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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman comes to your clinic for assessment and advice as she is planning to conceive over past three months with no success. She has a history of obesity with BMI 40 and type 2 diabetes mellitus with latest HbA1c value of 11%. She had her last eye check six months ago which shows no evidence of retinopathy, and she does not have diabetic nephropathy. Among the following which is a contraindication to pregnancy in this case?
Your Answer: BMI 40
Correct Answer: History of type 2 diabetes mellitus with HBA1C above 10
Explanation:In patients who have an HbA1C value above 10%, it is better to postpone pregnancy until diabetes is under control. Also in those patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus, who are suffering from severe gastroparesis, those with advanced retinopathy, with severe diabetic renal disease and severe ischemic heart disease with uncontrolled hypertension pregnancy is contraindicated.
All the other options mentioned are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What frequency is used for trans-abdominal ultrasound?
Your Answer: 7.5 MHz
Correct Answer: 3.0 MHz
Explanation:The transabdominal ultrasound uses a frequency of 3.5-7 MHz emitted from a transducer. Transvaginal 5-7.5 MHz (post bladder void.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Bladder contraction during voiding (micturating) is mediated via innervation of which of the following pathways?
Your Answer: Parasympathetic fibres from L4,L5,S1 nerve roots
Correct Answer: Parasympathetic fibres from S2,S3,S4 nerve roots
Explanation:Detrusor contraction is via Parasympathetic innervation of pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-4). This also causes relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter Note contraction and relaxation of the external urethral sphincter is under somatic control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is admitted to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after losing about 200 mL of blood per vagina after having sexual intercourse. The bleeding has now ceased and her vitals are below: Pulse rate: 64 beats/min, Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg, Temperature: 36.8°C. On physical exam, the uterus is enlarged and is 37 cm above the pubic symphysis. The uterus is lax and non-tender. On ultrasound, the fetal presentation is cephalic with the head freely mobile above the pelvic brim. The fetal heart rate assessed by auscultation is 155 beats/min. Which of the following is the most likely of bleeding in this patient?
Your Answer: A cervical polyp.
Correct Answer: Placenta praevia.
Explanation:In this pregnant patient with an antepartum haemorrhage at 37 weeks of gestation, her clinical presentation points to a placenta previa. Her bleeding has stopped, the uterus is of the expected size and non-tender, and the fetal head is still mobile above the pelvic brim which are all findings that would be consistent with a placenta praevia. An ultrasound examination would be done to rule-out or diagnose the condition.
An Apt test on the blood is necessary to ensure that this is not fetal blood that would come from a ruptured vasa praevia. Although this diagnosis would be unlikely since the bleeding has stopped. If there was a vasa praevia, there would be fetal tachycardia or bradycardia, where a tachycardia is often seen first but then bradycardia takes over late as fetal exsanguination occurs.
In a placental abruption with concealment of blood loss, the uterus would be larger and some uterine tenderness would be found on exam.
A cervical polyp could bleed after sexual intercourse and a speculum examination would be done to exclude it. However, it would be unlikely for a cervical polyp to cause such a large amount of blood loss. A heavy show would also rarely have as heavy as a loss of 200mL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old G2P1 visits the gynaecologist with complaints of increased hair growth on her face, breast, and belly, but hair loss in the temporal regions of her head. She has also struggled with acne. On physical examination, the patient's face, chest, and belly are covered in coarse, dark hair. Her clitoris is swollen on pelvic examination. Her left adnexal mass is 7 cm in diameter. What is the most likely ovarian tumour to be associated with this clinical picture?
Your Answer: Granulosa tumour
Correct Answer: Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour
Explanation:Sertoli-Leydig cell tumours constitute less than 0.5 percent of ovarian neoplasms. They may behave in a benign or malignant fashion, which correlates with the degree of differentiation in an individual case. Approximately 75 percent occur in women under the age of 40 years (mean age at diagnosis is 25), but they occur in all age groups. The neoplasms are characterized by the presence of testicular structures that produce androgens. This can result in virilization, although not all of these neoplasms are functionally active.
Pure Sertoli cell tumours are usually estrogenic and may also secrete renin, leading to refractory hypertension and hypokalaemia. In addition, these tumours may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
Pure Leydig cell tumours are androgen secreting; only a few cases have been reported. Virtually all of these rare tumours are unilateral and confined to the ovary at diagnosis.
Granulosa cell tumours typically present as large masses; the mean diameter is 12 cm. Women may present with an asymptomatic mass noted on abdominal or pelvic examination. Granulosa cell tumours often produce oestrogen and/or progesterone; consequently, symptoms related to hyperestrogenism are common at diagnosis.
Krukenberg tumour, also known as carcinoma mucocellulare, refers to the signet ring subtype of metastatic tumour to the ovary. The stomach followed by colon are the two most common primary tumours to result in ovarian metastases, pursued by the breast, lung, and contralateral ovary.
