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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal bloating. She has been undergoing ovulation induction treatment. On ultrasound examination, ascites is observed. Her blood test results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 130 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - Platelets: 300 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 10 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
      - Sodium (Na+): 133 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145 mmol/L)
      - Potassium (K+): 5.0 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/L)
      - Urea: 10 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 mmol/L)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120 µmol/L)
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): 8 mg/L (normal range: <5 mg/L)
      - Hematocrit: 0.5 (normal range for females: 0.36-0.48)

      What is the medication that is most likely to have caused these side effects?

      Your Answer: Gonadotrophin therapy

      Explanation:

      Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can occur as a result of ovulation induction, as seen in this case with symptoms such as ascites, vomiting, diarrhea, and high hematocrit. Different medications can be used for ovulation induction, with gonadotrophin therapy carrying a higher risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome compared to other options like clomiphene citrate, raloxifene, letrozole, or anastrozole. It is likely that the patient in question was given gonadotrophin therapy.

      Understanding Ovulation Induction and Its Categories

      Ovulation induction is a common treatment for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. The process of ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. Anovulation can occur due to alterations in this balance, which can be classified into three categories: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation, leading to a singleton pregnancy.

      There are various forms of ovulation induction, starting with the least invasive and simplest management option first. Exercise and weight loss are typically the first-line treatment for patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome, as ovulation can spontaneously return with even a modest 5% weight loss. Letrozole is now considered the first-line medical therapy for patients with PCOS due to its reduced risk of adverse effects on endometrial and cervical mucous compared to clomiphene citrate. Clomiphene citrate is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that acts primarily at the hypothalamus, blocking the negative feedback effect of estrogens. Gonadotropin therapy tends to be the treatment used mostly for women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.

      One potential side effect of ovulation induction is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), which can be life-threatening if not identified and managed promptly. OHSS occurs when ovarian enlargement with multiple cystic spaces form, and an increase in the permeability of capillaries leads to a fluid shift from the intravascular to the extra-vascular space. The severity of OHSS varies, with the risk of severe OHSS occurring in less than 1% of all women undergoing ovarian induction. Management includes fluid and electrolyte replacement, anticoagulation therapy, abdominal ascitic paracentesis, and pregnancy termination to prevent further hormonal imbalances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      281.8
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  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes and angina is seen for review.

    He...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes and angina is seen for review.

      He has been known to have ischaemic heart disease for many years and has recently seen the cardiologists for outpatient review. Following this assessment he opted for medical management and they have optimised his bisoprolol dose. His current medications consist of:

      Aspirin 75 mg daily

      Ramipril 10 mg daily

      Bisoprolol 10 mg daily

      Simvastatin 40 mg daily, and

      Tadalafil 5 mg daily.

      He reports ongoing angina at least twice a week when out walking which dissipates quickly when he stops exerting himself. You discuss adding in further treatment to try and reduce his anginal symptoms.

      Assuming that his current medication remains unchanged, which of the following is contraindicated in this gentleman as an add-on regular medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Contraindication of Co-Prescribing Phosphodiesterase Type 5 Inhibitors and Nitrates

      Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors and nitrates should not be co-prescribed due to the potential risk of life-threatening hypotension caused by excessive vasodilation. It is important to consider whether nitrates are administered regularly or as needed (PRN) when prescribing phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors. Patients who take regular daily nitrates, such as oral isosorbide mononitrate twice daily, should avoid phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors altogether.

      For patients who use sublingual GTN spray as a PRN nitrate medication, it is recommended to wait at least 24 hours after taking sildenafil or vardenafil and at least 48 hours after taking tadalafil before using GTN spray. This precaution helps to prevent the risk of hypotension and ensures patient safety. Overall, it is crucial to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of co-prescribing these medications and to follow appropriate guidelines to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 3 - What is the primary factor in deciding whether a patient with COPD, who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary factor in deciding whether a patient with COPD, who is elderly, should be provided with long-term oxygen therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      If a person with COPD has two measurements of pO2 below 7.3 kPa, they should receive LTOT.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old man with prostate cancer is suffering from severe hot flashes due...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with prostate cancer is suffering from severe hot flashes due to his goserelin treatment.
      What medication can be prescribed to alleviate this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medroxyprogesterone acetate

      Explanation:

      Hormone Therapies for Prostate Cancer Management

      Goserelin is a type of hormone therapy used to manage prostate cancer. However, it can cause side-effects such as hot flashes. To address this, medroxyprogesterone acetate can be prescribed at a 20 mg dosage per day for 10 weeks. If this is not effective or not tolerated, cyproterone acetate at 50 mg twice a day for 4 weeks can be considered.

