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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He reports feeling well and having recently undergone foot and optometrist checks. He enjoys drinking alcohol on the weekends, limiting himself to 4-5 standard drinks each Saturday. His HbA1c remains stable at 48 mmol/L while taking metformin. However, his liver function tests reveal the following results:
Bilirubin: 18 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP: 95 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT: 157 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT: 40 u/L (8 - 60)
AST: 74 u/L (3 - 40)
Albumin: 37 g/L (35 - 50)
What is the most likely cause of these findings?Your Answer: Alcoholic fatty liver disease
Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Explanation:Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is the most common cause of abnormal liver function tests (LFT) in patients with type 2 diabetes. This condition is prevalent in developed countries and should be assessed through a reassessment of the patient’s LFTs and an ultrasound if necessary. The patient’s weekend drinking habits are not significant enough to suggest alcoholic liver disease as the cause of the LFT derangement. Drug-induced liver injuries (DILI) are not predictable and can present with various LFT changes, including cholestatic and mixed patterns. Gallstone disease is more common in overweight fertile females and presents with a cholestatic pattern of LFT derangement. Viral hepatitis is a possible cause but not the most likely answer in this case. A liver screen may be necessary if the LFT derangement persists without explanation from an ultrasound.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the universally recognized 25-hydroxyvitamin D blood level threshold that indicates vitamin D deficiency in adult patients, given a result of 37 nmol/L?
Your Answer: < 25 nmol/L
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Understanding Vitamin D Levels
Vitamin D is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health and overall well-being. A plasma concentration of 10 nmol/L is considered very low, and even levels higher than this may indicate a deficiency. The consensus is that levels below 25 nmol/L are deficient, but there is no standard definition of optimal levels. In the MRCGP exam, you will be tested on consensus opinion.
Levels of 75 and 100 nmol/L are incorrect as they are higher than the currently defined threshold for deficiency. According to NICE CKS, a diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency is made if serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25[OH]D) levels are less than 25 nmol/L. Further investigations may be necessary to aid the diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency and to exclude differential diagnoses.
Serum 25(OH)D levels in the range of 25-50 nmol/L may be inadequate for some people, while levels greater than 50 nmol/L are sufficient for most people. It is important to maintain adequate levels of vitamin D through a balanced diet and exposure to sunlight, as deficiency can lead to various health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Samantha, aged 55, presents with sudden onset dizziness described as 'the room spinning' which started three days ago. She has been unable to leave her home due to constant dizziness and nausea that accompanies it. She reports that movement seems to worsen her symptoms and denies any changes to her hearing. Apart from a recent cold, she has had no other health problems in recent years and has no past medical history except for a hysterectomy ten years ago.
After conducting a Dix-Hallpike test and examining her ear canals, which both proved normal, you diagnose her with vestibular neuronitis. She asks if there is anything she can take to alleviate her symptoms.
What advice would you give her?Your Answer: One week trial of prochlorperazine and to continue if beneficial
Correct Answer: One week trial of prochlorperazine
Explanation:Patients with peripheral vertigo may experience distressing symptoms, such as those caused by vestibular neuronitis and labyrinthitis. To alleviate these symptoms in the short term, a sedating antihistamine like prochlorperazine can be prescribed for up to one week. However, longer courses of treatment may delay vestibular compensation and hinder recovery.
Haloperidol, which has a low affinity for histamine receptors, may not be effective in treating vertigo and could cause unwanted side effects. Cetirizine, a non-sedating antihistamine, would not address the nausea or vertigo symptoms. Betahistine, a histamine analogue, is only licensed for treating vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss associated with Meniere’s disease. While it may be considered for persistent symptoms, it is an unlicensed use and not recommended by NICE guidance.
Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss the uptitration of his medication as advised by cardiology. He suffered an anterior myocardial infarction (MI) four weeks ago. His history reveals that he is a smoker (20 per day for 30 years) and works in a sedentary office job, where he often works long days and eats ready meals to save time with food preparation.
On examination, his heart rate is 62 bpm and his blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, body mass index (BMI) is 31. His bisoprolol is increased to 5 mg and ramipril to 7.5 mg.
Which of the following is the single non-pharmacological intervention that will be most helpful in reducing his risk of a future ischaemic event?
