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  • Question 1 - A teenager has stopped smoking and instead started using an e-cigarette. They are...

    Correct

    • A teenager has stopped smoking and instead started using an e-cigarette. They are initially pleased about this change but then are told that e-cigarettes also pose a risk to their health. They continue to smoke e-cigarettes but feel upset about the possible health risks. They then decide to stop smoking and immediately feel better.

      Which of the following is illustrated by this teenager's experience?

      Your Answer: Cognitive dissonance

      Explanation:

      Chunking is a strategy that involves dividing complex tasks into smaller, more manageable chunks of subtasks. This approach can help alleviate unpleasant feelings that arise when faced with a task that seems overwhelming of difficult to complete.

      Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which term is commonly associated with Goffman? ...

    Correct

    • Which term is commonly associated with Goffman?

      Your Answer: Total institution

      Explanation:

      Goffman coined the term ‘total institution’ in relation to asylums, which were responsible for fulfilling all the patients’ requirements, thereby hindering their rehabilitation.

      D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.

      Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.

      Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.

      Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.

      Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.

      Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.

      Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.

      Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is a true statement about 'working memory'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about 'working memory'?

      Your Answer: It has a fixed capacity that does not vary between individuals

      Correct Answer: Its capacity increases with age during childhood

      Explanation:

      Throughout childhood, there is an increase in working memory capacity. Additionally, research has demonstrated that working memory performance can be enhanced, particularly in individuals with ADHD.

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following methods is not utilized to diagnose narcolepsy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following methods is not utilized to diagnose narcolepsy?

      Your Answer: HLA testing

      Explanation:

      In addition to conducting a thorough medical history and physical examination, healthcare providers typically order a series of tests to aid in the diagnosis of narcolepsy. These tests may include a multiple sleep latency test (MSLT) and a polysomnogram (PSG). The MSLT measures the time it takes for a person to fall asleep during the day, while the PSG records various physiological parameters during sleep, such as brain waves, eye movements, and muscle activity. These tests can help confirm the presence of narcolepsy and rule out other sleep disorders.

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Bion identified several basic assumption groups, but one of them is not included...

    Incorrect

    • Bion identified several basic assumption groups, but one of them is not included in the list.

      Your Answer: Fight-flight

      Correct Answer: Dynamic shift

      Explanation:

      Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - For what is Carl Jung most well-known? ...

    Correct

    • For what is Carl Jung most well-known?

      Your Answer: Differentiating between the personal and collective unconscious

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      37.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Who is credited with developing the theory of classical conditioning? ...

    Correct

    • Who is credited with developing the theory of classical conditioning?

      Your Answer: Pavlov

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Who coined the term 'psychopathic inferiority'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who coined the term 'psychopathic inferiority'?

      Your Answer: Prichard

      Correct Answer: Koch

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Who proposed the Attenuation Theory as an explanation for selective attention? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who proposed the Attenuation Theory as an explanation for selective attention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treisman

      Explanation:

      Selective attention involves filtering external stimuli and assigning meaning to things that should get our attention. Three main models have been proposed: Broadbent’s Filter model, Treisman’s Attenuation Theory, and Deutsch and Deutsch’s Late stage model. Broadbent’s model is an early selection model that filters input based on physical characteristics, while Treisman’s model is an intermediate selection model that uses a leaky filter to weaken some stimuli but allow them through. Deutsch and Deutsch’s model is a late selection model that analyzes input for meaning before filtering occurs. Treisman’s model includes a dictionary unit that emphasizes certain words have lower thresholds for getting our attention, such as our own name.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In what field of medicine is the concept of 'therapeutic privilege' commonly used?...

    Incorrect

    • In what field of medicine is the concept of 'therapeutic privilege' commonly used?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Informed consent

      Explanation:

      Professionalism and UK Regulation

      Oaths and declarations are important in establishing trust and credibility for professions. The Hippocratic Oath, dating back to 425 BC, is a part of the Western medical tradition and emphasizes the teaching of medicine, patient’s best interests, confidentiality, and abstinence from harmful practices. However, it does not mention concepts such as autonomy of justice and forbids surgery. The Declaration of Geneva (1948) and the Declaration of Helsinki (1964) are modern-day versions of the Hippocratic Oath, emphasizing the patient’s health and interests over science and society. These declarations arose from the concern of the medical community’s complicity with the Nazi party during World War II.

      In the UK, doctors must register with the General Medical Council (GMC), which sets professional standards and maintains a register of licensed doctors. It is illegal to practice medicine without a license in the UK. The GMC’s Good Medical Practice and the Good Medical Practice: Framework for Appraisal and Revalidation document emphasizes the duty of doctors to be honest and trustworthy, with dishonesty viewed harshly. Confidentiality is an important legal and ethical duty, but it is not absolute. Breaches of confidentiality may occur in emergencies, in the interests of others, when required by statute of the courts, of when required by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA). Sexualized relationships with current patients are prohibited, and accepting unsolicited gifts from patients is allowed but must not affect the way doctors prescribe, advise, treat, refer, of commission services.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Classical conditioning is associated with the term? ...

    Incorrect

    • Classical conditioning is associated with the term?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stimulus

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which concept is linked to the term 'eudaimonia'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which concept is linked to the term 'eudaimonia'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Virtue ethics

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What aspect of memory is typically impacted in individuals experiencing difficulties with procedural...

    Incorrect

    • What aspect of memory is typically impacted in individuals experiencing difficulties with procedural memory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Who is credited with developing the theory of prima facie duties, which played...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with developing the theory of prima facie duties, which played a significant role in establishing the four principles of medical ethics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ross

      Explanation:

      Ross proposed the idea of prima facie duties, which were later modified by Beauchamp and Childress to form the four principles approach to medical ethics. The prima facie duties identified by Ross encompassed fidelity, reparation, gratitude, non-injury, harm-prevention, beneficence, self-improvement, and justice.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the tool used to evaluate an individual's capacity for abstract thinking?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the tool used to evaluate an individual's capacity for abstract thinking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test

      Explanation:

      The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test

      The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test is a tool used to evaluate a person’s ability to think abstractly and form concepts effectively. This test involves sorting objects based on their colour of material and copying block patterns using coloured cubes. The purpose of this test is to assess the patient’s cognitive abilities and determine their level of abstract thinking. By analyzing the patient’s performance on this test, healthcare professionals can gain insight into their cognitive functioning and develop appropriate treatment plans. The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test is a valuable tool for assessing cognitive abilities and can be used in a variety of healthcare settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Who proposed the six fundamental emotions that are believed to be universally present...

    Incorrect

    • Who proposed the six fundamental emotions that are believed to be universally present in all humans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paul Ekman

      Explanation:

      Primary Emotions

      Paul Ekman, a renowned psychologist, identified six basic emotions that he believed were universally present in all humans. These primary emotions are happiness, fear, disgust, sadness, anger, and surprise. Ekman suggested that these emotions were biologically innate and could be recognized across different cultures and languages. Although he later added more emotions to this list, the original six remain the most commonly referenced. Understanding these primary emotions can help individuals better recognize and manage their own emotions, as well as empathize with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Who authored the book 'The Myth of Mental Illness'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who authored the book 'The Myth of Mental Illness'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Szasz

      Explanation:

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which type of memory disturbance is linked to alcoholic blackouts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of memory disturbance is linked to alcoholic blackouts?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterograde amnesia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes

      Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which aspect is often overlooked of not given enough importance in utilitarianism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which aspect is often overlooked of not given enough importance in utilitarianism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Individual rights

      Explanation:

      According to utilitarianism, the morally right action is one that results in the most happiness for the largest number of people. This ethical theory was first introduced by Jeremy Bentham in the early 1800s and later refined by John Stuart Mill. The ultimate goal is to maximize utility, which is the overall amount of pleasure of happiness in the world. In order to achieve this, the consequences of an action on all those affected must be considered. However, a utilitarian may have to acknowledge that sometimes the greatest happiness for the greatest number can only be achieved by violating certain rights, such as the right to not be punished if innocent.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is an example of declarative memory? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of declarative memory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Episodic

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which statement about theories concerning selective attention is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about theories concerning selective attention is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Late selection models argue that information is selected after processing for meaning

      Explanation:

      Selective attention involves filtering external stimuli and assigning meaning to things that should get our attention. Three main models have been proposed: Broadbent’s Filter model, Treisman’s Attenuation Theory, and Deutsch and Deutsch’s Late stage model. Broadbent’s model is an early selection model that filters input based on physical characteristics, while Treisman’s model is an intermediate selection model that uses a leaky filter to weaken some stimuli but allow them through. Deutsch and Deutsch’s model is a late selection model that analyzes input for meaning before filtering occurs. Treisman’s model includes a dictionary unit that emphasizes certain words have lower thresholds for getting our attention, such as our own name.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Who is credited with creating the term 'institutional neurosis'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'institutional neurosis'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Barton

      Explanation:

      Barton introduced the concept of ‘institutional neurosis’ in 1960, describing it as a condition that affects individuals who have been institutionalized for a prolonged period of time. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including apathy, lack of motivation, disinterest in anything beyond the mundane, submission to authority, and an inability to express resentment towards unfair treatment. Other symptoms include a lack of interest in the future, an inability to make practical plans, a decline in personal hygiene and standards, and a loss of individuality. Those affected by institutional neurosis often resign themselves to the belief that things will remain unchanged and unchanging indefinitely.

      D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.

      Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.

      Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.

      Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.

      Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.

      Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.

      Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.

      Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 23 - What type of memory is semantic memory responsible for? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of memory is semantic memory responsible for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Language and knowledge

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 24 - A child is unable to describe the function of a microwave despite having...

    Incorrect

    • A child is unable to describe the function of a microwave despite having used one many times in the past. Which area of memory do you suspect is dysfunctional?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Semantic

      Explanation:

      The question pertains to the patient’s comprehension of the microwave’s purpose (semantic memory), rather than their ability to operate it (procedural memory).

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 25 - What study intentionally gave hepatitis to children with learning disabilities? ...

    Incorrect

    • What study intentionally gave hepatitis to children with learning disabilities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Willowbrook Study

      Explanation:

      The Willowbrook School Study was conducted in a state-supported institution for children with learning difficulties in New York during the 1960s. The study involved inoculating healthy children with hepatitis and administering gamma globulin to assess its potential to treat the disorder.

      The Tuskegee syphilis experiment was a controversial follow-up study of people with syphilis. Many participants were not informed of their illness and did not receive available treatment, even though it became available halfway through the study. The Belmont report introduced changes to US law on research ethics as a result of this study.

      The Stanford prison experiment involved creating a simulated prison environment at Stanford University. Participants were assigned as either a prison of a guard and were given no guidelines for how to behave. Within two days, the participants began to act out their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and sometimes cruel to the prisoners. The study was terminated after only six days due to extreme emotional reactions from some of the prisoners.

      The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys hanging around public toilets where men meet to have sex in order to study the population and learn more about the types of men that did it. The method was controversial as he never disclosed his motives when he interviewed the men and instead pretended to be a ‘watch queen’, raising issues of informed consent in research.

      Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience. Participants were assigned the role of teacher and administered fake shocks to a confederate playing the learner. Despite expressing concern, 30% of participants continued to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The study raised concerns for the wellbeing of participants, but Milgram decided not to terminate it as prior participants seemed to recover relatively well.

      Beecher’s Study

      Beecher’s study revealed more than 20 instances where individuals were subjected to experimentation without being fully informed of their participation in research and the potential risks involved. One of the cases cited was the Willowbrook State School study, where children with mental disabilities were intentionally infected with hepatitis under the guise of a vaccination program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 26 - A child with a fear of dogs is encouraged to pet a friendly...

    Incorrect

    • A child with a fear of dogs is encouraged to pet a friendly one. At first, the child is very scared but eventually becomes comfortable and enjoys playing with the dog. What type of therapeutic approach does this demonstrate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flooding

      Explanation:

      Flooding as a Treatment for Phobias

      Flooding is a treatment method for phobias that involves directly confronting the fear and remaining in the situation until the anxiety subsides. This process is called habituation and is different from systematic desensitization. However, flooding can be challenging for patients as it produces high levels of anxiety, which can cause them to leave the situation before the fear response is extinguished. As a result, desensitization is generally preferred over flooding as a treatment method for phobias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 27 - Which psychological concept is primarily characterized by the defence mechanism of splitting? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which psychological concept is primarily characterized by the defence mechanism of splitting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paranoid-schizoid position

      Explanation:

      Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.

      On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 28 - Who is credited with the Law of forgetting? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with the Law of forgetting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Jost

      Explanation:

      Ribot’s Law and Jost’s Law: Understanding Memory Consolidation and Forgetting

      Ribot’s Law, also known as the law of retrograde amnesia, suggests that recent memories are more likely to be lost than older ones. This implies that memories need time to consolidate and become more resistant to forgetting. Ribot observed that people who experience traumatic events often lose memories leading up to the event, but older memories are preserved. This pattern is also observed in patients with Alzheimer’s disease, where the saying goes, you lose first what you learn last.

