-
Question 1
Correct
-
In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?
Your Answer: 5 weeks + 3 days
Explanation:The embryonic pole becomes visible on transvaginal ultrasound at around 5 and a half to 6 weeks gestation when it measures around 3mm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?
Your Answer: Atrial depolarisation
Explanation:P wave = Atrial depolarisation
QRS complex = Ventricular depolarisation
T wave = Ventricular repolarisation
U wave = repolarisation of the interventricular septum -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
DEXA scans measure bone density by
Your Answer: Measuring absorption from two different XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the same site
Explanation:DEXA works by passing two low dose XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the patient’s bone. Some of the XRAY radiation will be absorbed (the greater the density the greater the absorption) whilst some will pass through to a detector. Soft tissue absorption is subtracted out and the BMD can be determined from the absorption of each beam. It is important to realise that two beams are used at each site when measuring bone density (hence ‘dual’). Although two sites are typically used (spine and femoral neck) when measuring bone density this is not why the term dual is used Computer analysis of multiple X-ray beams taken from different angles and geographical digital processing are features of CT scanning
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
What is the maximum normal diameter of the yolk sac on transvaginal ultrasound?
Your Answer: 6mm
Explanation:The yolk sac increases in size up until the 10th week reaching a maximum diameter of 6mm in normal pregnancy. After the 10th week the yolk sac will gradually disappear. It is usually sonographically undetectable by 20 weeks. A yolk sac greater than 6mm diameter is suspicious of failed pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
Which of the following is an acute complication of radiotherapy?
Your Answer: Moist skin desquamation
Explanation:Tissues with actively dividing cells, such as bone marrow and gastrointestinal mucosa, are particularly sensitive to ionising radiation. Lymphocyte depletion is the most sensitive marker of bone marrow injury, and after exposure to
a fatal dose, marrow aplasia is a common cause of death. The gonads are highly radiosensitive and radiation may result in temporary or permanent sterility. Stochastic (chance) effects occur with increasing probability
as the dose of radiation increases. Carcinogenesis represents a stochastic effect. With acute exposures, leukaemias may arise after an interval of around 2–5 years and solid tumours after an interval of about 10–20 years. Moist skin desquamation can be an acute reaction to both radio and chemotherapy whereas fibrosis and lymphoedema are late complications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?
Your Answer: Atrial depolarisation
Explanation:In an ECG the P wave represents atrial depolarization. The QRS complex represents the ventricular depolarization, T waves represent ventricular repolarization and the U wave represents repolarization of the interventricular septum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A biophysical profile includes all of the following assessment parameters EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Fetal weight
Explanation:The biophysical profile is a composite test that collects 5 indicators of fetal well-being, including fetal heart rate reactivity, breathing movements, gross body movements, muscular tone, and quantitative estimation of amniotic fluid volume. The assessment of fetal heart rate is accomplished by performing a nonstress test, whereas the latter 4 variables are observed using real-time ultra-sonography.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered a Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) at an infertility clinic. At which point in her cycle should the HSG be performed?
Your Answer: Days 6-12
Explanation:Hysterosalpingography is a radiological test used to investigate infertility especially in patients with no history suggesting tubal blockages such as pelvic surgery or PID, in which case a laparoscopy and dye is better suited. For the procedure, a contrast dye is inserted through the cervix, flows through the uterus and the fallopian tubes and should spill into the peritoneum. Fluoroscopy provides dynamic images of these structures to determine if there are any abnormalities or blockages. HSG is best performed on day 6-12 in the cycle, after the cessation of menses, and before ovulation, to avoid X Ray exposure in case of an unknown early pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
The yolk sac reaches its maximum diameter at what week of gestation?
Your Answer: 6 weeks
Correct Answer: 10 weeks
Explanation:The yolk sac increases in size up until the 10th week reaching a maximum diameter of 6mm in normal pregnancy. After the 10th week the yolk sac will gradually disappear. It is usually sonographically undetectable by 20 weeks. A yolk sac greater than 6mm diameter is suspicious of failed pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy?
Your Answer: DNA damage via free radical generation
Explanation:Radiotherapy works on the principle of ionisation. In particularly that of water leading to the formation of free radicals, these radicals are highly reactive and they react with the DNA leading to damage and cell death.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy?
Your Answer: DNA damage via free radical generation
Explanation:Radiotherapy causes ionisation, primarily of water. This leads to hydroxyl and other free radicals being generated. Free radicals are highly reactive and cause DNA damage to cells via their reactions with them. Free radicals are relatively short lived and eventually form stable compounds. The DNA damage leads to cellular death.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
Patients with high risk pregnancy should have a:
Your Answer: Fetal biophysical profile
Explanation:The BPP is performed in an effort to identify babies that may be at risk of poor pregnancy outcome, so that additional assessments of wellbeing may be performed, or labour may be induced or a caesarean section performed to expedite birth.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing?