      Denosumab is another treatment option for men on androgen deprivation therapy who have osteoporosis and cannot take bisphosphonates. On the other hand, finasteride is an enzyme inhibitor that is indicated for benign prostatic hyperplasia and androgenic alopecia.

      Prednisolone, on the other hand, has no role in managing hot flashes but can be used in treatment regimens for metastatic prostate cancer. Lastly, tamoxifen is a treatment option for gynaecomastia in men undergoing long-term bicalutamide treatment for prostate cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old woman with a medical history of asthma, Down syndrome, and hypothyroidism...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a medical history of asthma, Down syndrome, and hypothyroidism is seeking information about necessary tests and treatment. What is the typical presentation of thyroid disease in individuals with Down syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Using clinical features for diagnosis of hypothyroidism is unreliable

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions and Clarifications about Hypothyroidism in Down Syndrome

      There are several misconceptions about hypothyroidism in individuals with Down syndrome. One common misconception is that clinical features alone can be used to diagnose hypothyroidism. However, this is unreliable as symptoms can be caused by other conditions. Biochemical markers are essential for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

      Another misconception is that borderline blood abnormalities with a free T4 level less than 10 are an indication for treatment. However, treatment should only be started if hypothyroidism is confirmed with biochemical markers and not based on borderline results.

      It is also important to note that screening tests for thyroid disease in individuals with Down syndrome are recommended every 1-2 years, not every three years as in the general population. This is because thyroid disease is more common in individuals with Down syndrome, with hypothyroidism being the most common.

      Additionally, while individuals with Down syndrome are at an increased risk for both hypo- and hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism is much more common. Contrary to another misconception, the risk of thyroid disease in individuals with Down syndrome actually increases with age, rather than diminishing.

      Overall, it is important to have accurate information about hypothyroidism in individuals with Down syndrome to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old complains of breathlessness for four months.
    She has recently seen the practice...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old complains of breathlessness for four months.
      She has recently seen the practice nurse for spirometry testing and these are her post bronchodilator results:
      FEV1/FVC ratio 0.60
      FEV1 (% predicted) 65%
      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhaled corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Initial Management for COPD

      The most appropriate initial management for COPD would be a short acting beta agonist or a short acting muscarinic antagonist. According to the Guidelines in Practice summary, a LAMA+LABA combination should be offered to people with spirometrically confirmed COPD who do not have asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness and remain breathless or have exacerbations despite other treatments. LABA+ICS should be considered for those with asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness. Antitussive therapy is not recommended, but a mucolytic can be considered for those with a chronic productive cough. In this breathless patient, a short acting muscarinic antagonist is the better choice. By optimizing non-pharmacological management and relevant vaccinations, patients can improve their symptoms and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman presents with headache.
    Select from the list below the single feature...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with headache.
      Select from the list below the single feature that would suggest frontal sinusitis rather than migraine.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Green nasal discharge

      Explanation:

      Migraine vs Sinus Headache: Understanding the Difference

      Many people who believe they are suffering from a sinus headache may actually be experiencing a migraine. This is because migraines can activate the trigeminal nerves, which are responsible for both the sinus region and the meninges. As a result, it can be difficult to determine the exact source of the pain. In addition, migraines can cause nasal congestion, as well as lacrimation and rhinorrhoea due to autonomic nerve stimulation. Unlike sinusitis, which often presents with thick green nasal discharge, migraines tend to be recurrent and may not have a clear history of sinusitis. Understanding the difference between these two conditions can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of sudden discomfort in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of sudden discomfort in her right eye. She describes it as feeling 'gritty' and notices watering. She also experienced some discharge from the eye upon waking up in the morning. Upon examination, the conjunctiva appears red and inflamed. What is the most appropriate management for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics can be withheld

      Explanation:

      Understanding Conjunctivitis: Topical Antibiotics and Treatment Options

      Conjunctivitis, commonly known as pink eye, is a condition characterized by inflamed conjunctiva, discharge, and gritty eye discomfort. While most cases are self-limiting and resolve spontaneously within 5-7 days, severe symptoms or rapid resolution may require the use of topical antibiotics such as chloramphenicol and fusidic acid. However, NICE guidelines recommend withholding antibiotics unless necessary. Bacterial and viral forms of conjunctivitis can be differentiated clinically, with purulent discharge indicating a positive bacterial culture. Mucopurulent discharge with crusting is suggestive of bacterial conjunctivitis, while pruritis and petechial subconjunctival hemorrhages suggest a viral cause. While antibiotics can improve rates of clinical and microbiological remission, most cases resolve spontaneously. Referral to ophthalmology should be considered if symptoms persist for longer than 5-7 days. Serious complications from untreated infective conjunctivitis are rare but can include epidemic keratoconjunctivitis, keratitis, and corneal perforation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to ask for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to ask for a prescription for orlistat. What is the most probable comorbid condition that would prevent the prescription of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Orlistat is a medication used to treat obesity by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipase and reducing fat absorption from the gut. However, it can cause loose stool or diarrhea if a low-fat diet is not followed strictly. It is crucial to consider the suitability of orlistat for patients taking critical medications like antiepileptics or the contraceptive pill. Orlistat can increase gut transit time, leading to reduced absorption and efficacy of critical medications. The BNF lists the combination of antiepileptics and orlistat as a red interaction.

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman, with type 2 diabetes, has been successful in controlling her...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman, with type 2 diabetes, has been successful in controlling her HbA1c through diet alone. She has lost 5 kilograms in the past 6 months by making changes to her diet and exercising regularly. Despite her progress, she is aware that her BMI categorizes her as 'obese' and wants to continue losing weight. During her clinic visit, she inquired about foods she should avoid.

      What foods should this patient steer clear of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foods marketed specifically for diabetics

      Explanation:

      NICE doesn’t recommend diabetic foods for individuals with diabetes. Instead, it is important to prioritize a healthy and balanced diet that includes high-fibre, low-glycaemic-index sources of carbohydrates (such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and pulses), low-fat dairy products, and oily fish. It is also advised to limit the consumption of foods that contain saturated and trans fatty acids. Additionally, the use of foods marketed specifically for individuals with diabetes should be discouraged.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to see you by her parents.
    They have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to see you by her parents.
      They have been concerned as they feel her behaviour is difficult to manage. She is prone to temper tantrums and is easily irritable. More recently they have started taking her to a play group but she doesn't seem to want to play with the other children and likes to play on her own with the same toy all of the time. If they try to get her to play with a different toy or do any form of new activity she gets very upset.
      During your assessment you note that her speech and language are very limited and there seems to be noticeable developmental delay in this area for her age. You attempt to play with her but she doesn't really acknowledge you and sits playing with her favourite toy throughout the consultation.
      What is the most likely underlying disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neurodevelopmental Disorders

      Neurodevelopmental disorders are a group of conditions that affect a child’s development and behavior. Autism, for instance, is characterized by impaired social and behavioral skills, language delay, and resistance to change. Children with autism have restricted and repetitive interests and activities, and they may also have a mild to moderate learning disability. ADHD, on the other hand, is characterized by hyperactivity, impulsiveness, and inattention. Children with ADHD are fidgety, easily distracted, and have difficulty sustaining attention. Conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder are also common neurodevelopmental disorders that affect a child’s behavior and social interactions.

      Rett’s syndrome is a rare X-linked disorder that affects almost exclusively females. It is characterized by developmental regression, loss of motor skills, and loss of social and language skills between six and 18 months of age. Other features such as spasticity and seizures may also develop, leading to significant disability.

      It is important to understand these neurodevelopmental disorders to provide appropriate support and interventions for affected children. Early diagnosis and intervention can greatly improve outcomes and quality of life for children with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 12 - Which one of the following is not a principle of the 2018 Data...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a principle of the 2018 Data Protection Act?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Entities which hold personal data must appoint a Data Protection Registrar to ensure the principles of the Act are implemented

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Data Protection Act

      The Data Protection Act is a crucial piece of legislation that governs the protection of personal data in the UK. It applies to both manual and computerised records and outlines eight main principles that entities must follow. These principles include using data for its intended purpose, obtaining consent before disclosing data to other parties, allowing individuals access to their personal information, keeping data up-to-date and secure, and correcting any factual errors.

      In 2018, the Data Protection Act was updated to include new provisions such as the right to erasure, exemptions, and regulation in conjunction with the GDPR. It is important for all entities that process personal information to register with the Information Commissioner’s Office and implement adequate security measures to protect sensitive data. By following the principles outlined in the Data Protection Act, entities can ensure that they are handling personal information in a responsible and ethical manner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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  • Question 13 - A 6-month-old boy was thought to have a unilateral undescended testicle at birth....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy was thought to have a unilateral undescended testicle at birth. At 6 months, the testicle is palpable in the inguinal canal, but cannot be brought down into the scrotum.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgery at 6 months

      Explanation:

      Undescended Testicles in Infants: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Undescended testicles, also known as cryptorchidism, is a common condition in male infants where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum. This can lead to potential complications such as infertility and an increased risk of testicular cancer.

