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Question 1
Correct
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You have a telephone consultation with a 39-year old male patient who has paralysis on the left-hand side of his face. It started 2 days ago with left sided facial and ear pain. The pain is now very severe and causing him considerable discomfort. He is unable to move his left forehead, close the left eye or move the left-hand side of his mouth. He is normally fit and well.
You suspect that he has a Bell's palsy and arrange to see him in your clinic that afternoon to examine him.
Which statement below regarding Bell's palsy is correct?Your Answer: In a patient with a Bell's palsy, severe pain might indicate Ramsay Hunt syndrome
Explanation:Severe pain in a patient with Bell’s palsy may be a sign of Ramsay Hunt syndrome, which is caused by herpes zoster and is accompanied by a painful rash and herpetic vesicles. Urgent referral to ENT is necessary if the facial paralysis has not improved after one month. Loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue on the same side as the facial weakness may occur but doesn’t require urgent referral. Referral to a plastic surgeon with expertise in facial reconstructive surgery should be considered if there is residual paralysis after 6-9 months. Corticosteroid treatment is recommended as it has been shown to improve prognosis based on evidence from meta-analyses, while antiviral treatments are not recommended alone or in combination with prednisolone.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl is brought in for an urgent appointment with her mother. She has been experiencing a sore throat, fever, malaise, and headache for the past two days. Yesterday, she complained of pain in her right ear, which has now spread to both ears. She has difficulty eating and drinking due to discomfort.
During the examination, bilateral swelling is observed, which is obstructing the angle of the jaw on both sides. When attempting to open her mouth to examine her throat, she experiences discomfort.
The patient has no significant medical history, and her mother is unsure if she has received all of her scheduled vaccinations.
What is the incubation period for this infection?Your Answer: 14-21 days
Explanation:Mumps: Symptoms, Complications, and Incubation Period
Mumps is a viral infection that has an incubation period of 14-21 days. The patient typically experiences a nonspecific prodrome of sore throat, fever, malaise, and headache, which eventually leads to inflammation of the parotid gland. Fortunately, symptomatic treatment is usually sufficient, and the illness resolves within one to two weeks.
However, mumps can lead to serious complications, with meningoencephalitis occurring in 10% of patients with parotitis, and orchitis occurring in 25% of postpubertal males affected by mumps. In about 15% of those affected by orchitis, it is bilateral.
It’s worth noting that the incubation period for mumps may vary slightly depending on the reference source. However, the correct answer should always fall within a reasonable range, so don’t be too concerned if the limits of the reference range differ slightly from what you may have read elsewhere.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 3
Correct
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A 42-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of ear pain. He had visited the emergency department 3 days ago but was only given advice. He has been experiencing ear pain for 5 days now.
During the examination, his temperature is recorded at 38.5ºC, and his right eardrum appears red and bulging. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Start amoxicillin
Explanation:To improve treatment without antibiotics, guidelines suggest waiting 2-3 days before considering treatment if symptoms do not improve. This is especially important when a patient has a fever, indicating systemic involvement. Therefore, recommending regular paracetamol is not appropriate in this case.
While erythromycin is a useful alternative for patients with a penicillin allergy, it should not be the first choice for those who can take penicillin. It is particularly useful as a syrup for children due to its lower cost compared to other alternatives.
Penicillin V is the preferred antibiotic for tonsillitis, as amoxicillin can cause a rash in cases of glandular fever. However, it is not typically used for otitis media.
For otitis media, amoxicillin is the recommended first-line medication at a dosage of 500mg three times a day for seven days.
Co-amoxiclav is only used as a second-line option if amoxicillin is ineffective and is not typically used as a first-line treatment according to current guidelines.
References: NICE Guidelines, Clinical Knowledge Summaries
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Correct
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Ramsey Hunt syndrome
Your Answer: Refer under 2-week wait to ENT for suspected cancer
Explanation:If an adult presents with unilateral middle ear effusion, it could be a sign of nasopharyngeal cancer. In such cases, the appropriate action would be to refer the patient for an urgent 2-week wait ENT appointment to investigate the possibility of cancer. This is especially important if the patient is of East Asian origin and the effusion is not related to an upper respiratory tract infection. Other options, such as arranging a CT scan of the paranasal sinuses, do not address the urgent need to rule out cancer and should not be done in primary care. Further investigations, such as nasal endoscopy or MRI, may be arranged by the specialist to confirm or rule out the possibility of nasopharyngeal cancer.
