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Question 1
Incorrect
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A woman in her mid-thirties who works as a full-time employee at the municipal office is experiencing symptoms of headache, dizziness, fatigue, and fever.
Your Answer: Sick role
Correct Answer: Illness
Explanation:Pilowsky introduced the term ‘abnormal illness behaviour’ to describe excessive of inadequate responses to symptoms, including hypochondriasis, somatisation, and denial of illness, which are all considered unhealthy conditions. On the other hand, healthy behaviour refers to actions taken by individuals to maintain, attain, of regain good health and prevent illness, which are influenced by their health beliefs. Illness behaviour, on the other hand, refers to how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to their own health status when they are sick. The sick role is a term used to describe the expectations and responsibilities society assigns to individuals who are ill, including being excused from responsibilities and seeking help to recover. However, in the scenario above, the behaviour relating to illness is not described.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 2
Correct
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What is a true statement about the genetic aspect of Huntington's disease?
Your Answer: The CAG length is more unstable when inherited from the father
Explanation:Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.
The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.
The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.
The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.
Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.
In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the main reason for the absence of staff uniforms in therapeutic communities?
Your Answer: Democratisation
Correct Answer: Communalism
Explanation:Principles of Therapeutic Communities
Therapeutic communities are based on four main principles that guide their operations. The first principle is communalism, which emphasizes that staff and service users should not be separated by uniforms of behaviours. This means that everyone in the community is treated equally and with respect. The second principle is democratisation, which involves shared decision-making and unit management. This means that everyone in the community has a say in how things are run and decisions are made collectively. The third principle is permissiveness, which involves accepting and tolerating occasional unpredictable behaviour. This means that members of the community are encouraged to be themselves and express their emotions freely. The fourth principle is reality confrontation, which involves group members challenging self-deception among others. This means that members of the community are encouraged to be honest with themselves and others.
Group cohesion is another important aspect of therapeutic communities. It refers to the sense of belonging and acceptance that members of the community feel. This sense of belonging is fostered by the shared goal that the community is working towards. Members of the community understand that they are all in this together and that they need to support each other to achieve their goals. The sense of belonging and acceptance that comes with group cohesion is essential for the success of therapeutic communities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 4
Correct
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What is a characteristic of typical grief?
Your Answer: Anger towards the deceased
Explanation:Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases
Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.
It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.
Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which antidepressant is most commonly linked to neutropenia?
Your Answer: Reboxetine
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Sertraline use has been linked to the development of leucopenia. Patients are advised to report any signs of infection, such as fever, sore throat, of stomatitis, during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following rating scales would be most suitable for evaluating the effectiveness of a new antipsychotic medication in reducing delusional beliefs among individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia?
Your Answer: CGI
Correct Answer: PANSS- Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale
Explanation:The PANSS is commonly utilized in clinical trials to assess positive and negative symptoms as well as general psychopathology (30 items in total). To measure extrapyramidal side effects, the Simpson Angus Scale, Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS), and Barnes Akathisia Scale are frequently employed. While the Clinical Global Impression (CGI) scale provides a general score of 1 to 5 for a patient’s overall presentation, it may not be as useful for evaluating a specific positive symptom of schizophrenia as the question suggests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Description And Measurement
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Your Answer: Substituted benzamide - Clozapine
Correct Answer: Butyrophenone - Haloperidol
Explanation:Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not an example of delusional misidentification?
Your Answer: Subjective doubles
Correct Answer: Cotard's syndrome
Explanation:Cotard’s syndrome is a condition where an individual has a false belief that they are deceased of do not exist.
Delusional Misidentification Syndrome
Delusional misidentification syndrome refers to a group of disorders where individuals believe that the identity of a person, object, of place has been altered of changed. There are several subtypes of this syndrome, including Capgras syndrome, Fregoli syndrome, intermetamorphosis, subjective doubles, reduplicative paramnesia, mirrored self, delusional companions, and clonal pluralisation of the self. Each subtype is characterised by a specific delusion, such as believing that a loved one has been replaced by an exact double of that a place has been duplicated. These delusions can have a significant impact on an individual’s daily life and require appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 35-year-old woman visiting her psychiatrist in the outpatient clinic. She has had bipolar disorder for fifteen years. It has been well controlled over the last five years since she was started on a mood stabilizer, lithium. She has been able to maintain a stable job and has a supportive partner.
However, her psychiatrist who has known Samantha for eight years, has noticed her increasingly making facial grimaces and lip smacking during outpatient reviews over the last year. She also keeps fidgeting with her hair and clothes in an odd manner. This behavior has become progressively more noticeable.
