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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old male is being reviewed after being admitted six weeks ago with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is being reviewed after being admitted six weeks ago with an inferior myocardial infarction (MI) and treated with thrombolysis. He has been prescribed atenolol 50 mg daily, aspirin, and rosuvastatin 10 mg daily upon discharge. He has quit smoking after his MI and is now asking which foods he should avoid.

      Your Answer: Cheese

      Correct Answer: Kippers

      Explanation:

      Diet Recommendations Following a Heart Attack

      Following a heart attack, it is important for patients to make dietary changes to reduce the risk of another cardiac event. One of the key recommendations is to avoid foods high in saturated fat, such as cheese, milk, and fried foods. Instead, patients should switch to a diet rich in high-fiber, starch-based foods, and aim to consume five portions of fresh fruits and vegetables daily, as well as oily fish.

      However, it is important to note that NICE guidance on Acute Coronary Syndromes (NG185) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules and supplements to prevent another heart attack. While oily fish is still recommended as a source of omega-3, patients should not rely on supplements as a substitute for a healthy diet. By making these dietary changes, patients can improve their heart health and reduce the risk of future cardiac events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are assessing a 65-year-old man who has presented with concerns about his...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 65-year-old man who has presented with concerns about his varicose veins. He has noticed that they have become more noticeable over the past year, but he doesn't experience any pain.

      Upon examination, you observe bilateral prominent varicose veins on his lower legs. There are no accompanying skin changes or leg swelling. His distal pulses are normal, and his feet are warm to the touch.

      The patient has no significant medical history, and recent blood tests, including an HbA1c, are within normal limits.

      As per current NICE guidelines, what is the recommended course of action for managing this patient's varicose veins?

      Your Answer: Prescribe compression stockings

      Correct Answer: Arrange an ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI)

      Explanation:

      Before offering graduated compression stockings to a patient with varicose veins, it is important to arrange an ABPI to exclude arterial insufficiency. If the ABPI is between 0.8 and 1.3, compression stockings are generally safe to wear. Topical steroids are not effective in treating varicose veins and a referral to vascular is not necessary for uncomplicated cases in primary care. Duplex ultrasonography is usually arranged by the vascular team in secondary care.

      Understanding Varicose Veins

      Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.

      To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.

      In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You have a phone review scheduled with Mrs. Johansson, a 55-year-old woman who...

    Correct

    • You have a phone review scheduled with Mrs. Johansson, a 55-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension, which had been detected during a routine check-up. Subsequent ambulatory home blood pressure monitoring showed an average home BP of 148/84 mmHg.

      You arranged an ECG, urine albumin-creatinine ratio (ACR), and some blood tests, and scheduled the appointment to discuss the findings. The ACR and blood tests are within normal limits. The ECG shows sinus rhythm with a rate of 70 beats per minute. You entered her cholesterol results into a cardiovascular risk calculator, which estimates a 10-year CV risk of 6.5%.

      What is the appropriate management plan for her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Lifestyle advice, and discuss commencing a calcium-channel blocker

      Explanation:

      Consider medication for stage 1 hypertension in patients aged 60 or under, but for those aged 55 or over, a calcium channel blocker is the first-line option. Lifestyle advice should also be given. Referral to cardiology is not necessary at this stage.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      57.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You start a patient on atorvastatin after their cholesterol was found to be...

    Incorrect

    • You start a patient on atorvastatin after their cholesterol was found to be raised in the context of a QRISK of 15%. You repeat the blood tests 6 months after starting treatment.

      Which of the following blood results does NICE recommend using to determine the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Total cholesterol

      Correct Answer: Non-HDL cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Statin Treatment for Primary Prevention

      Following the initiation of statin treatment for primary prevention, it is recommended to have a repeat blood test after 3 months. The non-HDL cholesterol level should be interpreted to guide the next steps in management. The goal of treatment is to reduce non-HDL levels by 40% of the patient’s baseline. If adherence, timing of the dose, and lifestyle measures are in place, an increase in dose may be necessary.