Understanding Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that affects the nasopharynx. It is a rare form of cancer that is more common in individuals from Southern China and is associated with Epstein Barr virus infection. The presenting features of nasopharyngeal carcinoma include cervical lymphadenopathy, otalgia, unilateral serous otitis media, nasal obstruction, discharge, and/or epistaxis, and cranial nerve palsies such as III-VI.
To diagnose nasopharyngeal carcinoma, a combined CT and MRI scan is typically used. The first line of treatment for this type of cancer is radiotherapy. It is important to catch nasopharyngeal carcinoma early to increase the chances of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old patient presents to you with concerns about burning and irritation of their tongue, as well as rapid changes in its color. Upon examination, you observe multiple irregular but smooth red plaques on the dorsum of their tongue. The patient is anxious about these changes and seeks your advice.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Geographic tongue
Explanation:Common Oral Conditions and Their Symptoms
Geographic tongue is a common oral condition that presents with mild burning and irritation of the tongue. It is characterized by single or multiple well-demarcated irregular but smooth red plaques on the dorsum of the tongue. Stress and spicy food may exacerbate the condition.
Angular chelitis, on the other hand, presents with irritation of the corners of the lips and dryness. Aphthous stomatitis describes solitary or multiple painful ulcers on the mucosal membranes. Oral hairy leukoplakia is an asymptomatic white thickening and accentuation of the folds of the lateral margins of the tongue.
Lastly, acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis presents with punched-out ulcers, necrosis, and bleeding of areas between teeth. It is important to be aware of these common oral conditions and their symptoms to seek appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits his doctor after his family complains about his hearing loss. He claims that they speak too softly, but admits that he struggles to hear in noisy settings. The patient reports feeling generally healthy, but has a history of hypertension and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
During the examination, the doctor discovers bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. Presbycusis is suspected as the cause and the patient is referred for audiometric testing.
What is the expected audiogram pattern for this individual?Your Answer: Bilateral low-frequency hearing loss. Bone conduction better than air
Correct Answer: Bilateral high-frequency hearing loss. Air conduction better than bone
Explanation:Presbycusis is characterized by a bilateral loss of high-frequency hearing. This type of age-related hearing loss affects the inner ear and is often accompanied by difficulty hearing in noisy environments. In sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction is more effective than bone conduction, which is the opposite of conductive hearing loss. Therefore, the correct answer is ‘Bilateral high-frequency hearing loss. Air conduction is more effective than bone conduction.’
Understanding Presbycusis: Age-Related Hearing Loss
Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that affects older individuals. It is a sensorineural hearing loss that typically affects high-frequency hearing bilaterally, leading to difficulties in understanding conversations, especially in noisy environments. The condition progresses slowly as the sensory hair cells and neurons in the cochlea atrophy over time. Although certain factors are associated with presbycusis, it is distinct from noise-related hearing loss.
The prevalence of presbycusis increases with age, with an estimated 25-30% of 65-74 year-olds and 40-50% of those over 75 years experiencing impaired hearing in the USA. The exact cause of presbycusis is unknown, but it is likely multifactorial. Arteriosclerosis, diabetes, accumulated exposure to noise, drug exposure, stress, and genetics are some of the factors that may contribute to the development of presbycusis.
Patients with presbycusis typically present with a chronic, slowly progressing history of difficulty understanding speech, increased volume needed for television or radio, difficulty using the telephone, loss of directionality of sound, and worsening of symptoms in noisy environments. Hyperacusis, a heightened sensitivity to certain frequencies of sound, and tinnitus, a ringing or buzzing in the ears, may also occur but are less common.
To diagnose presbycusis, otoscopy is performed to rule out other causes of hearing loss, such as otosclerosis or conductive hearing loss. Tympanometry is used to assess middle ear function, and audiometry is used to confirm bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. Blood tests may also be performed to rule out other underlying conditions.
