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Question 1
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A 76-year-old male with prostate cancer visits his doctor complaining of lower back pain accompanied by shooting pains down both legs to the knee. During the examination, the doctor observes decreased tone in the lower limbs and is unable to elicit ankle and knee reflexes.
What is the probable location of the lesion?Your Answer: Cauda equina
Explanation:The classic presentation of cauda equina syndrome includes lower back pain, reduced perianal sensation, and sciatica, with urinary incontinence as a late sign. Bilateral sciatica and lower back pain are typical symptoms. Referred hip pain may be felt in the knee and lower back, but it would not be associated with sciatica or lower motor neuron signs in the legs. A conus medullaris lesion would present with leg weakness and early painless retention and constipation. A sciatic nerve lesion would not be bilateral, so it is unlikely in a patient with bilateral sciatica and lower back pain. A bilateral L5 nerve root lesion would cause sciatica that may extend to the toes, numbness in the foot and/or toes (especially on the side of the big toe), and foot drop, but ankle and knee reflexes would remain intact.
Understanding Cauda Equina Syndrome
Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. This can lead to permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness, as well as urinary and bowel incontinence. It is important to consider CES in any patient who presents with new or worsening lower back pain.
The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically occurring at L4/5 or L5/S1. Other causes include tumors, infections, trauma, and hematomas. CES may present in a variety of ways, including low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation or pins-and-needles in the perianal area, and decreased anal tone. Urinary dysfunction, such as incontinence, reduced awareness of bladder filling, and loss of urge to void, is also a possible symptom.
It is crucial to recognize that there is no one symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude CES. However, checking anal tone in patients with new-onset back pain is good practice, even though studies show that it has poor sensitivity and specificity for CES. In case of suspected CES, an urgent MRI is necessary. The management of CES involves surgical decompression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl is brought to your clinic by her mother. She has been complaining of headaches for the past six months. The headaches occur over the left frontal area and are described as burning and not sharp in nature. They occur on most days, sometimes during the night, last for one to four hours and are occasionally associated with nausea but no vomiting. She has not experienced any tinnitus, falls, seizures or visual symptoms.
Her mother reports that she has been constantly tired and for the last few months has been less inclined to play with friends, preferring to stay in her room reading. She feels that the headaches seem to occur most frequently on school days rather than weekends. Since the headaches began she has been seen by your colleagues on four occasions. She has been treated twice for sinusitis (including a course of antibiotics) and, more recently, for migraine (when paracetamol was recommended).
On examination, she is pale and quiet but converses normally. Neurological examination is normal and there is no papilloedema.
What is the most appropriate next step in your management of this patient?Your Answer: Reassurance and advise adding in ibuprofen treatment for probable migraine
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to paediatric department
Explanation:Childhood Brain Tumours: Early Detection is Key
Childhood cancer is rare, but brain tumours are the most common solid tumour in children. Unfortunately, children with brain tumours often experience symptoms for months before receiving a diagnosis. This delay can lead to increased morbidity and a poorer prognosis.
If a child presents with persistent or recurrent headaches and behaviour changes, it is crucial to investigate further. Additionally, if a child has already presented with these symptoms three or more times without a clear diagnosis, urgent referral is necessary.
To aid in early detection, the Headsmart campaign provides guidelines for medical professionals to identify red flag symptoms of brain tumours. By recognizing these symptoms and referring children for further evaluation promptly, we can improve outcomes for children with brain tumours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of excessive sweating. Thyroid function tests reveal normal serum TSH concentration, but elevated concentrations of both free thyroxine and free triiodothyronine. What is the most probable explanation for these findings?
Your Answer: Self-administration of thyroxine
Correct Answer: A TSH-secreting pituitary tumour
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hyperthyroidism with Normal TSH Levels
Hyperthyroidism with normal TSH levels can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is a TSH-secreting pituitary tumour, which is a rare condition that can lead to excessive secretion of TSH and growth hormone. Another possible cause is self-administration of thyroxine, but this can be ruled out if TSH secretion is still suppressed. Graves’ disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism, is less likely as it typically results in unmeasurable TSH concentrations. Heterophilic antibodies in the patient’s serum can cause bizarre results, but this is unlikely to be the cause in a patient with classic symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. Finally, thyroid hormone resistance (Refetoff syndrome) is a rare syndrome where thyroid hormone levels are elevated but TSH levels are not suppressed. However, this is unlikely if the patient is symptomatic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of experiencing dizzy spells for the past 4 days. She reports feeling nauseous and seeing the room spinning for a brief period before returning to normal. The patient specifically notes that looking down seems to trigger these episodes. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found in the ears or cranial nerves. Her blood pressure measures at 126/82 mmHg. What diagnostic test can be conducted to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Brandt Daroff exercises
Correct Answer: Dix- Hallpike manoeuvre
Explanation:The Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre is employed for the diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), while the Epley manoeuvre or Brandt Daroff exercises are utilized for its treatment. It should be noted that these manoeuvres are not used for the diagnosis of BPPV. Simmond’s test is utilized for the diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture, while Finkelstein’s test is employed for the diagnosis of De Quervain’s tenosynovitis.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 5
Correct
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Which medication is most strongly linked to an increased risk of cleft palate during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Medications and their effects on pregnancy
The incidence of orofacial malformations such as cleft lip and cleft palate is about 1:1000. While some cases are obvious due to external appearance, isolated palatal defects require close inspection and palpation of the palate during neonatal examination to be detected.
Phenytoin has been linked to congenital defects, particularly cleft lip and palate. Antiepileptic drugs, in general, have been studied closely with regard to congenital malformations, and evidence suggests that monotherapy with an antiepileptic drug during pregnancy doubles the risk of major congenital malformation, while polytherapy triples the risk.