A rare tumour that is made up of more than one type of cell found in the gonads (testicles and ovaries), including germ cells, stromal cells, and granulosa cells. Gonadoblastomas are usually benign (not cancer), but they may sometimes become malignant (cancer) if not treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which group of beta haemolytic streptococci is associated with chorioamnionitis?
Your Answer: G
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:Chorioamnionitis occurs due to prolong rupture of the fetal membranes. It is most commonly caused by B streptococcus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old G1P0 woman who is at 14 weeks of gestation presented to the medical clinic complaining of persistent nausea and vomiting. Upon history taking and interview, she reported that she frequently had poor appetite and felt lethargic. From her pre-pregnancy weight, it was also noted that she had 3% weight loss in difference. Upon further clinical observation, she looked dry, accompanied with coated tongue. If the diagnosis of “hyperemesis gravidarum” is to be considered, which of the following will most likely confirm that diagnosis?
Your Answer: poor appetite
Correct Answer: she looks dry with coated tongue
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to intractable vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss and volume depletion, resulting in ketonuria and/or ketonemia. There is no consensus on specific diagnostic criteria, but it generally refers to the severe end of the spectrum regarding nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
Hormone changes wherein hCG levels peak during the first trimester corresponds to the typical onset of hyperemesis symptoms. It is well-known that the lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes during pregnancy due to the elevations in estrogen and progesterone. This leads to an increased incidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms in pregnancy, and one symptom of GERD is nausea.
Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to extreme cases of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. The criteria for diagnosis include vomiting that causes significant dehydration (as evidenced by ketonuria or electrolyte abnormalities, and the dry with coated tongue) and weight loss (the most commonly cited marker for this is the loss of at least five percent of the patient’s pre-pregnancy weight) in the setting of pregnancy without any other underlying pathological cause for vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman complains of a greenish foul smelling discharge from her left nipple. She has experienced the same case before. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Periductal mastitis
Correct Answer: Duct ectasia
Explanation:Mammary duct ectasia occurs when the lactiferous duct becomes blocked or clogged. This is the most common cause of greenish discharge. Mammary duct ectasia can mimic breast cancer. It is a disorder of peri- or post-menopausal age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman at her 26 weeks of gestation visits your office after she has noticed intermittent leakage of watery liquor per vagina for the past eight hours, especially after straining, coughing or sneezing. Speculum vaginal exam reveals clear fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix, with flow of liquid through the cervical os. Further evaluation establishes preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM) as the diagnosis. No uterine contraction is felt and there is a tertiary hospital 50 km away. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
Your Answer: Transferring her to the tertiary hospital
Correct Answer: Administration of corticosteroids
Explanation:The case above gives a classic presentation of preterm premature rupture of membranes(PPROM). In term or near term women rupture of membrane harbingers labor, so if ROM does not end up in established labor in 4 hours, is called as premature ROM (PROM). In other words, PROM is defined as ROM before the onset of labor and if it occurs before 37 weeks, the preferred term is PPROM. In both these scenarios treatment approach will be different.
A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina, continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid, a sensation of wetness within the vagina or perineum are the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes(ROM), regardless of the gestational age. Pathognomonic symptoms symptoms of ROM are presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix.
PPROM is associated with many risk factors and some of them are as follows:
– Preterm labor
– Cord prolapse
– Placental abruption
– Chorioamnionitis
– Fetal pulmonary hypoplasia and other features of prematurity
– Limb positioning defects
– Perinatal mortality
Once the diagnosis is confirmed the following measures should be considered in the management plan:
a) Maternal corticosteroids
Adverse perinatal outcomes like respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and necrotizing enterocolitis can be effectively reduced using corticosteroids. The duration of using neonatal respiratory support, in case of respiratory distress, can be significantly reduced by the administration of corticosteroids. If preterm labor is a concern in cases were gestational age is between 23•0d and 34•6d weeks or if preterm birth is planned or expected within the next 7 days corticosteroids are indicated.
Recommended regimens to the woman are IM betamethasone in two doses of 11.4 mg, given 24 hours apart and if betamethasone is unavailable, IM dexamethasone given 24 hours apart in two doses of 12 mg.
A single repeat dose of corticosteroid given seven days or more after the first dose is suggestive in cases were the gestational age is less than 32• 6d, if the woman is still considered to be at risk of preterm labor, up to 3 repeated doses can be considered.
Another option is Tocolysis using nifedipine and is indicated if the woman is in labor. This helps in cessation of labor for at least 48 hours, providing a window for corticosteroid to establish its effects. Tocolysis is not indicated in cases with absence of uterine contractions suggestive of labor.
It is appropriate to transfer this woman to a tertiary hospital after administering the first doses of corticosteroid and antibiotics. This ensures optimal neonatal care in case of premature delivery.
