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Question 1
Incorrect
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A typically healthy 68-year-old man visits the doctor's office complaining of feeling unwell. He mentions experiencing a sharp ache in his right groin. After three days, he develops a strip of painful, red blisters on the top of his right foot.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Herpes simplex
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster
Explanation:This individual is experiencing shingles, which is caused by the herpes zoster virus and is characterized by a unique distribution along a specific dermatome.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 62-year-old man visits his primary care physician with worries about a growth on his right lower eyelid. The lesion has been there for at least 3 months and has not increased in size. During examination, you observe a 3 mm lesion with rolled, pearly edges. Your suspicion is a basal cell carcinoma.
What would be the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Urgent referral for surgical excision
Explanation:When it comes to basal cell carcinoma, surgical excision is typically recommended and can be referred routinely. However, for high-risk areas such as the eyelids and nasal ala, urgent referral under the 2-week wait is necessary to prevent potential damage from delay.
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is one of the three main types of skin cancer and is characterized by slow growth and local invasion. BCC lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and rarely metastasize. The majority of BCC lesions are found on sun-exposed areas, particularly the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As the lesion progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater. If BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. Management options include surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28 year-old carpenter complains of itchy and painful skin on his hands and wrists. He suspects that it might be due to something he is exposed to at work. What test would be most appropriate to investigate this hypothesis?
Your Answer: Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
Correct Answer: Patch testing
Explanation:When there is a suspicion of allergic contact dermatitis, patch testing is the preferred method of investigation. This condition can be caused by either irritants or allergens. The patient’s back is exposed to different allergens, including standard batteries and any substances that the patient suspects. The skin is then evaluated for any reaction after 48 hours and 7 days.
Understanding Contact Dermatitis
Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that can be caused by two main types of reactions. The first type is irritant contact dermatitis, which is a non-allergic reaction that occurs due to exposure to weak acids or alkalis, such as detergents. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen on the hands and is characterized by erythema, but crusting and vesicles are rare. The second type is allergic contact dermatitis, which is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of dermatitis is uncommon and is often seen on the head following hair dyes. It presents as an acute weeping eczema that predominantly affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Topical treatment with a potent steroid is indicated for this type of dermatitis.
Cement is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis. The alkaline nature of cement may cause an irritant contact dermatitis, while the dichromates in cement can also cause an allergic contact dermatitis. It is important to understand the different types of contact dermatitis and their causes to properly diagnose and treat the condition. Proper treatment can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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You are conducting an 8-week examination on a baby with a prominent purplish birthmark. The mother was informed that it may not disappear on its own and could be linked to other vascular issues. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Port wine stain
Explanation:Understanding Port Wine Stains
Port wine stains are a type of birthmark that are characterized by their deep red or purple color. Unlike other vascular birthmarks, such as salmon patches and strawberry hemangiomas, port wine stains do not go away on their own and may even become more prominent over time. These birthmarks are typically unilateral, meaning they only appear on one side of the body.
Fortunately, there are treatment options available for those who wish to reduce the appearance of port wine stains. Cosmetic camouflage can be used to cover up the birthmark, while laser therapy is another option that requires multiple sessions. It’s important to note that while these treatments can help reduce the appearance of port wine stains, they may not completely eliminate them. Understanding the nature of port wine stains and the available treatment options can help individuals make informed decisions about managing these birthmarks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of an itchy rash in both his armpits and the flexor surfaces of his elbows on both sides. He states that this came on gradually and that he has had similar episodes in the past. However, none of them lasted more than one month.
He states that according to his mother, the first episode occurred when he was around seven years old. He claims to only suffer from generally dry skin and asthma, which he controls with emollient creams and inhalers, respectively.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select ONE option onlyYour Answer: Atopic eczema
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions: Characteristics and Differential Diagnosis
Atopic Eczema: This condition is characterized by an itchy rash with a predominantly flexural distribution, along with a history of asthma and dry skin. It is episodic in nature and typically starts in childhood. Atopic eczema is a clinical diagnosis, but investigations may be helpful to exclude differential diagnoses.
Irritant Eczema: This form of dermatitis is caused by exposure to irritants such as strong acids and alkalis. Symptoms and signs vary and may include stinging, burning, and chapping. Skin changes are usually restricted to the area in contact with the irritant. Avoidance of the causative agent usually leads to the resolution of symptoms within a few days.
Lichen Planus: This skin disorder is of unknown aetiology and mainly involves an itchy, papular rash commonly on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of arms. The rash is often polygonal in shape, with a ‘white lines’ pattern on the surface. Management typically involves topical steroids.
Molluscum Contagiosum: This common skin infection is caused by the M. contagiosum virus and presents with characteristic pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication. Lesions appear in clusters in areas anywhere on the body, except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet.