      Jost’s Law of forgetting complements Ribot’s Law by stating that if two memories are of the same strength but different ages, the older memory will decay more slowly than the younger one. Together, these laws suggest that memory consolidation is a gradual process that takes time, and once memories are consolidated, they become more resistant to forgetting. Understanding these laws can help us better understand how memories are formed, retained, and lost over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 29 - Which individual is credited with developing the motivational concept known as the 'hierarchy...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual is credited with developing the motivational concept known as the 'hierarchy of needs'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abraham Maslow

      Explanation:

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 30 - From which theory does the concept of reciprocal determinism originate? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which theory does the concept of reciprocal determinism originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Social learning theory

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 31 - For what purpose is the Gudjonsson Scale primarily used in assessment? ...

    Incorrect

    • For what purpose is the Gudjonsson Scale primarily used in assessment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suggestibility

      Explanation:

      The Gudjonsson Suggestibility Scale

      The Gudjonsson Suggestibility Scale is a tool used to measure suggestibility in individuals. It involves reading a story to participants, who are then asked to recall as much as they can remember. Afterward, participants are asked 20 questions related to the story, 15 of which are misleading. Once the questions have been answered, participants are given negative feedback on their performance and told that they made several errors. They are then asked to repeat the questions to obtain more accurate answers. Based on the participants’ responses to the misleading questions, a total suggestibility score can be calculated. This scale is useful in understanding how easily individuals can be influenced of manipulated by external factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 32 - Who proposed that intelligence could not be measured by a single factor and...

    Incorrect

    • Who proposed that intelligence could not be measured by a single factor and instead identified seven distinct primary abilities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thurstone

      Explanation:

      Thurstone’s Theory of Intelligence

      Louis Leon Thurstone believed that intelligence could not be reduced to a single factor. Instead, he proposed that intelligence is composed of seven distinct abilities, which he called the primary abilities. These abilities include word fluency, verbal comprehension, spatial visualization, number facility, associative memory, reasoning, and perceptual speed. According to Thurstone, each of these abilities is independent of the others and contributes to an individual’s overall intelligence. This theory challenged the prevailing view of intelligence at the time, which held that intelligence could be measured by a single factor known as the g factor. Thurstone’s theory has had a lasting impact on the field of psychology and has influenced the development of modern intelligence tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 33 - How can primary process thinking be described? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can primary process thinking be described?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Id

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 34 - What psychological test is used to explore an individual's theory of mind? ...

    Incorrect

    • What psychological test is used to explore an individual's theory of mind?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sally-Anne Test

      Explanation:

      The assessment of theory of mind is conducted through the Sally Ann test, while executive function is evaluated through the tower of London test. Projective personality tests include the tell-me-a-story test and the Rorschach test. Ammons Quick Test is utilized to aid in the evaluation of premorbid intelligence.

      The Sally-Anne Test and the Theory of Mind

      The Sally-Anne test, conducted by Simon Baron-Cohen, led to the development of the theory of mind idea. The experiment involved several groups of children, including those with autism. During the test, a skit was performed where Sally put a marble in a basket and left the room. Anne then removed the marble from the basket and placed it in a box. When Sally returned, the children were asked where she would look for her marble.

      The results showed that most non-autistic children correctly identified the basket, while most autistic children pointed to of named the box. This led the researchers to conclude that the autistic children who chose the box lacked the ability to understand that Sally did not know the marble was in the box. The Sally-Anne test thus became a crucial tool in understanding the theory of mind, which refers to the ability to attribute mental states to oneself and others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 35 - An individual who has struggled with alcohol addiction expresses frustration over constantly craving...

    Incorrect

    • An individual who has struggled with alcohol addiction expresses frustration over constantly craving alcohol despite no longer enjoying its effects. What is this an example of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incentive salience

      Explanation:

      Understanding Incentive Salience and its Role in Addiction and Grief

      Incentive salience is a process that drives the brain to desire certain things, such as drugs, and is mediated by mesolimbic dopamine systems. This process is separate from the experience of pleasure, and a person can want something they don’t necessarily like. Desire is amplified by brain states that heighten dopamine reactivity, such as stress, emotional excitement, relevant appetites, of intoxication. This state-dependent amplification of incentive salience is one reason why many addicts find it difficult to stop at just one hit.

      Interestingly, grief has been hypothesized to be underpinned by a very similar process as drug addiction, referred to as the ‘incentive salience theory of grief’. Understanding the distinction between liking and wanting can help us better understand addiction and grief, and how the brain processes these experiences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 36 - What is the main region of the brain responsible for 'Working memory'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main region of the brain responsible for 'Working memory'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prefrontal cortex

      Explanation:

      – Different structures are involved in working memory.
      – The prefrontal cortex is the main structure that is expected to be known.
      – The hippocampus main role is to consolidate short-term memories to long-term storage.

      Memory: Encoding, Storage, Retrieval, and Failure

      Memory is a complex process that involves encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. Encoding refers to how information is placed into memory, and it can be improved by organizing data using techniques such as chunking and mnemonics. Storage refers to keeping information in memory, which can be short-term of long-term. Retrieval refers to getting information back from memory when needed, and it can be affected by primacy and recency effects.

      However, memory is not infallible, and there are seven ways in which it tends to fail. Transience refers to the decreasing accessibility of memory over time, while absent-mindedness is characterized by lapses of attention and forgetting to do things. Blocking is the temporary inaccessibility of stored information, while suggestibility involves the incorporation of misinformation into memory due to leading questions of deception.

      Bias refers to retrospective distortions produced by current knowledge and beliefs, while persistence involves unwanted recollections that people cannot forget, such as the intrusive memories of post-traumatic stress disorder. Finally, misattribution refers to the attribution of memories to incorrect sources of believing that one has seen of heard something that they have not, such as in the case of deja vu of cryptomnesia.

      Overall, memory is a complex and active process that can be affected by various factors, leading to failures in encoding, storage, retrieval, and attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 37 - At what developmental stage, as described by Piaget, would a 3-year-old child engage...

    Incorrect

    • At what developmental stage, as described by Piaget, would a 3-year-old child engage in symbolic play but struggle with understanding others' perspectives?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Preoperational

      Explanation:

      The preoperational stage, according to Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, is characterized by children engaging in symbolic play but not yet being able to comprehend logic. Piaget identified four main stages of cognitive development: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. The sensorimotor stage occurs from birth to two years old, during which the child experiences the world through their senses. The concrete operational stage occurs from seven to eleven years old, during which the child can think logically and is no longer egocentric. The formal operational stage occurs from eleven to sixteen years old, during which the child develops abstract reasoning. It is important to note that the Freudian stage of psychosexual development known as latency is not relevant to Piaget’s theory and is therefore not included in his stages of cognitive development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 38 - What is a true statement about amnesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about amnesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Situation specific amnesia is seen in cases of child sexual abuse

      Explanation:

      Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by a disruption of personal identity, which is not observed in transient global amnesia. In individuals with psychogenic amnesia, there is typically a loss of past memories (retrograde amnesia) while the ability to form new memories (anterograde amnesia) is relatively preserved.

      Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes

      Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 39 - What is the term used to describe the process of reinforcing progressively more...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the process of reinforcing progressively more accurate attempts towards a desired behavior?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shaping

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 40 - Which of the following is not considered a fundamental element of language? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not considered a fundamental element of language?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subversion

      Explanation:

      The Four Core Components of Language

      Language is a complex system of communication that involves various components. The four core components of language are semantics, syntax, pragmatics, and phonology. Each of these components plays a crucial role in the way we use language to convey meaning and interact with others.

      Semantics refers to the meaning of words and how they are used in context. It involves understanding the relationships between words and their meanings, as well as the nuances of language. For example, the word run can have different meanings depending on the context in which it is used.

      Syntax refers to the rules that govern the structure of sentences and how words are arranged to convey meaning. It involves understanding the order of words, phrases, and clauses in a sentence, as well as the use of punctuation and other grammatical structures.

      Pragmatics refers to the social and cultural aspects of language use. It involves understanding the context in which language is used, as well as the social norms and expectations that govern communication. For example, the way we speak to our friends may be different from the way we speak to our boss.

      Phonology refers to the sounds of language and how they are used to convey meaning. It involves understanding the different sounds of language, as well as the rules that govern their use. For example, the sound p in pat is different from the sound b in bat, and these differences can change the meaning of a word.

      In summary, the four core components of language are essential for effective communication. By understanding these components, we can better understand how language works and use it more effectively in our interactions with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 41 - Which researcher conducted experiments with a team of accomplices to study how individuals...

    Incorrect

    • Which researcher conducted experiments with a team of accomplices to study how individuals conform to group opinions on the length of a string, even if it is clearly incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asch

      Explanation:

      Psychology Experiments and Theories

      Asch conducted experiments on conformity, where participants tended to agree with group estimates even when they were clearly wrong. Heider introduced attribution theory and the fundamental attribution error. Milgram studied obedience by instructing participants to administer electric shocks to actors who were struggling in a learning task. Janis described groupthink, which is the tendency to pursue consensus in group decisions. On a different note, James Osterberg, who is more commonly known as Iggy Pop, performed with the rock band The Stooges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 42 - What is one of the main skills proposed by Thurstone? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is one of the main skills proposed by Thurstone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Word fluency

      Explanation:

      All the other choices are components of the WAIS (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale).

      Thurstone’s Theory of Intelligence

      Louis Leon Thurstone believed that intelligence could not be reduced to a single factor. Instead, he proposed that intelligence is composed of seven distinct abilities, which he called the primary abilities. These abilities include word fluency, verbal comprehension, spatial visualization, number facility, associative memory, reasoning, and perceptual speed. According to Thurstone, each of these abilities is independent of the others and contributes to an individual’s overall intelligence. This theory challenged the prevailing view of intelligence at the time, which held that intelligence could be measured by a single factor known as the g factor. Thurstone’s theory has had a lasting impact on the field of psychology and has influenced the development of modern intelligence tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 43 - A 70 year old man presents at the memory clinic with his wife,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old man presents at the memory clinic with his wife, reporting an inability to form new memories for the past 8 months following a head injury sustained in a fall. Which brain structure do you suspect has been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hippocampus

      Explanation:

      The frontal lobe contains the prefrontal gyrus and gyrus rectus, while the midbrain floor is composed of the tegmentum. Additionally, the hippocampus, which is crucial for memory, is located within the medial temporal lobe.

      Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes

      Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 44 - With which of the following is John Bowlby most closely associated? ...

    Incorrect

    • With which of the following is John Bowlby most closely associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attachment theory

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 45 - A consultant pediatrician attends the clinic for an interview with a young patient....

    Incorrect

    • A consultant pediatrician attends the clinic for an interview with a young patient. The child had been very restless until she arrived but settled down immediately in fear that the doctor might decide to give her a shot. This is an example of which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect

      Explanation:

      The Hawthorne effect is a type of bias that occurs when individuals alter their behavior because they believe they are being observed. The halo effect is a cognitive bias where one’s perception of a trait is influenced by their perception of another trait, such as assuming someone with glasses is intelligent. The Forer effect explains why people give high accuracy ratings to personality descriptions that are actually vague and general enough to apply to many people, as seen in practices like astrology. The interloper effect is the tendency to view third-party consultation as objective. The practice effect refers to the impact of past experience on taking a test again, resulting in higher scores, especially when the interval between tests is short.

      The Hawthorne Effect and Its Impact on Research

      The Hawthorne effect is a type of observer bias that occurs when individuals modify their behavior because they believe they are being observed. This phenomenon can have a significant impact on research outcomes, as subjects may alter their actions of responses in an attempt to please the observer of researcher. For instance, if a person knows they are being watched while performing a task, they may complete it more quickly of with greater accuracy than they would otherwise. As a result, researchers must be aware of the Hawthorne effect and take steps to minimize its influence on their studies. Failure to do so can lead to inaccurate of misleading results, which can have serious consequences for the validity of the research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 46 - Who wrote the first book on medical ethics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who wrote the first book on medical ethics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ishaq bin Ali Rahawi

      Explanation:

      Ishaq bin Ali Rahawi tackled ethical concerns in the field of medicine in his work, Adab al-Tabib (Conduct of a Physician), during the 9th century.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 47 - The focus of the Tarasoff case was on which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • The focus of the Tarasoff case was on which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duty to warn

      Explanation:

      The therapists in the Tarasoff case were faulted for placing greater importance on maintaining the patient’s confidentiality, thereby prioritizing the principle of beneficence over the rights of the potential victim. As a result, they were deemed to have failed in their duty to consider the principle of non-maleficence.

      Double Agentry in Psychiatry

      Double agentry is a term used to describe a situation where a psychiatrist’s conflict of interest interferes with their ability to act in the best interests of their patient. Psychiatrists often have to balance the interests of multiple parties, such as the patient, family, society, and hospital commissioners, which is known as multiagency.

      The Tarasoff case is a prime example of double agentry in psychiatry. Two therapists failed to warn a woman that their patient had expressed an intention to kill her. They chose not to do so to respect the patient’s confidentiality, but failed to recognize their duty of care to both the patient and the potential victim. Unfortunately, the woman was eventually murdered by the patient.

