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  • Question 1 - A 23-year-old male presents to the clinic after being referred by his GP....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male presents to the clinic after being referred by his GP. He has been noticing that his eyelids appear to be drooping more and more over the past 10 months, which has been commented on by his friends. He denies experiencing any muscle weakness or double vision. He has no significant medical history and does not smoke or drink alcohol. Upon examination, bilateral abduction and adduction of his eyes are impaired, and there is inconsistent impairment of vertical gaze. His neurological examination of the upper and lower limbs is unremarkable, except for mild finger-nose dysmetria. Blood tests show no abnormalities, and his ECG shows sinus rhythm with a PR interval of 260 ms. Fundoscopy reveals a pigmented retina. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Correct Answer: Kearns-Sayre syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient, who is young, exhibits a set of symptoms that include retinitis pigmentosa, chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia, bilateral ptosis, mild cerebellar signs, and a cardiac conduction defect (first degree heart block). These symptoms are indicative of a mitochondrial disorder, specifically.

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by a small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria, which encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. These diseases are inherited only via the maternal line, as the sperm contributes no cytoplasm to the zygote. None of the children of an affected male will inherit the disease, while all of the children of an affected female will inherit it. Mitochondrial diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases, and there is poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, which means that within a tissue or cell, there can be different mitochondrial populations. Muscle biopsy typically shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome, MERRF syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.5
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  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation, ischemic heart disease, and...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation, ischemic heart disease, and hypertension is brought to the hospital by his daughter who is worried about his declining health. Over the past few weeks, the patient has been experiencing more difficulty with balance, resulting in falls at home. Additionally, his daughter has noticed that he has become more forgetful and less engaged in his usual hobbies. When asked about his symptoms, the patient expresses concern about recent urinary incontinence, which he finds embarrassing.

      As part of the diagnostic workup for this patient, a CT scan of the head is ordered. What is the most probable finding?

      Your Answer: Enlarged third and lateral ventricles, disproportionate to the enlargement of the cortical sulci

      Explanation:

      Neuroimaging findings for normal pressure hydrocephalus typically show ventriculomegaly that is not accompanied by significant sulcal enlargement. It may be tempting to attribute the patient’s deterioration to cerebrovascular disease due to their history of atrial fibrillation, but the presence of ataxia prior to falls suggests another cause. The patient’s symptoms of ataxia, dementia, and urinary incontinence are classic signs of normal pressure hydrocephalus, and a CT scan would likely confirm ventricular enlargement disproportionate to sulcal enlargement.

      Understanding Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of dementia that is reversible and commonly seen in elderly patients. It is believed to be caused by a reduction in the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at the arachnoid villi, which may be due to head injury, subarachnoid hemorrhage, or meningitis. The condition is characterized by a classical triad of symptoms, including urinary incontinence, dementia and bradyphrenia, and gait abnormality that may resemble Parkinson’s disease. These symptoms usually develop over a few months, and around 60% of patients will have all three features at the time of diagnosis.

      Imaging studies typically show hydrocephalus with ventriculomegaly, which is an enlargement of the ventricles in the brain, in the absence of or out of proportion to sulcal enlargement. The management of normal pressure hydrocephalus involves ventriculoperitoneal shunting, which can help alleviate symptoms. However, around 10% of patients who undergo shunting may experience significant complications such as seizures, infection, and intracerebral hemorrhages. Therefore, careful consideration and monitoring are necessary when deciding on treatment options for patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 72-year-old male with metastatic breast cancer presents with back pain. Upon further...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male with metastatic breast cancer presents with back pain. Upon further questioning, he reports experiencing pins and needles in his legs. The nursing staff reports that he has developed urinary incontinence over the past 12 hours.

      What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: High dose steroids should only be commenced when the diagnosis is confirmed by MRI scan

      Correct Answer: Pre-treatment ambulatory function is the best determinant of post treatment gait function

      Explanation:

      Spinal Cord Compression – An Oncological Emergency

      Spinal cord compression is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. The earlier the diagnosis is made, the better the chances of successful treatment. In fact, 80% of patients who have good ambulatory function at presentation can maintain their mobility.

      The definitive investigation for spinal cord compression is an MRI of the vertebral column to check for vertebral collapse or other vertebral disease. If there is clinical suspicion of spinal cord compression, steroids should be started immediately. This is because diagnosis may be delayed, and steroid treatment can help minimize permanent damage.