In summary, presbycusis is an age-related hearing loss that affects a significant portion of the elderly population. Although the exact cause is unknown, it is likely due to a combination of factors. Patients with presbycusis may experience difficulty understanding speech, increased volume needed for audio devices, and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made through a combination of physical examination and hearing tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman presents with a two-week history of difficulty swallowing solid foods, particularly meat. She experiences discomfort at the lower end of the sternum and has trouble shifting it almost immediately after swallowing. The patient has a longstanding history of GORD and has intermittently taken omeprazole 20 mg/day for the past decade. She has not experienced any weight loss or vomiting. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Arrange a routine barium swallow
Correct Answer: Refer urgently for direct access upper GI endoscopy
Explanation:Urgent Referral Needed for New Onset Dysphagia
The sudden onset of dysphagia, even in patients with a long history of GORD and dyspepsia, requires an urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy within two weeks. Delaying the referral can lead to serious complications and worsen the patient’s condition. Therefore, all other options apart from an urgent referral should be avoided. It is crucial to prioritize the patient’s health and well-being by promptly addressing any new symptoms that arise. Proper diagnosis and treatment can prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 8
Correct
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Samantha is a 7-year-old girl who has presented with impacted earwax which has failed to improve with olive oil drops. Ear irrigation has been recommended.
Which of the following would be a contraindication to this?Your Answer: Grommets in situ
Explanation:Ear irrigation should not be performed on patients with grommets as it is a contraindication. Additionally, individuals who have had otitis media within the past 6 weeks should also avoid ear irrigation. However, there are no other listed conditions that would prevent someone from undergoing this procedure.
Understanding earwax and Its Impacts
earwax is a natural substance produced by the body to protect the ear canal. However, it is not uncommon for earwax to become impacted, leading to a range of symptoms such as pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. In such cases, treatment is necessary to alleviate the discomfort caused by the impacted earwax. Primary care options for treatment include ear drops or irrigation, also known as ‘ear syringing’. It is important to note that treatment should not be administered if there is a suspected perforation or if the patient has grommets. Ear drops such as olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil can be used to help alleviate the symptoms of impacted earwax.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. She has a history of recurrent otitis media and has been touching her right ear frequently for the past 3 days. She was restless and had a fever overnight, and now has a red, boggy swelling behind her right ear that is more prominent than on the left. During the examination, the child appears unhappy, with a temperature of 39.2ºC, a heart rate of 170 beats/minute, and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute. Due to her distress, it is difficult to examine her ears, but the left ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal, while the right ear canal and tympanic membrane appear red. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Trauma
Correct Answer: Mastoiditis
Explanation:Mastoiditis is a bacterial infection that is particularly serious and commonly affects children. It often occurs as a result of prolonged otitis media. The infection can cause the porous bone to deteriorate, and severe cases may require surgery and intravenous antibiotics. Acute otitis media is an infection of the inner ear and typically doesn’t cause swelling. However, mastoiditis can develop as a complication of otitis media. The patient in question has no history of trauma that could explain the described swelling, which is also not in the correct location to be a parotid swelling. While lymphadenitis can cause an erythematous swelling, it is usually described as soft, fluctuant, and tender and is typically found post auricularly rather than over the mastoid process.
In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman comes to the clinic complaining of unilateral hearing loss accompanied by otalgia and otorrhoea in the affected ear. He reports feeling otherwise healthy. Upon examination, the ear canal is red and inflamed, but patent, and there is discharge present, indicating an infection. The external ear and mastoid appear normal, and there are no abnormalities detected in the throat or neck. The patient is worried as he is immunocompromised due to treatment for multiple sclerosis.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: The problem is likely to settle without the need for treatment, provide worsening advice and suggest he seeks review if resolution has not occurred in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Refer routinely to an ear, nose and throat specialist
Explanation:Management of an Immunocompromised Patient with Signs of Infection
In managing an immunocompromised patient with signs of infection, it is important to consider the potential risk of deterioration related to the infection. According to NICE guidelines, the most appropriate approach would be to start appropriate treatment and arrange a review appointment in 3 days. This allows for monitoring of treatment response and early detection of any potential complications.