Aspirin can be used in pregnancy, but caution should be exercised as it can cause impaired platelet function and risk of haemorrhage. Carbimazole can be used for the treatment of hyperthyroidism, but it has been linked to aplasia cutis of the newborn. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) should only be used during pregnancy if the benefits of treatment outweigh the risks. Methyldopa is a centrally acting antihypertensive agent that can be used for the management of hypertension in pregnancy.
It is important to consider the potential effects of medications on pregnancy and to weigh the risks and benefits before prescribing them. Close monitoring and follow-up are also necessary to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman is worried about her contraception. She is currently taking rigevidon but has forgotten to take the last two pills due to misplacing her medication. She is concerned about the possibility of pregnancy. Her pill-free break started 16 days ago, and she had unprotected sex 2 days ago.
What is the best course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Continue as normal with 7 days of additional precautions and omit the pill-free interval
Correct Answer: Continue as normal with 7 days of additional precautions
Explanation:If a person misses two pills between days 8-14 of their cycle while taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) correctly for the previous seven days, emergency contraception is not necessary. This is the case for a patient who is currently in the second week of taking the pill and has had unprotected sex during this time. However, they should use additional precautions for the next seven days. Emergency contraception would only be necessary if the patient had unprotected sex during the first week of taking the pill or during the pill-free week, or if they had not taken at least seven consecutive pills prior to the episode of unprotected sex. It is important to use additional precautions for seven days, rather than restarting the pill as normal or with only two days of additional precautions. The pill-free interval doesn’t need to be omitted if the patient misses pills only during the second week of taking the pill.
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl has had frequent upper respiratory tract infections and also frequently complains of earache.
Select from the list the single feature that would most suggest a diagnosis of otitis media with effusion (OME) rather than acute otitis media.Your Answer: Hearing loss
Correct Answer: Presence of bubbles and a fluid level behind the eardrum
Explanation:Understanding Otitis Media with Effusion (Glue Ear)
Otitis media with effusion, commonly known as glue ear, is a condition characterized by inflammation of the middle ear and the accumulation of fluid in the middle-ear cleft. This condition is prevalent in young children, with most experiencing at least one episode during early childhood. Although most episodes are brief, symptoms such as earache and hearing loss can occur. Hearing loss can be significant, especially if it persists for more than a month and affects both ears. However, not all cases of glue ear present with hearing loss.
It is important to note that a normal-looking eardrum doesn’t necessarily exclude the possibility of OME. Otoscopic features of OME may include opacification of the drum, loss of the light reflex, indrawn or retracted drum, decreased mobility of the drum, bubbles or fluid level behind the drum, yellow or amber color change to the drum, and fullness or bulging of the drum. It is worth noting that acute otitis media may also present with earache and hearing loss, and the eardrum may appear redder and bulge.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and signs of OME is crucial in diagnosing and managing this condition. If you suspect that you or your child may have glue ear, seek medical attention promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of post-coital bleeding. She has been in menopause for two years. Upon conducting a full pelvic examination, you find everything to be normal, including the cervix. She has been experiencing these symptoms for the past eight weeks. The patient has a history of breast cancer and is currently taking tamoxifen. What would be your next course of action?
Your Answer: Carry out a cervical smear test
Correct Answer: Refer her urgently for a specialist opinion
Explanation:Urgent Referral Needed for postmenopausal Bleeding and Tamoxifen Use
You need to urgently refer the patient for a specialist opinion as she is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding and is taking tamoxifen, which increases the risk of endometrial cancer. It is important to note that waiting for the results of a cervical smear test or considering hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is not appropriate in this situation.
This question is testing your understanding of important alarm symptoms, such as postmenopausal bleeding, and the associated risk factors, such as tamoxifen use. It also assesses your knowledge of referral guidelines and the urgency of seeking specialist opinion in such cases. Remember to always prioritize patient safety and seek appropriate medical advice when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents with her father with a history of tingling lips and mouth within minutes of eating kiwi. There are no other symptoms. It has occurred on a number of occasions over the past few weeks but only after eating kiwi. Her past medical history includes a diagnosis of eczema. The pediatrician suspects the diagnosis is oral allergy syndrome.
What other condition is the girl likely to have been diagnosed with?Your Answer: Rye grass pollen allergy
Correct Answer: Birch pollen allergy
Explanation:Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 10
Correct
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A father brings his 6-year-old son to see you as he is concerned that he is not developing as expected. He believes his child may have a learning difficulty.
Which of the following is one of the three core criteria for a diagnosis of learning disability according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE)?Your Answer: Onset before adulthood
Explanation:Defining Learning Disability: Key Criteria to Consider
Learning disability is a complex condition that affects individuals in various ways. To diagnose a learning disability, several key criteria must be considered. These criteria include onset before adulthood, a recognised syndrome, concurrent neurological deficit, lower intellectual ability, and impaired social functioning.
Onset before adulthood is a crucial factor in diagnosing a learning disability. If a cognitive or behavioural impairment starts in adulthood, it is more likely to be caused by an alternative neurological condition. A recognised syndrome is not always present in individuals with a learning disability, and the cause may not be known.
While many people with a learning disability do not have a neurological deficit, they have a higher incidence of neurological conditions such as epilepsy. Lower intellectual ability is a core criterion for diagnosing a learning disability, with an IQ usually less than 70. Finally, impaired social functioning is a key feature of learning disability.
In conclusion, understanding the key criteria for diagnosing a learning disability is essential for healthcare professionals and caregivers. By recognising these criteria, individuals with learning disabilities can receive the appropriate support and interventions to help them reach their full potential.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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