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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old patient with a history of migraines presents to you after being...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient with a history of migraines presents to you after being discharged from the stroke unit following a posterior circulation stroke. She is distressed as she believes there was a considerable delay in her diagnosis. Initially diagnosed with a severe migraine, she was not referred to the hospital until her symptoms persisted for several days.

      What is the primary symptom that typically presents in a posterior circulation stroke?

      Your Answer: Dizziness

      Explanation:

      Dizziness is the most prevalent indication of a posterior circulation stroke, although other symptoms such as double vision, disorientation, visual disturbance, confusion, and memory loss are also significant. Roughly 33% of posterior circulation strokes are misdiagnosed as migraines, which can cause temporary neurological deficits even without a headache. Additionally, individuals who suffer from migraines are more likely to experience a headache as a result of brain ischemia, which can further complicate the diagnosis. Patients who experience new vertigo or headaches, dizziness, or a change in the nature of their migraines should be evaluated for a posterior circulation stroke.

      Understanding Stroke: A Basic Overview

      Stroke is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, with over 150,000 cases reported annually in the UK alone. It is the fourth leading cause of death in the country, killing twice as many women as breast cancer each year. However, the prevention and treatment of strokes have undergone significant changes in the past decade. What was once considered an untreatable condition is now viewed as a brain attack that requires emergency assessment to determine if patients can benefit from new treatments such as thrombolysis.

      A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), occurs when there is a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain. This interruption can lead to irreversible damage as neural tissue is entirely dependent on aerobic metabolism. There are two main types of strokes: ischaemic and haemorrhagic. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage in the blood vessel that stops blood flow, while haemorrhagic strokes happen when a blood vessel bursts, leading to a reduction in blood flow.

      Symptoms of a stroke include motor weakness, speech problems, swallowing difficulties, visual field defects, and balance problems. The Oxford Stroke Classification is a formal system used to classify strokes based on initial symptoms. Patients with suspected stroke require emergency neuroimaging to determine if they are suitable for thrombolytic therapy to treat early ischaemic strokes. If the stroke is haemorrhagic, neurosurgical consultation should be considered for advice on further management.

      In conclusion, understanding the basics of stroke is crucial in identifying and managing the condition. Early intervention and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 2 - A 47-year-old woman presents to the Stroke Clinic for review after experiencing a...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman presents to the Stroke Clinic for review after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA). It is suspected that the patient’s TIA was caused by an issue with her carotid arteries.
      A magnetic resonance angiogram (MRA) is requested followed by catheter angiography. The MRA shows a right internal carotid with narrowed eccentric lumen, surrounded by a crescent-shaped mural thrombus and thin annular enhancement. The catheter angiogram shows a ‘string sign’ in the right internal carotid.
      What internal carotid abnormality is most likely the cause of this patient’s TIA?

      Your Answer: Carotid-artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Cervico-cerebral arterial dissections (CADs) are a common cause of strokes in younger patients, accounting for almost 20% of strokes in those under 45 years old. The majority of cases involve the extracranial internal carotid artery, while extracranial vertebral dissections make up about 15% of cases. A high level of suspicion is necessary to diagnose CAD, and confirmation can be obtained through various imaging techniques such as Doppler ultrasonography, magnetic resonance imaging/magnetic resonance angiography (MRA), computed tomography angiography (CTA), or catheter angiography. CTA can reveal several characteristic features of CAD, including an abnormal vessel contour, enlargement of the dissected artery, an intimal flap, and a dissecting aneurysm. The traditional method of diagnosing arterial dissections is catheter angiography, which typically shows a long segment of narrowed lumen known as the string sign. Other conditions such as carotid-artery pseudoaneurysm, carotid-artery aneurysm, carotid-artery occlusion, and carotid-artery stenosis can also be identified through imaging techniques, but they are not evident in this particular angiogram.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      682.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman with suspected dementia is referred by her General Practitioner to...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with suspected dementia is referred by her General Practitioner to the Memory Clinic. A dementia blood screen is performed and is normal.
      What is an indication for performing structural neuroimaging (CT or MRI head) in the workup for investigating patients with dementia?

