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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of shoulder weakness. During...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of shoulder weakness. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot initiate shoulder abduction. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be dysfunctional?

      Your Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      The Suprascapular Nerve and its Function

      The suprascapular nerve is a nerve that originates from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus. It is located superior to the trunks of the brachial plexus and runs parallel to them. The nerve passes through the scapular notch, which is located deep to the trapezius muscle. Its main function is to innervate both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are responsible for initiating abduction of the shoulder.

      If the suprascapular nerve is damaged, patients may experience difficulty in initiating abduction of the shoulder. However, they may still be able to abduct the shoulder by leaning over the affected side, as the deltoid muscle can then continue to abduct the shoulder. Overall, the suprascapular nerve plays an important role in the movement and function of the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      22.8
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old patient has been experiencing breathing difficulties for the past year. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient has been experiencing breathing difficulties for the past year. He finds it challenging to climb small hills, has developed a persistent cough, and has had two chest infections that were treated effectively by his doctor. He has never smoked, and his mother had comparable symptoms when she was his age. Based on his spirometry results, which indicate an FEV1/FVC ratio of 60%, his doctor suspects that his symptoms are caused by a genetic disorder. What is the molecular mechanism that underlies his probable condition?

      Your Answer: Promotion of the breakdown of neutrophil elastase

      Correct Answer: Failure to break down neutrophil elastase

      Explanation:

      The patient’s medical history suggests that they may be suffering from alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency.

      When there is a shortage of alpha-1 antitrypsin, neutrophil elastase is not inhibited and can break down proteins in the lung interstitium. Although neutrophil elastase is a crucial part of the innate immune system, its unregulated activity can lead to excessive breakdown of extracellular proteins like elastin, collagen, fibronectin, and fibrin. This results in reduced pulmonary elasticity, which can cause emphysema and COPD.

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency is a genetic condition that occurs when the liver does not produce enough of a protein called protease inhibitor (Pi). This protein is responsible for protecting cells from enzymes like neutrophil elastase. A1AT deficiency is inherited in an autosomal recessive or co-dominant manner and is located on chromosome 14. The alleles are classified by their electrophoretic mobility, with M being normal, S being slow, and Z being very slow. The normal genotype is PiMM, while heterozygous individuals have PiMZ. Homozygous PiSS individuals have 50% normal A1AT levels, while homozygous PiZZ individuals have only 10% normal A1AT levels.

      A1AT deficiency is most commonly associated with panacinar emphysema, which is a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). This is especially true for patients with the PiZZ genotype. Emphysema is more likely to occur in non-smokers with A1AT deficiency, but they may still pass on the gene to their children. In addition to lung problems, A1AT deficiency can also cause liver issues such as cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma in adults, and cholestasis in children.

      Diagnosis of A1AT deficiency involves measuring A1AT concentrations and performing spirometry to assess lung function. Management of the condition includes avoiding smoking and receiving supportive care such as bronchodilators and physiotherapy. Intravenous alpha1-antitrypsin protein concentrates may also be used. In severe cases, lung volume reduction surgery or lung transplantation may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      49.4
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  • Question 3 - A 10-year-old boy comes to your clinic with a complaint of ear pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to your clinic with a complaint of ear pain that started last night and kept him awake. He missed school today because of the pain and reports muffled sounds on the affected side. During otoscopy, you observe a bulging tympanic membrane with visible fluid behind it, indicating a middle ear infection. Can you identify which nerves pass through the middle ear?

      Your Answer: Vestibulocochlear nerve

      Correct Answer: Chorda tympani

      Explanation:

      The chorda tympani is the correct answer. It is a branch of the seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, and carries parasympathetic and taste fibers. It passes through the middle ear before exiting and joining with the lingual nerve to reach the tongue and salivary glands.

      The vestibulocochlear nerve is the eighth cranial nerve and carries balance and hearing information.

      The maxillary nerve is the second division of the fifth cranial nerve and carries sensation from the upper teeth, nasal cavity, and skin.

      The mandibular nerve is the third division of the fifth cranial nerve and carries sensation from the lower teeth, tongue, mandible, and skin. It also carries motor fibers to certain muscles.

      The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve and carries taste and sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, as well as sensation from various areas. It also carries motor and parasympathetic fibers.

      The patient in the question has ear pain, likely due to otitis media, as evidenced by a bulging tympanic membrane and fluid level on otoscopy.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      38.8
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  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of severe abdominal pain, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Upon examination, she has a distended abdomen that is tender to the touch, and bowel sounds are infrequent. Her medical history includes a hysterectomy and cholecystectomy. A CT scan is ordered, which reveals a bowel obstruction at the L1 level. What is the most likely affected area?

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The 2nd segment of the duodenum is situated at the transpyloric plane, which corresponds to the level of L1 and is a significant anatomical reference point.

