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  • Question 1 - Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining...

    Correct

    • Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining in women who have severe monthly flow. Endometrial ablation is not contraindicated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Completed family

      Explanation:

      Endometrial ablation is primarily intended to treat premenopausal women with heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) who do not desire future fertility. Women who choose endometrial ablation often have failed or declined medical management.

      Absolute contraindications to endometrial ablation include pregnancy, known or suspected endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, desire for future fertility, active pelvic infection, IUD currently in situ, and being post-menopausal. In general, endometrial ablation should be avoided in patients with congenital uterine anomalies, severe myometrial thinning, and uterine cavity lengths that exceed the capacity of the ablative technique (usually greater than 10-12 cm).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with an irregular menstrual bleed....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with an irregular menstrual bleed. She is a known to the case of multiple uterine fibroids. Her past surgical history is significant for tubal ligation and dilation and curettage without any definite diagnosis or any improvement in her symptoms. Examination reveals an enlarged uterus of about 12-week gravid size. A complete blood picture shows anaemia (Hb 80g/L). What should be the next step in the management of such a patient?

      Your Answer: Total abdominal hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Fibroids (uterine leiomyomas) are benign uterine tumours. Asymptomatic uterine leiomyomas merely require follow-up without any specific intervention because histological confirmation of the clinical diagnosis is not required in most cases.

      Symptoms and consequences necessitate treatment. The definitive therapy is hysterectomy. Other options include various types of myomectomy, endometrial ablation, uterine artery embolization, and myolysis.
      The following situations call for a hysterectomy:

      Women suffering from an acute haemorrhage who have failed to react to various treatments
      Women who are finished having children who are at risk for other disorders (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, endometriosis, adenomyosis, endometrial hyperplasia, or greater risk of uterine or ovarian cancer) that a hysterectomy might eliminate or reduce.

      Women who have had previous attempts at minimally invasive therapy for leiomyomas failed.
      Women who have finished having children and have severe symptoms, many leiomyomas, and a desire for a permanent cure.

      If a hysterectomy is planned, total abdominal hysterectomy is the procedure of choice.
      A course of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists followed by myomectomy is the therapy of choice for women who want to keep their capacity to bear children.

      Total abdominal hysterectomy is the best option for this woman who does not want to have further children, has had her tubes tied, and is experiencing painful symptoms and anaemia.
      Hysterectomy is superior to endometrial ablation.

      Amenorrhea is achieved after endometrial ablation, however, leiomyomas remain untreated.

      Women who have previously failed minimally invasive treatment for leiomyomas

      Women who have finished having children and have severe symptoms, many leiomyomas, and a strong desire for a cure.

      If a hysterectomy is planned, total abdominal hysterectomy is the preferred technique.

      A course of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists followed by myomectomy is the therapy of choice for women who want to maintain their capacity to bear children.

      Total abdominal hysterectomy is the best option for this woman who does not want to have any more children and has had her tubal ligation removed. She also has troublesome symptoms and anaemia.
      Hysterectomy is better than endometrial ablation.

      Amenorrhea can be accomplished with endometrial ablation, however, leiomyomas are not.

      Myomectomy is not recommended unless you want to increase your fertility. There is a chance of recurrence, which would demand additional procedures. It will also be difficult to remove all of the leiomyomas if the uterus is enlarged with several leiomyomas. Remaining leiomyomas might grow and cause symptoms again over time.

      Hormonal therapies such as combination contraceptive tablets, progesterone-only approaches, danazol, and others have been used with anecdotal results on symptoms like menorrhagia. Some have dubious efficacy, while others with confirmed efficacy have unfavourable side effects, restricting their use.
      In leiomyomas-related menorrhagia, NSAIDs have not been widely researched. Although NSAIDs do not appear to diminish blood loss in women with leiomyomas, they do lower painful menses and may be effective for this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A young female patient presents at a family clinic seeking advice about her...

    Incorrect

    • A young female patient presents at a family clinic seeking advice about her options for contraception. She is considering taking combined OCPS but is worried about the risk of cancer with long term use. Which of the following is increased by OCPs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      The risks of breast and cervical cancers are increased in women who use oral contraceptives, whereas the risks of endometrial, ovarian, and colorectal cancers are reduced.

      Women who have used oral contraceptives for 5 or more years have a higher risk of cervical cancer than women who have never used oral contraceptives. The longer a woman uses oral contraceptives, the greater the increase in her risk of cervical cancer.