      It is not routine to investigate creatine kinase in this context, but it would be helpful to investigate unexplained muscle symptoms. Liver function tests are not an option, but NICE advises testing these 3 months and 12 months following statin initiation. If stable, no further monitoring for LFTs is required after this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 4-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 4-month history of shortness of breath on exertion. Recently, he has also started waking at night with shortness of breath, which is relieved by sitting up in bed. On examination, crepitations are heard on auscultation of both lung bases and mild ankle oedema. There is no significant past medical history.
      What is the most appropriate next step according to current National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidance?

      Your Answer: Referral for echocardiography

      Correct Answer: Test for B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations and Treatment for Suspected Heart Failure

      Suspected cases of heart failure require appropriate investigations and treatment. The recommended first-line investigation is B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) testing, which is released into the blood when the myocardium is stressed. If the BNP level is abnormal, the patient should be referred for specialist assessment and echocardiography. Treatment with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors is indicated for patients suffering from heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, but this diagnosis should be confirmed before starting treatment. Referral for echocardiography should be guided by the BNP level, and spirometry is not the most appropriate investigation for patients with classical symptoms of congestive cardiac failure. If treatment is necessary, a loop diuretic such as furosemide is usually started.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman came to the clinic with a complaint of intermittent swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman came to the clinic with a complaint of intermittent swelling of her tongue and face that has been occurring for the past ten weeks. The episodes last for 36 hours and then resolve on their own. She has tried taking oral antihistamines but they did not help. Her medical history is significant for hypertension which was diagnosed and treated with appropriate medications six months ago. There is no other relevant medical or family history. What medication is most likely causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      ACE Inhibitors and Angioedema

      ACE inhibitors are medications that can lead to the development of angioedema, a condition characterized by swelling in various parts of the body. This is because ACE inhibitors block the action of the ACE enzyme, which is responsible for breaking down bradykinin. When bradykinin accumulates in the body, it causes blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable, leading to the accumulation of fluid in the interstitium. This can result in rapid swelling, particularly in areas with less connective tissue, such as the face.

      Interestingly, ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema appears to be more common in African-American individuals. If angioedema occurs, the medication should be discontinued immediately and an alternative treatment should be sought. One option is an angiotensin II receptor antagonist, which works similarly to ACE inhibitors but doesn’t affect bradykinin levels. It is important to monitor patients closely for signs of angioedema when prescribing ACE inhibitors, particularly in those with a history of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      1934.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are conducting a medication review for a 65-year-old man who has a...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a medication review for a 65-year-old man who has a history of cerebrovascular disease (having suffered a stroke 2 years ago), depression, and knee osteoarthritis. He is currently taking the following medications:
      - Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily
      - Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
      - Amlodipine 5mg once daily
      - Ramipril 10 mg once daily
      - Diclofenac 50 mg as needed
      - Sertraline 50 mg once daily

      What changes would you recommend to his medication regimen?

      Your Answer: Switch sertraline to citalopram

      Correct Answer: Switch diclofenac for an alternative NSAID

      Explanation:

      The use of diclofenac is now prohibited for individuals with any type of cardiovascular ailment.

      Diclofenac and Cardiovascular Risk

      The MHRA has updated its guidance on diclofenac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), due to a Europe-wide review of cardiovascular safety. While it has been known for some time that NSAIDs may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, the evidence base has become clearer. Diclofenac is associated with a significantly higher risk of cardiovascular events compared to other NSAIDs. Therefore, diclofenac is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, cerebrovascular disease, and congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association classification II-IV). Patients should switch from diclofenac to other NSAIDs, such as naproxen or ibuprofen, except for topical diclofenac. Studies have shown that naproxen and low-dose ibuprofen have the best cardiovascular risk profiles of the NSAIDs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      57.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman, who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman, who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin and digoxin, tells you that she has been feeling low lately and has been self medicating with St John's wort which she bought from a health store.

      Which of the following interactions can be anticipated between St John's Wort and her current medication?