      Your Answer: Ruling out reversible causes of cognitive decline

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Neuroimaging in the Diagnosis of Dementia

      Neuroimaging plays a crucial role in the diagnosis of dementia and ruling out reversible causes of cognitive decline. Structural imaging should be offered to assist with subtype diagnosis and exclude other reversible conditions unless dementia is well established and the subtype is clear. In primary care, a blood screen is usually sent to exclude reversible causes, while in secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. Focal neurology and cardiovascular abnormalities are not indications for performing structural imaging of the brain. However, neuroimaging is required in the workup of dementia in all age groups, including patients over 75 years old and those under 65 years old with suspected early-onset dementia. The 2011 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in the investigation of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      42.7
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old woman with permanent atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin. She has experienced...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with permanent atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin. She has experienced two unprovoked tonic-clonic seizures witnessed by her husband. CT scan of the brain reveals diffuse ischaemic changes in the white matter. The specialist recommends starting her on an anti-epileptic medication.
      What would be the most suitable anti-epileptic drug to prescribe for this patient who is also on warfarin therapy?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Anti-Epileptic Drugs and Warfarin Interaction

      When prescribing anti-epileptic drugs to patients taking warfarin, it is important to consider potential drug interactions. Lamotrigine is a safe option as it has no effect on liver enzymes and does not interact significantly with warfarin. However, other anti-epileptic drugs such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, primidone, and phenobarbital can affect warfarin metabolism and effectiveness. Phenytoin and warfarin have a complex interaction that may initially increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, then decrease it with continued phenytoin use. Warfarin also increases the level of phenytoin. Carbamazepine is a P450 enzyme inducer, which decreases the level and effect of warfarin. Phenobarbital and primidone are also enzyme inducers that decrease warfarin effectiveness. Sodium valproate, on the other hand, is a liver enzyme inhibitor. Therefore, when considering anti-epileptic drugs for patients taking warfarin, it is important to weigh the potential drug interactions and choose the appropriate medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      31.8
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  • Question 5 - Neuropathic pain typically does not improve with opioids. Nevertheless, if conventional treatments have...

    Correct

    • Neuropathic pain typically does not improve with opioids. Nevertheless, if conventional treatments have been ineffective, which opioid should be considered for initiation in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.

      Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 6 - A 62-year-old woman has a left hemisphere stroke due to thromboembolic occlusion of...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman has a left hemisphere stroke due to thromboembolic occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery (MCA). She does not have a visual field deficit on confrontation testing and makes a good neurological recovery within seven days, being able to walk unaided. She is left with minor weakness of her right hand.
      What advice is she most likely to be given by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA)?

      Your Answer: Must not drive for 1 month

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions Following a Stroke or TIA

      After experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) or stroke, patients must not drive for at least one month, regardless of the severity. If clinical recovery is satisfactory, non-HGV drivers may resume driving after one month. However, if residual neurological deficits persist after one month, including visual field defects, cognitive defects, and impaired limb function, patients must not drive until these signs have fully resolved. Minor limb weakness alone does not require notification to the DVLA unless restriction to certain types of vehicles is needed.

      If a patient has only minor weakness to the hand, they can resume driving after one month. However, if they wish to drive a group 2 vehicle, such as a large goods vehicle (LGV), they must wait at least two years. The DVLA may refuse or revoke a license for one year following a stroke or TIA, but patients can be considered for licensing after this period if there is no residual impairment likely to affect safe driving and no other significant risk factors. Licensing may be subject to satisfactory medical reports, including exercise electrocardiographic (ECG) testing.

      In cases of doubt, driving assessments may be carried out at specialist rehabilitation centers. It is essential to contact the DVLA for an overview of the main restrictions for drivers with neurological and other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      60.4
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic after being referred by his General...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic after being referred by his General Practitioner for experiencing numbness and tingling in his left arm. He also reports an incident of visual blurring and pain in his left eye about six months ago.
      What is the most suitable type of cross-sectional scan to determine the cause of this man's symptoms?
      Choose the ONE most appropriate investigation from the options provided.

      Your Answer: MRI brain and spine without contrast

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain and spine with contrast

      Explanation:

      Imaging Modalities for Multiple Sclerosis Diagnosis

      To diagnose multiple sclerosis, imaging modalities are necessary to assess for acute demyelination and anatomical changes in the grey and white matter. The preferred imaging modality is magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with contrast, which can visualize acute inflammatory changes and demyelinating lesions. Dopamine Active Transfer scan (DaTscan) is not useful for multiple sclerosis diagnosis but can confirm Parkinson’s disease. Computed tomography (CT) with contrast is best for vascular lesions, while CT without contrast is only appropriate for acute trauma. MRI without contrast is the second-best option but cannot differentiate between acute and chronic lesions. Both brain and spine should be imaged to avoid missing the lesion responsible for the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      57.8
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  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. What is the current...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. What is the current evidence-based approach to managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with recent onset of left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with recent onset of left-sided weakness. She has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin, with an INR of 2.5 upon admission. A CT scan of her head reveals an intracerebral haemorrhage in the left basal ganglia. What steps should be taken regarding her warfarin medication?

