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Question 1
Incorrect
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At what stage of the menstrual cycle do levels of progesterone reach their highest point?
Your Answer: Follicular phase
Correct Answer: Luteal phase
Explanation:A fundamental comprehension of physiology is necessary to comprehend contraception, gynaecological disorders, and fertility issues, as progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation, despite the AKT having limited inquiries about it.
Phases of the Menstrual Cycle
The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium undergoes proliferation. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol. When the egg has matured, it secretes enough oestradiol to trigger the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which leads to ovulation.
During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which causes the endometrium to change to a secretory lining. If fertilization doesn’t occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall. Oestradiol levels also rise again during the luteal phase. Cervical mucous thickens and forms a plug across the external os following menstruation. Just prior to ovulation, the mucous becomes clear, acellular, low viscosity, and stretchy. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky. Basal body temperature falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the phases of the menstrual cycle is important for women’s health and fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female comes to the clinic with a nodule in her neck that she has noticed for the past month.
Upon examination, a non-tender, 3.5 cm nodule is found on the right side of her neck, deep to the lower half of the right sternocleidomastoid. The nodule moves upwards on swallowing, and no other masses are palpable in the neck.
What is the nature of this mass?Your Answer: Branchial cyst
Correct Answer: Lymph node
Explanation:Thyroid Nodule: Causes and Investigation
A thyroid nodule is suspected in this patient due to the movement observed during swallowing. The possible causes of a thyroid nodule include colloid cyst, adenoma, and carcinoma. To investigate this lesion, the most appropriate method would be fine needle aspiration. This procedure involves using a thin needle to extract a small sample of cells from the nodule for examination under a microscope. It is a safe and effective way to determine if the nodule is benign or malignant. Early detection and treatment of thyroid nodules can prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 3
Incorrect
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In what instances is it appropriate to use abbreviations for causes of death on a death certificate?
Your Answer: AIDS
Correct Answer: MI
Explanation:Avoid Abbreviations on Death Certificates
Abbreviations should be avoided on death certificates as they may not be easily understood by others and could lead to confusion in interpreting the certificate. This could result in errors in medical research or legal proceedings. The only exceptions to this rule are HIV for human immunodeficiency virus infection and AIDS for acquired immune deficiency syndrome, which the registrar can accept. It is important to ensure that death certificates are clear and concise to accurately reflect the cause of death and provide important information for public health purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use full words instead of abbreviations on death certificates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 4
Correct
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One option that is typically not acknowledged as a disorder related to cannabis use is:
Your Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Explanation:Cannabis-Related Disorders Recognized by DSM-5
The DSM-5 acknowledges various cannabis-related disorders, including anxiety, delirium, psychosis, and sleep disorder. To qualify as a cannabis-induced disorder, there must be a clear temporal connection to cannabis use, and the disturbance cannot be attributed to a non-substance-induced disorder. Interestingly, some research suggests that non-psychoactive cannabis may have therapeutic benefits for individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Linda is a 35-year-old woman who is 19 weeks pregnant. She presents to the emergency department with a 2 day history of sharp abdominal pain. There is no vaginal bleeding. She also has a low grade fever of 37.8 ºC. Her pregnancy until now has been unremarkable.
On examination, she is haemodynamically stable, but there is tenderness on palpation of the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. Fetal heart rate was normal. An ultrasound scan was performed which showed a singleton pregnancy, and multiple large fibroids in the uterus. The ovaries appear normal and there was no appendix inflammation.
What is the most likely cause of Linda's symptoms?Your Answer: Threatened miscarriage
Correct Answer: Fibroid degeneration
Explanation:During pregnancy, fibroid degeneration can occur and may cause symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting. If an ultrasound scan shows no signs of inflammation in the appendix, it is unlikely that the patient has appendicitis. Given the presence of fibroids in the uterus, the patient is at risk of experiencing fibroid degeneration, particularly red degeneration, which can cause fever, pain, and vomiting. The absence of vaginal bleeding makes it unlikely that the patient is experiencing a threatened miscarriage. Ovarian torsion typically presents with pain and vomiting, but it is usually associated with risk factors such as ovarian cysts or enlargement.
Understanding Fibroid Degeneration
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that can develop in the uterus. They are known to be sensitive to oestrogen and can grow during pregnancy. However, if the growth of the fibroids exceeds their blood supply, they can undergo a type of degeneration known as red or ‘carneous’ degeneration. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting.
Fortunately, fibroid degeneration can be managed conservatively with rest and analgesia. With proper care, the symptoms should resolve within 4-7 days. It is important to note that fibroid degeneration is a common occurrence and doesn’t necessarily indicate a serious underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is constantly in trouble at school. She will not sit still and be quiet or get on with her work. She is equally troublesome at home and her mother cannot take her anywhere. She wonders if she has attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Select from the list the single correct statement about ADHD.Your Answer: Children must be both inattentive and hyperactive
Correct Answer: Some impairment from symptoms must be evident in two or more settings
Explanation:Understanding ADHD: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Comorbidities
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that is more severe than what is typically observed in individuals at a comparable level of development. In the UK, ADHD affects between 2-5% of children, with boys being more commonly affected. Diagnosis is usually made in children aged 3-7 years, but it can also be recognized later in life.