As the patient needs investigations and fetal monitoring along with close observation for development of any signs of infection and preterm labor, it is not appropriate to discharge this patient on oral antibiotics
Admitting to a primary care center without neonatal ICU (NICU) does no good to the outcome of this patient. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following is known to be the commonest presentation in twins?
Your Answer: Cephalic, transverse
Correct Answer: Cephalic, cephalic
Explanation:The commonest foetal presentation in twin pregnancy is cephalic-cephalic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Correct
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Due to her inability to conceive, a 28-year-old nulligravid lady comes to the office with her husband. The patient and her spouse had been having intercourse every other day since they stopped using barrier contraception a year ago. Every 28 days, the patient experiences a 5-day period with two days of high flow. She has transient pelvic pain 14 days after her menstruation begins, but intercourse is painless. The patient was admitted to the hospital in her late teens for a pelvic infection, and she had discomfort with intercourse, discharge, and fever during her stay. She hasn't had any previous medical or surgical procedures. Her younger sibling suffers from polycystic ovarian syndrome. The patient's husband is 32 years old, has no children, and a normal semen analysis. The patient has a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 86 beats per minute. There are no anomalies on physical examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?
Your Answer: Hysterosalpingogram
Explanation:Primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected, timed sexual intercourse in a nulliparous patient under the age of 35. (After 35 years of age, infertility testing can begin after 6 months.) Because the patient’s partner’s sperm analysis is normal, female factor infertility is the most likely explanation. This patient’s adolescent hospitalizations are likely due to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a common cause of infertility caused by tubal scarring and blockage.
A hysterosalpingogram, which includes infusing radiocontrast into the cervix under fluoroscopy, is the first-line imaging technique for determining fallopian tube patency. A hysterosalpingogram is a non-invasive procedure that can detect uterine cavity irregularities (e.g., bicornuate uterus).
Peritoneal adhesions and endometriosis can be seen and treated directly using laparoscopy.
PID-related scarring inside the fallopian tubes can be assessed by laparoscopy with chromotubation; however, it is invasive, expensive, and not utilized first-line.
Ovulation is detected using a mid-cycle LH level. The LH surge can be detected in urine and serum 36 hours before ovulation. Regular menstrual periods are characterized by mittelschmerz (mid-cycle pelvic pain), which indicates ovulation. As a result, an LH level would be useless.
Ovarian reserve begins to deteriorate around the age of 35, and serum FSH levels rise in women who are losing their ability to ovulate. Because this patient is much younger and has regular periods, a drop in ovum quantity is unlikely to be the reason for infertility.
Increased serum androgen levels can prevent ovulation by inhibiting the release of GnRH and FSH through feedback inhibition. The patient has regular cycles and no hyperandrogenic symptoms, despite her sister having polycystic ovarian syndrome (e.g., hirsutism, irregular menses).
In a nulliparous patient under the age of 35, primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected sexual intercourse. A hysterosalpingogram is used to determine the cause of infertility, such as tubal blockage caused by a previous pelvic infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 36 year old woman has a pelvic ultrasound scan showing multiple fibroids. What is the most common form of fibroid degeneration?
Your Answer: Red degeneration
Correct Answer: Hyaline degeneration
Explanation:Hyaline degeneration is the most common form of fibroid degeneration. Fibroids:
Risk Factors
– Black Ethnicity
– Obesity
– Early Puberty
– Increasing age (from puberty until menopause)
Protective Factors
– Pregnancy
– Multiparity -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman, G1P0, comes to your clinic at the 12th week of her pregnancy, complaining of a mild vaginal bleeding since last 12 hours along with mild but periodic pain. On vaginal examination, cervical os is found to be closed with mild discharge which contains blood clots. Ultrasound performed confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal foetal heart sound. What among the following will be the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Threatened miscarriage
Explanation:The case is most likely diagnosed a threatened miscarriage.
A diagnosis of threatened miscarriage is made when there is uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix and is confirmed by the sonographic visualisation of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity. Miscarriages may not always follow even though there was multiple episodes or large amounts of bleeding, therefore the term “threatened” is used in these cases.
At 7 to 11 weeks of gestation, about 90 to 96 percent cases of pregnancies, will not usually miscarry if they have presented with an intact fetal cardiac activity along with vaginal bleeding and if bleeding occurs at the later weeks of gestational age chances of success rate is higher.Topic review:
– Inevitable miscarriages presents with a dilated cervix, increasing uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissues can often be felt or seen through the cervical os and its passage occurs within a short time.
– In Incomplete miscarriage, the membranes will rupture passing the fetus out, but significant amounts of placental tissue will be retained. This occurs most commonly in late first trimester or early second trimester. On examination, the cervical os will be opened and the gestational tissue can be observed in the cervix, with a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age, but not well contracted. The amount of bleeding varies but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock. There will be painful cramps
ontractions and ultrasound reveals tissue in the uterus.
– A missed miscarriage refers to the in-utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20th week of gestation, with retention of the pregnancy for a prolonged period of time. In this case, women may notice that symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have abated and they don’t “feel pregnant” anymore.
Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix usually remains closed. Ultrasound reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.
– Complete miscarriage, usually occurs before 12 weeks of gestation and the entire contents of the uterus will be expelled resulting in a complete miscarriage. In this case, physical examination reveals a small, well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix with scanty vaginal bleeding and mild cramping. Ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus with no extra-uterine gestation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DNA damage via free radical generation
Explanation:Radiotherapy works on the principle of ionisation. In particularly that of water leading to the formation of free radicals, these radicals are highly reactive and they react with the DNA leading to damage and cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both of these hormones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholesterol
Explanation:Both the female hormones, namely progesterone and oestrogen as well as the male hormones or androgens are lipid soluble. The common precursor of these is cholesterol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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After a vaginal delivery, a patient suffers a perineal tear. On examination the laceration involves the external anal sphincter and has partially torn the internal anal sphincter. Which of the following classifies this tear?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3c
Explanation:During childbearing the vagina and perineum are prone to lacerations that may involve the skin or can extend into the anal sphincter complex. It is important to be able to identify obstetric and anal sphincter injuries to provide adequate care and prevent complications. In the classification of obstetric tears according to RCOG guidelines:
First degree tear: injury to the perineal skin and/or the vaginal mucosa
Second degree tears: Injury to perineum involving perineal muscles but not the anal sphincter.
Third-degree tear: Injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex:
Grade 3a tear: Less than 50% of external anal sphincter (EAS) thickness torn.
Grade 3b tear: More than 50% of EAS thickness torn.
Grade 3c tear: Both EAS and internal anal sphincter (IAS) torn.
Fourth-degree tear: Injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (EAS and IAS)
and anorectal mucosa. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady complained of pelvic pain for three months. A tumour in her right iliac fossa was discovered during an examination. An ovarian cyst measuring 8 cm x 12 cm is visible on ultrasonography. What is the next management step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to a gynaecologist
Explanation:Many patients with simple ovarian cysts based on ultrasonographic findings do not require treatment.
In a postmenopausal patient, a persistent simple cyst smaller than 10cm in dimension in the presence of a normal CA125 value may be monitored with serial ultrasonographic examinations.Premenopausal women with asymptomatic simple cysts smaller than 8cm on sonograms in whom the CA125 value is within the reference range may be monitored, with a repeat ultrasonographic examination in 8-12 weeks.
Persistent simple ovarian cysts larger than 5-10 cm, especially if symptomatic, and complex ovarian cysts should be considered for surgical removal.
For this patient, a premenopausal woman, with an ovarian cyst size 8 cm x 12cm. Surgical management is indicated, hence referral to gynaecologist is appropriate.
Laparotomy or laparoscopic excision of cyst should be considered and performed by the gynaecologist not general practitioner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve
Explanation:The Pudendal nerve divides into inferior rectal, perineal and dorsal nerve of the clitoris (or penis in males). The dorsal nerve of clitoris supplies sensory innervation to the clitoris. The perineal branch supplies sensory innervation to the skin of the labia majora and minora and the vestibule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 28 year old patient is treated for hydatidiform mole with methotrexate. What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
Explanation:Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist. It inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR). DHFR catalyses the conversion of dihydrofolate to the active tetrahydrofolate which is required for DNA synthesis. It is either administered as a single intramuscular injection or multiple fixed doses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2
Explanation:Normal closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) is brought about by a number of mechanisms. Upon delivery the new born babies first breath inflates the lungs and this causes a rise in pO2. Oxygen is known to cause constriction of the DA in vivo and in vitro. In addition the decreased vascular resistance means the pressure within the lumen of the DA drops aiding closure. In addition on inflation of the lungs, the lungs produce bradykinin which stimulates smooth muscle constriction of the ductus. The most important factor is thought to be the drop in Prostaglandin E2. Prostaglandin E2 maintains patency of the Ductus in the unborn child but after birth is metabolised in the lungs and its levels fall rapidly within 3 hours of birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the average anteroposterior distance of the female pelvic outlet?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 13 cm
Explanation:The pelvic outlet is bounded in front by the lower margin of the symphysis pubis, on each side by the descending ramus of the pubic bone, the ischial tuberosity and the sacrotuberous ligament, and posteriorly by the last piece of the sacrum. The AP diameter of the pelvic outlet is 13.5 cm and the transverse diameter is 11 cm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A patient undergoes medical abortion at 9 weeks gestation. What is the advice regarding Rhesus Anti-D Immunoglobulin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All RhD-negative women who are not alloimmunized should receive Anti-D IgG
Explanation:All non-sensitised RhD negative women should receive Anti-D IgG within 72 hours following abortion
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 24 year old patient presents as 24 weeks pregnant with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days
Explanation:The treatment of Chlamydia includes avoidance of intercourse, use of condoms and antibiotic treatment. Erythromycin 500mg orally QID for 7 days or Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 7 days or Ofloxacin 200mg orally BD for 7 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You see a 23 year old women in clinic with cervicitis. Which gram negative intracellular organism is most likely to be responsible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Chlamydia trachomatis (D-K subtypes) is the most common cause in this age group and fits the descriptors given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which one of the following aetiological factors causes a reduction in the risk of fibroids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Risk of fibroids is more common among African ethnicity and is also related to obesity and early puberty. The role of combined oral contraceptive pills is still debatable and its results are conflicting, whereas the risk of fibroids decreases with the increase in number of pregnancies. i.e. multiparous women have a lower risk of fibroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable vomiting with concurrent ketonuria. Past medical is unremarkable except for an appendectomy at the age of 12 years. Which of the following is the next best step in this investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum electrolytes, urea and creatinine.