      Your Answer: Stop the warfarin, give 5mg of vitamin K intravenously and give fresh frozen plasma

      Correct Answer: Stop the warfarin, give 5mg of vitamin K intravenously and give prothrombin complex concentrate intravenously

      Explanation:

      In the event of major bleeding, such as an intracranial haemorrhage, it is crucial to discontinue warfarin and administer intravenous vitamin K 5mg and prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC). PCC is a solution that contains coagulation factors II, VII, IX and X, specifically designed to reverse the effects of warfarin. It is recommended over fresh frozen plasma (FFP) for warfarin reversal.

      Management of High INR in Patients Taking Warfarin

      When managing patients taking warfarin who have a high INR, the approach will depend on whether there is bleeding or not. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped immediately and intravenous vitamin K 5mg should be given along with prothrombin complex concentrate. If this is not available, fresh frozen plasma can be used instead. For minor bleeding, warfarin should also be stopped and intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg should be given. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, the dose of vitamin K can be repeated. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is below 5.0.

      If there is no bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and vitamin K 1-5mg can be given orally using the intravenous preparation. The dose of vitamin K can be repeated if the INR remains high after 24 hours. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is below 5.0. In cases where the INR is between 5.0-8.0, warfarin should be stopped for minor bleeding and intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg should be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is below 5.0. For patients with no bleeding and an INR between 5.0-8.0, one or two doses of warfarin can be withheld and the subsequent maintenance dose can be reduced.

      It is important to note that in cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered instead of fresh frozen plasma as it can take time to defrost. These guidelines are based on the recommendations of the British Committee for Standards in Haematology and the British National Formulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      27.5
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention for worsening migraine symptoms. He is experiencing one debilitating migraine attack every two weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and only partially relieved by zolmitriptan. This has resulted in frequent work absences. His current medication regimen includes zolmitriptan, salbutamol, and Clenil. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for reducing the frequency of his migraine attacks?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      For the prophylaxis of migraines, NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol. However, propranolol is not suitable for this patient due to his asthma. As for acute treatment, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - What is the most prevalent form of multiple sclerosis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most prevalent form of multiple sclerosis?

      Your Answer: Relapsing-remitting disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the central nervous system, causing demyelination. It is more common in women and typically diagnosed in individuals aged 20-40 years. Interestingly, it is much more prevalent in higher latitudes, with a five-fold increase compared to tropical regions. Genetics play a role in the development of multiple sclerosis, with a 30% concordance rate in monozygotic twins and a 2% concordance rate in dizygotic twins.

      There are several subtypes of multiple sclerosis, including relapsing-remitting disease, which is the most common form and accounts for around 85% of patients. This subtype is characterized by acute attacks followed by periods of remission. Secondary progressive disease describes relapsing-remitting patients who have deteriorated and developed neurological signs and symptoms between relapses. Gait and bladder disorders are commonly seen in this subtype, and around 65% of patients with relapsing-remitting disease go on to develop secondary progressive disease within 15 years of diagnosis. Finally, primary progressive disease accounts for 10% of patients and is characterized by progressive deterioration from onset, which is more common in older individuals. Understanding the different subtypes of multiple sclerosis is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.1
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  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old history teacher has contacted his doctor reporting a one-hour episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old history teacher has contacted his doctor reporting a one-hour episode of weakness in his left arm and leg earlier today, which has since resolved. He denies any facial drooping, residual weakness, or slurred speech. He insists that he feels completely healthy and only called because his wife urged him to. The patient has a previous diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism and is currently taking apixaban. What is the initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Face to face examination at the practice

      Correct Answer: Urgent admission to the emergency department for urgent CT head

      Explanation:

      Immediate admission for imaging to rule out a hemorrhage is necessary if a patient with suspected TIA is on warfarin, a DOAC, or has a bleeding disorder.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner for evaluation, and it is...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner for evaluation, and it is observed that he is experiencing behavioural issues. The GP recommends additional testing with a potential diagnosis of frontotemporal dementia (FTD) or Lewy body dementia (LBD) being considered.
      What aspect of the patient's medical history would suggest that LBD is the more probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fluctuating confusion and hallucination

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Frontotemporal Dementia and Lewy Body Dementia

      Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) and Lewy body dementia (LBD) are two types of dementia that can cause a range of symptoms. Understanding the signs and symptoms of these conditions can help with early diagnosis and treatment.