      Urgent radiotherapy is the main treatment for spinal cord compression. However, it is important to seek neurosurgical opinion to ensure that surgical decompression is not necessary. If the diagnosis is made early, treatment is effective in 90% of patients.

      In summary, spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. An MRI of the vertebral column should be done to confirm the diagnosis, and steroids should be started immediately. Urgent radiotherapy is the main treatment, but neurosurgical opinion should be sought to rule out the need for surgical decompression. Early diagnosis and treatment can lead to a successful outcome in the majority of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      44.4
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  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after a fall. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after a fall. He was discovered on the floor by his caregiver after attempting to go to the kitchen. This is his third visit to the Emergency Department in the past 4 months. He has a medical history of hypertension, managed with Ramipril and Indapamide, and Type 2 diabetes treated with Metformin. On examination, his blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg with no postural drop, and his pulse is regular at 75/min. He displays bradykinesia and bilateral increased tone, more pronounced on the right side. A resting tremor is also present. When asked to walk, he is slow to start and unable to cross the threshold of the clinic room door. His mini-mental state examination score is 25/30.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic Parkinson's disease

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Parkinson’s Disease: A Case Study

      A middle-aged man presents with bradykinesia, increased tone, and a resting tremor. His MMSE score is 25/30, indicating mild cognitive impairment. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is idiopathic Parkinson’s disease. Other Parkinson’s plus syndromes, such as multi-system atrophy or progressive supranuclear palsy, can be ruled out due to the absence of associated signs and symptoms. Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia are also unlikely given the presence of Parkinsonism. Overall, this case highlights the importance of recognizing the specific symptoms and signs associated with Parkinson’s disease in order to make an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      27.8
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  • Question 5 - A 63-year-old man is experiencing difficulty walking. He has a medical history of...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man is experiencing difficulty walking. He has a medical history of diabetes mellitus and cervical spondylosis, for which he underwent surgical decompression eight years ago. Additionally, he consumes 40 units of alcohol per week.

      During examination, the patient exhibited fasciculation, wasting, and weakness in the left deltoid and biceps, as well as weakness in the shoulder girdle muscles on both sides. There was also fasciculation in the glutei and quadriceps bilaterally, weakness in hip flexion and foot dorsiflexion, brisk reflexes in the upper and lower limbs, and extensor plantar responses. No sensory impairment was detected.

      What is the likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Motor neurone disease

      Explanation:

      Motor Neurone Disease and Differential Diagnosis

      There are indications of both lower and upper motor neurone involvement in the presence of normal sensation, such as wasting, fasciculations, brisk reflexes, and extensor plantar response. The most common cause of this presentation is motor neurone disease. However, alcoholic myopathy and diabetic amyotrophy do not exhibit upper motor neurone signs. On the other hand, syringomyelia presents with sensory symptoms and signs related to the spinothalamic tract. In cases of cervical cord compression, sensory involvement is expected.

      In summary, the presence of both lower and upper motor neurone signs with normal sensation suggests motor neurone disease as the most likely diagnosis. However, other conditions such as alcoholic myopathy, diabetic amyotrophy, syringomyelia, and cervical cord compression should also be considered in the differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.8
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  • Question 6 - A 57-year-old man is brought to the emergency department of a major stroke...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man is brought to the emergency department of a major stroke unit by his wife. She reports that for the last 2 hours, her husband has been struggling to move his right side and speak. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolemia, for which he takes metformin and atorvastatin respectively. He also recently had a provoked lower limb deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and was started on apixaban. He used to smoke but has quit and drinks occasionally.

      Upon examination, the patient has a dense right hemiparesis with expressive dysphasia. He scores 22 on the National Institute of Health Stroke Score (NIHSS).

      After a rapid assessment, a CT brain and CT intracranial angiogram are performed, revealing a proximal occlusion within the M2 segment of the middle cerebral artery with no major new ischaemic changes. An MRI head with MR angiography confirms these findings.

      What would be the most appropriate intervention for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Thrombectomy within 6 hours

      Explanation:

      The recommended time frame for performing thrombectomy in cases of acute ischaemic stroke is within 6 hours. This patient fulfills the criteria for mechanical thrombectomy, which can be carried out within 6 hours of the onset of symptoms. If this is not possible, thrombectomy may be considered for patients with sufficient salvageable brain tissue identified on imaging up to 24 hours after symptom onset, although this is evaluated on a case-by-case basis. As the patient is anticoagulated, thrombolysis is not a suitable option. Imaging shows a proximal occlusion, and there are no new significant ischaemic changes. The patient’s NIHSS score is greater than 5, and they were independent before the onset of symptoms.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.

      Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.

      Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.7
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  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old woman presents to a neurologist with worsening morning headaches that are...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to a neurologist with worsening morning headaches that are throbbing and accompanied by nausea. She reports that the headaches are positional and worsen when lying down. Additionally, she has noticed a decline in her sense of smell and has difficulty seeing out of her right eye. She denies pain or diplopia but has been experiencing left-sided clumsiness. She has a medical history significant for hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and ischemic heart disease and takes aspirin, ramipril, and simvastatin. She smokes 10 cigarettes per day and drinks four units of alcohol per week. On examination, she has bilateral non-tender pulsatile temporal arteries and a sluggish direct pupillary reflex on the right with a relative afferent pupillary defect. Fundoscopy reveals right optic atrophy and mild swelling of the left optic disc with peripapillary hemorrhages. Visual field testing shows a central scotoma on the right and restriction of visual fields on the left. The rest of the cranial nerves are normal, and examination of the peripheral nervous system is unremarkable. Laboratory investigations are within normal limits except for a slightly elevated white cell count and a low ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Subfrontal meningioma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Morning Headaches and Visual Changes

      This patient is experiencing gradually worsening morning headaches, nausea, and loss of smell. She has also noticed a painless reduction in visual acuity in her right eye and a constriction of her visual field on the left. Upon examination, the patient has right-sided optic atrophy with a pupillary defect and left optic disc swelling. These findings are consistent with Foster Kennedy syndrome, which is often caused by a frontal tumor or a tumor within the olfactory bulb that compresses the ipsilateral optic nerve and causes raised intracranial pressure.

      Other potential diagnoses include idiopathic intracranial hypertension, which typically presents in young females with positional headaches, buzzing in the ears, and enlargement of the blind spot, but no changes in visual acuity or sense of smell. Cavernous sinus thrombosis, on the other hand, presents as sudden onset unilateral multiple ocular palsies with sensory loss in the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve. An anterior ischemic optic neuropathy caused by atherosclerosis or temporal arteritis would cause acute monocular visual loss associated with a headache. Finally, a retrobulbar neuritis, as found in multiple sclerosis, would cause a painful monocular visual loss, but this is unlikely in this age category and with the absence of additional neurological findings.

      In summary, this patient’s symptoms and examination findings suggest Foster Kennedy syndrome, but other potential diagnoses should also be considered and ruled out through further evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old male presents with a 5-day history of increasing shortness of breath,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents with a 5-day history of increasing shortness of breath, exertional dyspnoea and bilateral ankle swelling. He has no previous past medical history and was previously a keen sportsman.

      On examination, his heart sounds I + II are present with a pansystolic murmur and a displaced apex. Auscultation of his chest demonstrates bibasal crackles. His ECG demonstrates a PR interval of 190 ms but sinus rhythm.

      Further neurological examination demonstrates bilateral partial ptosis noted associated with bilateral foot drop. You also note slow release of finger flexion.

      What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting signs of heart failure in the context of systemic disease, which includes structural heart disease, conductive heart block, bilateral ptosis, bilateral foot drop, and slow finger flexion release that suggests myotonia. It is currently impossible to differentiate between DM1 and DM2 myotonic dystrophy, with the latter being less severe than the former. A definitive diagnosis can be made through genetic testing for an expanded CTG repeat in the DMPK gene. Normally, 5-34 CTG repeats are present, but having more than 50 alleles strongly indicates disease manifestation.

      Understanding Myotonic Dystrophy: Types, Genetics, and Features

      Myotonic dystrophy, also known as dystrophia myotonica, is a hereditary muscle disorder that typically manifests in individuals aged 20-30 years old. It affects skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscles, and there are two main types: DM1 and DM2. The disorder is caused by a trinucleotide repeat disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. DM1 is caused by a CTG repeat at the end of the DMPK gene on chromosome 19, while DM2 is caused by a repeat expansion of the ZNF9 gene on chromosome 3.

      DM1 and DM2 have distinct differences in their genetic origins and clinical features. DM1 is associated with distal weakness, while DM2 is characterized by proximal weakness. Additionally, DM1 is linked to the DMPK gene on chromosome 19, while DM2 is associated with the ZNF9 gene on chromosome 3. It is important to note that severe congenital forms of myotonic dystrophy are not seen in DM2.