      Your Answer: INR is likely to be increased

      Correct Answer: INR is likely to be reduced

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort and Medication Interactions

      St John’s wort is a popular natural remedy for depressive symptoms. However, it is important to note that it is a liver enzyme inducer, which can lead to interactions with other medications. For example, St John’s wort may reduce the efficacy of warfarin, a blood thinner, requiring an increased dose to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. It may also reduce the efficacy of digoxin, a medication used to treat heart failure. Therefore, it is important to discuss the use of St John’s wort with a healthcare provider before taking it in combination with other medications. By doing so, potential interactions can be identified and managed appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with a persistent cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with a persistent cough and difficulty breathing for the past few weeks after returning from a trip to Italy. Initially, she thought it was just a cold, but now she has noticed swelling in her feet. Upon examination, she has crackling sounds in both lungs, a third heart sound, and a displaced point of maximum impulse.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Correct Answer: Cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Cardiomyopathy and Recent Travel History

      Cardiomyopathy is a myocardial disorder that can range from asymptomatic to life-threatening. It is important to consider this diagnosis in young patients presenting with heart failure, arrhythmias, or thromboembolism. While recent travel history may be relevant to other potential diagnoses, such as atypical pneumonia or thromboembolism, neither of these fully fit the patient’s history and examination. Rheumatic heart disease, pericarditis, and pulmonary embolus can also be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms. The underlying cause and type of cardiomyopathy in this case are unknown but could be multiple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old man comes in for his annual heart failure check-up. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes in for his annual heart failure check-up. He reports feeling physically well and is able to perform all his daily activities without any chest symptoms.

      All his vital signs are within normal limits, with a heart rate of 76 beats per minute and blood pressure of 135/80 mmHg. His weight has remained stable since his last visit.

      During the examination, his pulse is regular, and his heart sounds are normal. There is no raised JVP, and his chest is clear. There is minimal pitting edema around both ankles.

      Reviewing his heart failure medications, he is currently taking:

      - Ramipril 10 mg once daily
      - Bisoprolol 10 mg once daily
      - Furosemide 40 mg once a day

      Assuming there are no contraindications and with the patient's consent, what would be the most appropriate next step to take during his review?

      Your Answer: Ensure patients is listed for annual influenza vaccination and annual pneumococcal vaccination

      Correct Answer: Ensure patient is listed for annual influenza vaccination

      Explanation:

      As part of the comprehensive lifestyle approach to managing heart failure, it is recommended to offer an annual influenza vaccine. While pneumococcal vaccination should also be provided to patients with heart failure, it doesn’t need to be administered every year. The patient in question is already taking the maximum doses of ramipril and bisoprolol approved for heart failure treatment, and their blood pressure is well-managed with their current medications. Currently, there are no indications that increasing the dose of furosemide would benefit the patient’s heart failure management, and it may even cause harm such as electrolyte imbalances.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      20.7
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  • Question 11 - A 73-year-old man who underwent bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement three years ago is...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man who underwent bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement three years ago is being evaluated. What type of antithrombotic treatment is he expected to be receiving?

      Your Answer: Warfarin: INR 2.0-3.0

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      For patients with prosthetic heart valves, antithrombotic therapy varies depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically require aspirin, while mechanical valves require a combination of warfarin and aspirin.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.

      It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      67.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old man with chronic heart failure due to ischaemic heart disease complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with chronic heart failure due to ischaemic heart disease complains of knee pain. An x-ray has revealed osteoarthritis. What medication should be avoided if feasible?

      Your Answer: Topical diclofenac

      Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Patients with heart failure should exercise caution when using NSAIDs as they may lead to fluid retention, making oral NSAIDs like ibuprofen unsuitable.

      Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure

      Patients with heart failure need to be cautious when taking certain medications as they may exacerbate their condition. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil should also be avoided due to its negative inotropic effect. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids should be used with caution as they can also cause fluid retention. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, should also be avoided as they have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and their potential effects on patients with heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      39.7
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old woman presents at the GP practice with increasing shortness of breath...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents at the GP practice with increasing shortness of breath (SOB). She experiences SOB on exertion and when lying down at night. Her symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past few weeks. She is an ex-smoker and is not taking any regular medication. During examination, she appears comfortable at rest, heart sounds are normal, and there are bibasal crackles. She has pitting edema to the mid-calf bilaterally. Observations reveal a pulse of 89 bpm, oxygen saturations of 96%, respiratory rate of 12/min, and blood pressure of 192/128 mmHg.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for acute medical admission

      Explanation:

      If the patient has a new BP reading of 180/120 mmHg or higher and is experiencing new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury, they should be admitted for specialist assessment. This is the correct course of action for this patient, as she has a BP reading above 180/120 mmHg and is showing signs of heart failure. Other indications for admission with a BP reading above 180/120 mmHg include new-onset confusion, chest pain, or acute kidney injury.

      Arranging an outpatient echocardiogram and chest x-ray is not the appropriate action for this patient. While these investigations may be necessary, the patient should be admitted for specialized assessment to avoid any unnecessary delays.

      Commencing a long-acting bronchodilator (LABA) is not the correct course of action for this patient. While COPD may be a differential diagnosis, the signs of heart failure and new hypertension require a referral for acute medical assessment.

      Commencing furosemide is not the appropriate action for this patient. While it may improve her symptoms, it will not address the underlying cause of her heart failure. Therefore, she requires further investigation and treatment, most appropriately with an acute medical admission.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old man presents for a medication review after being discharged from the...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents for a medication review after being discharged from the hospital three months ago following a cholecystectomy. He was started on several new medications due to hypertension and atrial fibrillation. Despite feeling well, he has noticed ankle swelling and suspects it may be a side effect of one of the new medications.

      During the examination, his blood pressure is 124/82 mmHg, and his heart rate is 68/min irregularly irregular.

      Which medication is most likely responsible for the observed side effect?

      Your Answer: Felodipine

      Explanation:

      Felodipine is more likely to cause ankle swelling than verapamil compared to dihydropyridines like amlodipine. Calcium channel blockers are commonly used as a first-line treatment for hypertension in patients over 55 years old, but a common side effect is peripheral edema. Dihydropyridines, such as amlodipine, work by selectively targeting vascular smooth muscle receptors, causing vasodilation and increased capillary pressure, which can lead to ankle edema. On the other hand, non-dihydropyridines like verapamil are more selective for myocardial calcium receptors, resulting in reduced cardiac contraction and heart rate.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old patient presents at the local walk-in centre with central crushing chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents at the local walk-in centre with central crushing chest pain. The nurse immediately calls 999 and performs an ECG which reveals ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient's blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg, pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and oxygen saturation is 96%. What is the most suitable course of action to take while waiting for the ambulance to arrive?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 300 mg + lansoprazole 30 mg + sublingual glyceryl trinitrate

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg + sublingual glyceryl trinitrate

      Explanation:

      Assessment of Patients with Suspected Cardiac Chest Pain

      Patients presenting with acute chest pain should receive immediate management for suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS), including glyceryl trinitrate and aspirin 300 mg. Oxygen should only be given if sats are less than 94%. A normal ECG doesn’t exclude ACS, so referral should be made based on the timing of chest pain and ECG results. Patients with current chest pain or chest pain in the last 12 hours with an abnormal ECG should be emergency admitted. Those with chest pain 12-72 hours ago should be referred to the hospital the same day for assessment. Chest pain more than 72 hours ago should undergo a full assessment with ECG and troponin measurement before deciding upon further action.

      For patients presenting with stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain as constricting discomfort in the front of the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, precipitated by physical exertion, and relieved by rest or GTN in about 5 minutes. Patients with all three features have typical angina, those with two have atypical angina, and those with one or none have non-anginal chest pain. If stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone, NICE recommends CT coronary angiography as the first line of investigation, followed by non-invasive functional imaging and invasive coronary angiography as second and third lines, respectively. Non-invasive functional imaging options include myocardial perfusion scintigraphy with single photon emission computed tomography, stress echocardiography, first-pass contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance perfusion, and MR imaging for stress-induced wall motion abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - How long should a patient refrain from driving after undergoing an elective cardiac...