Your Answer: Weight reduction
Correct Answer: Stopping smoking
Explanation:Reducing Cardiovascular Risk: Lifestyle Changes to Consider
Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is a leading cause of death worldwide, but many of the risk factors are modifiable through lifestyle changes. The three most important modifiable and causal risk factors are smoking, hypertension, and abnormal lipids. While hypertension and abnormal lipids may require medication to make significant changes, smoking cessation is the single most important non-pharmacological, modifiable risk factor in reducing cardiovascular risk.
In addition to quitting smoking, there are other lifestyle changes that can help reduce cardiovascular risk. A cardioprotective diet should limit total fat intake to 30% or less of total energy intake, with saturated fat intake below 7%. Low-carbohydrate dietary intake is also thought to be important in cardiovascular disease prevention.
Regular exercise is also important, with 150 minutes or more per week of moderate-intensity aerobic activity and muscle-strengthening activities on at least two days a week recommended. While exercise is beneficial, stopping smoking remains the most effective lifestyle change for reducing cardiovascular risk.
Salt restriction can also help reduce risk, with a recommended intake of less than 6 g per day. Patients should be advised to avoid adding salt to their meals and minimize processed foods.
Finally, weight reduction should be advised to decrease future cardiovascular risk, with a goal of achieving a normal BMI. Obese patients should also be assessed for sleep apnea. By making these lifestyle changes, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 42-year-old man has suddenly developed a fever and is experiencing frequent urination, painful urination, and discomfort in the pelvic area. Upon examination, his prostate is tender. A dipstick test of his urine shows the presence of white blood cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute bacterial prostatitis
Explanation:Understanding Prostatitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Prostatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland. There are different types of prostatitis, including acute bacterial prostatitis, chronic bacterial prostatitis, non-bacterial prostatitis, and asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis. In this article, we will focus on the symptoms and differential diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis.
Symptoms of Acute Bacterial Prostatitis
Acute bacterial prostatitis is characterized by a sudden onset of feverish illness, irritative urinary voiding symptoms (dysuria, frequency, urgency), perineal or suprapubic pain, and a very tender prostate on rectal examination. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also common. It is important to note that prostatic massage should not be done as it could lead to complications.Differential Diagnosis
It is important to differentiate acute bacterial prostatitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Chronic bacterial prostatitis is more common but symptoms must last for more than three months before this diagnosis can be made. Benign prostatic hyperplasia typically presents with progressive obstructive symptoms, while cystitis doesn’t involve tenderness of the prostate on examination. Non-bacterial prostatitis is associated with chronic pain around the prostate.Conclusion
Acute bacterial prostatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. It is important to consider the differential diagnosis and rule out other conditions with similar symptoms. If you suspect acute bacterial prostatitis, seek medical attention immediately. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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A father brings in his 4-year-old son who has had a fever for 2 days, vomited once, and the father reports foul-smelling urine. The boy is happily playing with toys in your office.
A recent urine sample reveals: negative leukocytes, positive nitrites, negative protein, and negative blood.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Start antibiotics and send a sample for culture
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, dipstick testing for leukocyte esterase and nitrite is just as effective as microscopy and culture for diagnosing UTIs in children over the age of 3. If both leukocytes and nitrites are positive, the child should be treated for a UTI with antibiotics. If the child has a high or intermediate risk of serious illness or has had a UTI in the past, a urine sample should be sent for culture. If nitrites are positive but leukocytes are negative, antibiotics should be started and a urine sample should be sent for culture. If leukocytes are positive but nitrites are negative, a urine sample should be sent for microscopy and culture. It is important to only prescribe antibiotics if there is clear clinical evidence of a UTI, such as dysuria. If the dipstick is negative, another cause for the symptoms should be investigated and urine should not be sent for culture.
Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.
According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.
Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A surgery hires a Nurse Practitioner (NP) to care for a nearby nursing home. The GPs only visit when requested by the NPs. An 87-year-old woman with dementia contracts a chest infection. Following discussions with her family, the NP decides to treat her with oral antibiotics but not to admit her. She passes away two days later, and a GP from the local out-of-hours service confirms her death. The woman's last GP visit was five weeks ago. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer: Out-of-hours GP completes a death certificate, 1a 'Bronchopneumonia'
Correct Answer: Report the death to the Coroner
Explanation:As the patient was not examined by a physician during the final 28 days of their illness, it is necessary to report their death.