      The recommended course of action is to refer the infant to paediatric surgery or urology before six months of age. The current recommended timing for surgery is before 12 months of life to preserve the stem cells for subsequent spermatogenesis. However, even with surgical treatment, long-term outcomes remain problematic with impaired fertility and an increased cancer risk.

      If one or both testicles are retractile, annual follow-up throughout childhood is advised due to the risk of ascending testis syndrome. Hormone treatment is an option, but it has a lower success rate and more adverse effects compared to surgery.

      For cases where a single testis is undescended, a referral to paediatric surgery or urology should be made by six months of age if the testis has not descended. It is important to review the surgical option after 12 months of age.

      Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial in managing undescended testicles in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old woman, Sarah, has been taking Microgynon-30 for 8 months as a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman, Sarah, has been taking Microgynon-30 for 8 months as a form of birth control. She recently returned from a vacation in Thailand and has noticed the development of melasma on her face. Despite her busy work schedule, she has made time to visit her GP for advice on preventing further melasma after sun exposure. What recommendations should her GP provide to help Sarah?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Change Microgynon-30 to Cerazette (desogestrel)

      Explanation:

      Switching from the combined contraceptive pill to a progesterone only pill can potentially decrease melasma, as it is believed that elevated levels of estrogen stimulate melanocytes. Given her irregular work schedule, Cerazette, which has a 12-hour usage window, may be a better option for her than norethisterone.

      Understanding Melasma: A Common Skin Condition

      Melasma is a skin condition that causes the development of dark patches or macules on sun-exposed areas, especially the face. It is more common in women and people with darker skin. The term chloasma is sometimes used to describe melasma during pregnancy. The condition is often associated with hormonal changes, such as those that occur during pregnancy or with the use of hormonal medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 6-year-old girl is hospitalized with symptoms of fever, headache, and neck stiffness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is hospitalized with symptoms of fever, headache, and neck stiffness, and is diagnosed with pneumococcal meningitis. There have been no other cases of meningitis reported in the area in the past month. What is the recommended approach for managing the close contacts of this girl?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action is needed

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic prophylaxis is usually unnecessary for the carriage of pneumococcus, as it is a prevalent occurrence. However, in the event of a cluster of cases, exceptions may apply. For further information, please refer to the HPA link.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman comes in for her 6 week postpartum check after giving...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in for her 6 week postpartum check after giving birth to a baby with Down's syndrome. Genetic testing confirmed non-disjunction as the cause of the trisomy. The patient is curious about the likelihood of having another child with Down's syndrome in the future. What is the probability of this occurring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 100

      Explanation:

      The recurrence rate of Down’s syndrome is typically 1 in 100.

      Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.

      There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.

      The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 17 - A 56-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of acid reflux. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of acid reflux. Upon testing positive for Helicobacter pylori, he undergoes triple therapy with amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole. He is also taking ramipril and amlodipine for his hypertension. After completing the course of amoxicillin and clarithromycin, he continues on omeprazole.

      Several months later, he returns to his GP with complaints of muscle aches. His blood test results are as follows:

      - Hb: 150 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180)
      - Platelets: 215 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - WBC: 5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Na+: 142 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - K+: 3.9 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 24 mmol/L (normal range: 22-29)
      - Urea: 4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 75 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - Calcium: 2.4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
      - Phosphate: 1.2 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4)
      - Magnesium: 0.53 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0)
      - Creatine kinase: 51 U/L (normal range: 35-250)

      Which medication is most likely responsible for the patient's muscle aches?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia, a condition that can lead to muscle weakness, is a potential side effect of long-term use of proton pump inhibitors. Although rare, this effect may occur after 3 months or more commonly after 1 year of therapy. However, clarithromycin, ramipril, amlodipine, and amoxicillin are not associated with hypomagnesaemia.

      Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that work by blocking the H+/K+ ATPase in the stomach parietal cells. This action is irreversible and helps to reduce the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole.

      Despite their effectiveness in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, PPIs can have adverse effects. These include hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia, which are low levels of sodium and magnesium in the blood, respectively. Prolonged use of PPIs can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, leading to an increased risk of fractures. Additionally, there is a potential for microscopic colitis and an increased risk of C. difficile infections.

