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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man with cystic fibrosis (CF) has been experiencing a significant increase...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with cystic fibrosis (CF) has been experiencing a significant increase in productive cough with large amounts of sputum, occasional haemoptysis and difficulty breathing for the past few months.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Identifying Bronchiectasis in a Patient with Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that can lead to the development of bronchiectasis. Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by dilated, thick-walled bronchi, which can result from continual or recurrent infection and inflammation caused by thick, difficult to expectorate mucus in patients with CF. In contrast, bronchiolitis is an acute lower respiratory infection that occurs in children aged <2 years, while asthma typically presents with variable wheeze, cough, breathlessness, and chest tightness. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) typically develops in smokers aged >40, and interstitial lung disease generally affects patients aged >45 and is associated with persistent breathlessness on exertion and cough. Therefore, in a patient with CF presenting with symptoms such as cough, breathlessness, and chest infections, bronchiectasis should be considered as a possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      22
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following is not a known side effect of the combined...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a known side effect of the combined oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      While the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of breast and cervical cancer, it has been found to provide protection against ovarian and endometrial cancer. In fact, studies have shown that the pill can actually decrease the risk of ovarian cancer.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than 1 per 100 woman years. It does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to the combined oral contraceptive pill. One of the main issues is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side-effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      It is important to weigh the pros and cons of the combined oral contraceptive pill before deciding if it is the right method of birth control for you. While some users report weight gain while taking the pill, a Cochrane review did not support a causal relationship. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be an effective and convenient method of birth control, but it is important to discuss any concerns or potential risks with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 3 - A 10-year-old girl has been treated in the hospital for her first acute...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl has been treated in the hospital for her first acute asthma exacerbation. She was previously only taking salbutamol as needed. After 24 hours, she is stable on inhaled salbutamol six puffs four times a day via a spacer and twice-daily steroid inhaler.
      What is the most suitable next step in managing this acute asthma exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Course of oral steroids

      Explanation:

      Correct and Incorrect Treatment Approaches for Acute Asthma Exacerbation in Children

      Acute asthma exacerbation in children requires prompt and appropriate treatment to prevent complications. Here are some correct and incorrect treatment approaches for this condition:

      Course of oral steroids: Giving oral steroids early in the treatment of acute asthma attacks in children is advisable. The initial course length should be tailored to response.

      Wean down salbutamol to 2 puffs twice a day before hospital discharge: Weaning down salbutamol to two puffs twice a day before hospital discharge is incorrect. Children may be discharged from hospital once stable on 3- to 4-hourly bronchodilators which can be continued at home.

      Addition of salmeterol inhaler: Adding a salmeterol inhaler is incorrect. The initial next step of treatment should be inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) for patients who have had an asthma attack in the last two years.

      Continue monitoring in hospital until salbutamol is no longer required: Continuing monitoring in hospital until salbutamol is no longer required is incorrect. Children may be discharged from hospital once stable on 3- to 4-hourly bronchodilators which can be continued at home.

      IV hydrocortisone: Administering IV hydrocortisone is incorrect. It is reserved for the treatment of acute life-threatening asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      38.5
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of diplopia that...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of diplopia that has been ongoing for 2 months. She reports feeling more fatigued and weak towards the end of the day. Upon examination, anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies are detected in her blood. A CT scan of her chest is ordered and reveals the presence of an anterior mediastinal mass. What is the most probable diagnosis for this mass?

      Your Answer: Lung tumour

      Correct Answer: Thymoma

      Explanation:

      The most common causes of a mass in the anterior mediastinum are referred to as the 4 T’s: teratoma, terrible lymphadenopathy, thymic mass, and thyroid mass. The woman’s symptoms and positive anti-AChR suggest that she may have myasthenia gravis, which requires a CT chest to check for a thymoma. Other conditions that may show up on a CT chest, such as benign lung nodules, lung tumors, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis, are unlikely given her presentation. It is important to note that the mediastinum is not the same as the lungs, and therefore, all other answer options are incorrect as the question specifically asks for an anterior mediastinal mass.

      The Mediastinum and its Regions

      The mediastinum is the area located between the two pulmonary cavities and is covered by the mediastinal pleura. It extends from the thoracic inlet at the top to the diaphragm at the bottom. The mediastinum is divided into four regions: the superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, and anterior mediastinum.

      The superior mediastinum is located between the manubriosternal angle and T4/5 and contains important structures such as the superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, thoracic duct, trachea, oesophagus, thymus, vagus nerve, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and phrenic nerve.

      The anterior mediastinum contains thymic remnants, lymph nodes, and fat. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardium, heart, aortic root, arch of azygos vein, and main bronchi. The posterior mediastinum contains the oesophagus, thoracic aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, sympathetic nerve trunks, and splanchnic nerves.

