, not wanting to bother the Emergency Department. On auscultation, there is a loud ejection systolic murmur. Following an electrocardiogram (ECG) he is urgently referred to cardiology and aortic stenosis is diagnosed.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following comorbid conditions is most associated with a poor prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left ventricular failure
Explanation:Understanding Prognostic Factors in Aortic Stenosis
Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to limited blood flow and various symptoms such as dyspnea, angina, and syncope. While patients may be asymptomatic for years, the prognosis for symptomatic aortic stenosis is poor, with a 2-year survival rate of only 50%. Sudden deaths can occur due to heart failure or other complications.
Valvular calcification and fibrosis are the primary causes of aortic stenosis, and the presence of calcification doesn’t have a direct impact on prognosis. However, mixed aortic valve disease, which includes aortic regurgitation, can increase mortality rates, particularly in severe cases.
Left ventricular failure is a significant prognostic factor in aortic stenosis, indicating late-stage hypertrophy and fibrosis. Patients with left ventricular failure have a poor prognosis both before and after surgery. Hypertension can also impact left ventricular remodelling and accelerate the progression of aortic stenosis, but it is not as significant a prognostic factor as left ventricular failure.
Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, such as left ventricular hypertrophy, are common in patients with aortic stenosis but are not directly correlated with mortality risk. Understanding these prognostic factors can help healthcare providers better manage and treat patients with aortic stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is newly diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. An echocardiogram shows a valvular anomaly.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Cardiovascular Complications in Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disease that primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints. However, it can also lead to cardiovascular complications. The most common complication is aortic regurgitation, which occurs due to inflammation of the ascending aorta. On the other hand, mitral regurgitation is not typically associated with ankylosing spondylitis and is usually caused by congenital conditions or cardiomyopathies. Aortic stenosis is also not commonly associated with ankylosing spondylitis, as it is usually caused by age-related calcification or congenital bicuspid valve. Similarly, mitral stenosis is more commonly associated with rheumatic heart disease than ankylosing spondylitis. Tricuspid stenosis is a rare cardiac defect that is usually associated with rheumatic fever. Therefore, it is important for individuals with ankylosing spondylitis to be aware of the potential cardiovascular complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of sildenafil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abnormal liver function tests
Explanation:Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The use of beta-blockers in treating hypertension has decreased significantly over the last half-decade. What are the primary factors contributing to this decline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Less likely to prevent stroke + potential impairment of glucose tolerance
Explanation:The ASCOT-BPLA study showcased this phenomenon.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old Indian man with recently diagnosed atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin. He visits the GP clinic after 5 days with unexplained bruising. His INR is measured and found to be 4.5. He has a medical history of epilepsy, depression, substance abuse, and homelessness. Which medication is the most probable cause of his bruising from the following options?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Sodium valproate is known to inhibit enzymes, which can lead to an increase in warfarin levels if taken together. The patient’s medical history could include any of the listed drugs, but the question is specifically testing knowledge of enzyme inhibitors. Rifampicin and St John’s Wort are both enzyme inducers, while heroin (diamorphine) doesn’t have any effect on enzyme activity.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.
Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.
It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents as he has suffered two episodes of syncope in the past three weeks and is feeling increasingly tired. On examination, his pulse is 40 bpm and his BP 100/60 mmHg. An ECG reveals he is in complete heart block.
What other finding are you most likely to find?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Variable S1
Explanation:Characteristics of Complete Heart Block
Complete heart block is a condition where there is no coordination between the atrial and ventricular contractions. This results in a variable intensity of the first heart sound, which is the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves. The blood flow from the atria to the ventricles varies from beat to beat, leading to inconsistent intensity of the first heart sound. Additionally, cannon A waves may be observed in the neck, indicating atrial contraction against closed AV valves.
Narrow pulse pressure is not a characteristic of complete heart block. It is more commonly associated with aortic valve disease. Similarly, aortic stenosis is not typically linked with complete heart block, although it can cause reversed splitting of S2. Giant V waves are not observed in complete heart block, but they suggest tricuspid regurgitation. Reversed splitting of S2 is also not a defining feature of complete heart block, but it can be found in aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and left bundle branch block. It is important to note that murmurs may also be present in complete heart block due to concomitant valve disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man has persistent atrial fibrillation.