      The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks

      The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.

      Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.

      In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.

      Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      89.9
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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man is admitted to the ICU after emergency surgery for an...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is admitted to the ICU after emergency surgery for an abdominal aortic aneurysm. He presents with abdominal pain and diarrhea and is in a critical condition. Despite the absence of peritonism, which of the following arterial blood gas patterns is most likely to be observed?

      Your Answer: pH 7.20, pO2 9.0, pCO2 3.5, Base excess -10, Lactate 8

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this individual is experiencing metabolic acidosis as a result of a mesenteric infarction.

      Disorders of Acid-Base Balance

      The acid-base nomogram is a useful tool for categorizing the various disorders of acid-base balance. Metabolic acidosis is the most common surgical acid-base disorder, characterized by a reduction in plasma bicarbonate levels. This can be caused by a gain of strong acid or loss of base, and is classified according to the anion gap. A normal anion gap indicates hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, renal tubular acidosis, drugs, or Addison’s disease. A raised anion gap indicates lactate, ketones, urate, or acid poisoning. Metabolic alkalosis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a rise in plasma bicarbonate levels due to a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate. It is mainly caused by problems of the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a rise in carbon dioxide levels due to alveolar hypoventilation, while respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilation resulting in excess loss of carbon dioxide. These disorders have various causes, such as COPD, sedative drugs, anxiety, hypoxia, and pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      87
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sharp and stabbing...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sharp and stabbing central chest pain that radiates to his back, neck, and left shoulder. He reports feeling feverish and states that sitting forward relieves the pain while lying down worsens it. The patient also mentions a recent hospitalization for a heart attack three weeks ago. During auscultation at the left sternal border, a scratchy sound is heard while the patient leans forward and holds his breath. His ECG shows widespread ST-segment saddle elevation and PR-segment depression. Can you identify the nerve responsible for his shoulder pain?

      Your Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      The referred pain to the shoulder in this case is likely caused by Dressler’s syndrome, a type of pericarditis that occurs after a heart attack. The scratchy sound heard during auscultation is a pericardial friction rub, which is a common characteristic of pericarditis. The phrenic nerve, which supplies the pericardium, travels from the neck down through the thoracic cavity and can cause referred pain to the shoulder in cases of pericarditis.

      The axillary nerve is responsible for innervating the teres minor and deltoid muscles, and dysfunction of this nerve can result in loss of sensation or movement in the shoulder area.

      While the accessory nerve does innervate muscles in the neck that attach to the shoulder, it has a purely motor function and is not responsible for sensory input. Additionally, the referred pain in this case is not typical of musculoskeletal pain, but rather a result of pericarditis.

      Injuries involving the long thoracic nerve often result in winging of the scapula and are commonly caused by axillary surgery.

      Although the vagus nerve does supply parasympathetic innervation to the heart, it is not responsible for the referred pain in this case, as the pericardium is innervated by the phrenic nerve.

      The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies

      The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.

      The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.

      Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      115
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and increased production of sputum over the past year. She also reports feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath. The patient mentions having had four chest infections in the last 12 months, all of which were treated with antibiotics. She has no personal or family history of lung issues and has never smoked.

      The healthcare provider suspects that bronchiectasis may be the underlying cause of her symptoms and orders appropriate tests.

      Which test is most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: High-resolution computerised tomography

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis can be diagnosed through various methods, including chest radiography, histopathology, and pulmonary function tests.

      Chest radiography can reveal thickened bronchial walls, cystic lesions with fluid levels, collapsed areas with crowded pulmonary vasculature, and scarring, which are characteristic features of bronchiectasis.

      Histopathology, which is a more invasive investigation often done through autopsy or surgery, can show irreversible dilation of bronchial airways and bronchial wall thickening.

      However, high-resolution computerised tomography is a more favorable imaging technique as it is less invasive than histopathology.

      Pulmonary function tests are commonly used to diagnose bronchiectasis, but they should be used in conjunction with other investigations as they are not sensitive or specific enough to provide sufficient diagnostic evidence on their own. An obstructive pattern is the most common pattern encountered, but a restrictive pattern is also possible.

      Understanding the Causes of Bronchiectasis

      Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by the permanent dilation of the airways due to chronic inflammation or infection. There are various factors that can lead to this condition, including post-infective causes such as tuberculosis, measles, pertussis, and pneumonia. Cystic fibrosis, bronchial obstruction caused by lung cancer or foreign bodies, and immune deficiencies like selective IgA and hypogammaglobulinaemia can also contribute to bronchiectasis. Additionally, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), ciliary dyskinetic syndromes like Kartagener’s syndrome and Young’s syndrome, and yellow nail syndrome are other potential causes. Understanding the underlying causes of bronchiectasis is crucial in developing effective treatment plans for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      43.8
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  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old man visits his GP complaining of worsening shortness of breath. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man visits his GP complaining of worsening shortness of breath. He was diagnosed with COPD six years ago and has been frequently admitted to the emergency department due to lower respiratory tract infections, especially in the past year. He has a smoking history of 50 pack-years and currently smokes 20 cigarettes per day.