      One study found a 10% increased risk for less than 5 years of use, a 60% increased risk with 5–9 years of use, and a doubling of the risk with 10 or more years of use. However, the risk of cervical cancer has been found to decline over time after women stop using oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - Which stage of the menstrual cycle in best suited for the insertion of...

    Incorrect

    • Which stage of the menstrual cycle in best suited for the insertion of IUD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: During the first 7 days of your menstrual cycle, which starts with the first day of bleeding

      Explanation:

      it is imperative to elucidate the patient’s risk for current pregnancy and time within her current menstrual cycle prior to IUD insertion. A negative urine pregnancy test is a prerequisite to placement of an IUD. Pregnancies occurring with IUDs in place have an increased incidence of complications, including spontaneous abortion and septic abortion.

      For this reason, many providers prefer to time IUD insertion within the first 5-7 days of the menstrual cycle, further assuring that the patient is not newly pregnant.

      All other options take risk of the patient being pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia....

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. She has been using an IUCD for one year now and wants to know the cause of her current condition. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PID

      Explanation:

      IUCD is a risk factor for PID and PID has the clinical picture already described. However, fibroids should also be excluded since they may present in the same way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - At the 18th week of her pregnancy, a 32-year-old woman presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • At the 18th week of her pregnancy, a 32-year-old woman presents with a fishy-smelling, thin, white homogeneous, and offensive vaginal discharge. Under light microscopy, a sample of the discharge contains clue cells. Which of the following assertions about this condition is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a relapse rate of over 50% in 6 months

      Explanation:

      Reported cure rates for an episode of acute BV vary but have been estimated to be between 70% and 80%. Unfortunately, more than 50% of BV cases will recur at least once within the following 12 months. Because the aetiology of BV is still not entirely understood, identifying the cause of recurrent cases is challenging. Reinfection may play a role in explaining recurrent BV, but
      treatment failure is a more likely contributor. There are several theories that try to explain recurrence and persistent symptoms. The existence of a biofilm in the vagina is one such theory and is the subject of ongoing research. Biofilms occur when microorganisms adhere to surfaces. G vaginalis, one of the primary organisms

      BV is not a sexually transmitted infection. The antibiotic of choice to treat BV is Metronidazole. Reassurance is not acceptable as a means of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - Which increases the risk for developing endometrial cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which increases the risk for developing endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early menarche

      Explanation:

      Endometrioid endometrial carcinoma is oestrogen-responsive, and the main risk factor for this disease is long-term exposure to excess endogenous or exogenous oestrogen without adequate opposition by a progestin.

      Early age at menarche is a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma in some studies; late menopause is less consistently associated with an increased risk of the disease. Both of these factors result in prolonged oestrogen stimulation and at times of the reproductive years during which anovulatory cycles are common

      Other risk factors include
      obesity,
      nulliparity,
      diabetes mellitus, and
      hypertension.

      The risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma with oestrogen therapy can be significantly reduced by the concomitant administration of a progestin. In general, combined oestrogen-progestin preparations do not increase the risk of endometrial hyperplasia.

      Endometrial carcinoma usually occurs in postmenopausal women (mean age at diagnosis is 62 years). Women under age 50 who develop endometrial cancer often have risk factors such as obesity or chronic anovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief...

    Incorrect

    • a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings. Which is the cause for her bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
      However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
      The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
      Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
      pain and bleeding during or after sex
      pain during or after cervical screening
      light discharge of mucus
      spotting between periods
      Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.

      This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.

      Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 46-year-old woman complains of ulceration with bloody discharge around her right nipple...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman complains of ulceration with bloody discharge around her right nipple accompanied by redness, excoriations, and severe itchiness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of the breast

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of the breast is a type of cancer that outwardly may have the appearance of eczema, with skin changes involving the nipple of the breast. Symptoms may include redness of the nipple skin and crusting may occur around the area. In more advance cases, symptoms may include itching or a burning pain in the nipple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump in her right breast, which was firm & irregular. O/E there was also some colour change over the breast. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Breast carcinoma is one of the most common malignancies in women. It presents as an irregular, firm consistency nodule/lump, which is attached to the skin most of the time. The overlying skin also exhibits a peau d’ orange appearance, along with dimpling. A sebaceous cyst is a small cystic swelling with no colour change and can occur anywhere over the skin. A lipoma is a benign tumour of fats which is soft in consistency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 37-year-old woman has been taking Microgynon (oral contraceptive pill [OCP]). When she...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman has been taking Microgynon (oral contraceptive pill [OCP]). When she presents for a repeat prescription, her BP is 160/100 mmHg. She mentions that she would like to stop the OCP in six months so that she can conceive. What is the most suitable advice for this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cease the OCP, use condoms for contraception, and reassess the BP in three months.

      Explanation:

      The woman’s blood pressure was elevated at her visit; therefore she should be advised to immediately cease the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) so that the hypertension can resolve without the need for any hypotensive treatment. The blood pressure can then be reassessed in three months. Alternative, non-hormonal birth control methods such as condoms should be used instead.

      If her high blood pressure does not resolve, any medication that would be commenced to reduce her blood pressure should be one that is safe to continue when she becomes pregnant.

      It is inappropriate to continue the OCP even at a lower dosage or in combination with a hypotensive agent.

      Methyldopa has been evaluated and used for treatment of hypertension during pregnancy. There is no clinical evidence to suggest that it causes harm to the foetus or neonate.

      Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are not approved for use in pregnancy as they have been associated with fetal death in utero. Other antihypertensive agents such as beta-blockers and diuretics are also problematic in pregnancy and should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 24-year-old pregnant female presented with severe pain in the lower abdomen and...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old pregnant female presented with severe pain in the lower abdomen and excessive vaginal bleeding at 35 weeks gestation. Which of the following investigations should be done?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: US abdomen

      Explanation:

      Ultrasound of abdomen should be done to rule out the cause of the excessive bleeding in this patient, this could confirm the very high suspicion of rupture of the placenta in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A lactating mother has developed a breast abscess. Which organism is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A lactating mother has developed a breast abscess. Which organism is the most common?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staph aureus

      Explanation:

      Staph aureus is the most common causative organism of skin and soft tissue infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has a BMI of 24. Her FSH level is 55 U/L (2-8 U/L in luteal phase; >25 U/L in menopause), LH is 54 U/L, and oestradiol is low, according to laboratory tests. The level of serum prolactin is likewise normal. Her urine pregnancy test came out negative. Each ovary had 3-4 cysts on ultrasonography. She hopes to get pregnant in the near future. Which of the following would be the best treatment option for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

      Explanation:

      Ovarian insufficiency is a failure of the ovary to function adequately in a woman younger than 40 years, in its role either as an endocrine organ or as a reproductive organ. In women aged 40 years or older, the expected physiologic decline of ovarian function that takes place with aging is termed perimenopause or the menopausal transition.
      Medical treatment of patients with primary ovarian insufficiency should address the following aspects:

      Ovarian hormone replacement
      Restoration of fertility
      Psychological well-being of the patient

      It is not appropriate to give this patient contraceptive pills since she desires pregnancy.

      There is no evidence that Danazol or Metformin would improve ovarian follicle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 23-year-old woman with diffuse pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman with diffuse pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding presents to the emergency room. She claims that it is around the time that she usually has her period. She has previously experienced defecation discomfort, dyspareunia, and dysmenorrhea. The patient claims that she has previously experienced similar symptoms, but that the agony has suddenly become unbearable. Her abdomen is soft, with normal bowel sounds and no rebound soreness, according to her physical examination. There is no costovertebral discomfort and the patient does not guard. Blood in the posterior vaginal vault, a closed os, and no palpable masses or cervical motion pain are all findings on her pelvic examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is defined as the presence of normal endometrial mucosa (glands and stroma) abnormally implanted in locations other than the uterine cavity. Approximately 30-40% of women with endometriosis will be sub fertile. About one third of women with endometriosis remain asymptomatic. When they do occur, symptoms, such as the following, typically reflect the area of involvement:
      – Dysmenorrhea
      – Heavy or irregular bleeding
      – Pelvic pain
      – Lower abdominal or back pain
      – Dyspareunia
      – Dyschezia (pain on defecation) – Often with cycles of diarrhoea and constipation
      – Bloating, nausea, and vomiting
      – Inguinal pain
      – Pain on micturition and/or urinary frequency
      – Pain during exercise

      Pregnancy, appendicitis, ureteral colic and ruptured ectopic pregnancy all do not present with dysmenorrhea, pain on defecation and dyspareunia. Presence of a non tender, soft abdomen also rules out these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - Which of the following does not cause an increased risk of cervical cancer?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not cause an increased risk of cervical cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Consuming alcohol and risk of cervical cancer are not associated. Not even drinking often and in large amounts are risk factors for developing cervical cancer.

