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  • Question 1 - Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph...

    Correct

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries, joined by vessels from the uterine tubes and most from the fundus of the uterus, follow the ovarian veins as they ascend to the right and left lumbar (caval/aortic) lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 34-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of vague...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of vague stomach pain. A unilocular cyst (3.8 x 4.3 x 3.0 cm) was discovered in the left ovary during a trans-abdominal ultrasound. What is the best management strategy?

      Your Answer: Repeat ultrasound within 3-4 months

      Correct Answer: Reassurance, no further action required

      Explanation:

      In premenopausal women, watchful waiting usually involves monitoring for symptoms (pelvic pain or pressure) and repeating the pelvic ultrasound after six to eight weeks. If the ovarian cyst does not enlarge or if it resolves during the period of watchful waiting, it does not usually require surgical removal. Some premenopausal women will be advised to take a birth control pill during this time to help prevent new ovarian cysts from developing.

      If a cyst decreases in size or does not change, the ultrasound is often repeated at regular intervals until your healthcare provider is certain that the cyst is not growing. If the cyst resolves, no further testing or follow-up is required.
      Surgery may be recommended in the following situations:
      – A cyst is causing persistent pain or pressure, or may rupture or twist.
      – A cyst appears on ultrasound to be caused by endometriosis and is removed for fertility reasons.
      – Large cysts (>5 to 10 cm) are more likely to require surgical removal compared to smaller cysts. However, a large size does not predict whether a cyst is cancerous.
      – If the cyst appears suspicious for cancer. If you have risk factors for ovarian cancer or the cyst looks potentially cancerous on imaging studies, your healthcare provider may recommend surgery.
      – If the suspicion for ovarian cancer is low but the cyst does not resolve after several ultrasounds, you may choose to have it removed after a discussion with your healthcare provider. However, surgical removal is not usually necessary in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding cardiac examination during pregnancy which of the following findings should be considered...

    Correct

    • Regarding cardiac examination during pregnancy which of the following findings should be considered pathological?

      Your Answer: Diastolic murmur

      Explanation:

      Diastolic murmurs occur in conditions such as mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis and even in carditis. They are always pathological during pregnancy. Systolic murmurs and left axis deviation may be normal during pregnancy due to an increase in the blood volume and load on the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11...

    Correct

    • A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11 months’ duration of infertility. On investigation, she is found to be ovulating, and her hysterosalpingogram is normal. On semen analysis, the following results were found: Semen volume 5mL (2-6 mL) Sperm count 1 million/mL * (>20 million) Motility 15% (>40%) Abnormal forms 95% (<60%) A second specimen three months later confirms the above results. Which would be the most suitable next step in management?

      Your Answer: Carry out in vitro fertilisation (IVF) using intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI).

      Explanation:

      Achieving spontaneous pregnancy is rare in cases where a couple have been infertile with abnormal semen analysis (count <5million/mL and reduced motility), hence there is generally an indication for treatment. FSH injection usually would not be expected to improve the semen specimen. Rate of pregnancy would be much lower if at the time of intrauterine insemination, the total motile count is less 5 million. In this case, his count is 1 million. Pregnancy is likely to be achieved with donor sperm but as it would not contain the husband’s genetic material, it would be only considered later on once all other methods involving his own sperm have failed. Out of all the options, IVF would most likely result in a pregnancy, in which it allows the husband’s sperm to spontaneously fertilise the oocyte. Rate of pregnancy would roughly be 2% per treatment cycle. This rate would increase to roughly 20% if ISCI is also used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable vomiting with concurrent ketonuria. Past medical is unremarkable except for an appendectomy at the age of 12 years. Which of the following is the next best step in this investigation?

      Your Answer: Serum electrolytes, urea and creatinine.

      Explanation:

      The finding of ketonuria in this patient indicates profound dehydration and electrolyte loss. Immediate investigation with baseline serum electrolytes, urea, and creatinine is recommended for aid In intravenous resuscitation and rehydration.

      All other assessments listed are appropriate, however, baseline electrolyte concentration is important before initiating intravenous resuscitation.

      Other causes that can lead to vomiting in early pregnancy include normal pregnancy, multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, or urinary tract infection. Urine culture is necessary to exclude urinary tract infection, pelvic ultrasound to confirm singleton or multiple pregnancy and rule out a molar pregnancy.

      An erect abdominal Xray may help to rule out an organic intestinal obstruction in this patient. Her history of an appendectomy predisposes this patient to adhesions leading to small bowel obstruction. However, it is not the immediate assessment in this case.

      Before the advent of ultrasound, a quantitative hCG analysis was indicated to assess the presence of molar pregnancy. However, ultrasound is now preferred to confirm this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does...

    Correct

    • A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the left ovary drain into?

      Your Answer: Left renal

      Explanation:

      The right ovarian vein ascends and enters the inferior vena cava and the left ovarian vein drains into the longer left renal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 37 year old lady attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The...