Explanation:The finding of ketonuria in this patient indicates profound dehydration and electrolyte loss. Immediate investigation with baseline serum electrolytes, urea, and creatinine is recommended for aid In intravenous resuscitation and rehydration.
All other assessments listed are appropriate, however, baseline electrolyte concentration is important before initiating intravenous resuscitation.
Other causes that can lead to vomiting in early pregnancy include normal pregnancy, multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, or urinary tract infection. Urine culture is necessary to exclude urinary tract infection, pelvic ultrasound to confirm singleton or multiple pregnancy and rule out a molar pregnancy.
An erect abdominal Xray may help to rule out an organic intestinal obstruction in this patient. Her history of an appendectomy predisposes this patient to adhesions leading to small bowel obstruction. However, it is not the immediate assessment in this case.
Before the advent of ultrasound, a quantitative hCG analysis was indicated to assess the presence of molar pregnancy. However, ultrasound is now preferred to confirm this diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Regarding the foetus, which one of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fetal lie describes the long axis of the foetus to the long axis of the mother
Explanation:Fetal lie describes the relationship of the long axis of the foetus with respect to the long axis of the mother.
Coronal suture is the transverse suture separating the parietal bone from the frontal bone.
Umbilical cord is composed of two arteries and one vein. the vein carries the oxygenated blood, whereas the arteries contain the deoxygenated blood.
At the time of birth, the anterior fontanelle is open and appears as a soft jelly like structure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Incorrect
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During the menstrual cycle which hormone typically reaches its peak level on day 21 (assuming a 28 day cycle)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone
Explanation:LH, FSH and Oestrogen have their peaks just before ovulation on day 14 whereas progesterone peaks around day 21.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Regarding pelvic inflammatory disease, which of the following is the tubal factor infertility rate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12.50%
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a known risk factor in causing tubal infertility due to its role in tubal damage. The tubal infertility rate after one episode of PID is thought to be about 12.5%. After two episodes the risk increases to 25%, and 50% after three episodes. The usual causative agents are chlamydia and gonorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Which of the following tests is used to detect antibodies or complement bound to red blood cell antigens in vivo?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Direct Coombs
Explanation:When the red cells are coated with immune IgG antibody, the cells do not agglutinate but when anti-IgG antiserum is added to these sensitized cells visible agglutination occurs. This is known as a positive direct coombs test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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You see a patient in antenatal clinic who is concerned that she has never had chicken pox and may catch it during pregnancy. You check her Varicella status and she is non-immune. She asks you about vaccination. What type of vaccine is the varicella vaccine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Attenuated
Explanation:Varicella is a live vaccine. The recent RCOG green top guidelines suggest vaccine can be considered postpartum or pre pregnancy but NOT whilst pregnant. In the non-immune pregnant woman they should be advised to avoid contact with people with chickenpox or shingles and to contact a healthcare professional promptly if exposed. If they have a significant exposure VZIG should be offered as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old woman has been taking Microgynon (oral contraceptive pill [OCP]). When she presents for a repeat prescription, her BP is 160/100 mmHg. She mentions that she would like to stop the OCP in six months so that she can conceive. What is the most suitable advice for this woman?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cease the OCP, use condoms for contraception, and reassess the BP in three months.
Explanation:The woman’s blood pressure was elevated at her visit; therefore she should be advised to immediately cease the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) so that the hypertension can resolve without the need for any hypotensive treatment. The blood pressure can then be reassessed in three months. Alternative, non-hormonal birth control methods such as condoms should be used instead.
If her high blood pressure does not resolve, any medication that would be commenced to reduce her blood pressure should be one that is safe to continue when she becomes pregnant.
It is inappropriate to continue the OCP even at a lower dosage or in combination with a hypotensive agent.
Methyldopa has been evaluated and used for treatment of hypertension during pregnancy. There is no clinical evidence to suggest that it causes harm to the foetus or neonate.