Psoriasis: This chronic skin disorder typically presents with erythematous plaques covered with a silvery-white scale, occurring typically on the extensor surfaces such as the elbows and knees, as well as on the scalp, trunk, buttocks, and periumbilical area. There usually is a clear delineation between normal and affected skin, and plaques typically range from 1 cm to 10 cm in size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner complaining of a progressively worsening erythematous rash on her nose, forehead, and cheeks accompanied by telangiectasia and papules for the past year. The rash is exacerbated by exposure to sunlight and consumption of hot and spicy foods. She has previously sought medical attention for this condition and has been treated with topical metronidazole, but her symptoms persist. She has no allergies and is otherwise healthy.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Oral doxycycline
Explanation:The patient has an erythematous rash on the nose, forehead, and cheeks with telangiectasia and papules, worsened by sun exposure and spicy food, suggesting a diagnosis of rosacea. The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cases is topical metronidazole, while severe or resistant cases require oral tetracycline. However, in this case, oral doxycycline should be given instead of metronidazole as it has been ineffective. Oral clarithromycin, erythromycin, and flucloxacillin are not appropriate treatments for rosacea.
Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of hair loss. She reports noticing that her hair has become significantly thinner and that she is shedding more hair than usual, both on her pillow and in the shower drain. She denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history except for giving birth to her first child 6 months ago. She is not taking any medications regularly and there is no family history of hair loss. On examination, her scalp hair is uniformly thin, but there are no areas of complete hair loss. Her systemic examination is unremarkable and her vital signs are within normal limits. Blood tests, including iron studies and thyroid function, are all normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alopecia totalis
Correct Answer: Telogen effluvium
Explanation:Telogen effluvium is characterized by hair loss and thinning as a result of experiencing significant stress. In this case, the patient’s recent physical stress from giving birth is a likely cause of her hair becoming thinner due to telogen effluvium. The hair loss patterns observed do not match those of alopecia areata or alopecia totalis, which respectively cause distinct areas of complete hair loss or complete loss of all hair on the head and face.
Input:
Alopecia may be divided into scarring (destruction of hair follicle) and non-scarring (preservation of hair follicle). Scarring alopecia can be caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. Non-scarring alopecia can be caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.Output:
– Alopecia can be categorized into scarring and non-scarring types.
– Scarring alopecia is caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis.
– Non-scarring alopecia is caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 32-year-old male patient complains of an itchy rash on his palms and genitals. He has observed the same rash around a recent scar on his forearm. During examination, the doctor notices papules with a white-lace pattern on the surface. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Lichen planus is a skin condition characterized by a rash of purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. The affected area may also have Wickham’s striae. Oral involvement is common. In elderly women, lichen sclerosus may present as itchy white spots on the vulva.
Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of eczema presents with itchy, red patches on her inner elbows, back of knees, and thighs. The skin on her right thigh is oozing. She reports feeling fatigued and wonders if she has had a fever. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Based on your assessment, you diagnose her with moderately severe eczema.
What is the best course of action for managing her condition?Your Answer: Regular Diprobase® ointment and once-daily betamethasone valerate 1% cream
Correct Answer: Regular Diprobase® ointment and once-daily betamethasone valerate 0.025% cream plus 10 days of oral flucloxacillin
Explanation:Treatment Regime for Moderately Severe Eczema with Superimposed Infection
Moderately severe eczema with evidence of superimposed infection requires a specific treatment regime. The severity of eczema is categorized into four categories: clear, mild, moderate, and severe. In this case, the patient has small areas of dry skin mainly in the flexures, and there is evidence of superimposed infection with the erythematous, weeping patch of skin in the lateral thigh, indicating infected eczema/cellulitis.
The treatment regime should include a regular emollient ointment, such as Diprobase®, applied generously to the skin multiple times a day. Additionally, a moderately potent topical corticosteroid, such as betamethasone valerate 0.025% or clobetasone butyrate 0.05%, should be used sparingly on the inflamed areas once a day. The patient must be advised to apply the steroid first and allow 15–20 min for it to be absorbed before applying the emollient. Treatment should last 7–14 days and should continue until 48 h after the eczematous patches have cleared.
Furthermore, oral antibiotics are necessary for the treatment of infected eczema. Oral flucloxacillin is considered first-line, and treatment usually lasts for a 10-day period.
It is important to note that hydrocortisone 1% cream is only a mild steroid and not indicated in the initial management of moderate eczema. Betamethasone valerate 1% cream is a potent topical corticosteroid and should be reserved for the management of acute flare-ups of severe eczema. Oral flucloxacillin alone is not sufficient for treatment, and there is a need for a moderately potent topical corticosteroid as well to settle the inflammation.