    Correct

    • A 37 year old lady attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The histology shows mucin vacuoles. What type of tumour would this be consistent with?

      Your Answer: Mucinous

      Explanation:

      Mucinous tumours are cystic masses which are indistinguishable from the serous tumours on gross examination except by its contents. On histology it is lined with mucin producing epithelium – mucin vacuoles whereas serous tumours have psammoma bodies. Malignant tumours are characterised by the presence of architectural complexity, cellular stratification, stromal invasion and cytological atypia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      53.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Multiple Gestation is frequently associated with all of the following EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Multiple Gestation is frequently associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Post-maturity

      Explanation:

      Multiple pregnancy is considered a high risk for obstetric complications such as spontaneous abortion, hypertensive disorders, placenta previa, and fetal malformations. Specifically, the incidence of hypertensive disorders, a common source of maternal morbidity, is 15% to 35% in twin pregnancies, which is two to five times higher than in singleton pregnancies. Additionally, the aetiology of preterm birth is not completely understood, but the association between multiple pregnancy and preterm birth is well known. A secondary analysis of the WHO Global Survey dataset indicated that 35.2% of multiple births were preterm (< 37 weeks gestation); of all multiple births, 6.1% of births were before 32 weeks gestation, 5.8% were during weeks 32 and 33, and 23.2% were during weeks 34 through 37

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked...

    Correct

    • A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked to review her ultrasound. There is a solid collection of echoes with numerous small (3-10 mm) anechoic spaces. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Molar Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      This is typical appearance of molar pregnancy. This used to be referred to as ‘snowstorm sign’ as with older poorer resolution ultrasound the anechoic species looked like a snowstorm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure? ...

    Correct

    • The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure?

      Your Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Explanation:

      The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal and lacunar ligaments are part of the floor The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia....

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. She has been using an IUCD for one year now and wants to know the cause of her current condition. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: PID

      Explanation:

      IUCD is a risk factor for PID and PID has the clinical picture already described. However, fibroids should also be excluded since they may present in the same way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying...

    Correct

    • A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying for 2.5 years. The semen analysis shows azoospermia. You perform a full examination of the male partner which reveals Height 192cm, BMI 20.5, small testes and scant facial hair. You decide to organise karyotyping. What is the result likely to show?

      Your Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome is associated with testicular atrophy, eunuchoid body shape, tall, long extremities, female hair distribution and gynaecomastia. It is a common cause of hypogonadism seen during fertility workup.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the half life of Ergometrine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the half life of Ergometrine?

      Your Answer: 10-15 minutes

      Correct Answer: 30-120 minutes

      Explanation:

      Ergometrine has a half life of 30-120 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In normal pregnancy, levels of all of the following hormones increases, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • In normal pregnancy, levels of all of the following hormones increases, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the 2nd & 3rd trimesters

      Explanation:

      In order to maintain fetal bone growth, the maternal compartment undergoes adjustments that provide a net transfer of sufficient calcium to the foetus. Maternal compartment changes that permit calcium accumulation include increases in maternal dietary intake, increases in maternal 1, 25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 levels, and increases in parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels. The levels of total calcium and phosphorus decline in maternal serum, but ionized calcium levels remain unchanged. During pregnancy, the placenta forms a calcium pump in which a gradient of calcium and phosphorus is established which favours the foetus. Thus, circulating fetal calcium and phosphorus levels increase steadily throughout gestation. Furthermore, fetal levels of total and ionized calcium, as well as phosphorus, exceed maternal levels at term. By 10-12 weeks’ gestation, the fetal parathyroid glands secrete PTH. Fetal plasma levels of PTH are low during gestation, but increase after delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old female G1P1 presents with her husband because she has not been...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female G1P1 presents with her husband because she has not been breastfeeding her baby 24 hours though she had previously stated she intended exclusive breastfeeding for the first 3 months. She feels sad most of the time and her mood has been very low for the past 2 weeks, she has trouble sleeping at night and feels tired all day. She complains that her husband doesn’t seem to know how to help. For the past 24 hours she feels like she is not fit to be a mother and doesn’t want to feed the baby anymore. She has been frightened by thoughts to harm herself and the baby. Her baby is 7 weeks old. In addition to antidepressant medication, which of the following treatment is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Peer support

      Correct Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy

      Explanation:

      This patient presents because of significant mood changes since she gave birth to her child: she is sad most of times and she is having guilt feelings about her adequacy for motherhood- She is also complaining of insomnia, tiredness, and even some suicidal ideation. These symptoms are highly suggestive postpartum depression. This should be differentiated from postpartum blues, which usually present within the first 2 weeks and last for few days. This patient’s symptoms started 5 weeks postpartum. Postpartum depression usually presents within the first 6 weeks to the first year postpartum.