      Fluctuating confusion and hallucination are common signs of LBD, which is caused by protein deposits in nerve cells in the brain. People with LBD may also experience Parkinson’s disease symptoms such as rigid muscles and tremors. On the other hand, FTD is characterized by an insidious onset and a gradual progression. Personality changes, social-conduct problems, and a decline in judgment and empathy are common features of FTD.

      While memory loss is a more prominent symptom in early Alzheimer’s, it can also occur in advanced stages of FTD and LBD. However, relatively preserved memory is more characteristic of FTD in its early stages. Additionally, FTD tends to have an onset before age 65, with some cases diagnosed in individuals as young as 17 years old.

      Overall, recognizing the signs and symptoms of FTD and LBD can help with early diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old man who is a smoker presents with complaints about his left...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man who is a smoker presents with complaints about his left eye. Upon examination, it is found that he has a constricted left pupil with a ptosis and anhidrosis.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Horner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Horner syndrome is a rare condition caused by a disruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms including a constricted pupil, partial drooping of the eyelid, and loss of sweating on one side of the face. Possible causes of Horner syndrome include brain-stem stroke or tumor, brachial plexus trauma, lung infections or tumors, carotid artery issues, and migraines. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease that attacks the central nervous system and can cause optic neuritis, but the symptoms described in the scenario do not match those of MS. Holmes-Adie syndrome is a neurological disorder characterized by a dilated pupil that reacts slowly to light, loss of deep tendon reflexes, and profuse sweating, which is not consistent with the scenario. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness, but it typically affects the facial muscles and extraocular muscles, not the pupil. Riley-Day syndrome is a disorder of the autonomic nervous system that affects infants and is characterized by the absence of overflow tears with emotional crying.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis comes in for evaluation. She reports experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis comes in for evaluation. She reports experiencing worsening issues with painful spasms in her leg muscles. What is the initial treatment option that should be considered?

      Your Answer: Baclofen

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatments for spasticity in multiple sclerosis are baclofen and gabapentin.

      Multiple sclerosis is a condition that cannot be cured, but its treatment aims to reduce the frequency and duration of relapses. In the case of an acute relapse, high-dose steroids may be administered for five days to shorten its length. However, it is important to note that steroids do not affect the degree of recovery. Disease-modifying drugs are used to reduce the risk of relapse in patients with MS. These drugs are typically indicated for patients with relapsing-remitting disease or secondary progressive disease who have had two relapses in the past two years and are able to walk a certain distance unaided. Natalizumab, ocrelizumab, fingolimod, beta-interferon, and glatiramer acetate are some of the drugs used to reduce the risk of relapse in MS.

      Fatigue is a common problem in MS patients, and amantadine is recommended by NICE after excluding other potential causes such as anaemia, thyroid problems, or depression. Mindfulness training and CBT are other options for managing fatigue. Spasticity is another issue that can be addressed with first-line drugs such as baclofen and gabapentin, as well as physiotherapy. Cannabis and botox are currently being evaluated for their effectiveness in managing spasticity. Bladder dysfunction is also a common problem in MS patients, and anticholinergics may worsen symptoms in some patients. Ultrasound is recommended to assess bladder emptying, and intermittent self-catheterisation may be necessary if there is significant residual volume. Gabapentin is the first-line treatment for oscillopsia, which is a condition where visual fields appear to oscillate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - A 57-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She developed a blistering rash under her...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She developed a blistering rash under her left breast that spread to her back about 4 weeks ago, and was diagnosed with shingles. However, she has been experiencing intense shooting pains and tenderness in the affected area since then, despite trying both paracetamol and ibuprofen. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      The woman is suffering from post-herpetic neuralgia and NICE suggests starting treatment with amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin.

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.

      Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.7
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  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department. He reports experiencing sudden blurred...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department. He reports experiencing sudden blurred vision and difficulty speaking. He denies any history of head injury or trauma and does not have a headache. On examination, he exhibits exaggerated reflexes and upward plantars. Fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Neurological Conditions and Upper Motor Neurone Signs

      Upper motor neurone signs, such as spasticity, hyperreflexia, clonus, and the Babinski reflex, are indicative of certain neurological conditions. Multiple sclerosis, a demyelinating disease, is one such condition that causes these signs. On the other hand, a stroke in a young person is relatively unlikely to cause upper motor neurone signs. Cerebral venous thrombosis could cause these signs, but it would be highly unlikely without a headache and normal fundoscopy. Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is a relatively symmetrical, ascending lower motor neurone disease that does not typically present with blurred vision and speech disturbances. Poliomyelitis, a lower motor neurone condition, is characterised by hypotonia and hyporeflexia and would not cause the Babinski reflex.

      Understanding Upper Motor Neurone Signs in Neurological Conditions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old woman presents for follow-up regarding her frequent migraine attacks. Despite taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents for follow-up regarding her frequent migraine attacks. Despite taking a combination of paracetamol and ibuprofen, she has not experienced significant relief. Her current medications include as-needed paracetamol and ibuprofen, as well as Cerazette, a progestogen-only pill. What is the most suitable medication to consider for reducing the frequency of her migraines?

      Your Answer: Switch Cerazette to a combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      For women of childbearing age who suffer from migraines, propranolol is a better option than topiramate. This is because NICE recommends both drugs for migraine prophylaxis, but the combined oral contraceptive pill cannot be used due to the patient’s migraine history. While zolmitriptan can be used to stop attacks, it is not effective for prophylaxis.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department after falling off a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department after falling off a ladder and hitting their head. The ambulance crew suspects an intracranial haemorrhage. Upon examination, the patient responds to verbal instruction by opening their eyes, but only makes incomprehensible groans. Painful stimulation causes abnormal flexing on the left side, while the right side has no motor response. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?

      Your Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman has come in for her 6-week baby check with no...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has come in for her 6-week baby check with no postnatal issues. She is currently breastfeeding and has a history of frequent migraines. She is seeking treatment for a migraine today. Which of the following medications should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding mothers should avoid taking aspirin as it may increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome. High doses of aspirin can also affect platelet function and cause hypoprothrombinaemia in infants with low vitamin K stores. However, paracetamol is safe to use for pain relief during breastfeeding. Anti-emetics such as cyclizine and prochlorperazine are also safe to use while breastfeeding and are unlikely to cause any harm.

      Breastfeeding has some contraindications that are important to know, especially when it comes to drugs. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, and trimethoprim are safe for breastfeeding mothers, as are endocrine drugs like glucocorticoids (in low doses) and levothyroxine. Epilepsy drugs like sodium valproate and carbamazepine, asthma drugs like salbutamol and theophyllines, and hypertension drugs like beta-blockers and hydralazine are also safe. Anticoagulants like warfarin and heparin, as well as digoxin, are also safe. However, some drugs should be avoided, such as antibiotics like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and sulphonamides, psychiatric drugs like lithium and benzodiazepines, aspirin, carbimazole, methotrexate, sulfonylureas, cytotoxic drugs, and amiodarone. Other contraindications include galactosaemia and viral infections, although the latter is controversial in the developing world due to the increased risk of infant mortality and morbidity associated with bottle feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act. She has a history of depression and was recently referred for a Mental Health Act assessment because her family were concerned about her. She has been talking about her insides rotting and believes that she is going to die in her sleep. She cannot be convinced otherwise. She is not eating, barely drinking and lacks energy, concentration and motivation. Just prior to the Assessment she used a biro pen to cut into her forearm to 'prove that there is nothing inside that will bleed', and this required reconstructive surgery.

      She is admitted to a psychiatric hospital and is commenced on an SSRI and an antipsychotic. One week into her admission the nurses call you because she is scoring highly on the Early Warning Score.

      On examination you find Sarah to be confused. She has a temperature of 39ºC and is sweating. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. She complains of muscle stiffness but is not sure when this began. Cogwheel rigidity is present.

      Urgent blood tests reveal the following:
      Hb 155 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 18 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Creatine Kinase 2032 9/L (32-294)
      Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 3.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 118 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Amphetamine intoxication

      Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a severe reaction that can occur in response to antipsychotic medication and can be life-threatening. The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with NMS, including muscle rigidity and elevated creatine kinase levels. Amphetamine intoxication is an unlikely cause as there is no history of drug use and the patient is under Section 2 of the MHA. Encephalitis and sepsis are important differential diagnoses to consider, but cogwheel rigidity would not be expected in encephalitis and sepsis would not typically cause muscle rigidity or elevated creatine kinase levels.

      Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication. It can also happen with dopaminergic drugs used for Parkinson’s disease. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion.

      A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases. Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. Intravenous fluids may be given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene or bromocriptine may be used in selected cases. It is important to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by excessive serotonin activity.

      In summary, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old man presents with a 2-year history of increasing deafness and tinnitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a 2-year history of increasing deafness and tinnitus in his left ear. His left corneal reflex is absent; there is hearing loss in his left ear, with air conduction greater than bone conduction, and the Weber test lateralises to the right.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Unilateral hearing loss and loss of corneal reflex are concerning symptoms that require a thorough differential diagnosis. Acoustic neuroma, a benign tumor arising from cranial nerve VIII in the cerebellopontine angle, is the most likely cause of these symptoms. Other potential causes include Multiple Sclerosis (MS), Basilar artery aneurysm, Meningioma, and Ménière’s disease.

      MS is a demyelinating disease of the central nervous system that typically presents with episodes of optic neuritis, limb paraesthesiae or weakness, walking difficulty, and fatigue. Basilar artery aneurysm is rare and usually presents with subarachnoid hemorrhage. Meningioma is a tumor arising from the meninges, which can occur at the cerebellopontine angle but is much rarer than acoustic neuromas at this site. Ménière’s disease is an inner ear disorder caused by endolymph accumulation, causing increased pressure, and typically presents with episodic attacks of vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus.

      In summary, while there are several potential causes of unilateral hearing loss and loss of corneal reflex, acoustic neuroma is the most likely culprit. It is important to consider other potential causes and perform a thorough differential diagnosis to ensure appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and altered dietary habits with a preference for salty foods. She lost her job as a teacher because of inappropriate social behaviour. There is no memory deficit. Neurological examination is normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia (FTD)

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a rare form of dementia that typically affects younger patients, with onset between 55 and 65 years old. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, early memory impairment is not a characteristic symptom of FTD. Instead, early personality and behavior changes are core features. Consensus guidelines suggest diagnostic criteria that include insidious onset and gradual progression, decline in social interpersonal conduct, early impairment in regulation of personal conduct, early emotional blunting, and early loss of insight. Supportive diagnostic features may include behavioral disorders, speech and language changes, and physical signs. Other forms of dementia, such as Alzheimer’s disease, diffuse Lewy body disease (LBD), multiple sclerosis (MS), and vascular dementia, have different characteristic symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after being hit on...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after being hit on the side of his head by a cricket ball during a match. According to his teacher, he initially fell to the ground and complained of a sore head. However, he got up after two minutes, claimed to feel fine, and resumed playing. Unfortunately, after 30 minutes, he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What kind of injury is he likely to have suffered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extradural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Extradural (epidural) hematoma – Head injury with a lucid interval

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. Intra-cranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - You are conducting a neurological examination on a thirty-five-year-old patient who presents with...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a neurological examination on a thirty-five-year-old patient who presents with recent onset of blurred vision, speech disturbance, pronounced reflexes, and upward plantars upon attempting the Babinski reflex. The patient denies any history of headache and fundoscopy reveals normal findings. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The presence of Babinski sign suggests the presence of a condition affecting the upper motor neurons. When the sole of the foot is stimulated with a blunt object, an atypical reflex is observed where the toes move upwards.

      When ankle jerks are absent and extensor plantars are present, it is usually due to a lesion that affects both the upper and lower motor neurons. This can be caused by various conditions such as subacute combined degeneration of the cord, motor neuron disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, syringomyelia, taboparesis (syphilis), or a lesion in the conus medullaris. These conditions can lead to a loss of reflexes in the ankle and a specific type of reflex in the foot that indicates damage to both the upper and lower motor neurons. It is important to identify the underlying cause of these symptoms in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A 38-year-old woman complains of a sudden 'droop' on the right side of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman complains of a sudden 'droop' on the right side of her face upon waking up this morning. She denies any weakness in her limbs, difficulty swallowing, or changes in her vision. Upon examination, you observe paralysis on the upper and lower right side of her face. Which of the following symptoms would be most indicative of Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperacusis

      Explanation:

      Ramsey Hunt syndrome can be diagnosed based on the presence of a vesicular rash near the ear, which is often accompanied by hyperacusis in approximately one-third of patients.