      It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of PPIs with your healthcare provider and to use them only as directed. Regular monitoring of electrolyte levels and bone density may also be necessary for those on long-term PPI therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception following a planned surgical abortion....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception following a planned surgical abortion. She is interested in getting an intra-uterine device inserted. What is the recommended waiting period after a surgical termination of pregnancy before getting an IUD fitted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An intra-uterine device can be fitted immediately after evacuation of the uterine cavity

      Explanation:

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare recommends that an intrauterine contraceptive can be inserted right after the evacuation of the uterine cavity following a surgical abortion, provided that it is the woman’s preferred method of contraception.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, although in emergencies, only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise. The method used to terminate pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone followed by prostaglandins is used, while surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents are used for pregnancies less than 13 weeks. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion is used. The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the conditions under which a person shall not be guilty of an offense under the law relating to abortion. These limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 19 - You assess an 8-year-old boy who was released from hospital 3 days ago...

    Incorrect

    • You assess an 8-year-old boy who was released from hospital 3 days ago after undergoing a tonsillectomy. His mother reports that he is experiencing a 'sore throat' despite taking both paracetamol and ibuprofen simultaneously. They were informed to anticipate some discomfort for approximately 5-7 days but are seeking your assistance in prescribing something to alleviate the pain. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities.

      What is the best recommendation for pain relief?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advice that he should persevere with paracetamol + ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Reye’s syndrome is a risk associated with the use of aspirin in children, therefore it should not be administered to them.

      To avoid the risk of morphine toxicity and respiratory depression, the MHRA recommends that codeine should not be given to children under the age of 12.

      Codeine, a commonly used pain medication, can have different effects on patients due to genetic variations in the CY62D6 component of the P450 enzyme system. Some patients may be more sensitive to the effects of codeine, which can lead to serious adverse events. A recent review found that paediatric patients, particularly those from southern European countries, the Middle East, and Africa, have a higher incidence of rapid codeine metabolism. This has led to reports of morphine toxicity in children, especially those with a history of obstructive sleep apnoea. As a result, the MHRA now advises that codeine should only be used in children over 12 years of age for pain that is not controlled by other medications. Additionally, breastfeeding mothers should avoid using codeine due to the potential effects of morphine toxicity on their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 20 - A 9-year-old patient had a tonsillectomy 4 days ago. His father has brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old patient had a tonsillectomy 4 days ago. His father has brought him to the clinic as earlier today he noticed a small amount of bright red bleeding from his mouth. He is otherwise recovering well and has been eating and drinking normally.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer immediately to ENT for assessment

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences bleeding after a tonsillectomy, it is important to seek urgent assessment from the operating team. While simple analgesia may be appropriate for those experiencing only pain, the presence of bleeding requires immediate attention. Prescribing oral antibiotics in the community would not be appropriate in this context, and techniques such as silver nitrate cautery should only be performed by a specialist after a thorough assessment.

      Complications after Tonsillectomy

      Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, like any surgery, it carries some risks and potential complications. One of the most common complications is pain, which can last for up to six days after the procedure.

      Another complication that can occur after tonsillectomy is haemorrhage, or bleeding. There are two types of haemorrhage that can occur: primary and secondary. Primary haemorrhage is the most common and occurs within the first 6-8 hours after surgery. It requires immediate medical attention and may require a return to the operating room.

      Secondary haemorrhage, on the other hand, occurs between 5 and 10 days after surgery and is often associated with a wound infection. It is less common than primary haemorrhage, occurring in only 1-2% of all tonsillectomies. Treatment for secondary haemorrhage usually involves admission to the hospital and antibiotics, but severe bleeding may require surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 21 - A pharmaceutical company is developing a new drug to treat ovarian cancer. During...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical company is developing a new drug to treat ovarian cancer. During which phase of clinical trials is the drug's effectiveness specifically evaluated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase IIb

      Explanation:

      Phases of Clinical Trials

      Clinical trials are conducted to determine the safety and efficacy of new treatments or drugs. These trials are commonly classified into four phases. The first phase involves determining the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of the drug, as well as any potential side effects. This phase is conducted on healthy volunteers.

      The second phase assesses the efficacy and dosage of the drug. It involves a small number of patients affected by a particular disease. This phase may be further subdivided into IIa, which assesses optimal dosing, and IIb, which assesses efficacy.

      The third phase involves assessing the effectiveness of the drug. This phase typically involves a larger number of people, often as part of a randomized controlled trial, comparing the new treatment with established treatments.