      So drinking alcohol and risk of cervical cancer aren’t associated. Based on their analyses of the scientific research evidence, that is the conclusion of, among many others, the:
      American Cancer Society.
      Centres for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
      National Cancer Institute.
      UK’s National Health Service.
      Canadian Cancer Society.
      Cancer Council Australia.
      World Health Organization (WHO).

      All other options can increase the risk of acquiring cervical cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A 53-year-old lady had mild vaginal bleeding for the previous 18 hours following...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old lady had mild vaginal bleeding for the previous 18 hours following sexual engagement. It's been a year since she had her last menstrual cycle. Her previous cervical screening test was 12 months ago, and everything came back normal. For the past year, she had not engaged in any sexual activity. She wasn't on any hormone replacement treatment at the time. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrophic vaginitis

      Explanation:

      Postmenopausal haemorrhage has started in this patient. Menopause is defined as the permanent cessation of menstruation and fertility that occurs 12 months after the previous menstrual period.

      Atrophic vaginitis caused by oestrogen insufficiency is the most likely reason for this woman’s postmenopausal haemorrhage. It can also induce vaginal dryness and soreness during sexual intercourse.

      Endometrial hyperplasia is unlikely to develop without hormone replacement therapy or oestrogen stimulation of the endometrium.

      Similarly, endometrial cancer is a less likely cause of this patient’s post-menopausal bleeding.

      A year ago, this woman received a normal cervical screening test. Cervical cancer is extremely unlikely to occur. After 12 months of no oestrogen, it’s also unlikely that you’ll have any irregular periods.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - Yasmin®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol,...

    Incorrect

    • Yasmin®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol, has been approved for usage in South Africa. Which of the following factors has contributed to it becoming the most popular oral contraceptive pill among South African women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has not weight gain as an adverse effect and may be associated with weight loss

      Explanation:

      Yasmin has been linked to decreased fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCs, which is why most women who experience this side effect prefer Yasmin®.
      Due to its anti-mineralocorticoid properties, drospirenone, unlike earlier progestogens, is associated with no weight gain or even moderate weight loss.
      Yasmin has a similar failure rate to other COCs. No evidence using Yasmin is linked to a lower risk of cervical cancer as a long-term side effect of COCs. Yasmin, like all COCs, can cause spotting and irregular bleeding in the first few months of use.
      Drospirenone, a progesterone component, has antiandrogenic properties and is slightly more successful in treating acne, but the difference is not big enough to make it preferable in terms of acne therapy or prevention when compared to other COCs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She admits she stopped her COCP treatment 18 months ago. Her blood exams reveal the following: FSH=8, LH=7, Prolactin=400, Oestradiol=500. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Functional Hypothalamic Amenorrhea (FHA) is a form of chronic anovulation, due to non-identifiable organic causes and often associated with stress, weight loss, excessive exercise, or a combination thereof. Investigations should include assessment of systemic and endocrinologic aetiologies, as FHA is a diagnosis of exclusion. A multidisciplinary treatment approach is necessary, including medical, dietary, and mental health support. Medical complications include, among others, bone density loss and infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been ongoing for twelve months. She states that she has been thinking about starting a family and was wondering if ovulation induction therapy was an option for her. Which one of the following would be most valuable in predicting a poor response to ovulation induction therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

      Explanation:

      The tests listed can all be performed during the work-up of a woman with secondary amenorrhoea. They are useful in that they cam diagnosis the most likely cause for the amenorrhoea as well as guide the treatment required if the patient wanted to become pregnant. Of these, the hormone test best able to predict a poor response to ovulation-induction therapy is the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) assay. If there are high levels of FSH, most of the ovulation-induction therapies are ineffective, although the rare spontaneous pregnancy can occur.

      To maximise the chance of pregnancy in patients with elevated FSH levels, the most effective technique is an ovum donation from a young woman. The ovum would be fertilised in the laboratory and transferred to the uterus of the woman with the high FSH level after administering hormonal preparation of her uterus.

      If the FSH level is normal, ovulation-induction therapy is usually effective. For these patients, correction of thyroid function will be necessary if the thyroid function is not normal. Dopamine agonist therapy is indicated if the prolactin level is elevated. Clomiphene or gonadotrophin therapy can be used where the luteinising and oestradiol levels are low, normal, or minimally elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - A couple in their mid-twenties has chosen the 'Rhythm Strategy' calculation as their...