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are not approved for use in pregnancy as they have been associated with fetal death in utero. Other antihypertensive agents such as beta-blockers and diuretics are also problematic in pregnancy and should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Which of the following is correct in the treatment of a case of threatened abortion:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bed rest
Explanation:Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 35
Incorrect
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The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crown rump length
Explanation:Fetal ultrasound scanning is considered an essential part of routine antenatal care with first trimester scans recommended for confirming viability, accurate estimation of gestational age and determining the number of foetuses. Fetal crown-rump length (CRL) is measured in early pregnancy primarily to determine the gestation age (GA) of a foetus and is most reliable between 9+0 to 13+6 weeks’ gestation, but not beyond.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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Levels of which of the following hormones are increased in ovarian dysgenesis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pituitary gonadotropins
Explanation:There is marked elevation of FSH and LH in ovarian dysgenesis, produced by the pituitary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are considered correct regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroxin requirement does not increase in pregnancy and maintenance dose must be continued
Explanation:Thyroid disease is the second most common endocrine disorder after diabetes in pregnancy. Thyroid disease poses a substantial challenge on the physiology of pregnant women and has significant maternal and fetal implications. Research shows during pregnancy, the size of the thyroid gland increases by 10% in countries with adequate iodine stores and by approximately 20% to 40% in countries with iodine deficiency. During pregnancy, thyroid hormone production increases by around 50% along with a similar increase in total daily iodine requirements.
The different changes occurring in thyroid physiology are as follow:
– An increase in serum thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) leading to an increase in the total T4 and total T3 concentrations
– Stimulation of the thyrotropin (TSH) receptor by human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) which increases thyroid hormone production and subsequently reduces serum TSH concentration.Therefore, compared to the non-pregnant state, women tend to have lower serum TSH concentrations during pregnancy.
The need to adjust levothyroxine dose manifests itself as early as at 4-8 weeks of gestation, therefore justifying the adjustment of levothyroxine replacement to ensure that maternal euthyroidism is maintained during early gestation. Most of well-controlled hypothyroid pregnant women need increased dosage of thyroid hormone after pregnancy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Regarding the rectus sheath which of the following statements are true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Above the arcuate line the internal oblique divides into two lamellae
Explanation:The rectus sheath is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal and external oblique muscles and the transversus abdominus muscle. The internal oblique divides into two lamellae and encloses the rectus muscle. Anteriorly it fuses with the aponeurosis of the external oblique and posteriorly with that of the transverus abdominus. Below the arcuate line the aponeurosis of all the flat muscles lies anteriorly and posteriorly it is only enclosed by the transveralis fascia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old woman is complaining of a lot of acne in her face. Her BMI is 37. She does not have her period yet. She has high insulin levels in her labs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:The best answer is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), supported by amenorrhea, obesity and acne. High insulin levels are indicative of PCOS and exclude Cushing syndrome (as this is associated with low insulin levels).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 45 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that is reported as showing a partially echogenic mass with posterior sound attenuation owing to sebaceous material and hair within the cyst cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mature teratoma
Explanation:Dermoid cysts and teratomas contain elements from multiple germ cell layers. They are often considered the same entity (even in medical texts) however a dermoid is composed only of dermal and epidermal elements. A teratoma has mesodermal and endodermal elements Mature teratomas are composed of well-differentiated derivations from at least 2/3 germ cell layers (i.e. ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm). They contain developmentally mature skin complete with hair follicles, sweat glands, sometimes hair, and sometimes sebum, blood, fat, bone, nails, teeth, eyes, cartilage, and thyroid tissue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 41
Incorrect
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a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings. Which is the cause for her bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion
Explanation:Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
pain and bleeding during or after sex
pain during or after cervical screening
light discharge of mucus
spotting between periods
Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.
Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old primigravid woman comes to the office to establish prenatal care at 14 weeks gestation. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping, no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a daily dose of prenatal vitamin. Patient follows a vegan diet and drinks 2 cups of coffee in the morning, also she is an avid runner who runs 5 miles most days. Patient does not use tobacco, alcohol or any other illicit drugs. On physical examination her vital signs are normal, with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22 kg/m2. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a single intrauterine gestation with a heart rate of 155/min. Among the following possible lifestyle modifications needed during pregnancy, which is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase caloric intake by about 350 kcal/day
Explanation:Nutrition in pregnancy
Weight gain must be:
– In patients <18.5 kg/m2, there should be an increase of 12.7 - 18 kg (28-40 lb)
– In patients 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb)
– In patients 25 – 29.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 6.8 – 11.4 kg (15-25 lb)
– In patients ≥30 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 5 – 9 kg (11-20 lb)Supplementation required:
– Intake of daily prenatal vitamin
– Additional specific supplements as indicated
– Avoidance of harmful substances like drugs, alcohol, etc
– Substance abuse counseling
– Avoidance of fish with high mercury levels
– Moderating caffeine intakeFood safety:
– Avoid undercooked meat, fish & eggs
– Clean raw fruits & vegetables before consuming
– Avoid unpasteurized dairy productsNutrition in pregnancy is addressed at the initial prenatal visit based on pre-pregnancy BMI. Appropriate weight gain for a women with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 should be 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy. This weight gain is equivalent to the increasing caloric intake of 350 kcal/day during the second and 450 kcal/day during the third trimesters. Patients following any specific diets like veganism can continue their usual diet throughout pregnancy as long as it contains a well-balanced quantity of protein, carbohydrates and fats.