      The general features of myotonic dystrophy include myotonic facies, frontal balding, bilateral ptosis, cataracts, and dysarthria. Other symptoms may include myotonia, weakness of the arms and legs (initially distal), mild mental impairment, diabetes mellitus, testicular atrophy, cardiac involvement such as heart block and cardiomyopathy, and dysphagia.

      In summary, understanding the types, genetics, and features of myotonic dystrophy is crucial in diagnosing and managing this hereditary muscle disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      38.7
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year old male presents with a five-day history of tingling in his...

    Correct

    • A 65-year old male presents with a five-day history of tingling in his fingers and toes. He has also experienced progressive weakness in his upper and lower limbs over the last two days, and is now unable to walk without assistance. Upon examination, he has a tetraparesis, areflexia, and a flexor plantar response. The CSF examination reveals no red or white cells, a CSF glucose level of 3.6 mmol/L (3.3-4.4), a plasma glucose level of 5.2 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and a CSF protein level of 1.3 g/L (0.15-0.45). What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Administration of IV immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Guillain-Barré Syndrome

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a rare autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nervous system. The most effective treatment options for this condition are intravenous immunoglobulins and plasma exchange. Both treatments involve the use of antibodies to help the body fight off the disease.

      Intravenous immunoglobulins are given in high doses over a period of five days. This treatment helps to boost the immune system and reduce inflammation in the body. Plasma exchange involves removing the patient’s blood and replacing it with a plasma substitute. This process helps to remove harmful antibodies from the body and replace them with healthy ones.

      Both treatments have been shown to improve the long-term prognosis for patients with Guillain-Barré Syndrome. They have similar efficacy rates and are often used in combination to achieve the best results. With proper treatment and care, many patients with this condition are able to make a full recovery and regain their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.6
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  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old woman presents with a gradual onset of severe frontal headache and...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with a gradual onset of severe frontal headache and double vision over the past 24 hours. Apart from this, her medical history is unremarkable. During the examination, it is observed that her right eye has partial ptosis, and the pupil is resting outwards and downwards with a sluggishly reacting dilated pupil. Additionally, there is a failure of intorsion of the right eye. The patient's neurological and physical examination is otherwise normal, and routine blood tests and plain CT head are also normal. What is the most crucial investigation that needs to be conducted next?

      Your Answer: CT angiogram cerebral vessels.

      Explanation:

      A third nerve palsy with accompanying pain is a medical emergency that typically requires attention from a neurosurgeon. This condition may indicate an expanding aneurysm in the posterior communicating artery and requires urgent diagnosis through a CT angiogram of the cerebral vessels. If left untreated, there is a risk of death from rupture or permanent eye movement deficits and ptosis.

      It is crucial to differentiate between surgical causes of third nerve palsy, such as a tumor or aneurysm, and medical causes like diabetes or vasculitis. Surgical causes require immediate attention, while medical causes are typically chronic conditions that require ongoing medical management. The parasympathetic fibers of the nerve are located on the periphery, while the sympathetic fibers are in the center. A fixed dilated or sluggish pupil indicates that the parasympathetic fibers have been affected, while a constricted pupil indicates that the sympathetic portion of the nerve has been impacted.

      The trochlear nerve is located adjacent to the oculomotor nerve, and a large structural cause may affect both nerves. The trochlear nerve is responsible for intorsion of the eye, so it is important to test for a fourth nerve palsy by asking the patient to follow a finger in a half-circle motion from out to in. If the eye fails to follow, this indicates a failure of intorsion.

      Understanding Third Nerve Palsy: Causes and Features

      Third nerve palsy is a neurological condition that affects the third cranial nerve, which controls the movement of the eye and eyelid. The condition is characterized by the eye being deviated ‘down and out’, ptosis, and a dilated pupil. In some cases, it may be referred to as a ‘surgical’ third nerve palsy due to the dilation of the pupil.

      There are several possible causes of third nerve palsy, including diabetes mellitus, vasculitis (such as temporal arteritis or SLE), uncal herniation through tentorium if raised ICP, posterior communicating artery aneurysm, and cavernous sinus thrombosis. In some cases, it may also be a false localizing sign. Weber’s syndrome, which is characterized by an ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia, is caused by midbrain strokes. Other possible causes include amyloid and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      37.5
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