Death Certification in the UK
There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.
When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.
Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 8
Incorrect
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John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint of a severely itchy rash on his wrist that appeared suddenly a few weeks ago. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
Upon examination of the flexor aspect of John's left wrist, you observe multiple 3-5 mm shiny flat-topped papules that are violet in color. Upon closer inspection, you notice white streaks on the surface of the papules. There are no other affected skin areas, and no oromucosal changes are present.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: A mild topical steroid such as hydrocortisone 1%
Correct Answer: A potent topical steroid such as betamethasone valerate 0.1%
Explanation:Lichen planus is typically treated with potent topical steroids as a first-line treatment, especially for managing the itching caused by the rash. While this condition can occur at any age, it is more common in middle-aged individuals. Mild topical steroids are not as effective as potent ones in treating the rash. Referral to a dermatologist and skin biopsy may be necessary if there is diagnostic uncertainty, but in this case, it is not required. Severe or widespread lichen planus may require oral steroids, and if there is little improvement, narrow band UVB therapy may be considered as a second-line treatment.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A father brings his 3-month-old daughter into the clinic for her first round of vaccinations. He expresses concerns about the safety of the rotavirus vaccine. Can you provide him with information about this vaccine?
Your Answer: It is an injected inactivated toxin
Correct Answer: It is an oral, live attenuated vaccine
Explanation:The vaccine for rotavirus is administered orally and is live attenuated. It is given to infants at two and three months of age, along with other oral vaccines like polio and typhoid. Two doses are necessary, and it is not typically given to children at three years of age. This vaccine is not injected and is not an inactivated toxin vaccine, which includes vaccines for tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis.
The Rotavirus Vaccine: A Vital Tool in Preventing Childhood Mortality
Rotavirus is a significant public health concern, causing high rates of morbidity and hospitalization in developed countries and childhood mortality in developing nations. To combat this, a vaccine was introduced into the NHS immunization program in 2013. The vaccine is an oral, live attenuated vaccine that requires two doses, the first at two months and the second at three months. It is important to note that the first dose should not be given after 14 weeks and six days, and the second dose cannot be given after 23 weeks and six days due to the theoretical risk of intussusception.
The vaccine is highly effective, with an estimated efficacy rate of 85-90%, and is predicted to reduce hospitalization rates by 70%. Additionally, the vaccine provides long-term protection against rotavirus. The introduction of the rotavirus vaccine is a vital tool in preventing childhood mortality and reducing the burden of rotavirus-related illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with a red eye. He complains of a one day history of a painful 'ache' in his right eye and that his vision has become blurry.
He is systemically well and has no significant ocular past medical history. His last optician check was eight months ago and he tells you that he was advised his vision was good and there were no issues.
On examination he has an obvious red right eye. Visual acuity is 6/6 in the left eye and 6/60 in the right eye. The right eye is markedly photophobic and watery.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer: Prescribe an oral antihistamine and sodium cromoglycate drops
Correct Answer: Refer immediately to eye casualty
Explanation:Acute Uveitis: A Medical Emergency
The main issue at hand is the presence of an acute red eye with a significant reduction in visual acuity. Regardless of any other symptoms or diagnosis, this requires immediate referral for assessment in eye casualty. Acute uveitis is a possible diagnosis in this scenario, with patients over 20 years of age being affected in 90% of cases, with a mean age of onset at 40 years.
It is important to note that the major histocompatibility complex antigen HLA-B27 is positive in approximately 50% of all patients with uveitis, and should be considered in cases where there are co-existing conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, and reactive arthritis.
According to the College of Optometrists, onset of acute uveitis is usually sudden at the first episode and gradual at subsequent episodes. It is typically unilateral, and if bilateral, it is more likely to be associated with systemic disease and more likely to become chronic. The main symptoms include pain (dull/ache), exacerbated on induced pupillary constriction (direct, near, or consensual), photophobia, redness, decreased vision, and lacrimation. It is important to note that if the condition is recurrent, the eye may be asymptomatic and white despite the presence of inflammation.
In summary, acute uveitis is a medical emergency that requires immediate referral for assessment in eye casualty. It is important to consider co-existing conditions and to be aware of the main symptoms associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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