Vitamin and mineral supplementation during pregnancy is a single, daily prenatal vitamin recommended for majority of pregnant women as it helps to fulfill most of the daily vitamin and mineral supplementation requirements. In case of patients with vitamin or mineral deficiencies like iron, calcium, etc, a specific supplementation of the deficit vitamin/mineral only is required rather than multiple prenatal vitamins to avoid consuming harmful amounts of other vitamins like vitamin A. Vegans, who are at risk for some vitamin and mineral deficiencies like vitamin B12, calcium, iron, etc, secondary to lack of meat consumption, may require supplementation.
Pregnant women are counselled on avoidance of harmful substances like alcohol, drugs, etc and substances like fish with high mercury levels. Although high caffeine intake during pregnancy can be harmful, a moderate intake ie, 1 or 2 cups of coffee a day is thought to be safe.
Safe handling of food is important because some food products are found to result in congenital infection and intrauterine fetal demise. Patients are also counselled to avoid undercooked meat, fish, and eggs; to thoroughly clean raw fruits and vegetables and to avoid consumption of unpasteurized dairy products.
By maintaining a proper maternal nutrition during pregnancy, patients are provide appropriate nutrition to the fetal and thereby reducing the risk of pregnancy related complications like low birth weight, preterm delivery, etc.
Pregnant patients are counseled to avoid exercises like contact sports, downhill skiing, etc which increases the risk of abdominal trauma resulting in increased risk of placental abruption. But those patients with an uncomplicated pregnancy, who are already accustomed with long-duration, high-intensity exercise like running 5 miles/day, as in the given case, can continue with their regimen if tolerated.
Proper nutrition in pregnancy includes appropriate weight gain, supplementation of vitamins and minerals, avoidance of any harmful substances, and safe handling of food. Patients with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI should gain around 11.4-15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy by increasing their caloric intake by 350 kcal/day in the second and 450 kcal/day in the third trimesters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old mother with a 9-year-old child is considering having a second child. Her first pregnancy was complicated by puerperal psychosis. Following electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), she promptly recovered and has been well until now. She is in excellent health and her husband has been very supportive. According to patient files, she was noted to be an excellent mother. What would be the most appropriate advice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a 15-20% chance of recurrence of psychosis postpartum.
Explanation:Puerperal psychosis seems to be mainly hereditary and closely associated with bipolar disorder especially the manic type, rather than being a distinct condition with a group of classical symptoms or course. Postpartum psychoses typically have an abrupt onset within 2 weeks of delivery and may have rapid progression of symptoms. Fortunately, it is generally a brief condition and responds well to prompt management. If the condition is threatening the mother and/or baby’s safety, hospital admission is warranted. A patient can present with a wide variety of psychotic symptoms ranging from delusion, passivity phenomenon, catatonia, and hallucinations. While depression and mania may be the predominating features, it is not surprising to see symptoms such as confusion and stupor. Although the rate of incidence is about 1 in 1000 pregnancies, it is seen in about 20% of women who previously had bipolar episodes prior to pregnancy. It has not been shown to be linked with factors such as twin pregnancies, stillbirth, breastfeeding or being a single parent. However, it might be more commonly seen in women who are first-time mothers and pregnancy terminations.
The risk of recurrence is 20%. Unfortunately, there is no specific treatment guideline but organic causes should first be ruled out. First generation/typical anti-psychotics are often associated with extrapyramidal symptoms. Nowadays, atypical antipsychotics such as risperidone or olanzapine can be used along with lithium which is a mood stabiliser. As of now, there hasn’t been any significant side effects as a result of second generation antipsychotic use in pregnancy. While women are usually advised to stop breast-feeding, it might be unnecessary except if the mother is being treated with lithium which has been reported to cause side effects on the infants in a few instances. ECT is considered to be highly efficacious for all types of postpartum psychosis and may be necessary if the mother’s condition is life-threatening to herself or/and the baby. If untreated, puerperal psychosis might persist for 6 months or even longer.
The options of saying ‘in view of her age and previous problem, further pregnancies are out of the question’ and so is ‘By all means start another pregnancy and see how she feels about it. If she has misgivings, then have the pregnancy terminated.’ are inappropriate.
As mentioned earlier, considering there is a 20% chance of recurrence it is not correct to say that since she had good outcomes with her first pregnancy, the risk of recurrence is minimal.