      This case, which occurred in California, led to a change in the law that now requires therapists to have a legal duty to both their patients and potential victims. It highlights the importance of psychiatrists being aware of their responsibilities to all parties involved and ensuring that they act in the best interests of their patients while also fulfilling their duty of care to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 48 - Who is credited with creating the term 'schizoaffective disorder'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'schizoaffective disorder'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kasanin

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 49 - A child is walking down a dimly lit hallway. They hear creaking floorboards,...

    Incorrect

    • A child is walking down a dimly lit hallway. They hear creaking floorboards, their heart starts to race, and their breathing becomes heavier. Simultaneously, they feel scared. Which theory of emotion does this align with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cannon-Bard theory

      Explanation:

      The Lazarus theory and the attribution theory share similarities.

      Theories of Emotion

      In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.

      According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.

      The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.

      The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.

      Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.

      In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 50 - Which of the options below does not belong to the group of neo-Freudians?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below does not belong to the group of neo-Freudians?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Burrhus Skinner

      Explanation:

      B.F. Skinner, a prominent figure in the field of psychology, is renowned for his contributions to the theory of reinforcement within the behaviourist perspective.

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 51 - What is the term used to describe the inclination to attribute an individual's...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the inclination to attribute an individual's actions to their personality traits rather than external circumstances?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fundamental attribution error

      Explanation:

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 52 - Which study involved individuals who were aware that effective treatment was available but...

    Incorrect

    • Which study involved individuals who were aware that effective treatment was available but were still not provided with it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuskegee experiment

      Explanation:

      Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 53 - How can the four principles of medical ethics be stated? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can the four principles of medical ethics be stated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autonomy, Beneficence, Non-maleficence and Justice

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 54 - Which one of these individuals did not belong to the Gestalt psychology movement?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these individuals did not belong to the Gestalt psychology movement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wilhelm Wundt

      Explanation:

      Gestalt Psychology and the Laws of Perceptual Organization

      Gestalt psychology emerged as a response to structuralism, which aimed to break down thoughts into their basic components. Instead, Gestalt psychologists recognized that individual items must be examined together, as they interact and add complexity to the overall picture. Max Wertheimer, Kurt Koffka, and Wolfgang Köhler are important names associated with Gestalt psychology. Wertheimer discovered the phi phenomenon, which explains how rapid sequences of perceptual events create the illusion of motion. The Gestalt laws of perceptual organization explain how we tend to organize parts into wholes. These laws include symmetry and order, similarity, proximity, continuity, closure, and common fate. These laws help us understand how the mind groups similar elements into collective entities of totalities, and how spatial or temporal grouping of elements may induce the mind to perceive a collective of totality. Additionally, the laws explain how points that are connected by straight of curving lines are seen in a way that follows the smoothest path, and how things are grouped together if they seem to complete a picture. Finally, elements with the same moving direction are perceived as a collective of unit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 55 - What is the life event that Holmes and Rahe consider to be the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the life event that Holmes and Rahe consider to be the most stressful?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Death of a spouse

      Explanation:

      Holmes Rahe Stress Scale (Social Readjustment Rating Scale)

      In 1967, Holmes and Rahe conducted a study on the impact of stress on illness. They surveyed over 5,000 medical patients and asked them to report whether they had experienced any of 43 life events in the past two years. Each event was assigned a Life Change Unit (LCU) value, which represented its weight for stress. The higher the score, the more likely the patient was to become ill.

      The first 10 life events and their corresponding LCU values are listed below.

      1. Death of spouse – 100
      2. Divorce – 73
      3. Marital separation – 65
      4. Jail term – 63
      5. Death of a close family member – 63
      6. Personal illness – 53
      7. Marriage – 50
      8. Being fired from work – 47
      9. Marital reconciliation – 45
      10. Retirement – 45

      This scale is known as the Holmes Rahe Stress Scale of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale. It is still widely used today to assess the impact of life events on stress levels and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 56 - A high school student passes their final exams having based their revision solely...

    Incorrect

    • A high school student passes their final exams having based their revision solely on past exam papers. On the other hand, another student who has studied extensively from textbooks fails the same exams despite having gained vast knowledge. What does this scenario illustrate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Practice effect

      Explanation:

      When preparing for the MRCPsych exam, it is not advisable to solely rely on textbooks. One question that has been appearing on the exam is about the Hawthorne effect, which describes how individuals alter their behavior when they are aware of being observed. Another cognitive bias is the halo effect, where the perception of one trait is influenced by the perception of another trait, such as assuming intelligence based on the presence of glasses. It is worth noting that this question was originally written here.

      The Practice Effect and Its Impact on Test Scores

      The practice effect is a phenomenon that occurs when individuals take a test multiple times, resulting in higher scores due to their previous experience. This effect is most noticeable when the time between the two tests is short. The practice effect can have a significant impact on test scores, as individuals who have taken a test before are likely to perform better than those who have not. This effect is particularly relevant in educational settings, where students may take multiple tests throughout a semester of academic year. Understanding the practice effect can help educators and researchers better interpret test scores and make more informed decisions about student performance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 57 - Which neo-Freudian theorists are linked to the concepts of anima and animus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which neo-Freudian theorists are linked to the concepts of anima and animus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carl Jung

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 58 - What factors contribute to the lack of phobias towards cars in humans, despite...

    Incorrect

    • What factors contribute to the lack of phobias towards cars in humans, despite their potential danger?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stimulus preparedness

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 59 - Who is credited with creating the term 'psychiatry'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'psychiatry'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reil

      Explanation:

      Johann Reil is credited with coining the term ‘psychiatry’ in 1808.

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 60 - What is implied when the father of a teenage boy, admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • What is implied when the father of a teenage boy, admitted to the ward on which you work, expresses concern about his son's behavior and rejection of Islam? The father, who was born in Pakistan and raised his son there until he was 14, explains that the family are devout Muslims. However, since moving to the UK, his son has started drinking alcohol and taking drugs, dropped out of school, and appears to have no regard for the law. He also rejects invitations from other children to spend time with them at the cinema and in the local park.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Marginalization

      Explanation:

      The boy seems to have disavowed his native culture and has not assimilated into the prevailing culture (as evidenced by his refusal to pursue education and interact with local peers). The concept of ‘biculturalism’ refers to the coexistence of two separate cultures.

      Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 61 - A teenager who is texting while driving almost hits a group of pedestrians....

    Incorrect

    • A teenager who is texting while driving almost hits a group of pedestrians. When he stops the car, one of the pedestrians approaches him and yells. The teenager feels ashamed of his behavior and is reminded to be more cautious when driving. What type of operant conditioning is this an example of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive punishment

      Explanation:

      The women’s shouting, which is an unpleasant stimulus, serves as a positive punisher that reduces the likelihood of the behavior (speeding) occurring again. This is distinct from reinforcement, which involves the introduction of a positive stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior being repeated.

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 62 - What is a characteristic of typical grief? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic of typical grief?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anger towards the deceased

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases

      Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

      However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.

      It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.

      Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 63 - What is the term used to describe the teaching method where a swimming...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the teaching method where a swimming instructor breaks down a stroke into its components and teaches them separately before combining them?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chaining

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 64 - Which topic is associated with the Tarasoff case? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which topic is associated with the Tarasoff case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confidentiality

      Explanation:

      Tarasoff Case: Mental Health Professionals’ Duty to Protect

      The Tarasoff case was brought before the Supreme Court of California, which ruled that mental health professionals have a responsibility to safeguard individuals who are at risk of physical harm from a patient. This decision has significant implications for the issue of confidentiality in mental health treatment. The court’s ruling establishes that the duty to protect supersedes the duty to maintain confidentiality in situations where a patient poses a threat to others. This case highlights the importance of mental health professionals’ obligation to balance their ethical responsibilities with the safety of their patients and the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 65 - Can you provide an example of a personality test that is objective? ...

    Incorrect

    • Can you provide an example of a personality test that is objective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Esyenck personality test

      Explanation:

      Personality Testing

      There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 66 - In the OPCS classification, which social class does semi-skilled work fall under? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the OPCS classification, which social class does semi-skilled work fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Social class IV

      Explanation:

      Occupational Classification:

      The Office of Population Censuses and Surveys has developed a social and occupational classification system that categorizes individuals based on their employment status and level of skill. The system includes six social classes, ranging from unemployed of student (social class 0) to professional (social class I).

      Social class I includes individuals who hold professional positions, such as doctors, lawyers, and engineers. These individuals typically have advanced degrees and specialized training in their field.

      Social class II includes intermediate positions, such as managers, supervisors, and technicians. These individuals may have some level of specialized training of education, but not to the same extent as those in social class I.

      Social class III includes skilled, manual, of clerical positions, such as electricians, mechanics, and administrative assistants. These individuals have a high level of skill in their field and may require some level of training of certification.

      Social class IV includes semi-skilled positions, such as factory workers, machine operators, and retail salespeople. These individuals may have some level of training of experience, but not to the same extent as those in social class III.

      Social class V includes unskilled positions, such as laborers, cleaners, and agricultural workers. These individuals typically do not require any specialized training of education and may perform manual labor of basic tasks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 67 - The grandson of a man with Alzheimer's disease has observed that his grandfather...

    Incorrect

    • The grandson of a man with Alzheimer's disease has observed that his grandfather has difficulty remembering recent events but can recall memories from his youth with clarity. Which law supports this observation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ribot's Law

      Explanation:

      Ribot’s Law is the only law among the options provided, the others are non-existent.

      Ribot’s Law and Jost’s Law: Understanding Memory Consolidation and Forgetting

      Ribot’s Law, also known as the law of retrograde amnesia, suggests that recent memories are more likely to be lost than older ones. This implies that memories need time to consolidate and become more resistant to forgetting. Ribot observed that people who experience traumatic events often lose memories leading up to the event, but older memories are preserved. This pattern is also observed in patients with Alzheimer’s disease, where the saying goes, you lose first what you learn last.

      Jost’s Law of forgetting complements Ribot’s Law by stating that if two memories are of the same strength but different ages, the older memory will decay more slowly than the younger one. Together, these laws suggest that memory consolidation is a gradual process that takes time, and once memories are consolidated, they become more resistant to forgetting. Understanding these laws can help us better understand how memories are formed, retained, and lost over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 68 - How can the principle of Premack be described? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can the principle of Premack be described?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High frequency behaviours can be used to reinforce low frequency behaviour

      Explanation:

      Premack’s Principle

      Premack’s principle is a concept that suggests that preferred behaviors can be utilized to reinforce unpreferred behaviors. This principle is based on the observation that high-probability behaviors, which are frequently performed under conditions of free choice, can be used to reinforce low-probability behaviors. For instance, parents can tell their children that they can have pudding only after they finish their main course. Similarly, children can be allowed to go out and play only after they have completed their homework. By using this principle, individuals can increase the likelihood of performing less preferred behaviors by linking them to more preferred behaviors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 69 - In what field did Thomas and Chess have the greatest impact? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what field did Thomas and Chess have the greatest impact?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temperament

      Explanation:

      Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 70 - As per Sigmund Freud's structural model of the mind, which component is responsible...

    Incorrect

    • As per Sigmund Freud's structural model of the mind, which component is responsible for developing and upholding a person's ethical principles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The superego

      Explanation:

      According to Freud, the mind can be divided into three parts: the id, the ego, and the superego. The id is a collection of instinctual drives that are not organized and are controlled by the primary process. The id lacks the ability to delay of modify these instinctual drives that an infant is born with. The ego operates in all three dimensions of the mind: conscious, preconscious, and unconscious. The ego is responsible for logical and abstract thinking, as well as verbal expression in the conscious and preconscious parts of the mind. The superego is responsible for creating and maintaining an individual’s moral conscience based on a complex system of values and ideals that are internalized from parents. The terms unconscious and preconscious refer to Freud’s model of the mind, which includes the unconscious, preconscious, and conscious parts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 71 - How can we describe the act of believing in a negative stereotype about...

    Incorrect

    • How can we describe the act of believing in a negative stereotype about one's own group and applying those beliefs to oneself?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Self-stigma

      Explanation:

      Self stigma is when an individual adopts negative societal beliefs about their condition. On the other hand, courtesy stigma (also known as stigma by association) is a form of stigma directed towards individuals such as family members and healthcare professionals who are associated with those who have mental health issues.

      Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 72 - One of Bion's fundamental group assumptions is: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of Bion's fundamental group assumptions is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pairing

      Explanation:

      Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 73 - A teacher is eager to teach her middle school student better study habits....

    Incorrect

    • A teacher is eager to teach her middle school student better study habits. She starts by praising the student for simply sitting down at their desk to do homework. She then gives praise when the student opens their textbook and begins reading. She waits until the student has read a few pages and takes notes before issuing more praise. How would you describe the teacher's approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shaping

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 74 - Cognitive dissonance pertains to data that causes conflicting thoughts of beliefs. ...

    Incorrect

    • Cognitive dissonance pertains to data that causes conflicting thoughts of beliefs.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contradictory to an individual's beliefs

      Explanation:

      Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 75 - At what level of Maslow's original hierarchy are the highest level needs addressed?...

    Incorrect

    • At what level of Maslow's original hierarchy are the highest level needs addressed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Self-actualisation

      Explanation:

      It is not uncommon for questions that we have written to end up on the exam. This has been a frequent occurrence throughout the years.