    Incorrect

    • A couple in their mid-twenties has chosen the 'Rhythm Strategy' calculation as their contraception method, refraining from sexual activity when a pregnancy might otherwise be possible. They want to avoid having a child for the next two years. For the past twelve months, the lady has kept track of her cycles, which have ranged from 26 to 29 days in duration. Which of the following abstinence durations is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: From day 6 to day 17,

      Explanation:

      To provide suitable advice to this couple, the candidate must be aware of the following facts:
      Because the luteal phase is 14 days long, regardless of the follicular phase length, ovulation happens 14 days before the period.
      As a result, ovulation in this lady might have occurred as early as day 12 or as late as day 15 of her cycle.
      In the presence of adequate and normal cervical mucus, sperm survival has been demonstrated to be far longer than previously thought, with intercourse occurring up to 6 days before the known period of ovulation, resulting in pregnancy.
      Intercourse should be stopped six days before the earliest ovulation in this woman (i.e. on day six).
      – It is generally accepted that the ovulated egg can be fertilised for approximately 24-36 hours.
      Intercourse should not be restarted for at least two days after the most recent ovulation.
      This would be day 17 for this woman.
      Between days 6 and 17 of the cycle, abstinence is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical history reveals that she has migraine headaches on occasions, associated with paraesthesia's in her right arm. Examination reveals that she weighs 120kg and has a BMI of 36. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate contraceptive methods for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Condoms

      Explanation:

      This woman suffers from a classic migraine with focused neurological symptoms. The use of any OCP preparation containing oestrogen in such patients is strictly prohibited. Androgenic consequences of progesterone include hirsutism, acne, and weight gain. Progesterone of any sort (norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, etc.) should be avoided by a lady of her size; consequently, a barrier approach such as male condoms is the best option.

      It is recommended that formulations containing 20-30 mcg ethinylestradiol be evaluated first when choosing a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The progesterone component can be norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, and so on; however, norgestrel-containing formulations are less expensive and more accessible to patients.

      For specific cases, the type of progesterone should be considered:
      – Patients who have unpleasant fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCPs may be administered drospirenone (Yaz®. Yasmin®)-containing preparations.
      – Drospirenone inhibits the production of mineralocorticoids and does not cause fluid retention. It may even be linked to a small amount of weight reduction.
      – A preparation containing cyproterone acetate is preferable if the patient has suspected polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A 25 year old female who was on sodium valproate for epilepsy came...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female who was on sodium valproate for epilepsy came for the advice about contraception. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She can use COCP

      Explanation:

      There are no interactions between the combined oral contraceptive pill, progesterone-only pill, medroxyprogesterone injections or levonorgestrel implants and the AEDs valproic acid (sodium valproate), vigabatrin, lamotrigine, gabapentin, tiagabine, levetiracetam, zonisamide, ethosuximide and the benzodiazepines. So she can use COCP along with Sodium valproate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband, presents to your hospital with amenorrhea lasting two months. She is currently taking clozapine with appropriate control of her symptoms. Which of the following is the most crucial step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea worldwide. As a result, the first thing to check in every woman of reproductive age who has amenorrhea is a urine pregnancy test.
      Once pregnancy has been ruled out, an ultrasound or measuring FSH and LH may be done to assess the condition (if required).
      FBC is used to track clozapine side effects such as neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is not recommended for the assessment of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - A 33-year-old female patient walks into your office to speak with you about...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female patient walks into your office to speak with you about her recent pap smear result. A low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion was discovered (LSIL). Her most recent pap smear, performed two years ago, came back normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the pap smear in one year

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age.

      For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      Referring the patient to an oncologist is not acceptable since there is no established diagnosis of malignancy that has been made. All other options are unacceptable since Pap smear must be done in 12 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain for 2 days. There was no history of fever. She gave a history of absent periods for past 8 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed guarding and rebound tenderness in left iliac region. There was left sided cervical excitation on vaginal examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ectopic Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      History of amenorrhoea, abdominal and vaginal examination are more favour of ectopic pregnancy. Endometriosis usually has a chronic cause and dysmenorrhoea. Salpingitis usually presents with fever. Ovarian torsion and ovarian tumours have different clinical presentations.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 27 - Anna, a 39-year-old medical receptionist presents to your gynaecologic clinic for a refill...