If the patient doesn’t respond to treatment, immediate referral to an ENT specialist is necessary. Therefore, it is crucial to closely monitor the patient’s condition and ensure prompt action is taken if necessary. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage immunocompromised patients with signs of infection and minimize the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 6-year-old who has been brought to the clinic by her mother to request a referral for an adenotonsillectomy. She has experienced 3 severe episodes of acute tonsillitis in the past year and 4 episodes the year before, resulting in her missing a total of 5 days of school. Despite this, she has been informed that she doesn't meet the criteria for an adenotonsillectomy. What is the reason for her not meeting the referral criteria?
Your Answer: Needs to have taken be off a minimum of 10 days off sick from school
Correct Answer: Needs 5 or more bouts of acute tonsillitis in each of the preceding 2 years
Explanation:The criteria for adenotonsillectomy in recurrent tonsillitis, as recommended by SIGN, state that a patient should have at least five or more bouts of acute tonsillitis in each of the preceding two years. Jodie, who has had three and four bouts of acute tonsillitis over the past two years, doesn’t meet this minimum requirement.
Tonsillitis and Tonsillectomy: Complications and Indications
Tonsillitis is a condition that can lead to various complications, including otitis media, peritonsillar abscess, and, in rare cases, rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. Tonsillectomy, the surgical removal of the tonsils, is a controversial procedure that should only be considered if the person meets specific criteria. According to NICE, surgery should only be considered if the person experiences sore throats due to tonsillitis, has five or more episodes of sore throat per year, has been experiencing symptoms for at least a year, and the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning. Other established indications for a tonsillectomy include recurrent febrile convulsions, obstructive sleep apnoea, stridor, dysphagia, and peritonsillar abscess if unresponsive to standard treatment.
Despite the benefits of tonsillectomy, the procedure also carries some risks. Primary complications, which occur within 24 hours of the surgery, include haemorrhage and pain. Secondary complications, which occur between 24 hours to 10 days after the surgery, include haemorrhage (most commonly due to infection) and pain. Therefore, it is essential to weigh the benefits and risks of tonsillectomy before deciding to undergo the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You see a 65-year-old man with vertigo. He describes the repeated sensation that his surroundings are spinning when he moves his head. This has been occurring for the last 2 weeks and the episodes last approximately 30 seconds. He has hypertension but no other past medical history. He had a viral illness 3 weeks ago. You believe the history is consistent with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV).
Which statement is correct regarding BPPV?Your Answer: The Brandt-Daroff manoeuvre is used to diagnose BPPV
Correct Answer: BPPV often has a relapsing and remitting course
Explanation:BPPV can have a recurrent pattern of symptoms that come and go. To diagnose BPPV, the Dix-Hallpike maneuver is used, which can trigger vertigo and a specific type of eye movement called torsional upbeating nystagmus. Treatment for BPPV includes the Epley maneuver and Brandt-Daroff exercises, but medication is typically not effective. While many people recover from BPPV within a few weeks, symptoms can persist and return over time.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female complains of painful chewing and clicking in her jaw accompanied by a squeezing headache. She denies any joint pains and appears to be in good health. During the examination, she was able to open her mouth normally but experienced pain when opening wider. Mild pain was observed upon palpation of the area, and her temperature was 36.4ºC. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Mild analgesia, X-ray of the mandible
Correct Answer: Mild analgesia, heat packs, avoid exacerbating foods
Explanation:Patients with suspected temporomandibular joint dysfunction should be encouraged to practice early self-management techniques to control their symptoms and limit functional impairment. These techniques include using simple analgesics like paracetamol or ibuprofen, applying heat packs to the affected area, and avoiding hard or crunchy foods that can exacerbate the pain. With proper self-management, patients can expect to recover within 2-3 months.
If temporal arteritis is suspected, investigations such as ESR and temporal biopsy may be necessary. This condition presents with a throbbing headache, an obvious temporal artery, and claudication when chewing, and requires immediate treatment with corticosteroids to prevent vision loss.
While referral to a dentist may be necessary if self-management techniques are ineffective, an x-ray of the mandible is not required for diagnosis. Strong analgesia and opioids should be avoided, as simple analgesia is just as effective and carries fewer risks. X-rays are also unnecessary, as TMJ dysfunction is a clinical diagnosis that doesn’t require imaging to manage.
Understanding Temporomandibular Joint Dysfunction
Temporomandibular joint dysfunction (TMJ) is a condition that affects the jaw joint and the muscles that control its movement. It is characterized by pain in the TMJ area, which may radiate to the head, neck, or ear. Patients may also experience restricted jaw motion, making it painful to chew or speak. Additionally, they may notice clicking or other noises when moving their jaw.