In conclusion, a combination of regular emollient ointment, moderately potent topical corticosteroid, and oral antibiotics is necessary for the effective treatment of moderately severe eczema with superimposed infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 25-year-old Asian woman presents with completely depigmented patches of skin on her arms and legs.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Common Skin Pigmentation Disorders
Skin pigmentation disorders are conditions that affect the color of the skin. Here are some of the most common ones:
Vitiligo: This rare condition is believed to be caused by the immune system attacking melanocytes, resulting in patches of skin with no pigment. It is more common in people of African descent.
Albinism: This genetic disorder reduces the activity of tyrosinase in melanocytes, resulting in a complete lack of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes.
Melanoma: This is a type of skin cancer that develops from melanocytes. It is characterized by irregular, highly pigmented moles.
Melasma: This condition causes increased pigmentation, usually under the eyes. It is common in pregnant women and users of oral contraceptives.
Pityriasis alba: This condition causes white, scaly patches on the face, and is most commonly seen in children.
Understanding these skin pigmentation disorders can help individuals identify and manage them effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl, who is a keen dancer, visits her General Practitioner with a painful rash on her foot. She says that it started several weeks ago and often stings. Examination reveals a red rash in the interdigital spaces, with small fissures and white exudate.
What is the most appropriate treatment option?Your Answer: Topical miconazole
Explanation:Understanding Topical Treatments for Skin Conditions
Athlete’s foot is a common fungal infection that affects the toe webs and is often caused by excess moisture. The first-line treatment for this condition is a topical antifungal such as miconazole or terbinafine cream, which should be used twice daily for four weeks. If there is no improvement, further investigations may be required, and oral antifungals may be prescribed. It is important to advise patients on foot hygiene and to avoid walking barefoot in communal areas.
Dithranol is a topical treatment for psoriasis, a condition that presents as large, scaly plaques with a symmetrical distribution. This is different from athlete’s foot, which is characterized by a moist, peeling rash between the toes. Emollients, which are topical moisturizers, are used for atopic eczema management and have no role in treating athlete’s foot.
Oral terbinafine is reserved for severe or extensive fungal infections that cannot be treated with topical antifungal agents. Finally, while an antifungal/topical steroid combination may reduce symptoms more rapidly in cases of inflamed tissue, it has no overall benefit. Moderately potent topical steroids such as eumovate are more appropriate for managing atopic eczema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 55-year-old man complains of persistent itching caused by shiny, flat-topped papules on the palmar aspect of his wrists. Lichen planus is suspected. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer: Topical clobetasone butyrate
Explanation:Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hyperplasia presents to dermatology with multiple lesions on his shin. Upon examination, symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules are observed. The lesions are healing without scarring. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:The relevant diagnosis for this question relies solely on the description of the lesions, as the patient’s medical history is not a factor. Specifically, the tender shin lesions are indicative of erythema nodosum.
Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features
Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.
Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.
Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.
Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.
Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.
In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 26-year-old patient comes in with lesions on their lower abdomen that have been present for six weeks. At first, there was only one lesion, but more have appeared since then. During the examination, around 10 raised lesions with an umbilicated appearance, each around 1-2 mm in diameter, are observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:Molluscum contagiosum is typically observed in children, but the following is a classical depiction of the condition.
Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.
While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.
Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding and black stool. He reports experiencing this issue more than six times in the past four months. The patient denies any other symptoms such as weight loss, abdominal pain, or changes in bowel habits. During the examination, no masses or apparent causes of bleeding are found in his abdomen or rectum. However, the GP notices some red spots on the patient's lips and tongue. When questioned about them, the patient dismisses them as insignificant and claims that everyone in his family has them. What is the most probable reason for the bleeding?
Your Answer: Crohn's disease
Correct Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
Explanation:Rectal bleeding can have various causes, and it is crucial to differentiate between them as the treatments and prognosis can differ significantly. By utilizing signs and examinations, one can eliminate possibilities. If there are no masses, weight loss, or changes in bowel habits, rectal or colon cancer is less probable. Similarly, if there are no changes in bowel habits, abdominal pain, or weight loss, Crohn’s disease is less likely. This narrows down the possibilities to Louis-Bar syndrome and hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia. Louis-Bar syndrome, also known as ataxia telangiectasia, is a rare neurodegenerative disorder that typically manifests in early childhood with severe ataxia and other neurological symptoms.
Understanding Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia
Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, also known as Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome, is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. While 80% of cases have a family history, 20% occur spontaneously without prior family history.