      The fourth and final phase is postmarketing surveillance. This phase monitors the long-term effectiveness and side effects of the drug after it has been approved and is on the market.

      Overall, the phases of clinical trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of new treatments and drugs. They provide valuable information that can help improve patient outcomes and advance medical research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 22 - A 67-year-old man with diabetes is seen for his annual check-up. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with diabetes is seen for his annual check-up. He is generally in good health, but experiences occasional cramping in his calf after walking about a mile on flat ground. He continues to smoke five cigarettes per day. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 166/98 mmHg, with a pulse of 86 bpm and a BMI of 30.2. Neurological examination is normal, and his fundi appear normal. Examination of his peripheral circulation reveals absent foot pulses and weak popliteal pulses. He was started on antihypertensive therapy, and his U+Es were measured over a two-week period, with the following results:

      Baseline:
      Sodium - 138 mmol/L
      Potassium - 4.6 mmol/L
      Urea - 11.1 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 138 µmol/L

      2 weeks later:
      Sodium - 140 mmol/L
      Potassium - 5.0 mmol/L
      Urea - 19.5 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 310 µmol/L

      Which class of antihypertensives is most likely responsible for this change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy

      Explanation:

      Renal Artery Stenosis and ACE Inhibitors

      This man has diabetes and hypertension, along with mild symptoms of claudication and absent foot pulses, indicating arteriopathy. These factors suggest a diagnosis of renal artery stenosis (RAS), which can cause macrovascular disease and mild renal impairment.

      When an antihypertensive medication was introduced, the patient’s renal function deteriorated, indicating that the drug was an ACE inhibitor. This is because hypertension in RAS is caused by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system trying to maintain renal perfusion. Inhibiting this system with ACE inhibitors can result in relative renal ischemia, leading to further deterioration of renal function.

      In summary, patients with diabetes and hypertension who present with arteriopathy symptoms should be evaluated for RAS. The use of ACE inhibitors in these patients should be carefully monitored, as it can exacerbate renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - Sophie is a 26-year-old female who presents with a new rash that has...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 26-year-old female who presents with a new rash that has appeared over the past few weeks in both axillae. The rash is itchy but not painful, and Sophie is otherwise healthy.

      During the examination, you observe a lesion in both axillae that appears slightly red and glazed. Upon further examination, you discover another smaller lesion at the gluteal cleft. There are no joint abnormalities or nail changes.

      Based on your observations, you suspect that Sophie has flexural psoriasis. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence a moderately potent topical steroid for 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Flexural psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes itchy lesions in areas such as the groin, genital area, axillae, and other folds of the body. In this case, the erythema is mild and the lesions are not extensive, indicating a mild case of flexural psoriasis. According to NICE guidelines, a short-term application of a mild- or moderately-potent topical corticosteroid preparation (once or twice daily) for up to two weeks is recommended. Therefore, starting a potent topical steroid or using a mildly potent topical steroid for four weeks is not appropriate.

      To reduce scale and relieve itch, an emollient can be used. However, vitamin D analogues are not prescribed for flexural psoriasis in primary care. After four weeks, the patient should be reviewed. If there is a good initial response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids can be used to maintain disease control.

      If treatment fails or the psoriasis is at least moderately severe, referral to a dermatologist should be arranged.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - An 85-year-old woman has short history of bone pain. Serum biochemistry reveals plasma...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman has short history of bone pain. Serum biochemistry reveals plasma calcium concentration 2.08 mmol/l, phosphate 0.70 mmol/l, alkaline phosphatase activity twice the upper limit of what is normal. The concentration of parathyroid hormone is elevated.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes and Diagnosis

      Osteomalacia is a condition that is often caused by a lack or impaired metabolism of vitamin D. This can lead to hypocalcaemia, although it may not be immediately noticeable due to increased parathyroid hormone secretion, which can also increase renal phosphate excretion. As a result, alkaline phosphatase levels may be elevated due to increased osteoblastic activity. To diagnose osteomalacia, it is important to measure vitamin D levels and supplement when low levels are confirmed.