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 76 - What is the alternate name for the theory that is commonly referred to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the alternate name for the theory that is commonly referred to as the two factor theory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Singer-Schachter theory

      Explanation:

      Theories of Emotion

      In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.

      According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.

      The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.

      The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.

      Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.

      In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 77 - What accurately describes Maslow's initial hierarchy of needs consisting of 5 levels? ...

    Incorrect

    • What accurately describes Maslow's initial hierarchy of needs consisting of 5 levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Self actualisation involves the most complex form of needs

      Explanation:

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 78 - What is a true statement about Bion's theory of group dynamics? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Bion's theory of group dynamics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basic assumption groups reflect a subconscious process that operates within the group

      Explanation:

      The underlying process of basic assumption groups operates at a subconscious level within the group, serving to shield the group as a whole from distressing anxiety rather than focusing on individual members. In contrast, work groups prioritize productivity and shared responsibility for achieving goals, distinguishing them from basic assumption groups. Work groups are primarily focused on accomplishing the task at hand.

      Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 79 - Who is credited with introducing the idea of the 'sick role'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with introducing the idea of the 'sick role'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parsons

      Explanation:

      The Sick Role and Illness Behavior

      Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.

      According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.

      Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.

      In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 80 - What is the main focus of behavioural activation therapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main focus of behavioural activation therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Behavioural Activation Therapy for Depression

      Behavioural activation therapy is a formal treatment for depression that emphasizes activity scheduling to encourage patients to approach activities they are avoiding. Unlike traditional cognitive therapy, it involves less cognitive therapy and is easier to train staff in its use. The therapy was introduced by Martell in 2001 and has two primary focuses: the use of avoided activities as a guide for activity scheduling and functional analysis of cognitive processes that involve avoidance.

      Behavioural activation theory suggests that when people become depressed, many of their activities function as avoidance and escape from aversive thoughts, feelings, of external situations. As a result, someone with depression engages less frequently in pleasant of satisfying activities and obtains less positive reinforcement than someone without depression. To address this, the patient is encouraged to identify activities and problems that they avoid and to establish valued directions to be followed. These are set out on planned timetables (activity schedules).

      In behavioural activation therapy, therapists do not engage in the content of the patient’s thinking. Instead, they use functional analysis to focus on the context and process of the individual’s response. The most common cognitive responses are rumination, fusion, and self-attack. A typical session has a structured agenda to review homework and progress towards goals, discuss feedback on the previous session, and focus on one of two specific issues. The number of sessions required to treat depression is typically between 12 and 24.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 81 - Which ethical situation is associated with the Tarasoff decision? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which ethical situation is associated with the Tarasoff decision?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The failure to protect the rights of potential victims

      Explanation:

      Double Agentry in Psychiatry

      Double agentry is a term used to describe a situation where a psychiatrist’s conflict of interest interferes with their ability to act in the best interests of their patient. Psychiatrists often have to balance the interests of multiple parties, such as the patient, family, society, and hospital commissioners, which is known as multiagency.

      The Tarasoff case is a prime example of double agentry in psychiatry. Two therapists failed to warn a woman that their patient had expressed an intention to kill her. They chose not to do so to respect the patient’s confidentiality, but failed to recognize their duty of care to both the patient and the potential victim. Unfortunately, the woman was eventually murdered by the patient.

      This case, which occurred in California, led to a change in the law that now requires therapists to have a legal duty to both their patients and potential victims. It highlights the importance of psychiatrists being aware of their responsibilities to all parties involved and ensuring that they act in the best interests of their patients while also fulfilling their duty of care to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 82 - Which ethical code was the first to emphasize the importance of obtaining the...

    Incorrect

    • Which ethical code was the first to emphasize the importance of obtaining the human subject's voluntary consent in research?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Nuremberg code

      Explanation:

      The Nuremberg Code and its Significance in Medical Ethics

      The Nuremberg Code is a set of ethical guidelines that resulted from the trial of German physicians accused of war crimes and crimes against humanity in 1946. The physicians were charged with conducting medical experiments on concentration camp prisoners without their consent. This led to the creation of the Nuremberg Code, which was the first international document to advocate for voluntary participation and informed consent in medical experimentation.

      The Nuremberg Code has since become a cornerstone of medical ethics and has been adopted by many countries and organizations around the world. It emphasizes the importance of protecting the rights and welfare of human subjects in medical research and requires that any experimentation be conducted with the voluntary and informed consent of the participants.

      The significance of the Nuremberg Code cannot be overstated, as it has helped to shape the way medical research is conducted and has led to greater awareness and respect for the rights of human subjects. It serves as a reminder of the atrocities committed during the Holocaust and the importance of ethical considerations in medical research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 83 - What is the theory that suggests emotions are a result of physical sensations...

    Incorrect

    • What is the theory that suggests emotions are a result of physical sensations in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: James-Lange theory

      Explanation:

      Theories of Emotion

      In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.

      According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.

      The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.

      The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.

      Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.

      In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 84 - A new student, recently enrolled, attends a school assembly. At this assembly, she...

    Incorrect

    • A new student, recently enrolled, attends a school assembly. At this assembly, she sees a group of older students whispering to each other. She notices them looking her way as she finds a seat. She thinks that they are judging her and trying to intimidate her. She mentions this to a teacher who seems surprised and encourages her to be open to the fact that the older students might have been discussing something unrelated to her.

      Which of the following is illustrated by this case example?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hostile attribution bias

      Explanation:

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 85 - What was the term used by Freud to refer to the instinct of...

    Incorrect

    • What was the term used by Freud to refer to the instinct of death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thanatos

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 86 - What condition has been linked to a more affluent social status? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition has been linked to a more affluent social status?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Social Status and Psychiatric Disorders

      Research has shown that certain psychiatric disorders are more prevalent in lower social classes. These disorders include schizophrenia, personality disorder, alcohol dependence, and major depression. On the other hand, anorexia nervosa has been found to be more common in higher social classes. These findings suggest a relationship between social status and mental health, with individuals from lower social classes being at a higher risk for certain psychiatric disorders. This information can be useful in developing targeted interventions and support for individuals from lower social classes who may be struggling with mental health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 87 - On which principle does the Id operate? ...

    Incorrect

    • On which principle does the Id operate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pleasure

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 88 - How would you define a term that refers to a mark of shame...

    Incorrect

    • How would you define a term that refers to a mark of shame of dishonor that distinguishes an individual from their peers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stigma

      Explanation:

      Stigma refers to a characteristic of behavior that is deemed shameful by society and causes an individual to be viewed as different from others.

      Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 89 - A 25-year-old woman who has recently moved to the United States from Japan...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who has recently moved to the United States from Japan presents to the local Emergency department in a state of extreme anxiety. The attending physician refers her to you as the psychiatrist on call and reports no evidence of an organic illness based on her physical examination.

      Upon meeting the patient, she expresses intense distress and reports a belief that her vagina is shrinking and that she will die as a result. She attributes this to a loss of balance in her sexual energy after engaging in sexual activity with a partner who did not align with her astrological sign.

      What would be your preferred diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Koro

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by the patient are consistent with Koro, a culture-specific disorder observed primarily in males (and occasionally in females) in China and Thailand. For more information, please refer to Edwards JW’s article Indigenous Koro, a genital retraction syndrome of insular Southeast Asia: a critical review published in Cult Med Psychiatry in 1984.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 90 - What statement accurately describes Maslow's hierarchy of needs model? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes Maslow's hierarchy of needs model?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B needs can only be met once D needs are satisfied

      Explanation:

      Maslow differentiated between two types of needs: deficiency needs (D-needs) and being needs (B-needs). While B-needs enable us to achieve our highest potential, they can only be met once the D-needs have been fulfilled. The lower four levels of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs correspond to D-needs.

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 91 - Which of the following emotions was not included in Ekman's list of six...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following emotions was not included in Ekman's list of six basic emotions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Relief

      Explanation:

      Primary Emotions

      Paul Ekman, a renowned psychologist, identified six basic emotions that he believed were universally present in all humans. These primary emotions are happiness, fear, disgust, sadness, anger, and surprise. Ekman suggested that these emotions were biologically innate and could be recognized across different cultures and languages. Although he later added more emotions to this list, the original six remain the most commonly referenced. Understanding these primary emotions can help individuals better recognize and manage their own emotions, as well as empathize with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 92 - Which factor was not identified as a vulnerability for depression by Brown and...

    Incorrect

    • Which factor was not identified as a vulnerability for depression by Brown and Harris?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Significant accumulation of debt resulting in threat of eviction

      Explanation:

      Depression (Brown and Harris)

      In 1978, Brown and Harris conducted a study on 458 women in the inner London area of Camberwell to investigate the causes of depression. The study resulted in the development of a model that identified four vulnerability factors for depressive illness in women. These factors included having three of more children under the age of 14 at home, lacking an intimate relationship with a husband of boyfriend, lacking employment outside of the home, and experiencing the loss of a mother before the age of 11 years. The model emphasized the role of psychosocial factors in the development of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 93 - Where was a declaration created that outlines ethical principles for conducting research on...

    Incorrect

    • Where was a declaration created that outlines ethical principles for conducting research on human subjects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Helsinki

      Explanation:

      The Significance of the Declaration of Helsinki in Biomedical Research Ethics

      The Declaration of Helsinki, created by the World Medical Association in 1964, outlines the fundamental ethical principles that govern biomedical research involving human subjects. Over the years, it has undergone several revisions and continues to serve as a cornerstone of good medical practice. Its importance lies in its ability to provide a framework for ethical decision-making in research, ensuring that the rights, safety, and well-being of human subjects are protected. The Declaration of Helsinki is a crucial document that guides researchers, clinicians, and policymakers in their efforts to conduct ethical and responsible research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 94 - Who was the originator of the term 'stigma'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who was the originator of the term 'stigma'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erving Goffman

      Explanation:

      Erving Goffman was a prominent sociologist who made significant contributions to the field. He is well-known for his works such as The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life, Asylums, and Stigma. In fact, he is credited with introducing the term stigma into the sociological lexicon. Goffman’s ideas and theories have had a lasting impact on the study of sociology and continue to be studied and applied today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 95 - Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic class?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Social Class and Mental Disorder

      There is a consistent finding that shows an inverse relationship between social class and rates of mental illness. This means that individuals from lower social classes are more likely to experience mental health issues compared to those from higher social classes. However, this inverse relationship is not observed in the case of anorexia nervosa. This suggests that factors other than social class may play a more significant role in the development of this particular disorder. Overall, the relationship between social class and mental health is complex and requires further investigation to fully understand the underlying factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 96 - A teenager expresses frustration that when they tell their peers what their parents...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager expresses frustration that when they tell their peers what their parents do for a living, they feel judged and treated differently. What is the term for this type of stigma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Courtesy stigma

      Explanation:

      Courtesy stigma, also known as stigma by association, is a genuine type of stigma that targets individuals who are connected to those with mental health issues, such as family members and healthcare providers. The remaining terms are not valid.

      Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 97 - In Freud's topographical model of the mind, which term was not included in...

    Incorrect

    • In Freud's topographical model of the mind, which term was not included in his description?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subconscious system

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Topographical Model of the Mind

      Freud’s topographical model of the mind, introduced in his book The Interpretation of Dreams, divides the mind into three regions: the conscious system, the preconscious system, and the unconscious system.

      The conscious system refers to the part of the mind that is aware. The preconscious system is the information that is known and can potentially be brought into consciousness. Finally, the unconscious system is believed to be outside conscious awareness and operates on primary process thinking, which is aimed at wish fulfillment. It is governed by the pleasure principle, has no concept of time, denies the existence of negatives, and allows the existence of contradictions, making it irrational.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 98 - Can you identify a personality test that assesses qualities rather than quantities? ...

    Incorrect

    • Can you identify a personality test that assesses qualities rather than quantities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thematic Apperception Test

      Explanation:

      The Thematic Apperception Test is a personality test that falls under the category of projective tests, which involve describing rather than measuring a specific aspect.

      Personality Testing

      There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 99 - What was the most significant contribution to the field of stigma? ...

    Incorrect

    • What was the most significant contribution to the field of stigma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Goffman

      Explanation:

      Goffman’s work focused extensively on stigma, while Cerletti is known for his contributions to the development of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), and Moniz is associated with the development of frontal lobotomy.

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 100 - Who is recognized as the originator of the frustration-aggression hypothesis regarding aggression? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is recognized as the originator of the frustration-aggression hypothesis regarding aggression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dollard

      Explanation:

      Dollard’s frustration-aggression hypothesis was the precursor to Berkowitz’s model, which posits that aggression arises from the inhibition of frustration of an individual’s goal-directed behavior.

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 101 - Which scientist's work is most closely linked to Lorenz's theory of aggression? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which scientist's work is most closely linked to Lorenz's theory of aggression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Darwin

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 102 - Who is the creator of the bobo doll experiment, which is utilized to...

    Incorrect

    • Who is the creator of the bobo doll experiment, which is utilized to reinforce his social learning theory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bandura

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 103 - Which option below is not considered a theory of emotion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option below is not considered a theory of emotion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maslow's theory

      Explanation:

      The concept proposed by Maslow is centered around a pyramid of needs.

