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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and diarrhoea. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and diarrhoea. On examination, he appears uncomfortable, with a heart rate of 105 bpm, blood pressure 124/68 mmHg, oxygen saturations on room air of 95%, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute and a temperature of 37.4 °C. His cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are unremarkable, except for a previous median sternotomy scar. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness throughout the abdomen, which is significantly worse on the left with guarding. Urgent blood tests are taken, and chest and abdominal X-rays are performed. The chest X-ray is normal, except for an increased cardiothoracic ratio, but the abdominal X-ray shows thumbprinting in the left colon but an otherwise normal gas pattern.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infectious colitis

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic colitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Acute Abdominal Pain: A Guide

      When a patient presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, it is important to consider the underlying cause in order to provide prompt and appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to consider when differentiating between potential causes:

      Ischaemic colitis: This can occur as a result of atherosclerosis in the mesenteric arteries, leading to tissue death and subsequent inflammation. It is a surgical emergency that requires urgent investigation and treatment.

      Angiodysplasia: This is a small vascular malformation that typically presents with melaena, unexplained PR bleeding, or anaemia. It is unlikely to cause an acute abdomen.

      Infectious colitis: While infectious colitis can cause abdominal pain and diarrhoea, it typically does not come on as rapidly as other causes. Clostridium difficile colitis is a subtype that can be particularly severe and difficult to manage.

      Ulcerative colitis: This is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that usually presents with abdominal pain, bloody diarrhoea, and other symptoms. It is unlikely to be a first presentation in a 69-year-old patient.

      Diverticulitis: This is a common cause of left-sided abdominal pain, especially in older patients. It occurs when diverticula become infected or inflamed, but can be treated with antibiotics. Complications such as perforation or PR bleeding may require urgent intervention.

      By considering these potential causes and their associated symptoms, healthcare providers can more effectively diagnose and treat patients with acute abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 2 - You are asked to see an elderly patient who has not opened their...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see an elderly patient who has not opened their bowels for several days. Their abdomen is distended, and they describe cramping abdominal pain that comes and goes. A supine abdominal X-ray is performed to identify features of bowel obstruction and suggest the location of the obstruction.
      Which of the following is more characteristic of the large bowel, rather than the small bowel, on an abdominal X-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haustral folds

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Small and Large Bowel Anatomy

      The human digestive system is composed of various organs that work together to break down food and absorb nutrients. Two important parts of this system are the small and large bowel. Here are some characteristics that differentiate these two structures:

      Haustral Folds and Valvulae Conniventes
      Haustral folds are thick, widely separated folds that are characteristic of the large bowel. In contrast, valvulae conniventes are thin mucosal folds that pass across the full width of the small bowel.

      Location
      The small bowel is located towards the center of the abdomen, while the large bowel is more peripheral and frames the small bowel.

      Diameter
      The normal maximum diameter of the small bowel is 3 cm, while the large bowel can have a diameter of up to 6 cm. The caecum, a part of the large bowel, can have a diameter of up to 9 cm.

      Air-Fluid Levels in Obstruction
      The appearance of air-fluid levels is characteristic of small bowel obstruction.

      Remembering the 3/6/9 Rule
      To help remember the normal diameters of the small and large bowel, use the 3/6/9 rule: the small bowel has a diameter of 3 cm, the large bowel can have a diameter of up to 6 cm, and the caecum can have a diameter of up to 9 cm.

      Understanding the Differences Between Small and Large Bowel Anatomy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old girl presents with a 24-hour history of pain in the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents with a 24-hour history of pain in the right iliac fossa. A pregnancy test is negative and bloods show a raised white cell count. Her parents tell you she has had a ‘cold’ for the past week. She also began to suffer from headaches two days before the pain.
      The girl is taken to theatre for a laparoscopic appendicectomy. However, during the operation, the appendix is found to be completely normal.
      How should the surgical team proceed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remove the appendix anyway

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric Lymphadenitis and the Role of Appendicectomy

      Mesenteric lymphadenitis is a common condition in children and adolescents that causes inflammation of the lymph nodes in the mesentery. It is typically associated with a recent cold or infection, and can present with abdominal pain, fever, and a raised white cell count. While it can be difficult to diagnose, it responds well to antibiotics.