    Incorrect

    • Anna, a 39-year-old medical receptionist presents to your gynaecologic clinic for a refill of her Microgynin 30 (combined oral contraceptive pill). Her history is significant for smoking around 1 pack per day. Her BMI is 37. What should be the next management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer her progestogen-only contraceptive options

      Explanation:

      This patient is above 35 and smokes more than 15 cigarettes per day, which is an absolute contraindication to using a combined oral contraceptive pill. A BMI of greater than 35 is a relative contraindication to the usage of the combined oral contraceptive pill.
      Progestogen-only contraception, such as etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel intrauterine device, and depot medroxyprogesterone, should be offered to her.
      Without initially attempting lifestyle changes, a referral for weight loss surgery is not required. Also, nicotine replacement therapy may aid in quitting smoking, but it may take time.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic. She complains of a 6 week...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic. She complains of a 6 week history of amenorrhoea and on diagnostic testing, has a positive pregnancy test. On past medical history, it is noted that she had a multiload (Cu375) intrauterine device inserted six months ago. On physical examination, The strings of the device are not visibly protruding through the external os, as would be expected. She is happy to proceed with the pregnancy, and asks what should be done next. What is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound of the pelvis.

      Explanation:

      The best next step is to order an ultrasound of the pelvis to locate the IUCD in the uterine cavity.

      Once the device is located, appropriate advice can be given about the pregnancy proceeding.

      Uterine sounding and hysteroscopy are contraindicated in the presence of a viable pregnancy due to risks of infection and abortion.

      Pelvic X-ray is indicated if the device cannot be located during the pelvic ultrasound. It can show if the device is in the peritoneal cavity or has been expelled from the uterus. It should only be done after the pregnancy.

      In cases where the device is in the peritoneal cavity, a laparoscopy is indicated for device removal.

      Pregnancy termination is not indicated simply because of the presence of an intrauterine device (IUCD) in the uterus, unless other factors dictate that this is appropriate.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently taking Microgynon 30 and is pleased with the results. She is married with two children, does not smoke, and is in good health. Her blood pressure is 150/100mmHg, according to your examination. The blood pressure remains the same after 20 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start her on progestogen-only pills (POPs)

      Explanation:

      The progestogen-only pill (POP) is a contraceptive option for women who have high blood pressure either induced by use of combined oral pills or due to other causes; as long as it is well controlled and monitored. Combined oral contraception (COC) and Depo-Provera have been implicated in increased cardiovascular risk following use. High blood pressure has been theorized to be the critical path that leads to this increased risk. POP is the recommended method for women who are at risk of coronary heart disease due to presence of risk factors like hypertension.

      Stopping OCP will risk in the patient getting pregnant. Cessation of oestrogen usually reverses the blood pressure back to normal, Hence, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old white female comes to your office complaining of dysuria. She denies...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old white female comes to your office complaining of dysuria. She denies fever, back pain, and urinary frequency. She appears to be well otherwise and has a normal abdominal examination. A clean-catch urinalysis shows 15-20 WBC/hpf and a dipstick test for leukocyte esterase is positive. You send a urine sample for culture and start the patient on nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin), as she is allergic to sulpha. Three days later, the patient returns with persistent dysuria despite taking the medication as prescribed. Her urine culture has returned with no growth. A pelvic examination is normal and the rest of the physical examination is unchanged. A wet prep is normal and tests for sexually transmitted diseases are pending. Which one of the following antibiotics is most appropriate for this patient now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Urethral syndrome is characterized by dysuria and pyuria in the presence of a negative culture for uropathogens. Frequency and urgency are often absent. The infecting organism is typically Chlamydia trachomatis although other organisms such as Urea plasma urealyticum and Mycoplasma species may be involve- Effective medication choices include doxycycline, ofloxacin, levofloxacin, and macrolides such as erythromycin and azithromycin.

      -Amoxicillin
      lavulanate  and cephalexin  are incorrect. These would cover gram-positive bacteria but it would not cover gram-negative bacteria nor bacteria without a cell wall, which are the most common causes of this condition.
      – Metronidazole is best for treating anaerobic infections and protozoa such as trichomonas vaginalis, it would not be the best for treating this condition, given the most likely causes.
      -Pyridium is a phenazopyridine often used to alleviate the pain, irritation, discomfort, or urgency caused by urinary tract infections. While it would be beneficial for symptomatic relief, it is unlikely to completely resolve this patient’s condition, given her recent history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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