      Theories of Emotion

      In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.

      According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.

      The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.

      The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.

      Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.

      In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 104 - Which schedule of reinforcement is the most difficult to extinguish? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which schedule of reinforcement is the most difficult to extinguish?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Variable ratio

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 105 - What declaration outlines the specific factors necessary for the optimal development and wellbeing...

    Incorrect

    • What declaration outlines the specific factors necessary for the optimal development and wellbeing of children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Declaration of Ottawa

      Explanation:

      Declarations

      The World Medical Association has established global ethical standards through various declarations. These include:

      Declaration of Geneva: This declaration was created as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath after the atrocities committed in Nazi Germany.

      Declaration of Helsinki: This statement outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

      Declaration of Tokyo: This declaration states that doctors should not participate in, condone, of allow torture, degradation, of cruel treatment of prisoners of detainees.

      Declaration of Malta: This declaration provides guidance to doctors treating individuals on hunger strike.

      Declaration of Lisbon: This international statement outlines the rights of patients.

      Declaration of Ottawa: This declaration sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health.

      Each of these declarations serves as a guide for medical professionals to uphold ethical standards in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 106 - Which ethical theory is attributed to Bentham and Mill as its main founders?...

    Incorrect

    • Which ethical theory is attributed to Bentham and Mill as its main founders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Utilitarianism

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 107 - Which option is not one of Bowlby's stages of grief? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not one of Bowlby's stages of grief?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bargaining

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases

      Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

      However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.

      It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.

      Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 108 - What is the definition of meaning of Ribot's law? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of meaning of Ribot's law?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retrograde amnesia

      Explanation:

      Ribot’s Law and Jost’s Law: Understanding Memory Consolidation and Forgetting

      Ribot’s Law, also known as the law of retrograde amnesia, suggests that recent memories are more likely to be lost than older ones. This implies that memories need time to consolidate and become more resistant to forgetting. Ribot observed that people who experience traumatic events often lose memories leading up to the event, but older memories are preserved. This pattern is also observed in patients with Alzheimer’s disease, where the saying goes, you lose first what you learn last.

      Jost’s Law of forgetting complements Ribot’s Law by stating that if two memories are of the same strength but different ages, the older memory will decay more slowly than the younger one. Together, these laws suggest that memory consolidation is a gradual process that takes time, and once memories are consolidated, they become more resistant to forgetting. Understanding these laws can help us better understand how memories are formed, retained, and lost over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 109 - What type of memory is demonstrated when an individual can recall a phone...

    Incorrect

    • What type of memory is demonstrated when an individual can recall a phone number from a directory and dial it accurately without writing it down?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Working

      Explanation:

      The term ‘short-term memory’ is a less advanced term compared to ‘working memory’.

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 110 - What is the term used by Freud to describe the process through which...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used by Freud to describe the process through which people release their aggressive impulses?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Catharsis

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 111 - What is the process of partially assimilating into a new culture while still...

    Incorrect

    • What is the process of partially assimilating into a new culture while still maintaining aspects of one's own culture called?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acculturation

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Culture and its Impact on Individuals

      Culture plays a vital role in society by providing consistency and organization to its patterns and components over generations. It helps to manage diversity and balance the forces of stability and conformity with those of change and innovation. By classifying phenomena into categories such as good and bad, right and wrong, healthy and sick, and desirable and undesirable, culture provides individuals with behavioral guidelines and an interpretation of life events.

      When adults, such as migrants of refugees, fully adopt the culture of a host society and lose their own cultural identity, they are said to be assimilated. However, in acculturation, individuals take on some aspects of the host culture while retaining their own cultural identity.

      Culture is learned through various means, including contact with family, friends, classmates, teachers, significant persons, and the media. This process is known as enculturation.

      Accommodation refers to the reconciliation of differences, while sojourning involves staying as a temporary resident.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 112 - Whenever a certain student receives a good grade from a teacher, they believe...

    Incorrect

    • Whenever a certain student receives a good grade from a teacher, they believe it is because they did well and met high standards. But when the same student receives a bad grade, they assume the teacher must be in a bad mood of doesn't like them. What is this reaction an example of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Self-serving bias

      Explanation:

      A fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to overemphasize dispositional factors and underestimate situational factors when explaining other people’s behavior. The correct term for making false assumptions about other people’s behavior is actually the fundamental attribution error.

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 113 - Who is credited with coining the term 'démence precoce'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with coining the term 'démence precoce'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Morel

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 114 - A teenager who is a victim of a crime is more likely to...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager who is a victim of a crime is more likely to receive assistance from a bystander if:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The bystander is male

      Explanation:

      The Bystander Effect: Theory and Examples

      The bystander effect, also known as the Genovese effect, suggests that the likelihood of someone helping in a situation is inversely related to the number of people present. This means that a person is more likely to help if there are fewer witnesses. The term Genovese effect comes from the case of Kitty Genovese, who was sexually assaulted and killed in front of a large apartment building. Despite 38 neighbors hearing her screams, no one called the police. However, the facts of this story have been largely shown to be inaccurate.

      Bystanders are less likely to help if there are many other people present, if the perpetrator is present, if the costs of intervention are physical, and if the situation is perceived as dangerous. On the other hand, bystanders are more likely to help if they are male and if they know the person in need of help. Overall, the bystander effect has been shown to be a valid concept, as demonstrated by research studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 115 - What is the term used to describe the mistake made by the medical...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the mistake made by the medical director during his speech on the proposed merger of two hospitals, where he accidentally said 'murder of two hospitals' instead of 'merger of two hospitals'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parapraxis

      Explanation:

      Parapraxis: A Freudian Slip of the Tongue

      A parapraxis, commonly known as a ‘slip of the tongue’, is a Freudian concept that suggests that these slips reveal important information about the repressed content of the unconscious mind. According to Freud, these mistakes are not accidental but rather a manifestation of the unconscious mind’s desires and thoughts. For instance, a person may accidentally call their boss by their partner’s name, revealing an underlying attraction of resentment towards their boss. Freud believed that these parapraxes could provide valuable insights into a person’s psyche and help uncover repressed memories of emotions. Therefore, he considered them an essential tool in psychoanalysis. Today, parapraxes are still studied and analyzed by psychologists and therapists to gain a better understanding of their patients’ unconscious thoughts and feelings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 116 - What strategies can be used to distinguish between normal grief and major depression?...

    Incorrect

    • What strategies can be used to distinguish between normal grief and major depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Generalised guilt

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases

      Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

      However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.

      It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.

      Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 117 - Who is responsible for introducing the concept of 'Filter Theory' in the context...

    Incorrect

    • Who is responsible for introducing the concept of 'Filter Theory' in the context of selective attention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Broadbent

      Explanation:

      Selective attention involves filtering external stimuli and assigning meaning to things that should get our attention. Three main models have been proposed: Broadbent’s Filter model, Treisman’s Attenuation Theory, and Deutsch and Deutsch’s Late stage model. Broadbent’s model is an early selection model that filters input based on physical characteristics, while Treisman’s model is an intermediate selection model that uses a leaky filter to weaken some stimuli but allow them through. Deutsch and Deutsch’s model is a late selection model that analyzes input for meaning before filtering occurs. Treisman’s model includes a dictionary unit that emphasizes certain words have lower thresholds for getting our attention, such as our own name.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 118 - From which group did Lorenz develop his theory of aggression? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which group did Lorenz develop his theory of aggression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Birds

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 119 - Freud believed that the conscience is located in which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Freud believed that the conscience is located in which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superego

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 120 - What is a characteristic of consequentialist theories? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic of consequentialist theories?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The moral status of an act is determined by its outcomes

      Explanation:

      The exam will require you to differentiate between the three main ethical principles: consequentialism, virtue theory, and deontology. Consequentialism prioritizes outcomes over intentions, while virtue theory emphasizes character, and deontology focuses on motives. A deep understanding of ethics is not necessary, but a basic comprehension of these principles is required.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 121 - Which individual is recognized for originating the term cognitive dissonance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual is recognized for originating the term cognitive dissonance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Festinger

      Explanation:

      Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 122 - Under which category of memory is priming classified? ...

    Incorrect

    • Under which category of memory is priming classified?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nondeclarative memory

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 123 - Which condition is linked to a lack of hypocretin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is linked to a lack of hypocretin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Hypocretin deficiency has been linked to narcolepsy, as it is a neuropeptide hormone produced in the hypothalamus that plays a crucial role in regulating sleep, arousal, appetite, and energy expenditure (also known as orexin) (Mignot, 2000).

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 124 - What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs during flooding therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Habituation

      Explanation:

      Flooding as a Treatment for Phobias

      Flooding is a treatment method for phobias that involves directly confronting the fear and remaining in the situation until the anxiety subsides. This process is called habituation and is different from systematic desensitization. However, flooding can be challenging for patients as it produces high levels of anxiety, which can cause them to leave the situation before the fear response is extinguished. As a result, desensitization is generally preferred over flooding as a treatment method for phobias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 125 - What is a true statement about failures in memory? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about failures in memory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blocking can occur with both semantic and episodic memory

      Explanation:

      Memory: Encoding, Storage, Retrieval, and Failure

      Memory is a complex process that involves encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. Encoding refers to how information is placed into memory, and it can be improved by organizing data using techniques such as chunking and mnemonics. Storage refers to keeping information in memory, which can be short-term of long-term. Retrieval refers to getting information back from memory when needed, and it can be affected by primacy and recency effects.

      However, memory is not infallible, and there are seven ways in which it tends to fail. Transience refers to the decreasing accessibility of memory over time, while absent-mindedness is characterized by lapses of attention and forgetting to do things. Blocking is the temporary inaccessibility of stored information, while suggestibility involves the incorporation of misinformation into memory due to leading questions of deception.

      Bias refers to retrospective distortions produced by current knowledge and beliefs, while persistence involves unwanted recollections that people cannot forget, such as the intrusive memories of post-traumatic stress disorder. Finally, misattribution refers to the attribution of memories to incorrect sources of believing that one has seen of heard something that they have not, such as in the case of deja vu of cryptomnesia.

      Overall, memory is a complex and active process that can be affected by various factors, leading to failures in encoding, storage, retrieval, and attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 126 - What is the underlying cause of disease according to the diathesis-stress model? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the underlying cause of disease according to the diathesis-stress model?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A predisposition for a disease and a triggering event

      Explanation:

      Diathesis-Stress Model

      The Diathesis-Stress Model acknowledges that a person’s behavior is influenced by both their experiences and genetics. This model proposes that some individuals have a pre-existing vulnerability (diathesis) towards a particular illness, and that certain environmental stressors can trigger the onset of the illness. The model emphasizes the interplay between nature and nurture in shaping a person’s mental health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 127 - Which category does utilitarianism belong to? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which category does utilitarianism belong to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teleology

      Explanation:

      Teleology, derived from the Greek words for goal and theory, is a moral philosophy that emphasizes the outcomes of actions as the initial consideration in evaluating ethical behavior. This category of theories is also known as consequentialism, as it focuses on the consequences of an action as the basis for determining its morality. Consequentialism evaluates the morality of an action based on the balance of its positive and negative outcomes. Utilitarianism of social consequentialism is the most prevalent form of consequentialism, although it is not the only one.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 128 - What factors had a significant impact on the evolution of the comprehension of...

    Incorrect

    • What factors had a significant impact on the evolution of the comprehension of suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Durkheim

      Explanation:

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 129 - Which ethical theory serves as the foundation for the principles of autonomy, beneficence,...

    Incorrect

    • Which ethical theory serves as the foundation for the principles of autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Principlism

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 130 - What is the percentage of children who can be categorized into one of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the percentage of children who can be categorized into one of the three temperament groups created by Thomas and Chess?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 65%

      Explanation:

      Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 131 - The author of the book 'Asylums' is... ...

    Incorrect

    • The author of the book 'Asylums' is...

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Goffman

      Explanation:

      Erving Goffman was a prominent sociologist who made significant contributions to the field. He is well-known for his works such as The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life, Asylums, and Stigma. In fact, he is credited with introducing the term stigma into the sociological lexicon. Goffman’s ideas and theories have had a lasting impact on the study of sociology and continue to be studied and applied today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 132 - What are the professional standards that doctors in the UK are expected to...

    Incorrect

    • What are the professional standards that doctors in the UK are expected to adhere to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The GMC permits doctors to accept gifts from patients

      Explanation:

      Professionalism and UK Regulation

      Oaths and declarations are important in establishing trust and credibility for professions. The Hippocratic Oath, dating back to 425 BC, is a part of the Western medical tradition and emphasizes the teaching of medicine, patient’s best interests, confidentiality, and abstinence from harmful practices. However, it does not mention concepts such as autonomy of justice and forbids surgery. The Declaration of Geneva (1948) and the Declaration of Helsinki (1964) are modern-day versions of the Hippocratic Oath, emphasizing the patient’s health and interests over science and society. These declarations arose from the concern of the medical community’s complicity with the Nazi party during World War II.