    Incorrect

    • How long should a patient refrain from driving after undergoing an elective cardiac angioplasty?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: 1 week

      Explanation:

      DVLA guidance after angioplasty – refrain from driving for a period of 7 days.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of dyspnea.

    On auscultation, you detect a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of dyspnea.

      On auscultation, you detect a systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur that is most audible at the right upper sternal border. The murmur is loudest during expiration and decreases in intensity when the patient stands. The second heart sound is faint. The apex beat is forceful but not displaced.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Aortic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms and Signs

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to reduced blood flow from the heart to the rest of the body. One of the typical features of aortic stenosis is a systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur that is loudest at the right upper sternal border. This murmur is usually heard during expiration and becomes softer when the patient stands. Additionally, the second heart sound is typically soft, and the apex beat is thrusting but not displaced.

      To summarize, aortic stenosis can be identified by a combination of symptoms and signs, including a specific type of murmur, a soft second heart sound, and a thrusting apex beat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - What are the primary indications for administering alpha blockers? ...

    Correct

    • What are the primary indications for administering alpha blockers?

      Your Answer: Hypertension + benign prostatic hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alpha Blockers

      Alpha blockers are medications that are commonly prescribed for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension. These drugs work by blocking the alpha-adrenergic receptors in the body, which can help to relax the smooth muscles in the prostate gland and blood vessels, leading to improved urine flow and lower blood pressure. Some examples of alpha blockers include doxazosin and tamsulosin.

      While alpha blockers can be effective in managing these conditions, they can also cause side effects. Some of the most common side effects of alpha blockers include postural hypotension, drowsiness, dyspnea, and cough. Patients who are taking alpha blockers should be aware of these potential side effects and should speak with their healthcare provider if they experience any symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old patient has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. Choose from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old patient has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. Choose from the options the medical condition that would most likely prevent the use of ß-blockers in this patient.

      Your Answer: Peripheral vascular disease

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      The Benefits and Considerations of β-Blockers in Heart Failure Patients

      β-blockers have been proven to provide significant benefits for patients with heart failure and should be offered to all eligible patients. It is recommended to start with the lowest possible dose and gradually increase it. While β-blockers can generally be safely administered to patients with COPD, caution should be exercised in patients with a history of asthma due to the risk of bronchospasm. However, cardioselective β-blockers such as atenolol, bisoprolol, metoprolol, nebivolol, and acebutolol may be used under specialist supervision. These medications are not cardiac specific and may still have an effect on airway resistance.

      In addition to heart failure, β-blockers can also be used for rate control in patients with atrial fibrillation and as a first-line treatment for angina. While they may worsen symptoms of peripheral vascular disease, this is not a complete contraindication to their use.

      Overall, β-blockers have proven to be a valuable treatment option for heart failure patients, but careful consideration should be given to individual patient factors before prescribing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old man presents with exertional chest pain and a positive exercise tolerance...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with exertional chest pain and a positive exercise tolerance test. He refuses to undergo an angiogram and is discharged with a medication regimen consisting of aspirin 75 mg od, simvastatin 40 mg on, atenolol 50 mg od, and a GTN spray prn. Upon examination, his pulse is 72 bpm and his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. During follow-up, he continues to frequently use his GTN spray. What is the most appropriate course of action for his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase atenolol to 100 mg od

      Explanation:

      If a patient with angina doesn’t respond well to the first-line drug (such as a beta-blocker), the dose should be increased before adding another drug. The recommended dose of atenolol for angina is 100 mg daily, and a pulse rate of 72 bpm indicates inadequate beta-blockade. The starting dose of isosorbide mononitrate is 10 mg bd.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - You have a scheduled telephone consultation with Mrs. O'Brien, a 55-year-old woman who...