      In summary, the mediastinum is a crucial area of the chest that contains many important structures and is divided into four distinct regions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      64.6
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  • Question 5 - A 57-year-old man presents with a 4 weeks-history of productive cough, dyspnoea, and...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man presents with a 4 weeks-history of productive cough, dyspnoea, and pleuritic chest pain. He has had associated lethargy, weight loss, a swinging fever and night sweats. He had a stroke two years ago.

      Sputum and blood cultures are collected. After a chest x-ray revealed a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation in his left lung, he was given IV antibiotics.

      However, the patient's condition has not improved and instead appears to be worsening. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer: Arrange CT-guided percutaneous drainage

      Explanation:

      If a lung abscess is not responding to intravenous antibiotics, percutaneous drainage should be considered as an option.

      Correct: Arrange CT-guided percutaneous drainage. This is because the patient’s symptoms, such as swinging fevers, night sweats, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea, and cough, are consistent with a lung abscess. The chest x-ray also supports this diagnosis by showing a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. If IV antibiotics are not effective, percutaneous drainage can be guided by a CT scan or ultrasound. IV antibiotics may not be able to penetrate the abscess wall, which is why some patients do not respond to this treatment.

      Incorrect: Arrange bronchoscopy. This is not commonly used for lung abscesses and is only indicated if an underlying tumour or foreign body is suspected. It is performed for diagnosis only, not drainage.

      Incorrect: Arrange sputum cytology. Sputum cultures have already been collected, and a diagnosis of lung abscess has been established. This option could be considered later if the patient still does not respond to treatment to rule out an underlying malignancy.

      Incorrect: Prescribe broad-spectrum IV antibiotics. This option is unlikely to be effective since the patient has already received IV antibiotics without success. The next step would be to manually drain the abscess.

      Understanding Lung Abscess

      A lung abscess is a localized infection that occurs within the lung tissue. It is commonly caused by aspiration pneumonia, which can be triggered by poor dental hygiene, reduced consciousness, or previous stroke. Other potential causes include haematogenous spread, direct extension, and bronchial obstruction. The infection is typically polymicrobial, with Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumonia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common monomicrobial causes.

      The symptoms of lung abscess are similar to pneumonia, but they tend to develop more slowly over several weeks. Patients may experience fever, productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, chest pain, and dyspnea. Some may also have systemic features such as night sweats and weight loss, while a minority may experience haemoptysis. Physical examination may reveal dull percussion and bronchial breathing, as well as clubbing in some cases.

      To diagnose lung abscess, a chest x-ray is usually performed, which shows a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. Sputum and blood cultures should also be obtained to identify the causative organism. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics, but if the infection does not resolve, percutaneous drainage or surgical resection may be required in rare cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      112.8
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  • Question 6 - An anxious, 30-year-old saleswoman presents with mild shortness of breath on exertion, which...

    Incorrect

    • An anxious, 30-year-old saleswoman presents with mild shortness of breath on exertion, which had come on gradually over several months. The symptom was intermittent and seemed to get worse in the evening. She has also been on treatment for depression over the last two months. On examination, she has minimal weakness of shoulder abductors and slight weakness of eye closure bilaterally. Deep tendon reflexes are present and symmetrical throughout and plantar responses are flexor. You now have the results of the investigations: FBC, U&E, LFT, TFT - normal; chest radiograph and lung function tests - normal; ECG - normal.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Myasthenia Gravis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a neuromuscular disorder that occurs when the body produces autoantibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction. This results in muscular weakness that is characterized by fatigability, meaning that the muscles become increasingly weaker during their use. MG primarily affects the muscles of the face, the extrinsic ocular muscles (causing diplopia), and the muscles involved in deglutition. Respiratory and proximal lower limb muscles may also be involved early in the disease, which can cause breathlessness and even sudden death.

      Diagnosing MG can be challenging, as weakness may not be apparent on a single examination. However, electrodiagnostic tests and detecting the autoantibodies can confirm the diagnosis. The Tensilon test, which involves injecting edrophonium chloride to reverse the symptoms of MG, is now used only when other tests are negative and clinical suspicion of MG is still high.

      Treatment of MG involves anticholinesterase medications, but many patients also benefit from thymectomy. It is important to note that a thymoma may be present in up to 15% of patients with MG.

      Other conditions, such as transient ischaemic attacks, angina, multiple sclerosis, and somatisation disorder, may cause weakness, but they do not typically present with the same symptoms as MG. Therefore, it is crucial to consider MG as a potential diagnosis when a patient presents with fatigable muscular weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      134.7
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  • Question 7 - A 47-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of shortness of breath and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of shortness of breath and a non-productive cough. During the examination, the doctor notes dullness to percussion on the right upper lobe. The patient has a history of tuberculosis, which was treated previously, and also has Crohn's disease for which she takes regular prednisolone. An X-ray reveals a target-shaped lesion in the right upper lobe with air crescent sign present. There is no significant family history. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Histiocytosis

      Correct Answer: Aspergilloma

      Explanation:

      An aspergilloma is a fungal mass that can develop in pre-formed body cavities, often as a result of previous tuberculosis. Other conditions that can lead to aspergilloma include sarcoidosis, bronchiectasis, and ankylosing spondylitis. In this case, the patient’s history of tuberculosis and use of immunosuppressive medications like corticosteroids increase their risk for developing aspergilloma. Mild haemoptysis may occur, indicating that the mass has eroded into a nearby blood vessel. The air crescent sign on chest x-ray is a characteristic finding of aspergilloma, where a crescent of air surrounds a radiopaque mass in a lung cavity.

