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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy attends his General Practice Surgery for his annual learning disability health check with his father. He reports feeling low in mood for several weeks, along with a poor appetite and sleep. He admits to occasionally self-harming but currently denies any suicidal thoughts, plans or intent.
Which of the following management steps would be most appropriate in primary care?Your Answer: Refer for counselling
Correct Answer: Refer to local learning disability team
Explanation:Appropriate Management of Depression in People with Learning Disabilities
When a person with a learning disability is suspected of having a mental health condition, it is recommended that they are assessed by a Mental Health Practitioner (MHP) with expertise in learning disability. This assessment can be arranged through the local learning disability team or, in some cases, the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service.
If a person with a learning disability is displaying signs of depression, it is important to arrange follow-up in primary care and refer them to an MHP with expertise in managing learning disability. While counselling is not recommended for the treatment of mental health conditions in people with a learning disability, adapted cognitive behavioural therapy, relaxation therapy, graded exposure therapy, or parent training may be effective treatments.
It is not appropriate for GPs to prescribe psychotropic medication for patients with a learning disability, and prescribing such drugs in children is discouraged in primary care. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as imipramine, are not commonly used as first-line treatment for depression, especially in children, due to the potential for a fatal overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits her GP and asks for a blood test to confirm menopause. She reports experiencing tolerable vaginal dryness and her last menstrual period was 10 months ago. However, she has had intermittent vaginal bleeding in the past week, which has left her confused. Upon clinical examination, including a speculum examination, no abnormalities are found. What is the recommended course of action?
Your Answer: Routine referral
Correct Answer: Refer for urgent hospital assessment
Explanation:If a woman is 55 years or older and experiences postmenopausal bleeding (i.e. bleeding occurring more than 12 months after her last menstrual cycle), she should be referred through the suspected cancer pathway within 2 weeks to rule out endometrial cancer. As this woman is over 50 years old and has not had a menstrual cycle for over a year, she has reached menopause and doesn’t require blood tests to confirm it. The recent vaginal bleeding she has experienced is considered postmenopausal bleeding and requires further investigation to eliminate the possibility of endometrial cancer.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Symptoms of endometrial cancer include postmenopausal bleeding, which is usually slight and intermittent at first before becoming heavier, and changes in intermenstrual bleeding for premenopausal women. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness of less than 4 mm. Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for diagnosis. Treatment for localized disease typically involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may require postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy may be used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 3
Correct
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What could be the cause of stridor in a 6-month-old infant?
Your Answer: Laryngomalacia
Explanation:Causes of Stridor: An Overview
Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is often a sign of an underlying respiratory problem. One common cause of stridor is laryngomalacia, a congenital condition that results in flaccidity of supraglottic structures. This condition may not present until the child is a few months old.
It is important to note that stridor doesn’t occur in bronchiolitis, asthma, or reflux. In the UK, viral croup is the most common cause of stridor in general practice, while epiglottitis is a much rarer cause that can produce severe stridor with distress and cyanosis very quickly. Structural abnormalities such as micrognathia and trachea-oesophageal fistula can also cause stridor.
It is worth noting that stridor doesn’t occur with pertussis but used to be seen with diphtheria. Other causes of stridor include smoke inhalation, angio-oedema, and foreign body. Understanding the various causes of stridor is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A couple visit their general practitioner regarding their 38-year-old daughter who has Down's Syndrome. They are concerned that over the past year, their daughter’s social skills have diminished and she has become irritable and un-co-operative. They are especially worried that there may be an underlying medical condition causing these changes.
Which of the following conditions occurs most commonly in adult patients with Down's syndrome?Your Answer: Coeliac disease
Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s dementia
Explanation:Health Conditions Associated with Down Syndrome
Down Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 700 births. Individuals with Down Syndrome are at an increased risk of developing certain health conditions. Here are some of the most common health conditions associated with Down Syndrome:
Alzheimer’s Dementia: Individuals with Down Syndrome have a significantly higher risk of developing Alzheimer’s Dementia. The onset of clinical features is typically around the age of 55, and dementia is thought to contribute to death in around a third of patients.
Ischaemic Heart Disease: The prevalence of Ischaemic Heart Disease is not increased in individuals with Down Syndrome, and for men, it has been reported to be lower than the general population.
Addison’s Disease: While relatively rare in comparison to Alzheimer’s Dementia, Addison’s Disease is still more prevalent in individuals with Down Syndrome than in the general population.
Carcinoma of the Thyroid: While fewer solid and other haematological malignancies are seen in individuals with Down Syndrome compared to the general population, the incidence of childhood leukaemia is increased.
Coeliac Disease: Coeliac Disease is another autoimmune disease that occurs more commonly in people with Down Syndrome, with a prevalence of around 5%. Some recommend screening for this condition.
In conclusion, individuals with Down Syndrome are at an increased risk of developing certain health conditions, and it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risks and provide appropriate screening and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a known cause of acute pancreatitis in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Mumps
Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis can be caused by hypercalcaemia, rather than hypocalcaemia.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old sales representative comes in for a routine check-up and reports a 2-week history of a droopy left eyelid with forehead weakness. Upon examination, the symptoms are confirmed and there are no abnormalities found in the eyes or ears.
What is a crucial aspect of the treatment plan?Your Answer: antiviral treatment alone
Correct Answer: Night-time eyelid coverings
Explanation:Proper eye care is crucial in Bell’s palsy, and measures such as using drops, lubricants, and night-time taping should be considered. However, the most important step is to cover the eyelids during the night to prevent dryness and potential corneal damage or infection. antiviral treatment alone is not a recommended treatment for Bell’s palsy, and antibiotics are unnecessary as the condition is caused by a virus, not bacteria. Immediate referral to an ENT specialist is not necessary for a simple case of Bell’s palsy, but may be warranted if symptoms persist beyond 2-3 months.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-year history of increasing dyspnoea with strenuous exercise. She has also had occasional chest pain on exertion.