    Incorrect

    • You have a scheduled telephone consultation with Mrs. O'Brien, a 55-year-old woman who has been undergoing BP monitoring with the health-care assistant. The health care assistant has arranged the appointment as her readings have been consistently around 150/90 mmHg. Upon reviewing her records, you see that she was prescribed amlodipine due to her Irish ethnicity, and she is taking 10 mg once a day. Her only other medication is atorvastatin 20 mg. The health care assistant has noted in the record that the patient confirms she takes her medications as directed.

      As per NICE guidelines, what is the next step in managing hypertension in Mrs. O'Brien, taking into account her ethnic background?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      For patients of black African or African–Caribbean origin who are taking a calcium channel blocker for hypertension and require a second medication, it is recommended to consider an angiotensin receptor blocker instead of an ACE inhibitor. An alpha-blocker is typically not a first-line option, while spironolactone may be considered as a fourth-line option. However, the 2019 update to the NICE guidelines on hypertension recommends an ARB as the preferred choice for this patient population.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with intermittent cramp-like pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with intermittent cramp-like pain in the buttock, thigh and calf. The symptoms are worse on walking and relieved by rest. She had a stent placed in her coronary artery three years ago. On examination, both legs are of normal colour, but the pedal pulses are difficult to palpate. Sensation is mildly reduced in the right foot.

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure ankle : brachial systolic pressure index

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intermittent Claudication: Diagnosis and Management

      Intermittent claudication is a common symptom of peripheral arterial disease. Patients typically experience pain or cramping in their legs during physical activity, which subsides with rest. An ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) of less than 0.9 supports the diagnosis, indicating reduced blood flow to the affected limb.

      The severity of arterial disease can be assessed using the ABPI, with values under 0.5 indicating severe disease. Exercise can improve walking distance, and patients should be encouraged to continue walking beyond the point of pain. Addressing any risk factors for cardiovascular disease is also important.

      Referral to a vascular surgeon may be necessary if symptoms are lifestyle limiting. Magnetic resonance angiography can be used to assess the extent of arterial disease prior to any revascularization procedure. Ultrasonography can help determine the site of disease in peripheral arterial disease.

      Bilateral symptoms may indicate neurogenic claudication due to spinal stenosis, which can be confirmed with an MRI scan. Sciatica is also a possible differential diagnosis, particularly if there are sensory changes in the foot. An MRI scan may be useful in such cases.

      Overall, understanding the diagnosis and management of intermittent claudication is crucial for effective treatment and improved quality of life for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to cause pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to cause pulmonary edema in a patient with a history of chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil exhibits the strongest negative inotropic effect among calcium channel blockers.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 48-year-old man presents to the hypertension clinic with a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents to the hypertension clinic with a recent diagnosis of high blood pressure. He has been on ramipril for three months, but despite titration up to 10 mg od, his blood pressure remains elevated at 156/92 mmHg.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine OR indapamide

      Explanation:

      To improve control of hypertension in patients who are already taking an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker, the 2019 NICE guidelines recommend adding either a calcium channel blocker (such as amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic (such as indapamide). This is a change from previous guidelines, which only recommended adding a calcium channel blocker in this situation.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population aged 60 and above. Over a five year period, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. The results showed that there were 150 myocardial infarcts (MI) in the placebo group and 100 in the group treated with the new statin. What is the number needed to treat to prevent one MI in this population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

      When evaluating the efficacy of a treatment, it’s important to look beyond statistical significance and consider the practical impact on patients. The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is a statistical figure that provides valuable information about the effectiveness of a treatment. For example, if 1000 patients are treated with a new statin for five years and 50 MIs are prevented, the NNT to prevent one MI is 20 (1000/50). This means that by treating just 20 patients, one MI can be prevented over a five-year period.

      The NNT can also be used to calculate cost economic data by factoring in the cost of the drug against the costs of treating and rehabilitating a patient with an MI. By understanding the NNT, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about the most effective and cost-efficient treatments for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 26 - A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up of his atrial fibrillation. He recently underwent...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up of his atrial fibrillation. He recently underwent catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation and it was successful.