      Bronchiectasis is not the correct answer, as it would present with additional symptoms such as a chronic cough with productive sputum and widespread crackles on examination. It also would not explain the x-ray findings.

      Histiocytosis is also incorrect, as it is a rare condition that primarily affects children and causes systemic symptoms such as bone pain, skin rash, and polyuria.

      Reactivation of tuberculosis is not the correct option, as it would present with systemic symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, or night sweats, and would not explain the x-ray findings. We would expect to see fibro-nodular opacities in the upper lobes in TB.

      An aspergilloma is a fungal ball that forms in an existing lung cavity, often caused by conditions such as tuberculosis, lung cancer, or cystic fibrosis. While it may not cause any symptoms, it can lead to coughing and severe haemoptysis (coughing up blood). Diagnosis can be made through a chest x-ray, which will show a rounded opacity with a possible crescent sign, as well as high levels of Aspergillus precipitins. In some cases, a CT scan may also be necessary to confirm the presence of the aspergilloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old teacher is referred to the Respiratory Clinic with a 6-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old teacher is referred to the Respiratory Clinic with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath and dry cough. She denies fever or weight loss and there is no past medical history of note. She reports smoking 5 cigarettes a day for 3 years whilst at college but has since stopped. There are no known allergies.
      On examination, her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute with an oxygen saturation of 94% on air. There are audible crackles at the lung bases with expiratory wheeze.
      She is referred for spirometry testing:
      Forced expiratory volume (FEV1): 60% predicted
      Forced vital capacity (FVC): 80% predicted
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Obstructive Lung Disease: Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is a genetic disorder that causes emphysematous changes in the lungs due to the loss of elasticity. This disease presents similarly to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with symptoms such as shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze. However, AAT deficiency typically affects young men between 30-40 years old and is exacerbated by smoking. Spirometry testing reveals an obstructive pattern of disease (FEV1/FVC < 0.7). Other potential diagnoses for obstructive lung disease include hypersensitivity pneumonitis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. However, these are less likely in this patient’s case. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is caused by allergen exposure and presents with acute symptoms such as fever and weight loss. Kartagener’s syndrome is a genetic disease that leads to recurrent respiratory infections and bronchiectasis. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is characterized by progressive fibrosis of the lung parenchyma and typically affects individuals between 50-70 years old. In contrast to AAT deficiency, spirometry testing in fibrotic disease would show a result greater than 0.7 (FEV1/FVC > 0.7).

      In conclusion, AAT deficiency should be considered in the differential diagnosis for a patient presenting with obstructive lung disease, particularly in young men with a smoking history. Spirometry testing can help confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      68.5
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  • Question 9 - A feature of a severe acute asthma exacerbation in an adult is: ...

    Correct

    • A feature of a severe acute asthma exacerbation in an adult is:

      Your Answer: Cannot complete full sentences

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Indicators of Acute Asthma Exacerbations

      Acute asthma exacerbations can range from mild to life-threatening, and it is important to recognize the indicators of each level of severity. In a severe exacerbation, the individual may not be able to complete full sentences, have a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% best or predicted, a respiratory rate of ≥25 breaths/min, a heart rate of ≥110 beats/min, use of accessory muscles, and oxygen saturation of ≥92%. A life-threatening exacerbation is characterized by a peak expiratory flow rate of <33% best or predicted, oxygen saturation of <92%, silent chest, cyanosis, cardiac arrhythmia or hypotension, confusion, coma, or altered consciousness. A moderate exacerbation may include talking in full sentences, a peak expiratory flow rate of >50-75% best or predicted, a respiratory rate of <25 breaths per minute, and a heart rate of <110 beats/min. Finally, a life-threatening exacerbation may also include a peak expiratory flow rate of <33% best or predicted, oxygen saturation of <92%, silent chest, cyanosis, cardiac arrhythmia or hypotension, confusion, coma, or altered consciousness, as well as exhaustion and poor respiratory effort. It is important to understand these indicators in order to properly assess and treat acute asthma exacerbations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      18.3
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old female comes to an after-hours general practitioner complaining of worsening fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female comes to an after-hours general practitioner complaining of worsening fever, chest pain that worsens when inhaling, and a productive cough with blood-streaked sputum. She reports that she had symptoms of a dry cough, myalgia, and lethargy a week ago, but this week her symptoms have changed to those she is presenting with today. Her chest x-ray shows a cavitating lesion with a thin wall on the right side and an associated pleural effusion. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pneumonia

      Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).

      In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      50.7
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Medicine (4/10) 40%
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