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Question 1
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A 24-year-old woman presents as an emergency to her GP with acute vomiting which began some 3–4 hours after attending an afternoon meeting. Cream cakes were served during the coffee break. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of this acute attack of vomiting?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Staph. aureus is the most likely cause. It is found in foods like dairy products, cold meats, or mayonnaise. It produces a heat-stable ENDOTOXIN (remember this) that causes nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea 1-6 hours after ingestion of contaminated food. B. cereus is classically associated with fried rice being reheated. Salmonella is typical with raw eggs and undercooked poultry. Campylobacter which is most commonly associated with food poisoning, is seen with poultry 50% of the time. Yersinia enterocolitica is seen with raw or undercooked pork, and may be a case presenting with mesenteric adenitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
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A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill
Explanation:The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.
Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.
It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.
The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.
Other options:
The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful.
There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course.
Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure.
There are multiple different types of combined pills. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old gentleman required high doses of intravenous diuretics after his renal transplant for the purposes of fluid management. Soon after administration he developed hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. Which diuretic is most likely to have caused this?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is known to have significant ototoxicity side-effects although the mechanism is not fully known.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 4
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What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value? (TP = true positive; FP = false positive; TN = true negative; FN = false negative)
Your Answer: TP / (TP + FP)
Explanation:Positive predictive value is the probability that subjects with a positive screening test truly have the disease.
Positive predictive value = true positive / ( true positive + false positive)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
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A 50 year old retired coal miner with simple silicosis presented with shortness of breath. He had been short of breath for 3 months. Around 3 months ago he began keeping turtle doves as pets. On auscultation he had basal crepitations and chest x-ray showed fine nodular shadowing in the apices. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
Explanation:Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:
‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.
EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.
Examples of EAA include:
Bird fancier’s lung (BFL) is a type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP). It is triggered by exposure to avian proteins present in the dry dust of the droppings and sometimes in the feathers of a variety of birds. The lungs become inflamed, with granuloma formation. Birds such as pigeons, parakeets, cockatiels, shell parakeets (budgerigars), parrots, turtle doves, turkeys and chickens have been implicated.
People who work with birds or own many birds are at risk. Bird hobbyists and pet store workers may also be at risk. This disease is an inflammation of the alveoli in the lungs caused by an immune response to inhaled allergens from birds. Initial symptoms include shortness of breath (dyspnoea), especially after sudden exertion or when exposed to temperature change, which can resemble asthma, hyperventilation syndrome or pulmonary embolism. Chills, fever, non-productive cough and chest discomfort may also occur.
A definitive diagnosis can be difficult without invasive testing, but extensive exposure to birds combined with reduced diffusing capacity are strongly suggestive of this disease. X-ray or CT scans will show physical changes to the lung structure (a ground glass appearance) as the disease progresses. Precise distribution and types of tissue damage differ among similar diseases, as does response to treatment with Prednisone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
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A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?
Your Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent
Explanation:Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease).
It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.
The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect.
Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile.
Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 60-year old female suddenly started seeing a curtain-like shadow in her field of vision with flashes of lights and subsequent loss of vision, which prompted her to visit her ophthalmologist. What do you think is the most appropriate treatment in this case?
Your Answer: Surgery to retina
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Flashes of light, presence of floaters and loss of vision (often described as a black curtain closing in on the visual field) are symptoms that strongly indicate retinal detachment. The fundoscopy findings of retinal tears support this diagnosis. Therefore, surgery of retina must be done to treat this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
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A 60-year-old man with type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic with his wife. He is limping and his wife noticed that his ankle was abnormally-shaped after he stepped out of the shower. Examination of his right ankle reveals a painless warm swollen joint. There is crepitus and what appears to be palpable bone debris. X-ray reveals gross joint destruction and apparent dislocation. Joint aspiration fluid shows no microbes. Investigations: His CRP and white count are of normal values. Historical review of HB A1c reveals that it has rarely been below 9%. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Charcot’s ankle
Explanation:Charcot arthropathy is a progressive condition of the musculoskeletal system that is characterized by joint dislocations, pathologic fractures, and debilitating deformities. It results in progressive destruction of bone and soft tissues at weight-bearing joints. In its most severe form, it may cause significant disruption of the bony architecture.
Charcot arthropathy can occur at any joint; however, it occurs most commonly in the lower extremity, at the foot and ankle. Diabetes is now considered to be the most common aetiology of Charcot arthropathy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
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A 32 year old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to the clinic at 36 weeks gestation with worsening shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most accurate statements regarding her condition?
Your Answer: Risk of maternal mortality in patients with pulmonary hypertension is 30%
Explanation:Historically, high rates of maternal and fetal death have been reported for pregnant women with pulmonary hypertension (30–56% and 11–28%, respectively). The causes of poor maternal outcomes are varied and include risk of death from right heart failure and stroke from intracardiac shunting. Furthermore, there is a high peri-/post-partum risk due to haemodynamic stress, bleeding complications and the use of general anaesthesia, which can all lead to right heart failure.
The most common risk to the foetus is death, with premature birth and growth retardation being reported in successfully delivered children.
CXR is not contraindicated in pregnancy. D-dimers are not used as a diagnostic aid as they are almost always elevated in pregnancy. Nifedipine, although contraindicated in pregnant women may be used judiciously if the need arises. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
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A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left forearm. She has revealed that she was regular heroin user and has stopped for the past few days. Clinical signs are pointing towards opioid withdrawal. What is the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Give her 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait 60 min to determine its effect
Explanation:The next step in managing this patient is to give 10 mg and continue administering in 10 mg increments each hour until symptoms are under control.
Methadone alleviates opioid withdrawal symptoms and reduces cravings. Methadone is useful for detoxification from longer-acting opioids such as morphine or methadone itself.
Methadone should be used with caution if the patient has:
Respiratory deficiency
Acute alcohol dependence
Head injury
Treatment with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
Ulcerating colitis or Crohn’s disease
Severe hepatic impairment
The dose must be reviewed on a daily basis and adjusted based upon how well the symptoms are controlled and the presence of side effects. The greater the dose of opioids used by the patient, the greater the dose of methadone required to control withdrawal symptoms.To avoid the risk of overdose in the first days of treatment The recommended dosing of methadone is 30mg in two doses of 15mg morning and evening.
It is important to note that a methadone dose equivalent to what the patient reports they are taking should never be given.
It is rare to need more than 40 mg per 24 hours: beware of overdosing which can lead to respiratory arrest. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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