To diagnose ADHD, symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity and/or inattention should be present. However, the ICD-10 classification requires all three problems of attention, hyperactivity, and impulsiveness to be present. About 70% of children with ADHD also have other conditions, such as learning difficulties, dyspraxia, Gilles de la Tourette syndrome, or tic disorder. Oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder is present in most children with ADHD, and depression and anxiety are common comorbidities.
While about 1 in 3 children with ADHD can grow out of their condition and not require any treatment when they are adults, the remainder either continue with ADHD or retain some symptoms and functional impairment. Therefore, early diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to improve outcomes for individuals with ADHD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 36-year-old large goods vehicle (LGV) driver visits your clinic. He has type II diabetes, managed with metformin and tolbutamide.
He reports experiencing a hypoglycaemic episode while at work. He was conversing with a colleague before embarking on a delivery when he suddenly felt hot, dizzy, and disoriented. His colleague escorted him to the first-aid station, where his blood glucose was checked. It was 3.2. The first-aider administered oral glucose, and he quickly recovered.
What guidance will you provide to your patient regarding his Group 2 (LGV) driving license?Your Answer: No driving for 12 months and he must notify the DVLA
Explanation:Diabetes and Driving: DVLA Guidelines
People with diabetes who are managed by tablets that carry a risk of inducing hypoglycaemia must meet certain criteria to maintain their driving licence. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) guidelines state that patients must have no episode of hypoglycaemia requiring assistance in the past 12 months, have full awareness of hypoglycaemia, regularly monitor their blood glucose levels, and demonstrate an understanding of the risks of hypoglycaemia. Additionally, there should be no other complications of diabetes that could affect driving, such as a visual field defect.
If a patient experiences an episode of hypoglycaemia requiring assistance, they must give up their Group 2 licence until they have been clear of any similar episodes for 12 months. It is also important to note that a lack of hypoglycaemic awareness can be a worrying feature, and referral to a specialist diabetic team may be necessary to optimize diabetic control and re-establish hypoglycaemic awareness. By following these guidelines and working with healthcare professionals, people with diabetes can maintain their driving privileges while ensuring their safety and the safety of others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You encounter a 48-year-old man experiencing his first episode of depression, which appears to have been triggered by losing his job. He reports feeling significantly better after taking an antidepressant for six weeks and inquires about discontinuing it.
What is the suggested duration for continuing antidepressant medication to minimize the likelihood of relapse?Your Answer: 3 months
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Recommended Duration of Treatment for Depression
According to NICE guidance, individuals who have experienced their first episode of depression should undergo six months of treatment to decrease the likelihood of relapse. However, for those who have recurrent depression, treatment is recommended for a longer period of two years. It is important to note that the duration of treatment may vary depending on the severity of the depression and the individual’s response to treatment. It is crucial for individuals to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate length of treatment for their specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Correct
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You start a patient on atorvastatin after their cholesterol was found to be raised in the context of a QRISK of 15%. You repeat the blood tests 6 months after starting treatment.
Which of the following blood results does NICE recommend using to determine the next course of action?Your Answer: Non-HDL cholesterol
Explanation:Monitoring Statin Treatment for Primary Prevention
Following the initiation of statin treatment for primary prevention, it is recommended to have a repeat blood test after 3 months. The non-HDL cholesterol level should be interpreted to guide the next steps in management. The goal of treatment is to reduce non-HDL levels by 40% of the patient’s baseline. If adherence, timing of the dose, and lifestyle measures are in place, an increase in dose may be necessary.
It is not routine to investigate creatine kinase in this context, but it would be helpful to investigate unexplained muscle symptoms. Liver function tests are not an option, but NICE advises testing these 3 months and 12 months following statin initiation. If stable, no further monitoring for LFTs is required after this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents with unprovoked, painless, macroscopic haematuria. Dipstick testing confirms the presence of blood but no leukocytes or nitrites.
Select the most likely cause of these symptoms.Your Answer: Bladder tumour
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Macroscopic Haematuria by Age
Macroscopic haematuria, or visible blood in the urine, can be a concerning symptom that may indicate a serious underlying condition. The causes of macroscopic haematuria can vary depending on the age and gender of the patient. In general, painless macroscopic haematuria in an adult should be considered a potential sign of renal tract cancer until proven otherwise.
For patients under 20 years old, glomerulopathies (especially IgA nephropathy), thin basement membrane disease, urinary infection, congenital malformation, hereditary nephritis (Alport’s Syndrome), and sickle cell disease are the most likely causes.
For patients between 20 and 60 years old, urinary infection, nephrolithiasis, endometriosis, bladder, prostate, and renal cancers are the most common causes. The risk of cancer increases significantly after the age of 35-50.
For patients over 60 years old, the most likely causes of macroscopic haematuria differ by gender. In males, cancer and prostatitis are the most common causes, while in females, cancer and urinary infection are the most common causes.
It is important to note that while these age-related trends can be helpful in guiding diagnostic testing and treatment, almost any disease can affect anyone at any age. Therefore, a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the underlying cause of macroscopic haematuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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