Your Answer: Detrusor and urethral sphincter muscles
Explanation:Urodynamics is a broad term that comprises cytometry, urethral pressure measurement, leak point pressure, pressure flow studies, EMG and videourodynamics. They assess the function of the bladder and urethra as a functional unit. This may provide information such as the site of bladder outlet obstruction, overactivity of the detrusor and sphincter weakness. In muscular terms the detrusor and sphincter muscles are being assessed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
Regarding the biophysical profile:
Your Answer: Includes fetal movement, fetal tone, fetal breathing, fetal heart rate & amniotic fluid
Explanation:The biophysical profile is a composite test that collects 5 indicators of fetal well-being, including fetal heart rate reactivity, breathing movements, gross body movements, muscular tone, and quantitative estimation of amniotic fluid volume. The assessment of fetal heart rate is accomplished by performing a non-stress test, whereas the latter 4 variables are observed using real-time ultra-sonography.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A pregnant patient with a chest infection is worried about the radiation risk of a chest X Ray. How many days of natural background radiation is equivalent to a chest X Ray?
Your Answer: 2.5
Explanation:X-rays carry low levels of risk during pregnancy and are not a significant cause for concern if the total exposure to ionising radiation is less than 5 rads throughout the pregnancy; a chest X-ray is about 0.00007 rads. The amount of radiation generated from a chest X-ray is equivalent to 2.4 days of natural background radiation. Non-urgent radiological tests should, however, be avoided between 10-17 weeks gestation as there is a higher risk of central nervous system teratogenesis during this time.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
What is the normal maximum endometrial thickness on ultrasound assessment of a post menopausal uterus?
Your Answer: 4mm
Explanation:In post menopausal women the thickness of the endometrium should be 4mm or less or women on tamoxifen is should be less than 5mm. If it is more than this the patient should be worked up for endometrial carcinoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?
Your Answer: 4 weeks + 3 days
Explanation:The gestational sac is typically visible from 31 days gestation by transvaginal ultrasound and a week later (38 days) on transabdominal ultrasound.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?
Your Answer: 4 weeks + 3 days
Correct Answer: 5 weeks + 3 days
Explanation:The gestational sac can be visualized from as early as 4–5 weeks of gestation and the yolk sac at about 5 weeks (Figure 6.3). The embryo can be observed and measured at 5–6 weeks gestation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A patient is seen in the gynaecology outpatient clinic and is noted to have large volume genital warts perianally and near the urethral meatus. You discuss treatment options and the patient opts for LASER therapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate type of LASER to use?
Your Answer: ND:YAG
Correct Answer: CO2
Explanation:Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia is a premalignant condition which is associated with HPV or lichen sclerosis. Biopsy is essential for diagnosis. Treatment depends of the patients choice and include surgical excision of the area or laser therapy with CO2. Other treatment modalities include immunomodulating creams.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and is offered Hysterosalpingography (HSG). She has 28 day cycles. Which of the following statements regarding HSG is correct?
Your Answer: Appropriate 1st line test of tubal potency in patients with past history of pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: Typically performed using iodine based water soluble contrast
Explanation:Hysterosalpingography is used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes. It is performed by injection of a radio-opaque iodine based contrast. This test is contraindicated in pelvic inflammatory disease and during pregnancy. Should be performed in Follicular phase of menstrual cycle after cessation of menstrual bleeding and prior to ovulation (days 6-12).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of?
Your Answer: < 5 cm
Correct Answer:
Explanation:AFI involves measuring the depth of amniotic fluid pockets in all 4 quadrants.
Oligohydramnios AFI< 5cm or deepest amniotic fluid pocket < 2cm
Polyhydramnios AFI > 25cm or deepest amniotic fluid pocket > 8cm -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Which of the following amniotic fluid indexes define oligohydramnios?
Your Answer: < 5 cm
Correct Answer:
Explanation:An assessment of amniotic fluid in pregnancy can be done by taking ultrasound measurements of the depth of amniotic fluid pockets. The combination of the measurements in four quadrants is called the amniotic fluid index (AFI), one of the major determinants of the biophysical profile which predicts pregnancy outcome. An AFI of less than 5 cm, or less than the 5th percentile is defined as oligohydramnios while an AFI of more than 25 cm is considered polyhydramnios.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
