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  • Question 1 - You see a 13-year-old boy who has burns on his hands. Three months...

    Correct

    • You see a 13-year-old boy who has burns on his hands. Three months ago he had a fractured radius.

      You talk to him and he reveals that his father has been causing the injuries. You inform him that you will be referring him to child protection services, but he pleads with you not to. He comprehends the situation and the role of the child protection team, but he expresses his love for his family and doesn't want to be separated from them. You are familiar with his father and his grandfather, as they are all patients of yours.

      What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer: Refer her to the child protection team

      Explanation:

      Referring Child Abuse Cases: A Doctor’s Responsibility

      As a doctor, it is your responsibility to protect children and young people from abuse. In cases where there is ongoing risk of serious abuse, it is important to refer the child in a timely manner, even if it goes against their wishes. This is because the safety of the child should always be the top priority.

      According to the General Medical Council (UK), doctors have a duty to protect children and young people from harm. Referring cases of abuse is a crucial step in ensuring their safety. It is important to act quickly and make the necessary referrals to safeguard the child’s well-being. Even if the child expresses reluctance or resistance to the referral, it is important to prioritize their safety and take appropriate action. By doing so, doctors can fulfill their responsibility to protect vulnerable children and young people from harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      60.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old woman has liver metastases from a colorectal cancer. She complains of...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman has liver metastases from a colorectal cancer. She complains of nausea, which comes in waves, and experiences vomiting before going for chemotherapy but finds this less troublesome after chemotherapy. She also finds the nausea less troublesome when she is distracted.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anxiety

      Explanation:

      Assessing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Possible Causes and Treatment Options

      When assessing nausea and vomiting in palliative care, it is important to seek a reversible cause. If none is found, a specific diagnosis should be made. One possible cause is anxiety, which can present with nausea in waves and anticipatory vomiting that may be relieved by distraction. Benzodiazepines or levomepromazine can be used for medication. Other causes include gastric stasis, gastric outflow obstruction, small stomach syndrome, oesophageal blockage, bowel obstruction, raised intracranial pressure, movement-related nausea, vestibular issues, drugs, metabolic issues, and carcinomatosis. It is important to consider all possible causes and choose appropriate treatment options accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had recently injured his shoulder in a fall and self-certified for the first seven days with an SC2 note. He then saw a colleague of yours a week ago who gave him a medical certificate to cover the last week. The fit note has been marked you may be fit to return to work taking into account the following advice, has ticked amended duties and has handwritten in the comments section: to avoid heavy lifting. The fit note has been marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      He works in a factory and some of his duties include heavy lifting but he is able to contribute effectively in his role in other areas that do not involve heavy lifting. As this is the case he has been on light duties at work for the last week. He informs you that his shoulder is now fully healed. However, his employer has requested he has a 'return to work note' stating he is fit to return to full work activities due to the previous note being marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Advise him that you can complete a 'return to work' note for him but you will need to see him face to face to assess him first

      Correct Answer: His employer has a legal responsibility to carry out a formal occupational health assessment by private arrangement with a GP or occupational health specialist and following this it is their decision whether he is ready to return to full duties

      Explanation:

      Return to Work Note in UK Practice

      When returning to work after a period of sickness, employers may ask for a return to work note. However, it is important to note that employees do not need to sign this note. The Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) provides guidance for employers and managers, stating that employees can return to work at any time, even before the end of the sick note. This doesn’t breach Employers Liability Compulsory Insurance, as long as a suitable risk assessment has been conducted if necessary. It is important to advise patients and employers of this information and refer them to the DWP guidance. Remember, there is no need to sign a return to work note in UK practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      138.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman who is currently 8 weeks pregnant contacts the clinic to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is currently 8 weeks pregnant contacts the clinic to inquire about the results of her urine culture that was taken during her first antenatal visit. She reports no symptoms and has no known allergies to medications.

      The urine culture report indicates:

      Significant growth of Escherichia coli

      Trimethoprim Sensitive
      Nitrofurantoin Sensitive
      Cefalexin Sensitive

      What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cefalexin (7 day course)

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin (7 day course)

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      52.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 72-year-old woman contacts her doctor suspecting shingles. The rash started about 48...

    Incorrect

    • An 72-year-old woman contacts her doctor suspecting shingles. The rash started about 48 hours ago and is localized to the T4 dermatome on her right trunk. It is accompanied by pain and blistering. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently on metformin, canagliflozin, and atorvastatin. After confirming the diagnosis of shingles through photo review, the doctor prescribes aciclovir. What measures can be taken to prevent post-herpetic neuralgia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Antiviral treatment

      Explanation:

      Antiviral therapy, such as aciclovir, can effectively reduce the severity and duration of shingles. It can also lower the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia, especially in older patients. However, for antivirals to be effective, they must be administered within 72 hours of rash onset.

      Individuals with chronic diseases such as diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, inflammatory bowel disease, asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune diseases, and immunosuppressive conditions like HIV are at a higher risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia.

      Older patients, particularly those over 50 years old, are also at an increased risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia. However, the relationship between gender and post-herpetic neuralgia is still unclear, with some studies suggesting that females are at a higher risk, while others indicate the opposite or no association.

      Unfortunately, having a shingles rash on either the trunk or face is associated with an increased risk of post-herpetic neuralgia, not a reduced risk.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      78.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 7-month-old girl presents with a fever (38 oC) for 48 hours and...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old girl presents with a fever (38 oC) for 48 hours and occasional vomiting. A urine sample was sent to the laboratory and you receive the following result:
      White cells
      > 100 cells per µl
      Red blood cells
      > 100 cells per µl
      Organisms
      3+
      Epithelial cells
      1+
      Culture
      Escherichia coli> 108
      Which of the following would be the single most appropriate initial management for this child?

      Your Answer: Start antibiotics immediately and arrange for an ultrasound examination as soon as possible

      Correct Answer: Start antibiotics immediately

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of Urine Test Results in Children with Suspected Urinary Tract Infection

      Interpretation of urine test results in children with suspected urinary tract infection (UTI) is crucial in determining the appropriate course of treatment. A positive result for bacteriuria and fever of 38oC or higher suggests a typical bacterial infection, which may progress to an upper UTI. In such cases, referral to a paediatric specialist is recommended. However, if there are no indications of an atypical infection or serious illness, treatment with an antibiotic showing a low resistance pattern is reasonable.

      It is important to note that routine prophylaxis with antibiotics after a first infection is not necessary, nor is imaging required if the child responds to treatment within 48 hours. However, imaging is necessary during and after atypical infections and after recurrent infections for a child of this age. Therefore, careful interpretation of urine test results and appropriate follow-up measures are essential in managing UTIs in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You see a 62-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)....

    Incorrect

    • You see a 62-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR). He was diagnosed 6 weeks ago. He has been on a tapering dose of prednisolone since diagnosis but after reducing his dose from 12.5mg to 10 mg, he reports a significant relapse in symptoms.

      What is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Refer to rheumatology for consideration of DMARD therapy

      Correct Answer: Maintain same prednisolone tapering regimen but add simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      Managing Relapsing Symptoms in Rheumatoid Arthritis

      In cases of relapsing symptoms in rheumatoid arthritis, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends increasing prednisolone to the previous dose that controlled symptoms and monitoring response. The British Society of Rheumatologists and British Health Professionals in Rheumatology guidelines also support this approach but suggest considering referral for disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) therapy if more than two relapses occur. While erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measurement may be useful, the decision to change prednisolone dose can be made based on clinical features. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage relapsing symptoms in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      60
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 6-year-old girl with Down's syndrome who has a congenital heart defect has...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl with Down's syndrome who has a congenital heart defect has been prescribed furosemide by the paediatric cardiologists. Her parents have come to get a refill.
      Looking at the prescription, she has been prescribed furosemide at a dose of 0.6 mg/kg twice daily. Her current weight is 18 kg. Furosemide oral solution is available at a concentration of 20 mg/5 ml.
      What is the appropriate amount in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer: 3 ml BD

      Correct Answer: 12 ml BD

      Explanation:

      Dosage Calculation for Furosemide Oral Solution

      To calculate the correct dosage for furosemide oral solution, the patient’s weight and prescribed dose must be taken into account. For example, if the patient weighs 24 kg and the prescribed dose is 0.5 mg/kg BD, then the total daily dose would be 12 mg BD (24 kg x 0.5 mg/kg).

      The furosemide oral solution comes in a concentration of 20 mg in 5 ml, which means there is 4 mg in 1 ml. To determine the correct dosage, we can use the conversion factor of 12 mg = 3 ml. Therefore, the patient should take 3 ml of the furosemide oral solution twice a day. Proper dosage calculation is crucial to ensure the patient receives the correct amount of medication for their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      85.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Your practice plans to grow its list size, take on more staff, and...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice plans to grow its list size, take on more staff, and possibly take over the work of a neighbouring practice from which two GPs are retiring in the next five years. Before you start planning how to achieve these aims you decide to do a SWOT analysis of the factors involved.

      Which one of the following forms part of the acronym in the term SWOT analysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Threats

      Explanation:

      Understanding SWOT Analysis

      SWOT analysis is a strategic planning tool that helps organisations identify their Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats. It is a method used to evaluate the internal and external factors that may impact an organisation or plan. The analysis can be used to develop a clear objective and form part of an overall strategic planning programme.

      The process involves identifying the strengths and weaknesses of an organisation’s internal factors, such as its resources, capabilities, and culture. It also considers the external factors, such as market trends, competition, and regulatory changes. By identifying these factors, organisations can develop strategies to maximise their strengths, address their weaknesses, take advantage of opportunities, and mitigate threats.

      SWOT analysis is widely used in various industries, including healthcare. For instance, in the NHS, it can be used to manage change and improve patient care. In the Better Care Together initiative, a SWOT analysis was conducted to identify the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of the healthcare system in Morecambe Bay. This helped the organisation develop a strategic plan to improve patient care and outcomes.

      In summary, SWOT analysis is a valuable tool for organisations to evaluate their internal and external factors and develop strategies to achieve their objectives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following can cause a small pupil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can cause a small pupil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pontine haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pupil Size Changes

      Small pupils can be caused by a variety of factors, including Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, drugs, and poisons such as opiates and organophosphates. On the other hand, dilated pupils can be caused by Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil, third nerve palsy, drugs, and poisons such as atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol. It is important to identify the cause of pupil size changes as it can provide valuable information for diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her carer. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her carer. She lives in sheltered accommodation and has carers twice a day to help with washing, dressing and meal preparation. Typically, she enjoys crosswords and is able to mobilise around the house with the help of a walking stick. Over the past two days, she has become restless and agitated. When the carer arrived that morning, she had been very combative and refused to get dressed.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange admission to hospital for assessment, monitoring and treatment

      Explanation:

      Managing Delirium in Hospitalized Patients

      When a patient presents with delirium, it is important to take immediate action to ensure their safety and well-being. Admission to the hospital for assessment, monitoring, and treatment is typically necessary. The decision to admit should take into account the patient’s clinical and social situation, as well as the input of family members or caregivers. If the patient lacks capacity, decisions should be made in their best interests using the Mental Capacity Act 2005.

      Once the patient has recovered from delirium, it is important to review them to ensure there are no underlying memory concerns that would warrant a referral to the Memory Clinic. Physical restraints, such as cot sides, should be avoided in patients with delirium. Instead, strategies to maintain safe mobility should be employed, such as encouraging walking or active range of motion exercises.

      A computed tomography head may be indicated if there has been a recent head injury or a subdural hematoma is suspected, or if the patient may have underlying dementia. However, if an acute cause is suspected, the patient needs admission to the hospital. If dementia is suspected, then referral to the Memory Clinic once the patient has recovered from delirium is recommended.

      Pharmacological measures are a last resort for severe agitation or psychosis that may be recommended by specialists. Short-term, low-dose haloperidol may be suggested, but benzodiazepines are not usually recommended. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage delirium in hospitalized patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three day history of feeling unwell, dysuria, and increased frequency of urination. He denies any macroscopic hematuria. Upon further questioning, he reports having long-standing lower urinary tract symptoms such as weakened urinary stream, hesitancy, urgency, and nocturia for the past year, which have slowly worsened. On examination, he appears well with no abdominal or loin tenderness. Urine dipstick shows nitrites positive and leukocytes+++. A diagnosis of urinary tract infection is made, and he is treated with oral antibiotics. The patient expresses interest in having a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test to evaluate his lower urinary tract symptoms. A digital rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged benign-feeling prostate. When would be the most appropriate time to perform a PSA blood test in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Postpone the test for at least 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Prostate-Specific Antigen Blood Test

      The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is a common diagnostic tool used to detect prostate cancer. However, the test results can be influenced by various factors, including benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, urinary retention, urinary tract infection, old age, urethral or rectal instrumentation/examination, recent vigorous exercise, and recent ejaculation.

      It is important to note that the PSA test should be deferred for at least a month in individuals with a proven urinary tract infection. Additionally, if a man has ejaculated or exercised vigorously in the previous 48 hours, the test should also be deferred. While some sources suggest delaying PSA testing for at least a week after a digital rectal examination, data suggest that rectal examination has minimal effect on PSA levels.

      In summary, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting PSA test results to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year old gentleman is seen for follow up. He has recently been...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year old gentleman is seen for follow up. He has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. His echocardiogram shows a reduced ejection fraction. On reviewing his medications you can see that he has been taking atenolol going back many years for hypertension.

      Which of the following beta blockers would you recommend he switches to in order to enhance his heart failure treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta Blockers for Heart Failure

      Beta blockers have been proven to increase the survival rate of patients with heart failure in numerous clinical trials. In the UK, there are three licensed drugs for this purpose: Bisoprolol, Carvedilol, and Nebivolol. If a patient is newly diagnosed with left ventricular systolic function and is already taking a beta blocker, it is recommended to switch them to one of the beta blockers that have been shown to be effective in treating heart failure. This can help improve the patient’s overall health and increase their chances of survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 20-year-old traveller presents to the GP casualty unit with a five-inch dirty...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old traveller presents to the GP casualty unit with a five-inch dirty wound on his shin after mucking out horses. The wound is cleaned and sutured, but the patient is unsure of his vaccination status.

      What is the most suitable recommendation for tetanus treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give him tetanus immunoglobulin and a course of five tetanus vaccinations

      Explanation:

      Treatment for High-Risk Wounds

      This man’s wound poses a high risk of contamination from horse manure, and we do not know his vaccination status. Immediate action is necessary to prevent tetanus infection. Tetanus immunoglobulin can provide short-term protection, but it takes several months to achieve long-term immunity after the first dose of tetanus vaccine and up to a week after a booster. Therefore, the patient should receive both tetanus immunoglobulin and a full course of five tetanus vaccinations, with intervals of at least four weeks between doses. The standard dose of tetanus immunoglobulin is 250 IU IM, but if the wound is heavily contaminated, or if there is a delay in seeking treatment, a dose of 500 IU is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old man with asthma presents for a follow-up appointment. He complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with asthma presents for a follow-up appointment. He complains of not getting enough relief from his salbutamol inhaler and finds himself using it more frequently.

      You decide to assess his inhaler technique. He demonstrates the steps of removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, exhaling before placing his lips over the mouthpiece, pressing down the canister while inhaling slowly, and then exhaling.

      What suggestions could you offer to improve his technique?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should hold her breath for 10 seconds after delivering the dose

      Explanation:

      To ensure adequate drug delivery, it is important to use proper inhaler technique, which includes shaking the inhaler, taking a slow breath in, holding the breath for 10 seconds, and waiting 30 seconds between doses.

      Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers

      Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:

      1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.

      2. Breathe out gently.

      3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.

      4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.

      5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.

      6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.

      It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old male accountant presents to the clinic with complaints of rectal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male accountant presents to the clinic with complaints of rectal pain, tenesmus, and cramping during bowel movements. Four years ago, he traveled to Thailand for a vacation and had unprotected sex with a sex worker. A few weeks later, he noticed a sore on his penis and tenderness in his left groin, which eventually resolved.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphogranuloma venereum

      Explanation:

      Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is commonly found in tropical regions and typically presents with a painless genital papule or pustule that later ulcerates. Within 2 to 6 weeks, unilateral painful lymphadenopathy develops. If left untreated, LGV can progress to proctocolitis or even systemic illness.

      African trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, is caused by the protist Trypanosoma brucei. It is spread by the tsetse fly and is not sexually transmitted. It presents with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy and severe neurological complications.

      Genital herpes typically results in multiple painful genital ulcers, which is different from the solitary painless genital sores associated with LGV.

      Chancroid is an STI caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It also results in genital ulceration and painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, but the ulcers are painful (unlike LGV) and are more likely to be multiple. Chancroid is also unlikely to progress to proctocolitis.

      Understanding STI Ulcers

      Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 20-year-old otherwise healthy young man presents with a problem with recurrent boils.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old otherwise healthy young man presents with a problem with recurrent boils.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nasal carriage of staphylococci

      Explanation:

      Understanding Boils: Causes, Risk Factors, and Treatment Options

      Boils, also known as furuncles, are a common skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. They typically occur in adolescents and young adults, particularly in males. Recurrent infections may be caused by persistent nasal carriage of the bacteria. While the link between diabetes and multiple boils is unclear, individuals with diabetes may experience more extensive boils. Other risk factors include obesity, immunosuppression, skin diseases, poor hygiene, and exposure to chemicals or oils.

      To prevent recurrent infections, swabs should be taken from various sites to identify the source of the bacteria. If Panton-Valentine leukocidin Staphylococcus aureus (PVL-SA) or methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is suspected, specialist advice should be sought. Nasal carriage of staphylococci can be treated with a chlorhexidine and neomycin cream, although re-colonization is common. Antiseptics can also be used to reduce bacteria on the skin.

      Overall, maintaining good hygiene practices, such as daily washing and bathing in antiseptic solutions, can help prevent and treat boils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In the UK in 2010, there were five risk factors for disease that...

    Incorrect

    • In the UK in 2010, there were five risk factors for disease that caused the most disability-adjusted life years (DALYs). Which of these options had the greatest impact? Please

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tobacco smoking (including second-hand smoke)

      Explanation:

      Top Risk Factors for UK Health: Findings from the Global Burden of Disease Study 2010

      The Global Burden of Disease Study 2010 identified the top risk factors for UK health, based on disability-adjusted life years (DALYs). Tobacco smoking, including second-hand smoke, was found to be the greatest risk factor, accounting for 11.8% of DALYs. Diet and physical inactivity together accounted for 14.3% of DALYs, with a low intake of fruits and vegetables, high cholesterol and glucose levels, and drug use also contributing to the burden. High body-mass index was responsible for 8.6% of DALYs, while alcohol use accounted for only 4.9%. High blood pressure and physical inactivity/low activity were also significant risk factors, responsible for 9% and 5% of DALYs, respectively. These findings highlight the importance of addressing these risk factors to improve overall health in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute mountain sickness (AMS) during his upcoming Andes expedition. He specifically asks for advice other than gradual ascent. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetazolamide (Diamox)

      Explanation:

      There is evidence to suggest that Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can be effective in preventing AMS. It is worth noting that there seems to be a link between physical fitness and the likelihood of developing AMS.

      Altitude-related disorders are caused by chronic hypobaric hypoxia at high altitudes and can be classified into three types: acute mountain sickness (AMS), high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE), and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE). AMS is a self-limiting condition that typically occurs above 2,500-3,000m and presents with symptoms such as headache, nausea, and fatigue. Physical fitness may increase the risk of AMS, and gaining altitude at a rate of no more than 500m per day is recommended. Acetazolamide is a commonly used medication to prevent AMS, and descent is the recommended treatment.

      HAPE and HACE are potentially fatal conditions that affect a minority of people above 4,000m. HAPE presents with pulmonary edema symptoms, while HACE presents with headache, ataxia, and papilloedema. The management of both conditions involves descent and the use of medications such as dexamethasone and nifedipine for HAPE, and dexamethasone for HACE. Oxygen may also be used if available. The effectiveness of different treatments for these conditions has only been studied in small trials, but they all seem to work by reducing systolic pulmonary artery pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are completing an ESA113 medical report that has been requested by the...

    Incorrect

    • You are completing an ESA113 medical report that has been requested by the Department of Work and Pensions with regards a patient of yours who has applied for employment and support allowance.
      Which of the following should you omit from such a medical report?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reference to criminal convictions not directly relevant to the patient's condition or disability, whether spent or not

      Explanation:

      Accessing Medical Reports

      Information contained in medical reports can be made available to patients upon request or if they appeal against a benefit entitlement decision. The report should include any relevant medical information, including diagnoses that continue to impact the patient significantly. However, harmful information that could negatively affect the patient’s health should not be disclosed and can be legally withheld by the Department of Work and Pensions. Such information should be clearly marked and managed appropriately.

      Data protection legislation requires that information that would only embarrass the author or someone else should not be withheld. It is important to ensure that the report only includes issues that can be substantiated and that inappropriate personal remarks or suspicions of malingering without a firm basis are avoided. Additionally, letters or reports from other healthcare professionals should be included as they provide valuable information.

      It is important to observe the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974, which means that the report should not contain any reference to criminal convictions, whether spent or not, unless it is directly relevant to the patient’s condition or disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
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  • Question 21 - A 48-year-old hypertensive woman comes for her annual review with her General Practitioner....

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old hypertensive woman comes for her annual review with her General Practitioner. She has a family history of type II diabetes and her body mass index is 31 kg/m2 (obese). She has seen an endocrinologist privately and presents some results, including a two-hour glucose level of 9.1 mmol/l on the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Understanding Impaired Glucose Tolerance and Impaired Fasting Glucose

      Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) and impaired fasting glucose (IFG) are both conditions that can increase the risk of developing type II diabetes mellitus and cardiovascular disease. IGT is characterized by hyperglycemia and insulin resistance, with a fasting plasma glucose concentration of less than 7.0 mmol/l and a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test value of 7.8–11.1 mmol/l. IFG, on the other hand, is defined as a fasting glucose of 6.1–6.9 mmol/l but a 2-hour glucose level of <7.8 mmol/l on the oral glucose tolerance test. Both IGT and IFG are considered to be stages in the development of type II diabetes mellitus and are often accompanied by other features of the metabolic syndrome, such as obesity, dyslipidemia, and hypertension. Management of these conditions involves dietary modification and risk factor management to prevent progression to diabetes. It is important to note that a normal result would be a fasting glucose of <6.1 mmol/l and a 2-hour result of <7.8 mmol/l on the oral glucose tolerance test. A glucose level of greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l at two hours in the glucose tolerance test would confirm diabetes of any type, while glucose levels of 11.1 mmol/l or higher at two hours would confirm a diagnosis of type II diabetes mellitus. Type I diabetes mellitus typically presents more acutely, often with random glucose of 11.1 mmol/l or higher if symptomatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman has come to see you to discuss the results of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has come to see you to discuss the results of her smear test.

      Unfortunately, the sample was inadequate and needs to be repeated.

      How soon after the initial smear should she have the repeat smear taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      Importance of Waiting for Cervical Epithelium Regeneration and Antimicrobial Treatment

      It is crucial to wait for at least three months for the regeneration of the cervical epithelium after a screening test. This is because the epithelium needs time to heal and regenerate before another test is conducted. Rushing to re-sample before the regeneration of the epithelium can lead to inaccurate results, which can be detrimental to the patient’s health.

      Moreover, if there is any suspicion of infection, antimicrobial treatment should be administered before re-sampling. This is because an infection can interfere with the accuracy of the test results, leading to false positives or false negatives. Therefore, it is essential to wait for the regeneration of the cervical epithelium and treat any suspected infection before conducting another screening test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia visits the clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia visits the clinic. His wife is worried about his increasing forgetfulness. He frequently loses things around the house and struggles to find his way back home when he goes to the shops alone. What characteristic would strongly suggest vascular dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stepwise deterioration in symptoms with a clearly measurable difference between steps and no reversal

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vascular Dementia

      Vascular dementia is a type of cognitive decline that includes multi-infarct dementia and other forms of intellectual deterioration in individuals at high risk of atherosclerosis. Unlike Alzheimer’s, it is characterized by a stepwise progression, although it may also present as a steadily progressive dementia. A history of risk factors such as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs), stroke, hypertension, smoking, and hypercholesterolemia can raise suspicion of vascular dementia.

      Aggression without significant short-term memory loss is more commonly associated with frontal lobe dementia, while Parkinsonian features are typical of Lewy body dementia. Understanding the different types of dementia and their associated symptoms can help individuals and their loved ones better manage the condition and seek appropriate medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old stock-market trader presents with an 8 week history of upper abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old stock-market trader presents with an 8 week history of upper abdominal pain that comes on in the evening and also wakes him up in the early hours of the morning. His symptoms are relieved by food and milk.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Explanation:

      Common Gastrointestinal Disorders and their Symptoms

      Peptic ulcer disease, chronic pancreatitis, cirrhosis, gallstones, and reflux oesophagitis are some of the most common gastrointestinal disorders. Peptic ulcers are often caused by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, alcohol, tobacco consumption, and Helicobacter pylori. The main symptom is epigastric pain, which is characterised by a gnawing or burning sensation and occurs after meals. Relief by food and alkalis is typical of duodenal ulcers, while food and alkalis provide only minimal relief in gastric ulcers.

      Chronic pancreatitis causes intermittent attacks of severe pain, often in the mid-abdomen or left upper abdomen, and may be accompanied by diarrhoea and weight loss. Cirrhosis is often asymptomatic until there are obvious complications of liver disease, such as coagulopathy, ascites, variceal bleeding, or hepatic encephalopathy. Gallstones cause biliary colic, which is characterised by sporadic and unpredictable episodes of pain localised to the epigastrium or right upper quadrant. Obstructive jaundice may occur, and localising signs may be absent unless cholecystitis complicates the situation.

      Reflux oesophagitis typically presents with heartburn, upper abdominal discomfort, regurgitation, and chest pain. There is no clear evidence to suggest that the stress of modern life or a steady diet of fast food causes ulcers. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 75-year-old gentleman recently began taking donepezil for his moderate dementia. His family...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman recently began taking donepezil for his moderate dementia. His family became worried when they noticed he was more confused than usual. During examination, he displayed muscle rigidity, sweating, tremors, and was pyrexial. Repeated BP readings were: 160/90, 100/70, 150/80. A urine dipstick test came back negative, and his lung fields were clear upon auscultation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Clues and Considerations for Patients on AChE Inhibitors

      When a patient presents with unexplained pyrexia, autonomic dysfunction, and muscle rigidity, a GP should take note of recent medication changes, such as the initiation of donepezil. These symptoms may indicate a serious adverse reaction to acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors, which are becoming more commonly prescribed. In such cases, the GP should discuss the case with the on-call medical team for an immediate review.

      To better understand the potential side effects of AChE inhibitors, it is helpful to review the CKS link provided below. This resource outlines both common and rare adverse reactions to these medications, which can range from gastrointestinal disturbances to more serious neurological symptoms. By staying informed and vigilant, healthcare providers can help ensure the safe and effective use of AChE inhibitors for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 26 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of sildenafil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of sildenafil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abnormal liver function tests

      Explanation:

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - A 79-year-old woman has neuropathic pain and has recently been prescribed amitriptyline. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman has neuropathic pain and has recently been prescribed amitriptyline. What is the most frequent side effect of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Convulsions

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amitriptyline Side Effects

      All medications have potential side effects, and amitriptyline is no exception. Dry mouth is the most common side effect associated with this drug. However, candidates taking the RCGP exam must demonstrate a comprehensive understanding of various factors related to drug treatments, including drug metabolism, absorption, and excretion. They should also be knowledgeable about multiple prescribing, non-compliance by patients, and iatrogenic disease.

      Amitriptyline is a frequently prescribed medication, and the elderly population is more susceptible to its adverse effects. Therefore, it is crucial to understand the most likely side effects of this drug. The British National Formulary provides a comprehensive list of amitriptyline side effects that candidates should be familiar with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 28 - A 3-year-old girl presents with weight loss at her health check, having dropped...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presents with weight loss at her health check, having dropped from the 75th centile weight at birth to the 9th. She was born abroad; the results of any neonatal screening are unavailable. Since her arrival in this country, she has been prescribed antibiotics for several chest infections. Between attacks, she is well. The mother worries that she might have asthma. There is no family history of note.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a child with faltering growth and respiratory symptoms

      Cystic fibrosis, coeliac disease, α1-antitrypsin deficiency, asthma, and hypothyroidism are among the possible conditions that may cause faltering growth and respiratory symptoms in children. In the case of cystic fibrosis, dysfunction of the exocrine glands affects multiple organs, leading to chronic respiratory infection, pancreatic enzyme insufficiency, and related complications. The diagnosis of cystic fibrosis is often made in infancy, but can vary in age and may involve meconium ileus or recurrent chest infections. Coeliac disease, on the other hand, typically develops after weaning onto cereals that contain gluten, and may cause faltering growth but not respiratory symptoms. α1-Antitrypsin deficiency, which can lead to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease later in life, is less likely in a young child. Asthma, a common condition that affects the airways and causes wheeze or recurrent nocturnal cough, usually doesn’t affect growth. Hypothyroidism, a disorder of thyroid hormone deficiency, is screened for in newborns but doesn’t cause respiratory symptoms after birth. Therefore, based on the combination of faltering growth and respiratory symptoms, cystic fibrosis is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old woman comes in with complaints of hearing loss. Tuning fork tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes in with complaints of hearing loss. Tuning fork tests are performed, revealing a Rinne-positive result on both sides (air conduction heard better than bone conduction) and lateralisation of the Weber test to the left ear. How should these tuning fork test results be interpreted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left-sided sensorineural hearing loss

      Explanation:

      Tuning Fork Tests for Hearing Loss

      Tuning fork tests are commonly used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. Two tests are usually performed: the Rinne test and the Weber test. The Rinne test compares air conduction to bone conduction by placing the tuning fork against the mastoid and adjacent to the ear canal on both sides. Normally, sound is heard better by air conduction than bone conduction, resulting in a Rinne-positive outcome. Conductive hearing loss, however, causes a Rinne-negative pattern, where bone conduction is better than air conduction. A Rinne-positive result is also seen in sensorineural hearing loss and normal hearing, which is why the Weber test is necessary to provide further information.

      The Weber test involves placing the tuning fork on the forehead and checking if sound waves are transmitted equally to both ears. In normal hearing, the sound is heard equally in both ears. Conductive hearing loss in one ear causes the sound to be heard on the same side as the conductive loss. On the other hand, sensorineural hearing loss causes sound to be heard on the opposite side.

      In this case, the Rinne test resulted in a positive outcome on both sides, indicating no conductive hearing loss. However, the Weber test showed lateralization to the right, suggesting left-sided sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 30 - A 12-year-old boy presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and you suspect Crohn's disease. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and you suspect Crohn's disease. What is the most common symptom of Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.

      Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
End Of Life (1/1) 100%
Consulting In General Practice (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
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