      In the UK, doctors must register with the General Medical Council (GMC), which sets professional standards and maintains a register of licensed doctors. It is illegal to practice medicine without a license in the UK. The GMC’s Good Medical Practice and the Good Medical Practice: Framework for Appraisal and Revalidation document emphasizes the duty of doctors to be honest and trustworthy, with dishonesty viewed harshly. Confidentiality is an important legal and ethical duty, but it is not absolute. Breaches of confidentiality may occur in emergencies, in the interests of others, when required by statute of the courts, of when required by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA). Sexualized relationships with current patients are prohibited, and accepting unsolicited gifts from patients is allowed but must not affect the way doctors prescribe, advise, treat, refer, of commission services.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 133 - Who is credited with creating the term 'hebephrenia'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'hebephrenia'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hecker

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 134 - A teenager is prescribed an antidepressant by their psychiatrist. 6 weeks later they...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager is prescribed an antidepressant by their psychiatrist. 6 weeks later they feel better and conclude that depression must have a biological cause. Which of the following is illustrated by this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intervention-causation fallacy

      Explanation:

      Intervention-Causation Fallacy

      The intervention-causation fallacy is a common mistake where people assume that a cure proves a cause. For instance, if antidepressants alleviate symptoms of depression, it does not necessarily mean that depression has a biological cause. It is important to note that just because a treatment works, it does not necessarily mean that it is addressing the root cause of the problem. Therefore, it is crucial to be cautious when making assumptions about causation based on interventions. By avoiding this fallacy, we can ensure that we are accurately identifying the underlying causes of problems and developing effective solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 135 - How can Thomas Szasz's views be best represented? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can Thomas Szasz's views be best represented?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mental illness is not a disease

      Explanation:

      Throughout his career, Szasz contended that mental illness is merely a metaphor for difficulties in human existence, and that mental illnesses lack the objective reality of physical ailments like cancer. He opposed many aspects of the contemporary psychiatric system in developed countries.

      Antipsychiatry is a movement that emerged in the 1960s and challenges the traditional medical model of mental illness. It argues that mental illnesses are not biological of medical conditions but rather social constructs that reflect deviations from social norms. The movement has been associated with several famous figures, including Thomas Szasz, R.D. Laing, Michel Foucault, and Franco Basaglia. These individuals have criticized the psychiatric profession for its use of involuntary hospitalization, medication, and other forms of coercion in the treatment of mental illness. They have also advocated for alternative approaches to mental health care, such as community-based care and psychotherapy. Despite its controversial nature, the antipsychiatry movement has had a significant impact on the field of mental health and continues to influence the way we think about and treat mental illness today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 136 - What are the components of behavioural activation in the treatment of depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the components of behavioural activation in the treatment of depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Types and degree of avoidance

      Explanation:

      Understanding Behavioural Activation Therapy for Depression

      Behavioural activation therapy is a formal treatment for depression that emphasizes activity scheduling to encourage patients to approach activities they are avoiding. Unlike traditional cognitive therapy, it involves less cognitive therapy and is easier to train staff in its use. The therapy was introduced by Martell in 2001 and has two primary focuses: the use of avoided activities as a guide for activity scheduling and functional analysis of cognitive processes that involve avoidance.

      Behavioural activation theory suggests that when people become depressed, many of their activities function as avoidance and escape from aversive thoughts, feelings, of external situations. As a result, someone with depression engages less frequently in pleasant of satisfying activities and obtains less positive reinforcement than someone without depression. To address this, the patient is encouraged to identify activities and problems that they avoid and to establish valued directions to be followed. These are set out on planned timetables (activity schedules).

      In behavioural activation therapy, therapists do not engage in the content of the patient’s thinking. Instead, they use functional analysis to focus on the context and process of the individual’s response. The most common cognitive responses are rumination, fusion, and self-attack. A typical session has a structured agenda to review homework and progress towards goals, discuss feedback on the previous session, and focus on one of two specific issues. The number of sessions required to treat depression is typically between 12 and 24.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 137 - What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position? ...

    Incorrect

    • What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splitting

      Explanation:

      Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.

      On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 138 - What is the term used in psychodynamic theory to describe the process of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used in psychodynamic theory to describe the process of internalizing cultural norms and values primarily acquired from parents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superego

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 139 - The patient made an error in assuming that the young woman was a...

    Incorrect

    • The patient made an error in assuming that the young woman was a nurse and not the consultant when they approached her to discuss their treatment on the acute ward. This error can be explained by the availability of which heuristic, where the patient relied on their immediate perception of the young women's appearance and role in the ward to make a quick judgment about her identity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Representativeness

      Explanation:

      Heuristics: Cognitive Shortcuts that can Lead to Diagnostic Errors

      In the 1970s, Tversky and Kahneman proposed that humans use cognitive heuristics, of mental shortcuts, to simplify complex decision-making processes. However, these heuristics can also lead to systematic errors. One such heuristic is the representativeness bias, where individuals judge the likelihood of an event based on how closely it resembles a stereotype. For example, a person described as shy and detail-oriented may be more likely to be perceived as a librarian than a farmer.

      Another heuristic is the availability bias, where individuals favor recent and readily available information over more accurate but less accessible information. This can lead to overestimating the frequency of certain events, such as violent crime. The anchoring-and-adjustment bias occurs when individuals lock onto salient features in a patient’s initial presentation and fail to adjust their impression in light of new information.

      The framing effect is another bias where individuals react differently to a choice depending on how the information is presented. For example, a pharmaceutical company may present a drug as having a 95% cure rate, making it seem superior to a drug with a 2.5% failure rate. Base rate neglect occurs when individuals ignore underlying incident rates of population-based knowledge, leading to unnecessary testing of treatment.

      Confirmation bias is a tendency to interpret information to fit preconceived diagnoses, rather than considering alternative explanations. The conjunction rule is the incorrect belief that the probability of multiple events being true is greater than a single event. Finally, diagnostic momentum occurs when clinicians continue a course of action initiated by previous clinicians without considering new information.

      Overall, while heuristics can be useful in simplifying complex decision-making processes, they can also lead to diagnostic errors if not used appropriately. It is important for clinicians to be aware of these biases and actively work to avoid them in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 140 - What is the term used to describe the approach of an Asian immigrant...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the approach of an Asian immigrant in England who practices his religion and cultural traditions at home but adapts well to the English language and culture at work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Integration

      Explanation:

      Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 141 - What ethical framework are the professionals using? A physician in their mid-career states...

    Incorrect

    • What ethical framework are the professionals using? A physician in their mid-career states that they do not support legalizing euthanasia because they fear it would alter their character and desensitize their conscience. Meanwhile, another physician in their early career believes that consistently permitting patients to endure pain due to ethical of legal concerns would result in them becoming indifferent.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Virtue ethics

      Explanation:

      Virtue Ethics: Judging Actions Based on Moral Character

      In virtue ethics, the evaluation of an action is not based on moral principles, intended outcomes, of societal effects. Instead, it is judged by how it shapes the moral character of the actor. This means that individuals who follow virtue ethics are concerned with how their actions will affect their own sense of morality. For example, if two students are faced with a moral dilemma, they may take different positions based on how they believe it would impact their own moral character. This approach to ethics emphasizes the importance of cultivating virtuous traits such as honesty, compassion, and courage, rather than simply following rules of achieving specific outcomes. By focusing on the development of moral character, virtue ethics encourages individuals to strive for excellence in all aspects of their lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 142 - Which of the following does not describe a typical trait of narcolepsy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not describe a typical trait of narcolepsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anosognosia

      Explanation:

      Narcolepsy is identified by a set of four symptoms, including excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hallucinations during sleep onset of awakening. While hypnagogic hallucinations have been traditionally linked to narcolepsy, both hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations can occur.

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 143 - A woman has a particular song that reminds her of an old boyfriend...

    Incorrect

    • A woman has a particular song that reminds her of an old boyfriend that broke up with her. Every time it is played she feels a deep sense of sadness. A classmate in her school often sings the song and the woman eventually finds herself feeling sad when she sees this classmate even when he no longer sings the song. This is an example of which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Higher order conditioning

      Explanation:

      The original response is elicited by the song, which serves as the conditioned stimulus. Through higher order conditioning, the colleague becomes associated with the song and also elicits the original response.
      When a response conditioned to a specific stimulus occurs in response to other stimuli that are similar to the original stimulus, this is known as stimulus generalisation. For instance, if someone experiences fear after being stung by a bee (CS), they may also feel fearful towards other small flying insects due to their similarity to the conditioned stimulus.
      In the given scenario, the colleague is dissimilar to the song and therefore cannot be considered as a similar stimulus. Hence, higher order conditioning is the appropriate term to describe the process.

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 144 - What guidance is provided for doctors treating individuals on hunger strike? ...

    Incorrect

    • What guidance is provided for doctors treating individuals on hunger strike?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Declaration of Malta

      Explanation:

      Declarations

      The World Medical Association has established global ethical standards through various declarations. These include:

      Declaration of Geneva: This declaration was created as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath after the atrocities committed in Nazi Germany.

      Declaration of Helsinki: This statement outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

      Declaration of Tokyo: This declaration states that doctors should not participate in, condone, of allow torture, degradation, of cruel treatment of prisoners of detainees.

      Declaration of Malta: This declaration provides guidance to doctors treating individuals on hunger strike.

      Declaration of Lisbon: This international statement outlines the rights of patients.

      Declaration of Ottawa: This declaration sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health.

      Each of these declarations serves as a guide for medical professionals to uphold ethical standards in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 145 - A parent punishes their toddler for throwing a tantrum, the toddler never throws...

    Incorrect

    • A parent punishes their toddler for throwing a tantrum, the toddler never throws a tantrum again. The change in behaviour results from which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Punishment

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 146 - Which study focused on men who participated in sexual activities in public restrooms?...

    Incorrect

    • Which study focused on men who participated in sexual activities in public restrooms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tearoom study

      Explanation:

      Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 147 - What is the term used to describe the phenomenon where individuals tend to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the phenomenon where individuals tend to put in less effort when working in a group compared to when working individually?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Social loafing

      Explanation:

      Understanding Social Loafing

      Social loafing is a common phenomenon that occurs when people work in groups. It refers to the tendency of individuals to exert less effort when working in a group than when working alone. This can be attributed to the diffusion of responsibility, where individuals feel less accountable for their actions when working in a group. As a result, they may not put in as much effort as they would if they were working alone. Social loafing can have negative consequences for group performance, as it can lead to a lack of motivation and a decrease in productivity. Therefore, it is important to understand the causes of social loafing and take steps to prevent it from occurring in group settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 148 - How can the cognitive aspect of social capital be defined? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can the cognitive aspect of social capital be defined?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Values

      Explanation:

      Social Capital: An Explanation for Inequalities in Morbidity and Mortality

      The concept of social capital may provide insight into the observed disparities in morbidity and mortality based on occupational social class and material standard of living (McKenzie 2002). Social capital is considered the binding force of society, and it is believed that groups lacking in social capital may be at higher risk for mental illness.

      Social capital is defined as the features of social life – networks, norms, and trust – that enable participants to act together more effectively to pursue shared objectives (Putnam, 1996). It is a characteristic of groups rather than individuals and can be divided into structural and cognitive components. Structural social capital includes roles, rules, behaviors, networks, and institutions that bond individuals in groups, bridge divides between societal groups, of vertically integrate groups with different levels of power and influence in a society, leading to social inclusion. Cognitive social capital refers to the values, attitudes, and beliefs that produce cooperative behavior (Colletta & Cullen, 2000).

      In summary, social capital may offer an explanation for the observed inequalities in morbidity and mortality by occupational social class and material standard of living. It is a property of groups and can be broken down into structural and cognitive components.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 149 - How can a form of cultural assimilation be described? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can a form of cultural assimilation be described?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Melting pot

      Explanation:

      Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 150 - What is a true statement about amnesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about amnesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In anterograde amnesia, long-term memories before the amnesia remain intact

      Explanation:

      Long-term memories prior to anterograde amnesia are unaffected, as the condition only affects the formation of new memories. Unfortunately, amnesia cannot be treated as it involves damage to neurons. Lacunar amnesia refers to the loss of memory for a specific event, with the term lacuna meaning a gap of missing part in Latin. Retrograde amnesia typically involves damage to structures in the medial temporal lobe, such as the hippocampus, rather than the cerebellum. Source amnesia is characterized by the inability to recall the context in which previously learned information was acquired, while still retaining the factual knowledge.

      Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes

      Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 151 - What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a simple case of depression as a rare mental health condition they recently read about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Availability

      Explanation:

      Heuristics: Cognitive Shortcuts that can Lead to Diagnostic Errors

      In the 1970s, Tversky and Kahneman proposed that humans use cognitive heuristics, of mental shortcuts, to simplify complex decision-making processes. However, these heuristics can also lead to systematic errors. One such heuristic is the representativeness bias, where individuals judge the likelihood of an event based on how closely it resembles a stereotype. For example, a person described as shy and detail-oriented may be more likely to be perceived as a librarian than a farmer.

      Another heuristic is the availability bias, where individuals favor recent and readily available information over more accurate but less accessible information. This can lead to overestimating the frequency of certain events, such as violent crime. The anchoring-and-adjustment bias occurs when individuals lock onto salient features in a patient’s initial presentation and fail to adjust their impression in light of new information.