      Other conditions may present with similar symptoms, but can be ruled out based on specific markers. Osteolytic metastases, for example, may also cause elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, but calcium concentrations are typically normal or elevated. Osteoporosis may also cause elevated calcium levels, but bone markers are typically normal in uncomplicated cases. Renal osteodystrophy, on the other hand, is characterized by increased plasma phosphate concentration due to underlying kidney disease. Primary hyperparathyroidism may also cause hypophosphataemia, but plasma calcium concentration is usually elevated, unless there is concomitant vitamin D deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old man with a Body Mass Index (BMI) of 34 kg/m2 was...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a Body Mass Index (BMI) of 34 kg/m2 was diagnosed with type-2 diabetes mellitus during a routine check-up 3 months ago. He was advised to follow a weight-reducing diet and exercise regimen. His glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) level is 69 mmol/mol and estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) is 55ml/min/1.73m2. What is the recommended medication for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Metformin: The Preferred Drug for Overweight Patients with Diabetes

      Metformin is the preferred drug for overweight patients with diabetes due to its ability to suppress appetite, decrease gluconeogenesis, and increase peripheral glucose utilization. Unlike other diabetes medications, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycemia. However, caution should be exercised when using metformin in patients with renal impairment as it may increase the risk of lactic acidosis. According to the National Institute of Health and Care Excellence guidance, the dose of metformin should be reviewed if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 45 ml/minute/1.73 m2 and avoided if the eGFR is less than 30 ml/minute/1.73 m2. Treatment should be discontinued in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function, such as those with dehydration, severe infection, shock, sepsis, acute heart failure, respiratory failure, hepatic impairment, or those who have recently had a myocardial infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - Barbara is a 57-year-old woman who has come to see you after high...

    Incorrect

    • Barbara is a 57-year-old woman who has come to see you after high blood pressure readings during a routine check with the nurse.

      You take two blood pressure readings, the lower of which is 190/126 mmHg.

      Barbara has no headache or chest pain. On examination of her cardiovascular and neurological systems, there are no abnormalities. Fundoscopy is normal.

      What is the most crucial next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgently carry out investigations for target organ damage including ECG, urine dip and blood tests

      Explanation:

      If Cynthia’s blood pressure is equal to or greater than 180/120 mmHg and she has no worrying signs, the first step is to urgently investigate for any damage to her organs.

      According to NICE guidelines, if a person has severe hypertension but no symptoms or signs requiring immediate referral, investigations for target organ damage should be carried out as soon as possible. Since Cynthia has no such symptoms or signs, investigating for target organ damage is the correct option.

      If target organ damage is found, antihypertensive drug treatment should be considered immediately, without waiting for the results of ABPM or HBPM. Therefore, prescribing a calcium channel blocker is not the correct answer as assessing for organ damage is the more urgent priority.

      Repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days at this stage would not be helpful in guiding further management, as assessing for target organ damage is the priority. NICE recommends repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days only if no target organ damage is identified.

      Assessing for target organ damage involves testing for protein and haematuria in the urine, measuring HbA1C, electrolytes, creatinine, estimated glomerular filtration rate, total cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol in the blood, examining the fundi for hypertensive retinopathy, and performing a 12-lead electrocardiograph.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with epiphora. There are no reported...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with epiphora. There are no reported symptoms of infection or foreign body in the eye. After waiting for five minutes, the eye is re-examined. If there is an overproduction of tears, what is the most probable finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A diluted appearance of fluorescein

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Fluorescein Staining Results in Ophthalmology

      Fluorescein staining is a common diagnostic tool used in ophthalmology to assess the health of the cornea and tear film. The appearance of the fluorescein can provide valuable information about the underlying condition. Here are some interpretations of fluorescein staining results:

      Diluted Appearance of Fluorescein:
      If the fluorescein appears diluted, it may indicate overproduction of tears. This can be caused by various factors such as lid or eyelash malposition, lid margin disease, tear film deficiency, corneal foreign body or disease, conjunctivitis, inflammatory disease, or punctal malposition.

      Diffuse Tiny Green Spots on the Cornea:
      The presence of diffuse tiny green spots on the cornea may indicate punctate epithelial erosion in a dry eye.

      Area of Green Staining on the Central Cornea:
      A larger area of green staining on the central cornea may indicate the presence of ulcers or abrasions caused by injury or infection.

      Positive Seidel Test:
      A positive Seidel test indicates the presence of globe rupture and is used to diagnose corneal perforation.

      Undiluted Fluorescein in the Tear Film:
      If the fluorescein remains undiluted, it may indicate impaired tear drainage caused by congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction, lacrimal sac mass or mucocele, dacryocystitis, lacrimal pump failure, nasal obstruction, or previous surgery or trauma.