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a two-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a two-day history of fever, headache, vomiting, and seizures. She has no significant medical history or allergies. Upon CT head examination, hypodensity of the left temporal lobe is identified, while a lumbar puncture reveals lymphocytes at 57 cells/µL (0-5 cells/µL), protein at 92 mg/100 mL (15-60 mg/100 mL), and glucose at 66 mg/100 mL (50-80 mg/100 mL). Serum blood glucose is normal. A brain MRI is subsequently performed, revealing prominent swelling and increased signal of the left temporal lobe and insular cortex. What is the urgent medication that must be initiated in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      In cases of encephalitis caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV), urgent administration of IV aciclovir (which is effective against HSV) is necessary. Amantadine, which is used to manage influenza, is not appropriate. Cefotaxime, which is often used for suspected meningococcal disease, is also not appropriate. Fluconazole, an anti-fungal medication, is not appropriate as encephalitis is unlikely to be caused by a fungal infection.

      Encephalitis: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Encephalitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the brain. It presents with symptoms such as fever, headache, psychiatric symptoms, seizures, and vomiting. Focal features such as aphasia may also be present. Peripheral lesions like cold sores are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis. HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults, and it typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes.

      To diagnose encephalitis, cerebrospinal fluid analysis is done, which shows lymphocytosis and elevated protein. PCR for HSV, VZV, and enteroviruses is also performed. Neuroimaging may reveal medial temporal and inferior frontal changes, such as petechial hemorrhages, but it is normal in one-third of patients. MRI is a better diagnostic tool. EEG may show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.

      The treatment for encephalitis involves intravenous aciclovir, which should be started in all cases of suspected encephalitis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing complications and improving outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old man visits his family doctor complaining of recurrent episodes of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his family doctor complaining of recurrent episodes of severe facial pain that have been occurring for the past 6 months. He reports experiencing sharp shooting pains in his right cheek and teeth, which worsen during the cold winter months and when he brushes his teeth. Despite visiting the dentist multiple times, no abnormality has been found. His neurological and ENT examination is normal.
      What is the most suitable primary care treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Comparing Medications for Trigeminal Neuralgia Treatment

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by severe facial pain that occurs in one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve. To treat this condition, anticonvulsant medications are often prescribed. Here, we compare five commonly used medications for trigeminal neuralgia treatment.

      Carbamazepine is the recommended first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). Topiramate is not typically used for trigeminal neuralgia, as it is primarily indicated for migraine prophylaxis. Amitriptyline is recommended for neuropathic pain, but not specifically for trigeminal neuralgia. Duloxetine is also indicated for neuropathic pain, but not for trigeminal neuralgia. Gabapentin is recommended for neuropathic pain, but not for trigeminal neuralgia, as carbamazepine is the preferred first-line treatment for this condition.

      In summary, carbamazepine is the recommended first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia, while the other medications mentioned may be more appropriate for other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 6-year-old girl has a 2-year history of progressive weakness, finding it more...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl has a 2-year history of progressive weakness, finding it more difficult to stand from a sitting position at home and climb stairs at school. She had measles when she was 3-years-old and received all her childhood immunisations as normal. Apparently, her maternal grandmother suffered from a similar condition but died in a car accident at the age of 28. On examination, the girl is of normal height and appearance. Cranial nerves and higher mental function are normal. She has normal tone and reflexes in her limbs, with weakness proximally in her arms and legs. On repeated stimulation, there is no change. Cranial nerve and sensory examinations are entirely normal.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Becker’s muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from Becker’s muscular dystrophy, a milder form of the condition compared to Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). Both conditions are caused by mutations in the DMD gene, but Becker’s tends to present later in childhood or adolescence with slower progression of symptoms. The patient’s normal childhood development followed by slow onset of proximal weakness fits the typical picture of Becker’s. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy (LGMD) is a possibility, but less likely given the patient’s presentation. DMD is unlikely as it typically presents in early childhood with rapid progression of symptoms. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy is characterized by weakness and wasting of the face, scapula, and upper arms, and would not typically present with gait disturbance or lower limb weakness in childhood. Myasthenia gravis is also unlikely given the patient’s history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - Which one of the following is not a characteristic of essential tremor? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a characteristic of essential tremor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance

      Explanation:

      When arms are extended, essential tremor worsens, but it improves with the use of alcohol and propranolol. This is an autosomal dominant condition.

      Understanding Essential Tremor

      Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.

      When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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