      The framing effect is another bias where individuals react differently to a choice depending on how the information is presented. For example, a pharmaceutical company may present a drug as having a 95% cure rate, making it seem superior to a drug with a 2.5% failure rate. Base rate neglect occurs when individuals ignore underlying incident rates of population-based knowledge, leading to unnecessary testing of treatment.

      Confirmation bias is a tendency to interpret information to fit preconceived diagnoses, rather than considering alternative explanations. The conjunction rule is the incorrect belief that the probability of multiple events being true is greater than a single event. Finally, diagnostic momentum occurs when clinicians continue a course of action initiated by previous clinicians without considering new information.

      Overall, while heuristics can be useful in simplifying complex decision-making processes, they can also lead to diagnostic errors if not used appropriately. It is important for clinicians to be aware of these biases and actively work to avoid them in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 152 - A child called Jack has developed a fear of dogs after he was...

    Incorrect

    • A child called Jack has developed a fear of dogs after he was chased by a dog in the park. The parent addresses this by exposing Jack to a friendly dog. Initially Jack reacted nervously and cried at the sight of the dog but over a period of 15 minutes, he settled in the company of this dog.

      What could be the reason for the improvement in Jack's fear of dogs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extinction

      Explanation:

      In psychology, the spacing effect suggests that humans are more likely to remember of learn items in a list when they are studied a few times over a long period of time (spaced presentation) rather than repeatedly in a short period of time, which is known as massed practice.

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 153 - What is a D need according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a D need according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Esteem

      Explanation:

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 154 - Regarding what topic is the Declaration of Tokyo? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding what topic is the Declaration of Tokyo?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The torture of prisoners

      Explanation:

      Declarations

      The World Medical Association has established global ethical standards through various declarations. These include:

      Declaration of Geneva: This declaration was created as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath after the atrocities committed in Nazi Germany.

      Declaration of Helsinki: This statement outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

      Declaration of Tokyo: This declaration states that doctors should not participate in, condone, of allow torture, degradation, of cruel treatment of prisoners of detainees.

      Declaration of Malta: This declaration provides guidance to doctors treating individuals on hunger strike.

      Declaration of Lisbon: This international statement outlines the rights of patients.

      Declaration of Ottawa: This declaration sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health.

      Each of these declarations serves as a guide for medical professionals to uphold ethical standards in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 155 - What type of personality test is projective in nature? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of personality test is projective in nature?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thematic Apperception Test

      Explanation:

      Personality Testing

      There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 156 - Who is credited with creating the term 'dementia praecox'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'dementia praecox'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kraepelin

      Explanation:

      The origin of the term dementia praecox is a topic of controversy. While some sources credit Kraepelin with popularizing the term, others argue that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was coined by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College has chosen to attribute the term to Kraepelin. Therefore, if the question refers to demence precoce, the answer should be Morel, and if it refers to dementia praecox, Kraepelin should be selected.

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 157 - Which of the following best describes the situation where a mental health nurse...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the situation where a mental health nurse assumes that a patient is lazy because of their weight?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Halo effect

      Explanation:

      The Halo Effect: How One Perception Influences Another

      The halo effect is a cognitive bias that occurs when our perception of one characteristic of a person of object is influenced by our perception of another. This means that if we perceive someone as attractive, we may also assume that they are intelligent of kind, even if we have no evidence to support these assumptions. The halo effect can have a significant impact on our judgments and decisions, as it can lead us to make assumptions based on limited information. It is important to be aware of this bias and to try to make judgments based on objective criteria rather than subjective perceptions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 158 - Who is the author of 'The Psychopathology of Everyday Life'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is the author of 'The Psychopathology of Everyday Life'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sigmund Freud

      Explanation:

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 159 - Who is the well-known British psychiatrist, known for his affiliation with the antipsychiatry...

    Incorrect

    • Who is the well-known British psychiatrist, known for his affiliation with the antipsychiatry movement, and is recognized for his statement that 'Madness does not necessarily have to be a complete breakdown, but can also be a breakthrough'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laing

      Explanation:

      Apart from Bleuler who is Swiss, all the other psychiatrists in the list of options are German – Kraepelin and…

      Antipsychiatry is a movement that emerged in the 1960s and challenges the traditional medical model of mental illness. It argues that mental illnesses are not biological of medical conditions but rather social constructs that reflect deviations from social norms. The movement has been associated with several famous figures, including Thomas Szasz, R.D. Laing, Michel Foucault, and Franco Basaglia. These individuals have criticized the psychiatric profession for its use of involuntary hospitalization, medication, and other forms of coercion in the treatment of mental illness. They have also advocated for alternative approaches to mental health care, such as community-based care and psychotherapy. Despite its controversial nature, the antipsychiatry movement has had a significant impact on the field of mental health and continues to influence the way we think about and treat mental illness today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 160 - What is the most effective way to assess one's ability to think abstractly?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective way to assess one's ability to think abstractly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Goldstein-Scheerer Test

      Explanation:

      The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sorting Test for Assessing Abstract Thinking

      The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sorting test is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate abstract thinking and the ability to form concepts. This test requires patients to sort objects based on their colour of material, as well as copy block patterns using coloured cubes. The test is primarily used to diagnose neurological problems. By assessing a patient’s ability to sort objects and form concepts, doctors can gain insight into their cognitive abilities and identify any potential neurological issues. The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sorting test is an effective tool for evaluating abstract thinking and cognitive function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 161 - In what area of human behavior did Lorenz develop his ideas based on...

    Incorrect

    • In what area of human behavior did Lorenz develop his ideas based on his research with birds?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aggression

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 162 - How would you define the term archetype in the context of psychodynamic theory?...

    Incorrect

    • How would you define the term archetype in the context of psychodynamic theory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A symbolic image in the collective unconscious

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 163 - What is the term used to describe a reduction in a conditioned response...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a reduction in a conditioned response when a conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus with which it has been previously paired in classical conditioning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extinction

      Explanation:

      The term ‘extinction’ has different meanings in classical and operant conditioning. In classical conditioning, it refers to a decrease in a conditioned response when a conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus. In operant conditioning, it refers to the decrease in an operant response when it is no longer reinforced. The options of negative reinforcement, negative punishment, and positive punishment are not relevant to classical conditioning.

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 164 - Which condition is characterized by experiencing hypnagogic hallucinations and excessive daytime sleepiness? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is characterized by experiencing hypnagogic hallucinations and excessive daytime sleepiness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 165 - Who is credited with creating the term 'neurasthenia'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'neurasthenia'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beard

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 166 - The defining characteristic of virtue theory is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The defining characteristic of virtue theory is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The character of the person

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 167 - What is the condition being described by a woman who experiences sudden falls...

    Incorrect

    • What is the condition being described by a woman who experiences sudden falls upon hearing a loud noise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cataplexy

      Explanation:

      Narcolepsy is identified by a set of four symptoms, including excessive sleepiness, hypnagogic hallucinations, sleep paralysis, and cataplexy. Cataplexy is a brief and sudden weakening of muscle control, typically brought on by emotional triggers, and is frequently observed in individuals with narcolepsy.

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 168 - Who is the neo-Freudian known for creating a therapy that is especially effective...

    Incorrect

    • Who is the neo-Freudian known for creating a therapy that is especially effective in treating borderline personality disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Otto Kernberg

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 169 - What is the purpose of the Thematic Apperception Test? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of the Thematic Apperception Test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Personality

      Explanation:

      The TAT is a psychological test that uses ambiguous pictures of people to elicit narratives from subjects. These narratives provide insight into the subjects’ underlying motives, concerns, and social perspectives.

      Neuropsychological Tests

      Neuropsychological tests are used to assess cognitive function and behavior in individuals with neurological of psychiatric conditions. These tests are designed to evaluate specific domains of cognitive function, such as attention, language, memory, visuospatial skills, executive function, and intelligence. They can also be used to assess personality traits and emotional functioning.

      Attention: The digit span test measures an individual’s ability to remember and repeat a series of numbers. The Trails A test assesses visual attention and processing speed.

      Language: The Boston Naming Test evaluates an individual’s ability to name objects. Verbal fluency tests assess an individual’s ability to generate words within a specific category.

      Memory: The Wechsler Memory Scale assesses different aspects of memory, including immediate and delayed recall. The Ray Auditory Verbal Learning Test measures an individual’s ability to remember a list of words.

      Visuospatial skills: The Ray-Osterrieth Complex Figure test assesses an individual’s ability to copy and recall a complex figure.

      Executive function: The Wisconsin Card Sort Test measures an individual’s ability to shift cognitive strategies. The Stroop test assesses an individual’s ability to inhibit automatic responses. The Trails B test evaluates an individual’s ability to switch between tasks.

      Intelligence: The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test assesses an individual’s overall intellectual functioning. The National Adult Reading Test measures an individual’s premorbid intelligence. The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale assesses intellectual functioning in children and adults.

      Personality (Projective Tests): The Rorschach Inkblot test assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their interpretation of inkblots. The Thematic Apperception Test evaluates an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their interpretation of ambiguous pictures. The Draw-A-Person test assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their drawing of a person. Sentence completion tests assess an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their responses to incomplete sentences.

      Personality (Objective Tests): The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their responses to a standardized questionnaire. The Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF) evaluates an individual’s personality based on 16 different traits. The NEO Personality Inventory assesses an individual’s personality based on five different dimensions. The Eysenck Personality Questionnaire (EPQ) measures an individual’s personality based on three different dimensions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 170 - What is true about global psychogenic amnesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about global psychogenic amnesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is often associated with fugue states

      Explanation:

      The presence of repetitive questioning is not commonly seen in cases of global psychogenic amnesia and may indicate transient global amnesia instead.

      Psychogenic Amnesia: A Non-Neurological Syndrome

      Psychogenic amnesia is a rare condition where patients experience severe retrograde amnesia without any known brain injury of disorder. This syndrome is also known as hysterical amnesia, dissociative amnesia, and functional retrograde amnesia. It can be difficult to distinguish from malingered amnesia. There are two types of psychogenic amnesia: global and situation-specific. Global psychogenic amnesia can manifest as psychogenic fugue, psychogenic focal retrograde amnesia, of multiple personality disorder. Situation-specific amnesia refers to a gap in memory for a traumatic incident and can arise in various circumstances, such as PTSD of being the victim of an offense. The amnesia in global psychogenic amnesia often follows a reversed gradient, with earlier memories preferentially affected. Three factors have been identified as predisposing factors for global psychogenic amnesia: a severe precipitating stress, a history of depressed mood and suicidal ideas, and a previous history of a transient neurological amnesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 171 - What accurately describes John Bowlby's depiction of the grief process? ...

    Incorrect

    • What accurately describes John Bowlby's depiction of the grief process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stage 3 is characterised by disorganisation and typically lasts several months

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases

      Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

      However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.

      It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.

      Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 172 - Which branch of psychology is governed by the principle of Pragnanz? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which branch of psychology is governed by the principle of Pragnanz?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gestalt psychology

      Explanation:

      Gestalt Psychology and the Laws of Perceptual Organization

      Gestalt psychology emerged as a response to structuralism, which aimed to break down thoughts into their basic components. Instead, Gestalt psychologists recognized that individual items must be examined together, as they interact and add complexity to the overall picture. Max Wertheimer, Kurt Koffka, and Wolfgang Köhler are important names associated with Gestalt psychology. Wertheimer discovered the phi phenomenon, which explains how rapid sequences of perceptual events create the illusion of motion. The Gestalt laws of perceptual organization explain how we tend to organize parts into wholes. These laws include symmetry and order, similarity, proximity, continuity, closure, and common fate. These laws help us understand how the mind groups similar elements into collective entities of totalities, and how spatial or temporal grouping of elements may induce the mind to perceive a collective of totality. Additionally, the laws explain how points that are connected by straight of curving lines are seen in a way that follows the smoothest path, and how things are grouped together if they seem to complete a picture. Finally, elements with the same moving direction are perceived as a collective of unit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 173 - You are sitting in class during a test. You realize you forgot to...

    Incorrect

    • You are sitting in class during a test. You realize you forgot to study and you feel anxious. Which emotional theory best explains this experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lazarus theory

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the Lazarus theory, which proposes that emotions are the result of cognitive appraisal of a situation. According to this theory, the thought I’m being burgled triggers a cognitive appraisal of the situation, which in turn leads to the emotional response of fear. This is in contrast to the Singer-Schachter theory, which suggests that emotions are the result of a combination of physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation of that arousal.

      Theories of Emotion

      In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.

      According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.

      The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.

      The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.

      Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.

      In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 174 - With which concept is the 'phonological similarity effect' commonly associated? ...

    Incorrect

    • With which concept is the 'phonological similarity effect' commonly associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Working memory

      Explanation:

      If you are familiar with the ‘phonological Loop’ component of the working memory, you may be able to deduce the meaning of the ‘phonological similarity effect’. This effect describes the difficulty in remembering words that sound alike. Additionally, the ‘word-length effect’ and ‘articulatory suppression’ are two other phenomena that involve the working memory.