      The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes. His most recent blood pressure reading was 150/92 mmHg.

      What is the optimal approach for managing his anticoagulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue anticoagulation long-term

      Explanation:

      Patients who have undergone catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation must continue with long-term anticoagulation based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score. According to the guidelines of the American College of Cardiology, the decision to discontinue anticoagulation after two months of catheter ablation should be based on the patient’s stroke risk profile, not on the outcome of the procedure. There is no published evidence that it is safe to stop anticoagulation after ablation if the CHA2DS2-Vasc score is equal to or greater than 1. Therefore, in the given scenario, since the CHA2DS2-VASc score indicates moderate to high risk (3 points), anticoagulation should be continued.

      Although monitoring heart rhythm is crucial due to the risk of recurrence, anticoagulation should still be continued even if the patient remains in sinus rhythm. Blood pressure readings do not provide any indication to stop anticoagulation.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - A 75-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of increased swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of increased swelling in his right leg. He has a medical history of right-sided heart failure. During the examination, his right calf is found to be 3 cm larger than his left and he has bilateral pitting oedema up to the knee. A positive D-dimer result prompts the initiation of apixaban. However, an ultrasound scan of his leg comes back negative.

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop anticoagulation and repeat scan in 1 week

      Explanation:

      If a D-dimer test is positive but an ultrasound scan for possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is negative, the recommended course of action is to stop anticoagulation and repeat the scan in one week. It is not appropriate to simply discharge the patient with worsening advice, as a follow-up scan is necessary to ensure that a clot has not been missed. Continuing anticoagulation would only be appropriate if the scan had shown a positive result. It is not recommended to continue anticoagulation for three or six months, as these are management strategies for a confirmed DVT that has been detected by a positive ultrasound scan.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old woman, who is a frequent IV drug user, presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman, who is a frequent IV drug user, presents with a 2-week history of intermittent fever and fatigue. During examination, her temperature is 38.5 °C, heart rate 84 bpm and blood pressure 126/72 mmHg. A soft pansystolic murmur is detected along the right sternal margin and there is an area of tenderness and cellulitis in the left groin.
      What is the most suitable first step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency admission to the hospital

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Suspected Infective Endocarditis

      Suspected infective endocarditis is a life-threatening condition that requires urgent hospital admission. IV drug use is a major risk factor for this condition, which presents with fever and a new cardiac murmur. Oral therapy is not recommended due to concerns about efficacy, and IV therapy is preferred to ensure adequate dosing and administration. It is important to obtain blood cultures before starting antibiotics to isolate the causative organism. Ultrasound scan for a groin abscess is not necessary as it would not explain the pansystolic murmur on examination. Echocardiography is indicated but should not delay urgent treatment. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent permanent cardiac damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - Which one of the following would not be considered a normal variant on...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following would not be considered a normal variant on the ECG of an athletic 29-year-old man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      Normal Variants in Athlete ECGs

      When analyzing an athlete’s ECG, there are certain changes that are considered normal variants. These include sinus bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate, junctional rhythm, which originates from the AV node instead of the SA node, first degree heart block, which is a delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles, and Mobitz type 1, also known as the Wenckebach phenomenon, which is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. It is important to recognize these normal variants in order to avoid unnecessary testing or interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old man visits his GP clinic seeking sildenafil (Viagra) as he is...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his GP clinic seeking sildenafil (Viagra) as he is nervous every time he is intimate with his new partner. He can still achieve his own erections and has morning erections. His recent NHS health screening blood tests were all normal, and he has normal blood pressure. The GP examines his medication history and advises him against using sildenafil. Which of the following medications listed below is not recommended to be used with sildenafil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN)

      Explanation:

      When considering treatment options for this patient, it is important to note that PDE 5 inhibitors such as sildenafil are contraindicated when used in conjunction with nitrates and nicorandil. This is due to the potential for severe hypotension. Therefore, alternative treatment options should be explored and discussed with the patient.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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Cardiovascular Health (4/19) 21%
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