To manage TMJ, healthcare professionals may recommend soft foods to reduce the strain on the jaw. Simple analgesia, such as paracetamol and NSAIDs, can also help alleviate pain. Short courses of benzodiazepines may be prescribed to help relax the muscles and reduce anxiety. It is also important to seek a review by a dentist to rule out any dental issues that may be contributing to the condition.
In summary, TMJ is a painful condition that affects the jaw joint and muscles. It can be managed through a combination of lifestyle changes, medication, and dental care. By understanding the symptoms and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can improve their quality of life and reduce the impact of TMJ on their daily activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 14
Correct
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You assess a 65-year-old heavy smoker who has just been diagnosed with cancer and is hesitant to undergo surgery. He is interested in exploring the option of radiotherapy. Which tumour from the following list is most suitable for potentially curative treatment with RADIOTHERAPY ALONE? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer: Laryngeal carcinoma
Explanation:Curative Treatment Options for Various Types of Cancer
Laryngeal Carcinoma:
The management of laryngeal cancer involves preserving the larynx whenever possible. For early-stage disease, transoral laser microsurgery or radiotherapy is used. For more advanced disease, radiotherapy with concomitant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice. Total laryngectomy may still be required for some cases.Breast Cancer:
Radiotherapy is used as an adjuvant to primary surgery in breast cancer. It significantly reduces breast-cancer-related deaths and local recurrence rates.Colonic Carcinoma:
Surgical resection of the tumor is the main curative treatment for colonic carcinoma in patients with localized disease. Radiotherapy is limited by the risk of damage to surrounding structures.Gastric Carcinoma:
Partial or total gastrectomy is the only curative treatment for gastric carcinoma. Radiotherapy is ineffective.Lung Cancer:
Surgical excision is the curative treatment for localised non-small cell carcinoma. Radiotherapy with curative intent may be offered to patients unsuitable for surgery with stage I, II or III non-small cell carcinoma and good performance status if there is no undue risk of normal tissue damage.Curative Treatment Options for Different Types of Cancer
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic with a slow-developing swelling in the anterior triangle of his neck, located in front of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The swelling is movable, fluctuant, painless, has no visible punctum, and doesn't shift with swallowing.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Sebaceous cyst
Correct Answer: Branchial cyst
Explanation:Distinguishing a Branchial Cyst from Other Neck Swellings
A swelling located in front of the anterior border of the sternomastoid muscle at the junction of its upper and middle thirds is likely a branchial cyst, which is a remnant of the second branchial cleft. It commonly appears in the second or third decade of life and may enlarge during upper respiratory tract infections. The cyst can range in size from 1-10 cm and is typically painless, although it may become tender during an acute stage. Unlike an infected lymph node, there is no overlying punctum, and it is not attached to any underlying structures. Ultrasound can confirm the cystic nature of the lesion. An enlarged thyroid lobe is an incorrect diagnosis as it moves with swallowing. A sebaceous cyst usually has an overlying punctum, and a thyroglossal cyst is typically located midline and rises with swallowing or tongue protrusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl undergoes pinnaplasty.
What is the most significant risk of the surgery that should be discussed with her parents?Your Answer: Perforation of the eardrum
Correct Answer: Imperfect result
Explanation:Pinnaplasty: A Solution for Congenitally Prominent Ears
Congenitally prominent ears can have a significant impact on a child’s emotional and behavioral well-being. Pinnaplasty, also known as otoplasty, is a surgical procedure that aims to improve the appearance of the auricle. It is typically performed on children between the ages of 5 and 14, but can be done at any age.
During the procedure, an incision is made behind the ear in the natural fold where the ear meets the head. The necessary amount of cartilage and skin is removed to achieve the desired effect. In some cases, the cartilage may also be trimmed and reshaped before being pinned back with permanent stitches.
While pinnaplasty is generally safe, incomplete correction of prominent ears is the most common undesirable outcome. Other potential complications include postoperative bleeding or fluid accumulation, infection, and scarring.