On examination, she has an ejection systolic murmur. Following an examination and electrocardiogram (ECG) in primary care, she is referred for a cardiology review and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is diagnosed.
Which of the following is the most appropriate screening method for her sister?Your Answer: Echocardiography
Explanation:Diagnosing Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy: Methods and Limitations
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a genetic heart condition that can lead to sudden death, especially in young athletes. Diagnosis of HCM is based on the demonstration of unexplained myocardial hypertrophy, which can be detected using two-dimensional echocardiography. However, the criteria for diagnosis vary depending on the patient’s size and family history. Genetic screening is not always reliable, as mutations are only found in 60% of patients. An abnormal electrocardiogram (ECG) is common but nonspecific, while exercise testing and ventilation-perfusion scans have limited diagnostic value. It is important to consider the limitations of these methods when evaluating patients with suspected HCM.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant with her first baby comes to the clinic complaining of a headache. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities are found. Her blood pressure reads 152/93 mmHg. A urine dip test shows proteinuria but no signs of infection.
What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer immediately to hospital
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia is characterized by a new-onset blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or higher after 20 weeks of pregnancy, along with either proteinuria or organ dysfunction. In this case, the patient has both high blood pressure and proteinuria, indicating a need for immediate evaluation by the obstetric team in secondary care. Hospitalization and Antihypertensive treatment may be necessary, and delivery may need to be expedited to resolve the condition and prevent complications such as eclamptic fits, coagulation problems, and liver dysfunction.
Given the potential for rapid deterioration, it is not appropriate for the patient to wait for a routine review with her midwife. While labetalol is commonly used to control blood pressure in women with pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia, it should only be initiated and managed under the direction of a specialist. Bisoprolol is not typically used in the treatment of pre-eclampsia.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal bloating. She has been undergoing ovulation induction treatment. On ultrasound examination, ascites is observed. Her blood test results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 130 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
- Platelets: 300 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
- White blood cells (WBC): 10 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
- Sodium (Na+): 133 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145 mmol/L)
- Potassium (K+): 5.0 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/L)
- Urea: 10 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 mmol/L)
- Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120 µmol/L)
- C-reactive protein (CRP): 8 mg/L (normal range: <5 mg/L)
- Hematocrit: 0.5 (normal range for females: 0.36-0.48)
What is the medication that is most likely to have caused these side effects?Your Answer: Gonadotrophin therapy
Explanation:Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can occur as a result of ovulation induction, as seen in this case with symptoms such as ascites, vomiting, diarrhea, and high hematocrit. Different medications can be used for ovulation induction, with gonadotrophin therapy carrying a higher risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome compared to other options like clomiphene citrate, raloxifene, letrozole, or anastrozole. It is likely that the patient in question was given gonadotrophin therapy.
Understanding Ovulation Induction and Its Categories
Ovulation induction is a common treatment for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. The process of ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. Anovulation can occur due to alterations in this balance, which can be classified into three categories: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation, leading to a singleton pregnancy.
There are various forms of ovulation induction, starting with the least invasive and simplest management option first. Exercise and weight loss are typically the first-line treatment for patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome, as ovulation can spontaneously return with even a modest 5% weight loss. Letrozole is now considered the first-line medical therapy for patients with PCOS due to its reduced risk of adverse effects on endometrial and cervical mucous compared to clomiphene citrate. Clomiphene citrate is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that acts primarily at the hypothalamus, blocking the negative feedback effect of estrogens. Gonadotropin therapy tends to be the treatment used mostly for women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.
One potential side effect of ovulation induction is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), which can be life-threatening if not identified and managed promptly. OHSS occurs when ovarian enlargement with multiple cystic spaces form, and an increase in the permeability of capillaries leads to a fluid shift from the intravascular to the extra-vascular space. The severity of OHSS varies, with the risk of severe OHSS occurring in less than 1% of all women undergoing ovarian induction. Management includes fluid and electrolyte replacement, anticoagulation therapy, abdominal ascitic paracentesis, and pregnancy termination to prevent further hormonal imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding the management of thyrotoxicosis?
Your Answer: Most patients will become euthyroid on carbimazole and require no further treatment
Correct Answer: Surgical treatment should be considered for patients with large goitres
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyperthyroidism: Medications, Radio-Iodine, and Surgery
Hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone, leading to symptoms such as weight loss, tremors, and tachycardia. Carbimazole and propylthiouracil are medications used to treat hyperthyroidism, but they require monitoring and should be initiated under specialist advice. A β-blocker may also be used to relieve adrenergic symptoms. Treatment is typically on a titration-block or block-and-replace regime, with a remission rate of about 50% after 6-18 months of treatment.
Radio-iodine is another treatment option for hyperthyroidism, particularly for toxic nodular hyperthyroidism or when medical treatment is not effective. However, it is contraindicated in thyroid eye disease and pregnancy, and can lead to hypothyroidism in 80% of patients. There is no increased risk of cancer from radio-iodine treatment.
Surgical treatment by total or near-total thyroidectomy may be necessary for recurrent hyperthyroidism after drug treatment, compression symptoms from a large toxic multinodular goitre, potentially malignant thyroid nodules, or in certain cases of pregnancy or active eye disease.
Overall, treatment options for hyperthyroidism should be carefully considered and discussed with a specialist to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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