      In conclusion, fluorescein staining is a valuable tool in ophthalmology that can provide important information about the health of the cornea and tear film. Understanding the different interpretations of fluorescein staining results can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various eye conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old woman is brought to the GP by her worried daughter. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is brought to the GP by her worried daughter. The patient has a history of mental health problems and rarely leaves her house, but is still able to perform daily activities independently.

      The daughter is concerned as her mother has been complaining of increased bone and joint pain, particularly in her spine and legs, along with a general feeling of weakness over the past few months. Upon examination, the patient exhibits tenderness in her long bones, weakness in her proximal muscles, and difficulty walking with a waddling gait.

      What is the most probable diagnosis based on the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy suggest a diagnosis of osteomalacia. This condition is often caused by a lack of sunlight and subsequent vitamin D deficiency, leading to decreased bone mineralization and softening of the bones. Unlike other bone pathologies, osteomalacia can cause joint and bone pain as well as muscle weakness, particularly in the form of proximal myopathy and a waddling gait.

      Osteopenia is characterized by low bone density and typically precedes osteoporosis. While patients with osteopenia are at risk of bone fractures, the condition itself doesn’t usually cause symptoms such as pain or weakness.

      Osteoporosis is a more severe form of reduced bone mass and also increases the risk of bone fractures. However, like osteopenia, it doesn’t typically cause joint pain, weakness, or a waddling gait.

      Paget’s disease is caused by abnormal bone remodeling, resulting in excessive bone breakdown and disorganized new bone formation. While bone pain can occur, most patients are asymptomatic. The most common features of Paget’s disease include skull frontal bossing, headaches, and hearing loss due to narrowing of the auditory foramen. Joint pain, weakness, and a waddling gait are not typically associated with Paget’s disease.

      Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes, Features, Investigation, and Treatment

      Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of bones due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. While rickets is the term used for this condition in growing children, osteomalacia is the preferred term for adults. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited factors, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The features of osteomalacia include bone pain, bone/muscle tenderness, fractures (especially femoral neck), proximal myopathy, and a waddling gait. To investigate this condition, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels (in around 30% of patients), and raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients). X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium is inadequate. By understanding the causes, features, investigation, and treatment of osteomalacia, individuals can take steps to prevent and manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with a weak grip and tingling of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with a weak grip and tingling of her left hand. She complains of a dull aching pain in her forearm, which is made worse by carrying a shopping bag. On examination you find weakness of the left abductor pollicis brevis and mild weakness of thumb flexion. Finger abduction and adduction appear to be within normal limits. There is sensory loss to pinprick mainly affecting the left thumb and index finger. Phalen's sign is positive. Sensorimotor examination of the right hand is normal. The deep tendon reflexes are symmetrical.
      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression of the right median nerve in the carpal tunnel

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Differential Diagnosis

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that can be caused by pregnancy, fluid retention, hypothyroidism, osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, diabetes, and hereditary tendency to pressure palsy. The symptoms include weakness and sensory loss in the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis. Phalen’s sign, which involves flexing the wrist for 60 seconds, can help diagnose the condition. Nerve conduction studies can confirm the diagnosis. Pronator teres syndrome, which is rare, can also cause forearm pain, but carpal tunnel syndrome is more likely in pregnant patients with a positive Phalen’s sign. Compression of the ulnar nerve produces symptoms at the medial side of the forearm and hand, while brachial plexopathy and C8 nerve root irritation usually involve the length of the arm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - When two medical conditions are related through the presence of a confounding factor,...

    Incorrect

    • When two medical conditions are related through the presence of a confounding factor, the association is said to be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indirect

      Explanation:

      Association and Causation: Understanding the Difference

      Association refers to the relationship between two variables where one is more commonly found in the presence of the other. However, not all associations are causal. There are three types of association: spurious, indirect, and direct. Spurious associations are those that arise by chance and are not real, while indirect associations are due to the presence of another factor, also known as a confounding variable. Direct associations, on the other hand, are true associations not linked by a third variable.

      To establish causation, the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria are used. These criteria include strength, temporality, specificity, coherence, and consistency. The strength of the association is an important factor in determining causation, as a stronger association is more likely to be truly causal. Temporality refers to whether the exposure precedes the outcome, while specificity asks whether the suspected cause is associated with a specific outcome or disease. Coherence considers whether the association fits with other biological knowledge, and consistency looks at whether the same association is found in many studies.

      Understanding the difference between association and causation is important in research and decision-making. While an association may suggest a relationship between two variables, it doesn’t necessarily mean that one causes the other. By using the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria, researchers can determine whether an association is truly causal and make informed decisions based on their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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