Which of the following is the single risk factor that places him most at risk of stroke?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Previous transient ischaemic attack
Explanation:Understanding CHA2DS2-VASc Scoring for Stroke Risk in Atrial Fibrillation Patients
The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is a useful tool for predicting the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation. A score of 0 indicates a low risk, while a score of 1 suggests a moderate risk, and a score of 2 or higher indicates a high risk. One of the risk factors that carries a score of 2 is a previous transient ischaemic attack, while age 75 years or older is another. Other risk factors, such as age 65-74 and female sex at any age, carry a score of 1 each. If a patient has no risk factors, their score would be zero, and not anticoagulating them would be an option. However, it is important to consider bleeding risk, calculated using the ORBIT criteria, before starting anticoagulation in all cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a check-up. She is worried about her risk of developing cardiovascular disease after hearing about a family member's recent diagnosis.
Which of the following factors would most significantly increase her risk of cardiovascular disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may have an increased risk of developing accelerated atherosclerosis, which is believed to be linked to the inflammatory process. The QRisk2 calculator, used to predict the 10-year risk of developing cardiovascular disease, includes rheumatoid arthritis as a risk factor. However, a blood pressure reading of 130/80 mmHg and a BMI of 24 kg/m2 are within the normal range and not a cause for concern. Additionally, the HbA1c level of 41 mmol/mol is normal and doesn’t indicate an increased risk of diabetes. While a family history of myocardial infarction is significant, it is only considered a risk factor if the relative was diagnosed before the age of 60, not at 65.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What factors in a patient's medical record could potentially elevate natriuretic peptide levels (such as NT-proBNP) that are utilized to evaluate possible heart failure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation:Natriuretic Peptide Levels in Heart Failure Assessment
Natriuretic peptide levels, specifically NT-ProBNP levels, are utilized in the evaluation of heart failure to determine the likelihood of diagnosis and the urgency of any necessary referral. These levels can be influenced by various factors.
Factors that can decrease natriuretic peptide levels include a body mass index over 35 kg/m2, diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, beta blockers, and aldosterone antagonists. On the other hand, factors that can increase natriuretic peptide levels include age over 70, left ventricular hypertrophy, myocardial ischaemia, tachycardia, right ventricular overload, hypoxia, pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary embolism, chronic kidney disease with an eGFR less than 60 mL/min/1.73m2, sepsis, COPD, diabetes mellitus, and liver cirrhosis.
It is important to consider these factors when interpreting natriuretic peptide levels in the assessment of heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension review, as recommended by the practice nurse. Despite taking ramipril 10 mg, amlodipine 5 mg, and atenolol 50 mg, his blood pressure remains elevated at 150/90 mmHg. Upon checking his U&E, his sodium level is 140, potassium level is 3.4, and creatinine level is 110. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phaeochromocytoma
Explanation:Diagnosis of Hyperaldosteronism
Such difficult-to-control hypertension and hypokalaemia, despite maximal ACE inhibition, may indicate hyperaldosteronism. The preferred diagnostic investigation is a renin/aldosterone ratio off Antihypertensive medication, with a washout period of four to six weeks. MRI scanning can also help identify an aldosterone-producing tumour. In contrast, phaeochromocytoma typically presents with paroxysms of hypertension, accompanied by headache, anxiety, and sweating. Renal artery stenosis is expected to be associated with an abnormal creatinine in patients using ACE inhibitors. By identifying the underlying cause of hypertension, appropriate treatment can be initiated, leading to better outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man is taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
Select the single ideal target INR from the options.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.5
Explanation:Recommended INR Levels for Anticoagulation Therapy
Anticoagulation therapy is used to prevent blood clots in individuals with certain medical conditions. The target level for the majority of indications is an INR (international normalized ratio) of 2.5. However, for individuals who are already receiving warfarin and have recurrent deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, a higher INR of 3.5 is recommended. Additionally, for patients with mechanical prosthetic heart valves, the recommended INR level ranges from 3.0 to 3.5 depending on the type of valve. It is important to closely monitor INR levels and adjust the dosage of anticoagulation therapy as needed to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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