There are four main diagnostic criteria for HHT. If a patient has two of these criteria, they are said to have a possible diagnosis of HHT. If they meet three or more of the criteria, they are said to have a definite diagnosis of HHT. These criteria include spontaneous, recurrent nosebleeds (epistaxis), multiple telangiectases at characteristic sites such as the lips, oral cavity, fingers, and nose, visceral lesions such as gastrointestinal telangiectasia (with or without bleeding), pulmonary arteriovenous malformations (AVM), hepatic AVM, cerebral AVM, and spinal AVM, and a first-degree relative with HHT.
In summary, HHT is a genetic condition that is characterized by multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. It can be diagnosed based on the presence of certain criteria, including nosebleeds, telangiectases, visceral lesions, and family history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Correct
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You are setting up a leg ulcer clinic to be run by your practice nurse.
Which of the following is the best treatment for venous leg ulcers?
Your Answer: Compression bandaging
Explanation:Effective Management of Venous Leg Ulcers in Primary Care
Venous leg ulcers can be effectively managed in primary care through a combination of measures. Graduated compression is a key component of treatment, as it reduces venous reflux and ankle oedema while increasing venous blood flow. However, compression therapy may not be suitable for infected ulcers or those that are too tender. Pharmacotherapy and zinc paste are also not recommended for venous leg ulcers.
Intermittent pneumatic calf compression can be effective in overcoming venous hypertension, but bandaging regimens must be adjusted according to ankle circumference to achieve the optimal pressure of around 40 mm Hg. Hyperbaric oxygen is not the first-choice treatment.
In primary care, management of venous leg ulcers involves cleaning and dressing the ulcer, applying compression therapy appropriately, treating associated conditions such as pain, infection, oedema, and eczema, and providing lifestyle advice. Pentoxifylline may also be prescribed to aid ulcer healing. Follow-up and referral to specialist clinics may be necessary in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man who is HIV positive has been diagnosed with seborrhoeic dermatitis. What are the two most commonly associated complications with this condition?
Your Answer: Photosensitivity and blepharitis
Correct Answer: Blepharitis and otitis externa
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis often leads to otitis externa and blepharitis as complications. Although rare, alopecia may occur if a severe secondary infection develops.
Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.
For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for evaluation of a lesion on his shin. During the examination, the dermatologist observes shiny, painless areas of yellow skin with numerous telangiectasia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pretibial myxoedema
Correct Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum
Explanation:Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a condition characterized by waxy yellow shin lesions that often occur in individuals with diabetes.
Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features
Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.
Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.
Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.
Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.
Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.
In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 72-year-old male presents to his primary care clinic with a 3-day history of burning pain and rash on the right side of his chest. He also complains of feeling generally unwell. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
During the physical examination, an erythematous rash with multiple clear vesicles is observed on the right side of the torso. The remainder of the clinical examination, including an ophthalmic examination, is unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Prescribe oral famciclovir
Explanation:Patients suspected of having shingles should receive antiviral treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset, according to NICE guidelines. Shingles is diagnosed based on the presence of dermatomal pain and a papular rash, with pain often persisting after the rash has resolved. The recommended first-line oral antivirals are famciclovir or valacyclovir, to be taken for 7 days. Aciclovir is a second-line option, as studies have shown that famciclovir and valacyclovir are more effective in reducing the risk of postherpetic pain. Prescribing calamine lotion and analgesia, as well as monitoring the patient, is not sufficient and does not replace antiviral treatment. Intravenous antivirals are only necessary if the patient cannot tolerate oral medication, and famciclovir cannot be administered intravenously.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
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During a routine General Practitioner (GP) clinic, a mother attends with her 8-year-old daughter who has worsening dry, itchy skin, mainly affecting the flexor surfaces, particularly on the legs. She has tried regular liberal use emollient cream with limited success.
What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of the child’s eczema?Your Answer: Prescribe hydrocortisone cream 1%
Explanation:Managing Eczema in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations
Eczema is a common condition in children that can be effectively managed with the right treatment approach. When a child presents with eczema symptoms, the first step is often to use emollient cream to moisturize the affected area. However, if the symptoms persist or worsen, a topical corticosteroid cream may be prescribed to help manage the flare-up. It is important to use this medication sparingly and in conjunction with emollients.
If the eczema symptoms continue to be troublesome despite these measures, it may be appropriate to refer the child to a dermatology clinic. However, it is important to note that oral corticosteroids should be used with caution in children and only under the direction of a dermatologist.
While emollient creams are often effective, in some cases, an emollient ointment may be more moisturizing and helpful. However, if the eczema flare-up is not resolving with emollients alone, a short course of topical corticosteroid is likely necessary.
Watchful waiting is not appropriate in this situation, as the child has already presented to the GP and symptoms are worsening despite reasonable management by the mother. By understanding the various treatment options and considerations for managing eczema in children, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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