When asked about it, Samantha says she cannot control what she does. She denies experiencing any manic or depressive episodes of hearing voices.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Akathisia
Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:The patient’s long-term use of a first-generation depot antipsychotic and the involuntary symptoms presented suggest a diagnosis of tardive dyskinesia. Acute anxiety is unlikely as the patient has a long standing relationship with their psychiatrist and the symptom combination does not fit. Akathisia, characterized by restlessness and leg movement, is also an unlikely diagnosis. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) can be ruled out as the patient has had symptoms for two years. The patient is compliant with medication, has no psychotic symptoms, and is well-functioning in their job and home life, making a relapse of schizophrenia an incorrect diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which terms are most commonly associated with Goffman?
Your Answer: Archetype
Correct Answer: Total Institutions
Explanation:D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.
Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.
Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.
Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.
Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.
Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.
Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.
Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 11
Correct
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What guidance is provided for doctors treating individuals on hunger strike?
Your Answer: Declaration of Malta
Explanation:Declarations
The World Medical Association has established global ethical standards through various declarations. These include:
Declaration of Geneva: This declaration was created as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath after the atrocities committed in Nazi Germany.
Declaration of Helsinki: This statement outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.
Declaration of Tokyo: This declaration states that doctors should not participate in, condone, of allow torture, degradation, of cruel treatment of prisoners of detainees.
Declaration of Malta: This declaration provides guidance to doctors treating individuals on hunger strike.
Declaration of Lisbon: This international statement outlines the rights of patients.
Declaration of Ottawa: This declaration sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health.
Each of these declarations serves as a guide for medical professionals to uphold ethical standards in their practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Who was the first theorist to describe imprinting?
Your Answer: Lorenz
Correct Answer: Spalding
Explanation:The idea of filial imprinting was initially observed in domestic chickens by Douglas Spalding in the 1800s, and later discussed by Heinroth before being made well-known by Lorenz. Additionally, Immelmann discussed sexual imprinting, while Westermarck introduced the concept of reverse sexual imprinting, which suggests that individuals who spend their early years in close proximity are less likely to be sexually attracted to each other later in life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 13
Correct
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How can we differentiate between an organic and functional illness, and what signs of symptoms are more indicative of an organic illness?
Your Answer: Perseveration
Explanation:Organic processes are indicated by the presence of visual hallucinations.
Perseveration: The Clinical Symptoms in Chronic Schizophrenia and Organic Dementia
Perseveration is a common behavior observed in patients with organic brain involvement. It is characterized by the conscious continuation of an act of an idea. This behavior is frequently seen in patients with delirium, epilepsy, dementia, schizophrenia, and normal individuals under extreme fatigue of drug-induced states.
In chronic schizophrenia and organic dementia, perseveration is a prominent symptom. Patients with these conditions tend to repeat the same words, phrases, of actions over and over again, even when it is no longer appropriate of relevant to the situation. This behavior can be frustrating for caregivers and family members, and it can also interfere with the patient’s ability to communicate effectively.
In schizophrenia, perseveration is often associated with disorganized thinking and speech. Patients may jump from one topic to another without any logical connection, and they may repeat the same words of phrases in an attempt to express their thoughts. In organic dementia, perseveration is a sign of cognitive decline and memory impairment. Patients may repeat the same stories of questions, forgetting that they have already asked of answered them.
Overall, perseveration is a common symptom in patients with organic brain involvement, and it can have a significant impact on their daily functioning and quality of life. Understanding this behavior is essential for effective management and treatment of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 14
Correct
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What waveform represents a frequency range of 12-30Hz?
Your Answer: Beta
Explanation:Electroencephalography
Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.
Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.
Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.
Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.
Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.
Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are asked to speak to a minor about ECT.
Which of the following is not a requirement for a minor to be deemed to have the capacity to consent to ECT?Your Answer: Weigh up the risks and benefits of having the ECT
Correct Answer: Sign a consent form
Explanation:In order for a patient to give consent, they must be able to communicate their decision. It is important to note that a patient’s ability to sign a form does not necessarily determine their mental capacity to consent to a treatment. It is assumed that a patient has capacity unless proven otherwise, and efforts should be made to enhance their capacity (such as considering different communication methods of involving family members of interpreters). A patient is considered to lack capacity for a specific decision if they are unable to understand, retain, weigh up, of communicate information related to that decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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Question 16
Correct
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A 45-year-old male with a prolonged history of generalized anxiety disorder has not shown improvement with standard antidepressants. The specialist suggests trying pregabalin. What is the mechanism of action of pregabalin?