It’s important to note that pinnaplasty only addresses the external ear and doesn’t involve the middle ear or eardrum. As such, other complications are unlikely to occur. Overall, pinnaplasty can be an effective solution for those seeking to improve the appearance of congenitally prominent ears.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dizziness. She experiences sudden onset dizziness and nausea when she rolls over in bed in the morning, which goes away after about 20 seconds if she keeps her head still. After these episodes, she feels unsteady and light-headed for several hours. The patient has a history of recurrent otitis media and her family has a history of otosclerosis.
What is the most crucial initial test that needs to be done?Your Answer: CT head
Correct Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
Explanation:The presence of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss are key indicators for the diagnosis of Meniere’s disease, which is a common cause of dizziness. Other factors such as recurrent otitis media and family history of otosclerosis may be misleading. Audiometry is a recommended test for Meniere’s disease, while CT head is useful for otosclerosis and MRI scan is the preferred diagnostic tool for acoustic neuroma.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 18
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl comes in with a complaint of a sore throat. She reports no cough, has a temperature of 38.4ºC, and her tonsils are enlarged with white exudate. What is the fourth component of the Centor criteria?
Your Answer: Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
Explanation:The Centor criteria consist of a patient’s fever history, the existence of tonsillar exudate, the lack of a cough, and the presence of tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. None of the other options are included in this assessment.
Management of Sore Throat
Sore throat is a common condition that includes pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. Routine throat swabs and rapid antigen tests are not recommended for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be achieved with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not usually necessary. However, antibiotics may be indicated for patients with marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when 3 or more Centor criteria are present. The Centor criteria and FeverPAIN criteria can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. There is some evidence that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, but this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 22-month-old girl comes in with mild unilateral ear pain that started yesterday. She keeps tugging at her left ear. There is no discharge. She has no rashes and is still eating and drinking normally. She has not had any fevers.
During the examination, her temperature is 36.9ºC and her pulse is 105 beats per minute. She appears to be in good health. Both of her ears appear to be normal.
What is the best course of action for treatment?Your Answer: Acetic acid spray
Correct Answer: Monitor symptoms
Explanation:This young boy is experiencing earache on one side for the past 24 hours. However, the rest of his medical history is normal and there are no signs of infection during the examination. The recommended management approach is to advise the use of pain relief medication such as paracetamol and ibuprofen for relief of symptoms and to monitor the situation. If the diagnosis is otitis externa, acetic acid spray and flucloxacillin can be used. For bilateral otitis media that has persisted for at least 4 days, amoxicillin is recommended. For children over 2 years of age, the British National Formulary suggests the use of dexamethasone, neomycin, and acetic acid spray.
In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A young patient suffers a traumatic left ear perforation. Which of the following sets of findings is the most likely to be noted on tuning fork testing?
Rinne left ear Rinne right ear Weber
Patient A Air conduction better than bone conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Central
Patient B Bone conduction better than air conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Lateralises to the left
Patient C Bone conduction better than air conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Lateralises to the right
Patient D Air conduction better than bone conduction Bone conduction better than air conduction Lateralises to the right
Patient E Bone conduction better than air conduction Bone conduction better than air conduction CentralYour Answer:
Correct Answer: Patient B
Explanation:Hearing Tests and Their Interpretation
Hearing tests are essential in diagnosing hearing problems. Two common tests are Rinne’s test and Weber’s test. Rinne’s test uses tuning forks of 512 Hz, but those of 256 Hz may be more accurate. A heavy tuning fork is preferable because a light fork produces a sound that fades too rapidly. To test air conduction, hold the tuning fork directly in line with the external auditory canal. When testing bone conduction, place the flat end of the stem of the tuning fork against bone immediately superior and posterior to the external canal. When air conduction is louder than bone conduction, it is reported as Rinne-positive.
In interpreting the results, normal findings are expected in patient A, while patient C has anomalous findings that suggest a non-organic problem. Patient D suggests a right conductive loss, and patient E suggests a bilateral conductive loss, although in this case, the Weber test can lateralize to one side or the other.
Weber’s test involves placing a 512 Hz tuning fork in the midline of the patient’s forehead. If the sound is louder on one side than the other, the patient may have either an ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or a contralateral sensorineural hearing loss. These tests are crucial in diagnosing hearing problems and should be conducted accurately to ensure proper interpretation of the results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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