      During the examination, the patient appears to be struggling to breathe even at rest and is in the tripod position. His heart rate is 78/min, blood pressure is 140/88 mmHg, oxygen saturation is 88% on air, respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute, and temperature is 36.4ÂșC. His chest expansion is symmetrical, and breath sounds are equal throughout the lung fields.

      Recent spirometry results show that his FEV1 was 47% a week ago, 53% a month ago, and 67% six months ago. What intervention would be most effective in slowing the decline of his FEV1?

      Your Answer: Inhaled short-acting beta agonist e.g. salbutamol

      Correct Answer: Smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Slowing the decrease in FEV1 in COPD can be most effectively achieved by quitting smoking.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenzae vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      81.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 49-year-old man experiences blunt force trauma to the head and subsequently experiences...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man experiences blunt force trauma to the head and subsequently experiences respiratory distress, leading to hypercapnia. What is the most probable consequence of this condition?

      Your Answer: Cerebral vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Cerebral vasodilation is a common result of hypercapnia, which can be problematic for patients with cranial trauma due to the potential increase in intracranial pressure.

      Understanding the Monro-Kelly Doctrine and Autoregulation in the CNS

      The Monro-Kelly doctrine governs the pressure within the cranium by considering the skull as a closed box. The loss of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can accommodate increases in mass until a critical point is reached, usually at 100-120ml of CSF lost. Beyond this point, intracranial pressure (ICP) rises sharply, and pressure will eventually equate with mean arterial pressure (MAP), leading to neuronal death and herniation.

      The central nervous system (CNS) has the ability to autoregulate its own blood supply through vasoconstriction and dilation of cerebral blood vessels. However, extreme blood pressure levels can exceed this capacity, increasing the risk of stroke. Additionally, metabolic factors such as hypercapnia can cause vasodilation, which is crucial in ventilating head-injured patients.

      It is important to note that the brain can only metabolize glucose, and a decrease in glucose levels can lead to impaired consciousness. Understanding the Monro-Kelly doctrine and autoregulation in the CNS is crucial in managing intracranial pressure and preventing neurological damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      93.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 49-year-old woman of African descent visits her primary care physician with concerns...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman of African descent visits her primary care physician with concerns about a lump in her neck that has been present for a week. She reports no significant increase in size and denies any pain or difficulty swallowing. The patient has no notable medical history, except for a visit to the eye doctor last year for a red-eye that required treatment with topical steroid drops. During the examination, the doctor observes some red, tender nodules on the patient's shin, which the patient says come and go and do not cause much discomfort. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with no other significant findings. What is typically linked to this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Elevated angiotensin-converting enzyme levels

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is likely in this patient based on their symptoms and examination findings, including a neck lump, tender nodules on the shin, and a history of red-eye. Bilateral lymphadenopathy on chest X-ray further supports the diagnosis, as does the presence of elevated angiotensin-converting enzyme levels, which are commonly seen in sarcoidosis. Hypercalcemia, fatigue, and uveitis are also associated with sarcoidosis, while exposure to silica is not supported by this patient’s presentation.

      Investigating Sarcoidosis

      Sarcoidosis is a disease that does not have a single diagnostic test, and therefore, diagnosis is mainly based on clinical observations. Although ACE levels may be used to monitor disease activity, they are not reliable in diagnosing sarcoidosis due to their low sensitivity and specificity. Routine blood tests may show hypercalcemia and a raised ESR.

      A chest x-ray is a common investigation for sarcoidosis and may reveal different stages of the disease. Stage 0 is normal, stage 1 shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), stage 2 shows BHL and interstitial infiltrates, stage 3 shows diffuse interstitial infiltrates only, and stage 4 shows diffuse fibrosis. Other investigations, such as spirometry, may show a restrictive defect, while a tissue biopsy may reveal non-caseating granulomas. However, the Kveim test, which involves injecting part of the spleen from a patient with known sarcoidosis under the skin, is no longer performed due to concerns about cross-infection.

      In addition, a gallium-67 scan is not routinely used to investigate sarcoidosis. CT scans may also be used to investigate sarcoidosis, and they may show diffuse areas of nodularity predominantly in a peribronchial distribution with patchy areas of consolidation, particularly in the upper lobes. Ground glass opacities may also be present, but there are no gross reticular changes to suggest fibrosis.

      Overall, investigating sarcoidosis involves a combination of clinical observations, blood tests, chest x-rays, and other investigations such as spirometry and tissue biopsy. CT scans may also be used to provide more detailed information about the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      161.2
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory System (6/10) 60%
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