      Postpartum depression is the most common complication of childbearing and affects the mother, the child, and relationship with the partner. It is diagnosed the same way as major depressive disorder in other patients. Since untreated postpartum depression can have long-term effects on the mother and the child, appropriate therapy should be undertaken as soon as possible- Antidepressant medications such as sertraline can be used to treat postpartum depression. In a patient who has suicidal ideation, electroconvulsive therapy has a more rapid and effective action than medication and should be considered in these patients.

      → Cognitive behavioural therapy is effective in women with mild to moderate postpartum depression; it would not be a good choice in this patient with suicidal ideation and at risk of harming the baby.
      → Estrogen therapy used alone or in combination with antidepressant, has been shown to significantly reduce the symptoms of postpartum depression; however, it would not be the most appropriate choice in a patient with suicidal ideation.
      → Peer support has shown equivocal results in various studies even though most postpartum patients report that lacking an intimate friend or confidant or facing social isolation are factors leading to depression.
      → Non-directive counselling also known as ”listening visits“ has been found to be effective in postpartum patients, though the studies that were conducted are deemed to be of small sample and larger studies still need to be done to validate these findings. It would not be an appropriate choice for this patient with suicidal ideation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      65.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk of developing endometrial carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      The factor associated with the greatest relative risk for endometrial carcinoma is polycystic ovary syndrome, which has a relative risk of 75. The use of long-term high doses of postmenopausal oestrogen carries an estimated risk of 10-20. Living in North America or Europe also has an estimated risk of 10-20.

      A lower relative risk is associated with nulliparity, obesity, infertility, late menopause, older age, and white race- The relative risk associated with these factors falls into the range of 2-5. Early menarche, higher education or income levels, menstrual irregularities, and a history of diabetes, hypertension, gall bladder disease, or thyroid disease have a relative risk of around 1.5-2.0.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which nerves innervate the internal anal sphincter? ...

    Correct

    • Which nerves innervate the internal anal sphincter?

      Your Answer: Pelvic Splanchnic

      Explanation:

      The anal sphincters are responsible for closing the anal canal to the passage of faeces and flatus. The smooth muscle or involuntary internal sphincter sustains contraction to prevent the leakage of faeces between bowel movements and is innervated by the pelvic splanchnic nerves, which are a branch of the spinal segment 4. The external sphincter is made up of skeletal muscle and can therefore contract and relax voluntarily. Its innervation comes from the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve, and the perineal branch of S4 nerve roots.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patient is being discharged following a termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks....

    Correct

    • A patient is being discharged following a termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks. She had been taking a combined oral contraceptive pill in the past but stopped taking this 6 months prior to falling pregnant as she wasn't in a serious relationship. When should she start again?

      Your Answer: Start immediately

      Explanation:

      Following an abortion or miscarriage, combined oral contraceptive pills should be started immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The UK childhood vaccination schedule includes vaccination against HPV for girls aged 12...

    Correct

    • The UK childhood vaccination schedule includes vaccination against HPV for girls aged 12 to 13. What HPV subtypes are vaccinated against with the vaccine Gardasil®?

      Your Answer: 6, 11, 16, and 18

      Explanation:

      HPV Gardasil® is a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV Types 6, 11, 16, and 18. HPV types16 and 18 are responsible for 70% of cases of HPV related cancers. They are considered the most important high risk genotypes of HPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a car accident while wearing a seatbelt. On examination there are visible bruises on the abdomen but patient is otherwise normal. Fetal heart sounds are audible and are within normal parameters and CTG is reassuring. Which of the following will be the best next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Admit her and observe for 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Trauma is a major contributor for maternal mortality and is one of the leading causes of pregnancy-associated maternal deaths.

      As a result of maternal hypotension or hypoxemia, placental abruption, uterine rupture or fetal trauma a maternal trauma can compromise the fetus also.
      Patient’s bruises on the abdomen which are seatbelt marks, are indications that this woman has positioned the seat belt incorrectly over the uterus. So there is a good chance that the uterus and its contents, including the fetus, has been affected by the impact. In a pregnant woman, the correct position of seat belt is when the lap belt is placed on the hip below uterus and the sash is placed between breasts and above the uterus.

      A minimum of 24-hour period monitoring is recommended for all pregnant women, apart from the routine trauma workup indicated in non-pregnant women, in case they have sustained trauma in the presence of any of the following:
      – Regular uterine contractions
      – Vaginal bleeding
      – A non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
      – Abdominal/uterine pain
      – Significant trauma to the abdomen

      Considering the bruises over her abdomen this patient should be considered as having significant abdominal trauma and must be kept under observation for a minimum of 24 hours. Such patients should not be discharged unless the clinician makes sure they do not have any complications like abruption or preterm labor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (4/4) 100%
Gynaecology (2/4) 50%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (3/4) 75%
Clinical Management (3/4) 75%
Data Interpretation (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed