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  • Question 1 - A 62-year-old woman presents with multiple non-healing leg ulcers and a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with multiple non-healing leg ulcers and a history of feeling unwell for several months. During examination, her blood pressure is 138/72 mmHg, pulse is 90 bpm, and she has pale conjunctivae and poor dentition with bleeding gums. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      Vitamin C: A Water Soluble Vitamin with Essential Functions

      Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a water soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions. One of its primary functions is acting as an antioxidant, which helps protect cells from damage caused by free radicals. Additionally, vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, as it acts as a cofactor for enzymes required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in the synthesis of collagen. This vitamin also facilitates iron absorption and serves as a cofactor for norepinephrine synthesis.

      However, a deficiency in vitamin C, also known as scurvy, can lead to defective collagen synthesis, resulting in capillary fragility and poor wound healing. Some of the features of vitamin C deficiency include gingivitis, loose teeth, poor wound healing, bleeding from gums, haematuria, epistaxis, and general malaise. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin C through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 41-year-old man presents to the surgery for the second time in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man presents to the surgery for the second time in the past month complaining of a severe sore throat. He has been prescribed a course of co-amoxiclav by your partner for suspected tonsillitis, but tells you this has had no impact on his symptoms. According to his records he has always had large tonsils and has been seen at the surgery for a number of episodes of tonsillitis over the past few years.

      On examination his temperature is 37.7°C, pulse is 70 bpm and regular, BP is 122/82 mmHg. There is some cervical lymphadenopathy. There is a large erythematous nodule on the right hand side of the tonsillar bed.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to ENT

      Correct Answer: Non-urgent referral for tonsillectomy

      Explanation:

      Unilateral Tonsillar Enlargement: A Red Flag for Tonsillar Lymphoma

      Unilateral tonsillar enlargement is a concerning symptom that may indicate tonsillar lymphoma. Delaying referral to an ENT specialist for biopsy can be detrimental to the patient’s health. Antibiotic therapy may not be effective in treating malignancy, and failure to respond to antibiotics may indicate underlying cancer. Patients with a history of smoking and alcohol consumption are at higher risk of tonsillar cancer, while those with recurrent tonsillitis may be more prone to tonsillar lymphoma.

      Other diagnostic options, such as full blood count and viscosity, may not be abnormal in early lymphoma, and non-urgent referral can cause a delay of several weeks before review by an ENT specialist. Therefore, it is crucial to promptly refer patients with unilateral tonsillar enlargement to an ENT specialist for further evaluation.

      The British Journal of General Practice (BJGP) published an article in November 2014 that provides a helpful table outlining the differences between acute tonsillitis and oropharyngeal carcinoma. This information can aid in the accurate diagnosis of tonsillar enlargement and prevent misdiagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 7-week-old boy is presented to your clinic by his mother in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-week-old boy is presented to your clinic by his mother in the afternoon. The mother reports that her baby has been experiencing effortless and painless regurgitation of his feeds for the past four weeks. The baby is being formula-fed and is currently taking bottles on demand every two hours. Apart from this, the baby is healthy and growing normally. There is no significant medical history, and the baby was born at full term without any complications. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to paediatrics

      Correct Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old child is brought to the emergency room by her mother after...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child is brought to the emergency room by her mother after she noticed a red rash on her daughter's legs that doesn't disappear when pressed. The child has been unwell with a fever and cough since yesterday, but her symptoms have worsened throughout the day. The mother is worried because her daughter is also complaining of a headache and has cold hands and feet. During the examination, the child is found to have a petechial rash on her lower legs and a temperature of 38.4ºC. The mother reports that her daughter is allergic to penicillin and had a rash and vomiting after taking amoxicillin for an ear infection 2 years ago. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Phone the paediatric registrar for advice

      Correct Answer: Phone 999 + administer intramuscular benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Meningococcal Septicaemia

      Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious condition that can cause high morbidity and mortality if not treated early. It is the leading infectious cause of death in early childhood, making it crucial to have a high index of suspicion. According to the 2010 NICE guidelines, meningococcal disease can present as meningitis, septicaemia, or a combination of both.

      NICE divides the symptoms of meningococcal septicaemia into three categories: common nonspecific symptoms/signs, less common nonspecific symptoms/signs, and more specific symptoms/signs. Common nonspecific symptoms/signs include fever, vomiting, and lethargy, while less common nonspecific symptoms/signs include chills and shivering. More specific symptoms/signs include a non-blanching rash, altered mental state, capillary refill time more than 2 seconds, unusual skin colour, shock, hypotension, leg pain, and cold hands/feet.

      If meningococcal septicaemia is suspected, it is important to give intramuscular or intravenous benzylpenicillin unless there is a history of anaphylaxis. However, if giving benzylpenicillin will delay hospital transfer, it should not be given. NICE recommends phoning 999 in case of suspected meningococcal septicaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      61.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man complains of dizziness and loss of hearing on the right...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man complains of dizziness and loss of hearing on the right side during his visit to the GP. Which test is most likely to suggest the presence of an acoustic neuroma?

      Your Answer: Absent corneal reflex

      Explanation:

      Consider acoustic neuroma if there is a loss of corneal reflex.

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      61.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP for a follow-up appointment. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP for a follow-up appointment. She was diagnosed with Bell's palsy three weeks ago after experiencing left-sided facial weakness. The GP prescribed a 10-day course of oral prednisolone and provided eye care advice. However, the patient reports no improvement in her symptoms since then.

      During the examination, the patient appears healthy but still has left-sided facial weakness without forehead sparing. The rest of her cranial nerve examination is normal, and there is no indication of middle ear disease.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Continue monitoring and reassure patient that symptoms can take up to 3 months to resolve

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialist

      Explanation:

      If a patient with Bell’s palsy doesn’t show any improvement in paralysis after 3 weeks, it is recommended to urgently refer them to an ENT specialist. This will allow for further investigation into other potential causes of facial weakness, including neuroimaging. It is not appropriate to reassure the patient that symptoms can take up to 3 months to resolve if there has been no improvement. Prescribing a further course of prednisolone or treating with oral aciclovir is not recommended. Referring to a plastic surgeon may be appropriate for facial reconstructive surgery, but usually only after a longer period of residual paralysis.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to start taking the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. Is there any medication listed on her repeat prescription that could cause interactions and contraindicate the use of this contraceptive method?

      Your Answer: Seretide

      Correct Answer: Orlistat

      Explanation:

      Orlistat is a medication used to treat obesity by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipase and reducing fat absorption from the gut. However, it often causes loose stool or diarrhea unless the patient follows a low-fat diet. It is crucial to assess the suitability of orlistat for patients taking critical medications like antiepileptics and contraceptive pills, as it may decrease their effectiveness by increasing gut transit time. If the patient wants to continue taking orlistat, it is advisable to consider alternative contraception methods that are more reliable.

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      155.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of a sizable bruise on...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of a sizable bruise on his upper right thigh. He accidentally hit it against the table while having a meal. Upon inquiry, he reveals that he tends to bleed excessively even after minor cuts and bruises. He also mentions that his family members have experienced similar symptoms across generations.

      Which is the most prevalent genetic clotting disorder that this patient is likely to have?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia A

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease (vWD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive manner. It is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, and it behaves like a platelet disorder. Patients with this condition often experience epistaxis and menorrhagia, while haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare.

      The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and serves as a carrier molecule for factor VIII. There are three types of von Willebrand’s disease: type 1, which involves a partial reduction in vWF and accounts for 80% of cases; type 2, which is characterized by an abnormal form of vWF; and type 3, which involves a total lack of vWF and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      To diagnose von Willebrand’s disease, doctors may perform a bleeding time test, measure APTT, and check factor VIII levels. Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin is also a common finding. Treatment options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of vWF, and factor VIII concentrate. The type of von Willebrand’s disease a patient has doesn’t necessarily correlate with their symptoms, but common themes include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising without trauma, and menorrhagia in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 24-year old health care assistant, Sarah, arrives at the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year old health care assistant, Sarah, arrives at the emergency department with a needle-stick injury that occurred on Saturday evening. She has just been informed that the patient who caused the injury has tested positive for HIV and is seeking guidance.

      What advice would you offer?

      Your Answer: Do a HIV test on Helena today to see if she has contracted HIV

      Correct Answer: Immediately start post-exposure prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Fortunately, Helena falls within the 72-hour window period for commencing post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV, and as such, she should start PEP without delay.

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      77
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following reports cannot be charged for by the GP, as...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following reports cannot be charged for by the GP, as they are considered outside the scope of their work?

      Your Answer: Cremation form

      Correct Answer: Unfit for jury form

      Explanation:

      GP Fees and Services

      Doctors offer a range of services that may come with fees. While most medical reports fall outside of a GP’s contract, the British Medical Association (BMA) provides guidance on reasonable fees for such work. However, there are certain certificates and services that GPs cannot charge for, including death certificates, stillbirth certificates, and notification of infectious diseases. Additionally, GPs cannot charge for providing evidence of bankruptcy, establishing patients unfit for jury service, and giving professional evidence in court. For more information on GP fees and services, refer to the BMA’s guidelines and the UK government’s Notification of Deaths Regulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
      105.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 42-year-old man presents with severe, left, renal, angle pain. On examination he has...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with severe, left, renal, angle pain. On examination he has severe, left, renal, angle tenderness, his BP is elevated at 155/90 mmHg, and his pulse is 95. He is apyrexial. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 121 g/L (135-180) White cell count 6.1 ×109/L (4-10) Platelets 201 ×109/L (150-400) Sodium 140 mmol/L (134-143) Potassium 4.9 mmol/L (3.5-5) Creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-120) Urine blood +++ Which one of the following would be your best next step?

      Your Answer: Arrange an abdominal x ray

      Correct Answer: Give him an injection of IM diclofenac

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from acute renal colic due to a calcium-containing renal stone. IM diclofenac is the initial step in management, along with increased fluid intake and arranging for a urology opinion. Antispasmodics should not be offered. Assess response to initial treatment and admit if no response within 1 hour. Offer urgent imaging to confirm diagnosis and assess likelihood of spontaneous stone passage. Offer NSAIDs for pain relief, and consider opioids if necessary. Do not offer antispasmodics. Provide written information on renal and ureteric stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old man has Parkinson's disease and is started on treatment. A month...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has Parkinson's disease and is started on treatment. A month later he presents and is concerned that his urine is dark red in color.
      Select the most probable cause.

      Your Answer: Bromocriptine therapy

      Correct Answer: L-Dopa treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Interstitial Nephritis and its Causes

      Acute interstitial nephritis is a condition that results in acute kidney injury. The most common cause of this condition is a drug hypersensitivity reaction, accounting for 40-60% of cases. However, drugs used for Parkinson’s disease are not known to cause nephritis.

      Wilson’s disease, on the other hand, is a condition characterized by abnormal copper metabolism. It typically presents as liver disease in children and adolescents, and as neuropsychiatric illness in young adults, which may include Parkinsonian features. Although haematuria has been reported in Wilson’s disease, gross haematuria is uncommon in urinary tract infection.

      L-Dopa is the primary treatment for Parkinson’s disease, and it can cause reddish discolouration of urine and other body fluids. In contrast, bromocriptine doesn’t have this side effect. While the BNF reports that the side effect of bromocriptine is uncommon, it would still be wise to test the urine for blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man with pancreatic cancer comes to the clinic for a review...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with pancreatic cancer comes to the clinic for a review of medication. He reports that his pain is no longer managed with paracetamol and 240 mg oral codeine per day. The doctor decides to initiate an opiate.
      Which of the following is the most suitable choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral morphine 30 mg daily in divided doses

      Explanation:

      Starting Strong Opioids for Pain Management

      When beginning strong opioids for pain management, it is recommended to use regular oral sustained-release or immediate-release morphine, depending on the patient’s preference. Immediate-release morphine can be used as needed for breakthrough pain, but it should not replace regular oral morphine. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical starting dose of 20-30 mg of oral morphine per day is recommended. This can be divided into two doses of sustained-release morphine or taken as 5mg of immediate-release morphine every 4 hours. However, patients switching from a weak opioid may require a higher starting dose of 40-60mg per day.

      If oral opioids are not suitable, transdermal patches or subcutaneous infusions can be used as an alternative. In most cases, a general practitioner should not require specialist advice at this stage of pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old man presents to the clinic for follow-up. He has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to the clinic for follow-up. He has been experiencing increasing difficulty with swallowing and feels like food is getting stuck shortly after he swallows. He has resorted to blending most of his meals and has lost 4 kg in weight over the past two months. He has also developed a hoarse voice recently.
      The patient has a history of knee osteoarthritis and regularly takes ibuprofen. He has a BMI of 21 kg/m2 and no cervical lymphadenopathy is noted.
      Laboratory results show:
      - Hb 98 g/L (135-180)
      - WCC 7.4 ×109/L (4.5-10)
      - PLT 182 ×109/L (150-450)
      - Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
      - K 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
      - Cr 115 µmol/L (70-110)
      Based on these findings, you suspect an upper esophageal cancer.
      What is the most important next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Upper GI Endoscopy in Suspected Oesophageal Carcinoma

      This patient’s medical history is indicative of an oesophageal carcinoma in the upper third, which is commonly associated with smoking and exposure to human papillomavirus. Although there are no signs of cervical lymphadenopathy, urgent referral to a gastroenterologist for upper GI endoscopy is necessary to rule out any underlying cancer.

      Barium swallow is not recommended as upper GI endoscopy is a more effective option that allows for early tissue diagnosis. Helicobacter pylori testing is only useful in cases of potential duodenal ulcer disease, which is not the case here.

      Stopping ibuprofen and trying omeprazole are not appropriate options as they may delay the diagnosis of any underlying oesophageal lesion. Therefore, urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy is the best course of action in suspected cases of oesophageal carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old man has a red lesion that has grown rapidly on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man has a red lesion that has grown rapidly on the pulp of the left first finger and bleeds easily. There was a history of trauma to that digit 2 weeks previously. Examination showed a pedunculated vascular lesion measuring 10 mm in diameter.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Rapidly Growing Tumor Following Trauma: Pyogenic Granuloma

      A rapidly growing tumor following trauma is most likely a pyogenic granuloma. While amelanotic melanoma can occur on the digits, the rate of growth would not be as rapid. The other lesions in the options are not vascular in appearance. Treatment for pyogenic granuloma would be a shave biopsy and cautery to the base, as excision biopsy may be difficult. A specimen can be sent for histology to ensure it is not an amelanotic melanoma. Recurrence is common and lesions will eventually atrophy, but only a minority will spontaneously involute within six months. A GP minor surgeon can deal with pyogenic granuloma.

      Another condition that may occur at the base of the nail is a myxoid cyst. This small cyst contains a gelatinous clear material that may be extruded from time to time. Pressure on the growing nail plate may produce nail deformity. These cysts may communicate with an osteoarthritic distal interphalangeal joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP for a check-up. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP for a check-up. She has a history of hypothyroidism and is currently taking levothyroxine 100 mcg. She reports feeling well and has no significant symptoms. Her TFTs were last checked 6 months ago and were normal.

      Free T4 18.5 pmol/l
      TSH 0.1 mu/l

      What should be the next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease dose to levothyroxine 75mcg od

      Explanation:

      The latest TFTs reveal that the patient is experiencing over replacement, as evidenced by a suppressed TSH. Despite being asymptomatic, it is advisable to decrease the dosage to minimize the risk of osteoporosis and atrial fibrillation. According to the BNF, a 25mcg dose adjustment is recommended for individuals in this age bracket.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute mountain sickness (AMS) during his upcoming Andes expedition. He specifically asks for advice other than gradual ascent. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetazolamide (Diamox)

      Explanation:

      There is evidence to suggest that Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can be effective in preventing AMS. It is worth noting that there seems to be a link between physical fitness and the likelihood of developing AMS.

      Altitude-related disorders are caused by chronic hypobaric hypoxia at high altitudes and can be classified into three types: acute mountain sickness (AMS), high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE), and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE). AMS is a self-limiting condition that typically occurs above 2,500-3,000m and presents with symptoms such as headache, nausea, and fatigue. Physical fitness may increase the risk of AMS, and gaining altitude at a rate of no more than 500m per day is recommended. Acetazolamide is a commonly used medication to prevent AMS, and descent is the recommended treatment.

      HAPE and HACE are potentially fatal conditions that affect a minority of people above 4,000m. HAPE presents with pulmonary edema symptoms, while HACE presents with headache, ataxia, and papilloedema. The management of both conditions involves descent and the use of medications such as dexamethasone and nifedipine for HAPE, and dexamethasone for HACE. Oxygen may also be used if available. The effectiveness of different treatments for these conditions has only been studied in small trials, but they all seem to work by reducing systolic pulmonary artery pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
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  • Question 18 - You see a 30-year-old gentleman who is being investigated for subfertility. His semen...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 30-year-old gentleman who is being investigated for subfertility. His semen analysis result shows a mild oligozoospermia.

      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat test in 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Repeat Confirmatory Semen Analysis and Other Fertility Advice

      According to NICE, it is recommended to repeat confirmatory semen analysis after 3 months (12 weeks) from the initial test. This is to allow the cycle of spermatozoa to be completed. However, if there is a significant deficiency in spermatozoa, a repeat test should be taken as early as possible.

      While it is known that elevated scrotal temperatures can reduce semen quality, it is uncertain whether wearing loose-fitting underwear can improve fertility. Nevertheless, it is still advisable to wear looser underwear while trying to conceive.

      Screening for antisperm antibodies is not recommended as there is no effective treatment to improve fertility. The significance of these antibodies is still unclear.

      Overall, these recommendations can help couples who are trying to conceive to take practical steps towards improving their fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
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  • Question 19 - A 40-year-old male presents to the GP with a 7-day history of fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presents to the GP with a 7-day history of fever, sore throat and muscle aches. On examination, he is visibly jaundiced, his blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 80/min, respiratory rate 13/min, HS I + II + 0, breath sounds are vesicular and abdomen is soft but tender in the right upper quadrant with hepatomegaly. The GP orders blood tests which show:

      Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 220 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 11.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 6.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 100 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 50 mg/L (< 5)
      Bilirubin 80 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 100 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 500 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 150 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 45 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by the patient suggest acute hepatitis, with fever and jaundice being prominent. Autoimmune hepatitis is typically observed in young females, making it less likely in this male patient. Hence, hepatitis A is a more probable diagnosis, given his presentation of myalgia, sore throat, fever, and jaundice.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of progressive tiredness. She has been working alternative night and day shifts for many months. In the last two months she has experienced intermittent constipation. She reports that her diet is not great because of these awkward shift patterns but that she doesn't restrict it. She thinks she may have lost a small amount of weight over this period. Her legs ache after a long shift and that the tan she obtained in the summer seems to have lingered.
      She has no significant previous illness and doesn't take any regular medications.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 222 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 128 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 4.8 mmol/l 2.5–7.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 56 µmol/l 45–84 µmol/l
      Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/l 9–24 pmol/l
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.2 mU/l 0.4–4.0 mU/l
      Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) 39 mmol/mol < 41 mmol/mol
      Ferritin 50 ng/ml 10–300 ng/ml
      Glucose 5.2 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addison's disease

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with fatigue, weight loss, and electrolyte abnormalities

      Addison’s disease: The most likely diagnosis for this patient is Addison’s disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the adrenal glands and leads to a deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. The gradual onset of symptoms, including fatigue, weight loss, muscle aches, constipation, and hyperpigmentation, along with mild hyponatremia and hyperkalemia, are consistent with this diagnosis.

      Subclinical hypothyroidism: Although the patient has some symptoms that could be attributed to low thyroid hormone levels, her thyroid function tests are normal, making this diagnosis less likely.

      Dietary related hyponatremia: Mild hyponatremia in a young person is unlikely to be caused by dietary differences or deficiency, suggesting a pathological process.

      Renal disease: While electrolyte abnormalities could be a sign of renal insufficiency, the patient’s normal urea and creatinine levels make this diagnosis less likely.

      Cushing’s disease: Although some symptoms, such as fatigue and muscle weakness, could be attributed to excess cortisol, other expected symptoms, such as weight gain and high blood sugar, are not present in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a concern about excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a concern about excessive hair growth on her arms. She has a slim build and olive skin with dark brown hair. The patient shaves the hair to remove it. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 33 days, and she reports no heavy bleeding or pain. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genetic phenotype

      Explanation:

      Excessive hair growth on the arms may be noticeable in this woman due to her genetic makeup, as she has olive skin and dark hair. However, hirsutism, which is characterized by excessive hair growth on the face and body, is often associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome. Although her menstrual cycle is regular at 33 days, it is important to note that a normal cycle can range from 24 to 35 days. A cycle variation of 8 days or more is considered moderately irregular, while a variation of 21 days or more is considered very irregular. Additionally, this patient has light periods and a slim physique.

      Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis

      Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.

      Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - A 7-year-old boy, the son of farmers, is brought to the clinic appearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy, the son of farmers, is brought to the clinic appearing quite ill. He has been experiencing fever, vomiting, diarrhea, leg pain, and headache overnight. He appears pale, has cold extremities, neck stiffness, and a few spots that blanch on pressure.
      What is the most crucial management option to consider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular penicillin and admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Early Treatment for Suspected Meningococcal Meningitis

      Suspected meningococcal meningitis should be treated as an emergency, even in the absence of a non-blanching rash. The rash may be nonspecific or absent early on in the disease. Any patient with suspected bacterial meningitis or suspected meningococcal septicaemia should be admitted to the hospital immediately. In cases where there may be a delay in admission, Benzylpenicillin should be given. The recommended dose of benzylpenicillin is 1200 mg for adults, 600 mg for those aged 1-9 years, and 300 mg for those aged < 1 year. Cefotaxime may be used as an alternative in cases of penicillin allergy. Antibiotics should be injected intravenously or intramuscularly (IM) in adults and IM in children, with the recommended site of IM injection being the quadriceps muscle. GPs should carry these drugs (up-to-date) in their bags.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 23 - You plan to study whether a simple intervention sheet for elderly patients telling...

    Incorrect

    • You plan to study whether a simple intervention sheet for elderly patients telling them why they are not receiving antibiotics for throat infections impacts on returns to the surgery and burden of illness with respect to complications.

      Which of the following statements is correct concerning this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Approval for the study must be obtained from the local ethics committee

      Explanation:

      Ethical Considerations for a Retrospective Research Study

      This is not an audit, but rather a retrospective research study aimed at examining the impact of an intervention on both the burden of illness and local resource use. As such, it is necessary to obtain approval from the local ethical committee before proceeding with the study. While the study appears reasonable, it is important to note that the outcomes may differ from those of other studies, even if published elsewhere. Therefore, it may be beneficial to include a few more surgeries to increase the sample size.

      It is justifiable to use the same methods as another study to validate the original publication. However, it is not necessary to obtain consent from the original authors if a similar study has already been published. Overall, it is important to consider the ethical implications of conducting a retrospective research study and to ensure that all necessary approvals are obtained before proceeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 24 - What is an accurate statement about Pertussis Infection in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an accurate statement about Pertussis Infection in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is infectious for at least 2 months after the termination of the coughing

      Explanation:

      Pertussis: Diagnosis and Symptoms

      Pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough, is most contagious during the first 7-14 days of the illness, which is called the catarrhal phase. During this phase, there is an increase in lymphocytes in the blood. Diagnosis of pertussis can be made by taking blood for pertussis serology or by isolating the organism from nasal secretions. It is important to note that an inspiratory whoop may not always be present, but complete apnoeic episodes can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 25 - A study found that of 100 people over the age of 60 treated...

    Incorrect

    • A study found that of 100 people over the age of 60 treated with a certain medication, 80 had improvement in their symptoms, whereas of 100 people over the age of 60 not treated, only 50 had improvement. What is the number needed to treat (NNT)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      Calculating the Number Needed to Treat (NNT) for Vertigo Treatment

      To determine the effectiveness of a vertigo treatment, we can calculate the Number Needed to Treat (NNT). This is done by first calculating the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR), which is the difference between the Control Event Rate (CER) and the Experimental Event Rate (EER). For example, if 55 out of 100 control patients failed to have a resolution of vertigo, and 30 out of 100 treatment patients failed to improve, the ARR would be 0.55 – 0.30 = 0.25. To find the NNT, we simply take the reciprocal of the ARR, which in this case would be 1/0.25 = 4. This means that for every 4 patients treated with the vertigo treatment, one patient will have a resolution of their vertigo.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 26 - A 56-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of frequent urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of frequent urine leakage. What is the initial method to evaluate urinary incontinence or overactive bladder in women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of therapy

      Explanation:

      Importance of a Bladder Diary in Assessing Urinary Incontinence

      A bladder diary is a crucial tool in the initial assessment of urinary incontinence or overactive bladder syndrome in women. It helps to identify patterns and triggers of urinary symptoms, which can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of the condition. Women should be encouraged to complete a minimum of three days of the diary to cover variations of their usual activities, including work and leisure time.

      By keeping track of their urinary habits, women can provide their healthcare provider with valuable information about their symptoms, such as frequency, urgency, and leakage. This information can help the provider to determine the type and severity of the condition and develop an appropriate treatment plan. Therefore, it is essential for women to use a bladder diary when experiencing urinary incontinence or overactive bladder syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports a four week history of reduced stool frequency with firmer stool consistency. She currently has a bowel movement every other day, whereas prior to the last four weeks she had a bowel movement once a day. She denies any rectal bleeding or diarrhea and has no anal symptoms or incontinence. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without masses. Rectal examination is also normal. She has been taking codeine phosphate 30 mg qds for her arthritic knee, which was prescribed by a colleague one month ago. Recent blood tests show normal full blood count, ESR, thyroid function, and calcium. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Provide advice regarding the constipation and reassure

      Explanation:

      Managing Constipation in a Patient on Analgesia

      The patient’s constipation is not a mystery as it coincides with the prescription of codeine phosphate, which slows down bowel transit. There are no other concerning symptoms in the patient’s history or examination that would warrant an urgent referral to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for suspected cancer.

      To manage the patient’s constipation, the healthcare provider should provide advice on diet and lifestyle, review the patient’s medication to identify any contributing factors, and counsel the patient on red flags. The patient has already undergone blood tests to investigate secondary causes of constipation, such as hypothyroidism or hypercalcaemia. The healthcare provider can also discuss the use of laxatives with the patient.

      Overall, managing constipation in a patient on analgesia involves identifying contributing factors, providing lifestyle advice, and discussing treatment options with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - You receive a 'friend request' on Facebook from a patient of a similar...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a 'friend request' on Facebook from a patient of a similar age to yourself who you had a consult with earlier that day. What would be the most appropriate course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decline friendship request and write a polite letter to the patient explaining it would be inappropriate

      Explanation:

      The General Medical Council has issued specific guidelines regarding the use of social media by doctors. According to these guidelines, if a patient contacts a doctor through their private profile regarding their care or other professional matters, the doctor should make it clear that they cannot mix social and professional relationships. The text implies that there is a risk of blurring boundaries if a doctor finds a patient attractive and receives a friend request from them. Therefore, it would be appropriate to decline the request. However, this doesn’t warrant removing the patient from the practice list. As long as professional boundaries are maintained, the patient can continue to receive care from the doctor.

      Duties of a Doctor According to the General Medical Council

      The General Medical Council has outlined the duties of a doctor in providing care to patients. The first and foremost duty is to prioritize the care of the patient. This includes protecting and promoting the health of patients and the public, providing a good standard of practice and care, and keeping professional knowledge and skills up to date. Doctors must also recognize and work within the limits of their competence and work with colleagues in the best interest of patients.

      In addition to providing medical care, doctors must treat patients with respect and dignity. This includes treating patients politely and considerately and respecting their right to confidentiality. Doctors must also work in partnership with patients, listening to their concerns and preferences, providing information in a way they can understand, and respecting their right to make decisions about their treatment and care.

      Finally, doctors must act with honesty, integrity, and without discrimination. They must act without delay if they believe that they or a colleague may be putting patients at risk and never abuse the trust of patients or the public’s trust in the profession.

      Overall, the duties of a doctor are to provide the best possible care to patients while respecting their rights and acting with honesty and integrity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old man presents with elbow pain.
    Which physical examination finding would be most...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with elbow pain.
      Which physical examination finding would be most indicative of a diagnosis of tennis elbow? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pain on resisted wrist extension

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tennis Elbow: Symptoms and Causes

      Tennis elbow, also known as lateral epicondylitis, is a common condition that causes pain and tenderness in the lateral elbow and upper forearm. It is caused by repetitive stress on the extensor forearm muscle, specifically at the muscle-tendon junction at the lateral epicondyle. This article will discuss the symptoms and causes of tennis elbow.

      Symptoms of Tennis Elbow:
      – Lateral elbow and upper forearm pain and tenderness
      – Pain exacerbated by active and resisted movements of the extensor muscles of the forearm
      – Pain on resisted extension of the wrist or middle finger

      Causes of Tennis Elbow:
      – Repetitive stress on the extensor forearm muscle
      – Overuse of the forearm muscles during activities such as tennis, painting, or typing
      – Poor technique or equipment during physical activities
      – Age-related degeneration of the tendons

      It is important to note that decreased sensation in the 4th and 5th fingers is not a symptom of tennis elbow, but rather a feature of ulnar neuropathy that may be associated with medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s elbow). Severe restriction of passive movement and swelling of the elbow joint are also not typical symptoms of tennis elbow. Tenderness over the medial epicondyle of the humerus is a symptom of Golfer’s elbow, which is inflammation of the tendon at the origin of the flexor forearm muscles causing medial elbow pain.

      If you are experiencing symptoms of tennis elbow, it is important to seek medical attention and rest the affected arm to prevent further injury. Treatment options may include physical therapy, pain management, and in severe cases, surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old cleaner is brought in to see you by her mother and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old cleaner is brought in to see you by her mother and husband because they are worried that she may commit suicide.

      In recent months, the couple have lost their home due to debt and are living back home with her parents and her two young sons (aged 4 and 2). She has never attempted suicide before but has expressed fleeting suicidal thoughts, having been depressed for weeks about their current circumstances.

      Which one of the following features from this history is a risk factor for suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Suicide Risk Factors in Depressed Patients

      When managing depressed patients, clinicians should always ask about suicidal intent. It is important to have knowledge of risk factors for suicide during the assessment process. Protective factors include good family support and responsibility for children. However, there are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. These include being male, under 30 years old or advancing in age, single, living alone, having a history of substance abuse, and experiencing feelings of hopelessness. By understanding these risk factors, clinicians can better assess and manage the care of depressed patients who may be at risk for suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/3) 0%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Leadership And Management (1/1) 100%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
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