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 175 - Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: George Brown

      Explanation:

      The objective of the book ‘Social origins of Depression’ was to identify the societal elements that play a role in the onset of depression, particularly in women.

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 176 - Which processes involve the activation of incentive salience? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which processes involve the activation of incentive salience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grief

      Explanation:

      Understanding Incentive Salience and its Role in Addiction and Grief

      Incentive salience is a process that drives the brain to desire certain things, such as drugs, and is mediated by mesolimbic dopamine systems. This process is separate from the experience of pleasure, and a person can want something they don’t necessarily like. Desire is amplified by brain states that heighten dopamine reactivity, such as stress, emotional excitement, relevant appetites, of intoxication. This state-dependent amplification of incentive salience is one reason why many addicts find it difficult to stop at just one hit.

      Interestingly, grief has been hypothesized to be underpinned by a very similar process as drug addiction, referred to as the ‘incentive salience theory of grief’. Understanding the distinction between liking and wanting can help us better understand addiction and grief, and how the brain processes these experiences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 177 - Which statement accurately defines the concept of fundamental attribution error? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately defines the concept of fundamental attribution error?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attributing others mistakes to their personal dispositions

      Explanation:

      The fundamental attribution error pertains to our tendency to make biased judgments about the behavior of others, rather than our own.

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 178 - What is a true statement about flashbulb memory? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about flashbulb memory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It occurs at times of increased emotional arousal

      Explanation:

      Flashbulb Memory

      Flashbulb memories are vivid and detailed recollections of the circumstances surrounding a significant event. These memories are typically episodic, meaning they are focused on the specific details of the event rather than just the facts. One example of a flashbulb memory might be recalling where you were and what you were doing when you first heard about the death of Princess Diana in 1997. What sets flashbulb memories apart from other types of memories is the high level of emotional arousal that accompanies them. This emotional intensity helps to cement the memory in the mind, making it more vivid and long-lasting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 179 - What is the term used in classical conditioning to describe an unlearned, inborn...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used in classical conditioning to describe an unlearned, inborn reaction to an unconditioned stimulus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An unconditioned response

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 180 - If budget constraints were the only consideration in allocating healthcare resources, what ethical...

    Incorrect

    • If budget constraints were the only consideration in allocating healthcare resources, what ethical framework would guide the decision-making process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Utilitarian

      Explanation:

      While quality adjusted life years (QALY) are a utilitarian measure, it would be extreme to suggest that individuals with illnesses that require expensive treatments should not be treated solely based on the cost-benefit analysis. The general population does not strictly adhere to utilitarian principles, and therefore, The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) considers other factors such as justice and the availability of alternative treatments for a particular condition in addition to the cost per QALY when making recommendations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 181 - A child who has experienced a head injury can no longer tie his...

    Incorrect

    • A child who has experienced a head injury can no longer tie his shoelaces despite normal motor function. Which type of memory is affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Procedural

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 182 - What was the unconditioned stimulus in Pavlov's original experiments on classical conditioning with...

    Incorrect

    • What was the unconditioned stimulus in Pavlov's original experiments on classical conditioning with dogs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seeing food

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 183 - How can the behavior of a rat in pressing a lever for food...

    Incorrect

    • How can the behavior of a rat in pressing a lever for food pellets be described when it stops pressing the lever after several attempts without receiving any pellets?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extinction

      Explanation:

      The term ‘extinction’ has distinct connotations in classical conditioning and operant conditioning. In operant conditioning, it denotes the waning of an operant response due to the absence of reinforcement. In classical conditioning, it signifies a decrease in a conditioned response (such as salivation) when a conditioned stimulus (such as a bell ringing) is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus (such as food) that it was previously associated with.

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 184 - Which study examined the concepts of obedience and authority and provided insight into...

    Incorrect

    • Which study examined the concepts of obedience and authority and provided insight into the behavior of individuals in Nazi Germany?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Milgram's' experiment

      Explanation:

      Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 185 - A woman in her 50s experiences chronic back pain. Her doctor prescribes a...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 50s experiences chronic back pain. Her doctor prescribes a medication that provides relief. She keeps the medication on hand and takes it as soon as the pain starts. What does this behavior demonstrate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escape conditioning

      Explanation:

      Escape conditioning involves ending an unpleasant stimulus by performing a certain behavior, while avoidance conditioning involves avoiding the presentation of an unpleasant stimulus by performing a certain behavior.

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 186 - Identify the option that represents a secondary reinforcer. ...

    Incorrect

    • Identify the option that represents a secondary reinforcer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Money

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 187 - In considering whether it could be right to cheat on a test, a...

    Incorrect

    • In considering whether it could be right to cheat on a test, a high school student says that they feel it would be wrong because they believe the social effect would be to reduce the trust the teacher has in students. Another student says he believes that this would increase trust in students instead.

      What moral framework are both students using?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Utilitarian

      Explanation:

      The two main ethical approaches in philosophy are teleological ethics, which focuses on the end result, and deontological ethics, which focuses on an individual’s actions being morally right regardless of the end result. In medicine, deontology is patient-centered, while utilitarianism is society-centered. Deontological ethics judges the moral status of actions according to rules of principles, such as the duty not to harm the patient versus the duty to help them. Kantian ethics is a strict form of deontological ethics that emphasizes behaving as though one’s behavior is creating a universal ethical rule. Utilitarianism is a teleological approach that prioritizes the action that leads to the greatest happiness of the greatest number, regardless of how it is brought about. In medicine, autonomy is one of four ethical principles, along with beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice, that enable patients to choose their own treatment and ensure fairness and equality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 188 - What is the description provided by Atkinson and Shiffrin's 1968 model? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the description provided by Atkinson and Shiffrin's 1968 model?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Memory

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 189 - What is meant by 'double agentry' and which parties may experience conflicts of...

    Incorrect

    • What is meant by 'double agentry' and which parties may experience conflicts of interests as a result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Double Agentry in Psychiatry

      Double agentry is a term used to describe a situation where a psychiatrist’s conflict of interest interferes with their ability to act in the best interests of their patient. Psychiatrists often have to balance the interests of multiple parties, such as the patient, family, society, and hospital commissioners, which is known as multiagency.

      The Tarasoff case is a prime example of double agentry in psychiatry. Two therapists failed to warn a woman that their patient had expressed an intention to kill her. They chose not to do so to respect the patient’s confidentiality, but failed to recognize their duty of care to both the patient and the potential victim. Unfortunately, the woman was eventually murdered by the patient.

      This case, which occurred in California, led to a change in the law that now requires therapists to have a legal duty to both their patients and potential victims. It highlights the importance of psychiatrists being aware of their responsibilities to all parties involved and ensuring that they act in the best interests of their patients while also fulfilling their duty of care to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 190 - What type of memory failure is typically associated with the inability to remember...

    Incorrect

    • What type of memory failure is typically associated with the inability to remember where one has placed their car keys?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absent-mindedness

      Explanation:

      The reason behind absent-mindedness is typically due to insufficient activation of the left inferior prefrontal and parahippocampal regions during the initial encoding process, resulting in shallow processing.

      Memory: Encoding, Storage, Retrieval, and Failure

      Memory is a complex process that involves encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. Encoding refers to how information is placed into memory, and it can be improved by organizing data using techniques such as chunking and mnemonics. Storage refers to keeping information in memory, which can be short-term of long-term. Retrieval refers to getting information back from memory when needed, and it can be affected by primacy and recency effects.

      However, memory is not infallible, and there are seven ways in which it tends to fail. Transience refers to the decreasing accessibility of memory over time, while absent-mindedness is characterized by lapses of attention and forgetting to do things. Blocking is the temporary inaccessibility of stored information, while suggestibility involves the incorporation of misinformation into memory due to leading questions of deception.

      Bias refers to retrospective distortions produced by current knowledge and beliefs, while persistence involves unwanted recollections that people cannot forget, such as the intrusive memories of post-traumatic stress disorder. Finally, misattribution refers to the attribution of memories to incorrect sources of believing that one has seen of heard something that they have not, such as in the case of deja vu of cryptomnesia.

      Overall, memory is a complex and active process that can be affected by various factors, leading to failures in encoding, storage, retrieval, and attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 191 - Which of these options represents a primary reinforcer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these options represents a primary reinforcer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 192 - What is considered the most crucial factor for utilizing working memory effectively? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is considered the most crucial factor for utilizing working memory effectively?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prefrontal cortex

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 193 - According to Holmes and Rahe, which stressful life event is considered the most...

    Incorrect

    • According to Holmes and Rahe, which stressful life event is considered the most stressful?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Divorce

      Explanation:

      While it’s not necessary to memorize the precise sequence of all the stressful life events, it’s advisable to have knowledge of the order of the most significant three.

      Holmes Rahe Stress Scale (Social Readjustment Rating Scale)

      In 1967, Holmes and Rahe conducted a study on the impact of stress on illness. They surveyed over 5,000 medical patients and asked them to report whether they had experienced any of 43 life events in the past two years. Each event was assigned a Life Change Unit (LCU) value, which represented its weight for stress. The higher the score, the more likely the patient was to become ill.

      The first 10 life events and their corresponding LCU values are listed below.

      1. Death of spouse – 100
      2. Divorce – 73
      3. Marital separation – 65
      4. Jail term – 63
      5. Death of a close family member – 63
      6. Personal illness – 53
      7. Marriage – 50
      8. Being fired from work – 47
      9. Marital reconciliation – 45
      10. Retirement – 45

      This scale is known as the Holmes Rahe Stress Scale of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale. It is still widely used today to assess the impact of life events on stress levels and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 194 - Who is credited with creating the term 'bipolar'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'bipolar'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kleist

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 195 - Can you identify a personality test that measures traits using numerical values? ...

    Incorrect

    • Can you identify a personality test that measures traits using numerical values?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

      Explanation:

      As long as you comprehend the distinction between quantitative (involving a specific measure) and qualitative (involving a description), you should be able to answer this question without difficulty.

      Personality Testing

      There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 196 - Which psychologist proposed the law of effect, which suggests that the likelihood of...

    Incorrect

    • Which psychologist proposed the law of effect, which suggests that the likelihood of a behavior occurring is influenced by the consequences it produces in the environment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thorndike's

      Explanation:

      Thorndike’s Law of Effect

      Thorndike’s law of effect is a principle that explains how the likelihood of an action occurring is influenced by the effect it has on the environment.

      In simpler terms, this law suggests that actions that result in pleasurable outcomes are more likely to be repeated, while actions that lead to discomfort of negative consequences are less likely to be repeated.

      This law has significant implications for behavior and learning. It suggests that positive reinforcement is a powerful tool for shaping behavior, as it increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. On the other hand, punishment of negative consequences may not be as effective in changing behavior, as they may only serve to decrease the likelihood of a behavior being repeated, rather than promoting a desired behavior.

      Overall, Thorndike’s law of effect highlights the importance of understanding the consequences of our actions and how they shape our behavior. By focusing on positive reinforcement and creating environments that promote desirable behaviors, we can increase the likelihood of success and positive outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 197 - Which of the following characteristics would be associated with an individual possessing referent...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics would be associated with an individual possessing referent power?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charismatic

      Explanation:

      Referent power is the capacity of a leader to sway a follower’s actions based on the follower’s allegiance, esteem, camaraderie, adoration, fondness, of aspiration for validation. Typically, these leaders possess charisma.

      Power Theory

      French and Raven (1959) developed the 5 base theory of power, which identifies five types of power. These include legitimate power, which is held by an individual in an organization, referent power, which is held by a person with charisma who people gravitate towards, expert power, which is held by a person with specialist skills of knowledge, reward power, which is held by a person in a position to provide rewards, and coercive power, which is held by a person who has the ability to apply negative influences such as demotion. Other terms to be aware of include outcome power, which is the power of a person to bring about outcomes, social power, which is the power of a person to influence others so that they will bring about outcomes, and counterpower, which is the power of the oppressed to counterbalance the elite.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 198 - What is the most accurate definition of the term 'flashbulb memory'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate definition of the term 'flashbulb memory'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Detailed recollections of the context in which people first heard about an important event

      Explanation:

      Flashbulb Memory

      Flashbulb memories are vivid and detailed recollections of the circumstances surrounding a significant event. These memories are typically episodic, meaning they are focused on the specific details of the event rather than just the facts. One example of a flashbulb memory might be recalling where you were and what you were doing when you first heard about the death of Princess Diana in 1997. What sets flashbulb memories apart from other types of memories is the high level of emotional arousal that accompanies them. This emotional intensity helps to cement the memory in the mind, making it more vivid and long-lasting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 199 - As part of a cognitive evaluation, can you tell me the name of...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a cognitive evaluation, can you tell me the name of the current Prime Minister? This will help assess which type of memory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Semantic

      Explanation:

      According to Gelder (2009), semantic memory pertains to knowledge of facts and concepts that can be consciously recalled. Unlike episodic memory, which is also a type of declarative memory, semantic memory is not tied to any particular personal experience.

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 200 - Which of the following is guided by the principle of reality? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is guided by the principle of reality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ego

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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Social Psychology (5/8) 63%
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