Your Answer: Alpha 2 delta voltage-sensitive calcium channel
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Different Antiepileptic Drugs
Pregabalin, Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Lamotrigine, Riluzole, and Valproate are all antiepileptic drugs that work through different mechanisms of action. Pregabalin specifically binds to the alpha 2 delta site of voltage-sensitive calcium channels, which prevents the release of neurotransmitters such as glutamate, thereby reducing pain and anxiety.
Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Lamotrigine, and Riluzole, on the other hand, act on the alpha unit of voltage-sensitive sodium channels. Valproate, Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Lamotrigine, and Riluzole all act on nonspecific voltage-sensitive sodium channels. Topiramate, Valproate, Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Lamotrigine, and Riluzole act on nonspecific voltage-sensitive calcium channels.
Finally, calcium itself acts on L-channel voltage-sensitive calcium channels. These different mechanisms of action allow for a variety of treatment options for epilepsy and other neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is a known factor that can cause a cleft lip when used during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Lithium
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:By week 12 of embryonic development, the lip and palate region is usually completely developed. Cleft lip and palate are primarily caused by the use of anticonvulsants, benzodiazepines, and steroids as medications.
Teratogens and Their Associated Defects
Valproic acid is a teratogen that has been linked to various birth defects, including neural tube defects, hypospadias, cleft lip/palate, cardiovascular abnormalities, developmental delay, endocrinological disorders, limb defects, and autism (Alsdorf, 2005). Lithium has been associated with cardiac anomalies, specifically Ebstein’s anomaly. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to cleft lip/palate and fetal alcohol syndrome. Phenytoin has been linked to fingernail hypoplasia, craniofacial defects, limb defects, cerebrovascular defects, and mental retardation. Similarly, carbamazepine has been associated with fingernail hypoplasia and craniofacial defects. Diazepam has been linked to craniofacial defects, specifically cleft lip/palate (Palmieri, 2008). The evidence for steroids causing craniofacial defects is not convincing, according to the British National Formulary (BNF). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have been associated with congenital heart defects and persistent pulmonary hypertension (BNF). It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these teratogens to reduce the risk of birth defects in their babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which drug does not belong to the category of NMDA antagonists?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Rivastigmine
Explanation:Rivastigmine inhibits cholinesterase in a reversible manner.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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What is a true statement about the medications utilized for opioid dependence?
Your Answer: Buprenorphine is a partial agonist at the mu receptor
Explanation:Opioid Pharmacology and Treatment Medications
Opioids work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, specifically the µ, k, and δ receptors. The µ receptor is the main target for opioids and mediates euphoria, respiratory depression, and dependence. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, leading to the reward and euphoria that drives repeated use. However, with repeated exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, leading to dysphoria and drug craving.
There are several medications used in opioid treatment. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, with some action against k and δ receptors, and has a half-life of 15-22 hours. However, it carries a risk of respiratory depression, especially when used with hypnotics and alcohol. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors, as well as a partial k agonist of functional antagonist and a weak δ antagonist. It has a high affinity for µ receptors and a longer half-life of 24-42 hours, making it safer than methadone. Naloxone is an antagonist targeting all opioid receptors and is used to reverse opioid overdose, with a half-life of 30-120 minutes. However, it can cause noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in some cases. Naltrexone is a reversible competitive antagonist at µ and ĸ receptors, with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and is used as an adjunctive prophylactic treatment for detoxified formerly opioid-dependent people.
Alpha2 adrenergic agonists, such as clonidine and lofexidine, can ameliorate opioid withdrawal symptoms associated with the noradrenaline system, including sweating, shivering, and runny nose and eyes. The locus coeruleus, a nucleus in the pons with a high density of noradrenergic neurons possessing µ-opioid receptors, is involved in wakefulness, blood pressure, breathing, and overall alertness. Exposure to opioids results in heightened neuronal activity of the nucleus cells, and if opioids are not present to suppress this activity, increased amounts of norepinephrine are released, leading to withdrawal symptoms. Clonidine was originally developed as an antihypertensive, but its antihypertensive effects are problematic in detox, so lofexidine was developed as an alternative with less hypotensive effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent side effect of methylphenidate in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased appetite
Explanation:Methylphenidate commonly causes a decrease in appetite, while the other listed side-effects are considered rare of uncommon.
ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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