Anti-psychotics are not recommended to be used routinely both during pregnancy and lactation due to the absence of long-term research on children with intrauterine and breastmilk exposure to the drugs. Hence it is not right to conclude that ‘if she gets pregnant then she should take prophylactic antipsychotics throughout the pregnancy’ as it contradicts current guidelines. Each case should be individualised and the risks compared with the benefits to decide whether anti-psychotics should be given during pregnancy. It is important to obtain informed consent from both the mother and partner with documentation.
Should the mother deteriorates during the pregnancy that she no longer is capable of making decisions about treatment, then an application for temporary guardianship should be carried out to ensure that she can be continued on the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 34 year old female presents to the ob-gyn for a regular antenatal visit. Her previous pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia and later eclampsia. What are the chances of her pre-eclampsia recurring in a later pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Research suggests the risk of having preeclampsia again is approximately 20%, however experts cite a range from 5% to 80% depending on when you had it in a prior pregnancy, how severe it was, and additional risk factors you may have. If you had preeclampsia during your first pregnancy, you may get it again. HELLP is related to preeclampsia and about 4 to 12 percent of women diagnosed with preeclampsia develop HELLP. HELLP syndrome can also cause complications in pregnancy, and if you had HELLP in a previous pregnancy, regardless of the time of onset, you have a greater risk for developing it in future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 45
Incorrect
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All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:The metabolic adaptations of pregnancy are orchestrated by hormones produced by the placenta and maternal pituitary gland, which undergo dramatic changes during gestation. After involution of ovarian sex steroid production by wk 6, placental oestrogen and progesterone production increases exponentially to term. Concurrently, there are progressive increases in prolactin (PRL), produced by the maternal pituitary gland and decidua, and human chorionic somatomammotropin (CSH, also called human placental lactogen), which has structural similarities to GH and PRL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks pregnant. She presented to the medical clinic for evaluation of a vulval ulcer. A swab was taken and revealed a diagnosis of herpes simplex type II (HSV-2) infection. She was surprised about this diagnosis since neither she nor her husband has ever had this infection before. She insisted on knowing the source of the infection and was very concerned about her baby’s well-being and she asked how her condition may affect the baby. Which of the following statements is considered true regarding her situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic
Explanation:Genital herpes can be asymptomatic or have mild symptoms that go unrecognized. When symptoms occur, genital herpes is characterised by one or more genital or anal blisters or ulcers. Additionally, symptoms of a new infection often include fever, body aches and swollen lymph nodes.
HSV-2 is mainly transmitted during sex through contact with genital or anal surfaces, skin, sores or fluids of someone infected with the virus. HSV-2 can be transmitted even if the skin looks normal and is often transmitted in the absence of symptoms.
In rare circumstances, herpes (HSV-1 and HSV-2) can be transmitted from mother to child during delivery, causing neonatal herpes. Neonatal herpes can occur when an infant is exposed to HSV during delivery. Neonatal herpes is rare, occurring in an estimated 10 out of every 100 000 births globally. However, it is a serious condition that can lead to lasting neurologic disability or death. The risk for neonatal herpes is greatest when a mother acquires HSV for the first time in late pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Ulipristal is thought to prevent pregnancy by what primary mechanism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:Ulipristal is a progesterone receptor modulator that is used up to 120 hours following unprotected intercourse. It inhibits ovulation. The dose is 30 mg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for Diazepam overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flumazenil
Explanation:Flumazenil is used for benzodiazepine overdose.
Naloxone is used for opioid overdose.
Parvolex (N-acetyl cysteine) is used for paracetamol overdose.
Protamine can be used for Heparin reversal.
Beriplex can be used for Warfarin reversal. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heparin
Explanation:Standard heparin, an effective treatment for antepartum thromboembolic disease, is thought to be safe for the foetus since it does not cross the placenta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the office complaining of ankle swelling and occasional headache for the past 2 days. She denies any abdominal pain or visual disturbances. On examination you note a fundal height of 35 cm, a fetal heart rate of 140 beats/min, 2+ lower extremity oedema, and a blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. A urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laboratory evaluation, fetal testing, and 24-hour urine for total protein
Explanation:This patient most likely has preeclampsia, which is defined as an elevated blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. The patient needs further evaluation, including a 24-hour urine for quantitative measurement of protein, blood pressure monitoring, and laboratory evaluation that includes haemoglobin, haematocrit, a platelet count, and serum levels of transaminase, creatinine, albumin, LDH, and uric acid- A peripheral smear and coagulation profiles also may be obtained- Antepartum fetal testing, such as a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being, would also be appropriate.
→ Ultrasonography should be done to assess for fetal intrauterine growth restriction, but only after an initial laboratory and fetal evaluation.
→ It is not necessary to start this patient on antihypertensive therapy at this point. An obstetric consultation should be considered for patients with preeclampsia.
→ Delivery is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia- The timing of delivery is determined by the gestational age of the foetus and the severity of preeclampsia in the mother. Vaginal delivery is preferred over caesarean delivery, if possible, in patients with preeclampsia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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