      In some cases, mesenteric lymphadenitis can mimic the symptoms of acute appendicitis, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. In such cases, even if the appendix appears normal, it may be beneficial to remove it anyway. This can prevent the patient from developing acute appendicitis in the future, which can be life-threatening if it ruptures prior to hospitalization. Additionally, removing the appendix can protect the patient from certain cancers that originate in the appendix.

      While a laparotomy may be necessary to explore the rest of the abdomen in some cases, a skilled surgeon can often rule out other causes of pain laparoscopically. It is important to consider the possibility of mesenteric lymphadenitis when working through the differential diagnosis of right iliac fossa pain.

      In conclusion, mesenteric lymphadenitis is a common condition that can mimic the symptoms of acute appendicitis. While it can be difficult to diagnose, it responds well to antibiotics. In cases where the appendix appears normal, it may still be beneficial to remove it to prevent future complications. A skilled surgeon can often explore the abdomen laparoscopically to rule out other causes of pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old professional bodybuilder comes to the clinic with a lump in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old professional bodybuilder comes to the clinic with a lump in the left groin that appears on and off. The patient reports that the lump is influenced by posture and coughing but does not cause any pain. Upon examination, the doctor diagnoses the patient with a hernia.
      What is a true statement regarding groin hernias?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A direct inguinal hernia lies medial to the inferior epigastric vessels

      Explanation:

      Understanding Groin Hernias: Types, Location, and Risks

      Groin hernias are a common condition that occurs when an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the abdominal wall. There are different types of groin hernias, including direct inguinal hernias and femoral hernias.

      A direct inguinal hernia occurs when there is a weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, and the protrusion happens medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. On the other hand, a femoral hernia emerges lateral to the pubic tubercle.

      Contrary to popular belief, femoral hernias are more common in women than in men. While direct inguinal hernias can become incarcerated, only a small percentage of them will become strangulated per year. Femoral hernias, however, are at a much higher risk of becoming strangulated.

      While most groin hernias should be repaired, especially when they become symptomatic, patients who are unfit for surgery should be treated conservatively. This may include using a truss to support the hernia.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types and locations of groin hernias, as well as their risks, can help patients make informed decisions about their treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 5 - A 73-year-old woman with a history of diverticular disease undergoes emergency abdominal surgery....

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman with a history of diverticular disease undergoes emergency abdominal surgery. When examining this patient after her surgery, you notice she has an end colostomy.
      What feature in particular will suggest that this patient has had a Hartmann’s procedure and not an abdominoperineal (AP) resection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Presence of rectum

      Explanation:

      The patient has a presence of rectum, indicating that they have undergone a Hartmann’s procedure, which is commonly performed for perforated diverticulitis or to palliate rectal carcinoma. This involves resecting the sigmoid colon and leaving the rectal stump, which is oversewn. An end colostomy is created in the left iliac fossa, which can be reversed later to restore intestinal continuity. The midline scar observed is not exclusive to a Hartmann’s procedure, as AP resections and other abdominal surgeries can also be carried out via a midline incision. The presence of an end colostomy confirms that a Hartmann’s procedure has been performed. The Rutherford-Morison scar, a transverse scar used for colonic procedures and kidney transplants, is not unique to either an AP resection or a Hartmann’s procedure. The presence of solid faeces in the stoma bag is expected for a colostomy, while ileostomies typically contain liquid faeces and are usually located in the right lower quadrant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 6 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and fever, associated with vomiting. Following examination, the GP suspects a diagnosis of acute appendicitis and refers the patient to the surgical assessment unit at the local hospital. With regard to acute appendicitis, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can result in thrombosis of the appendicular artery (endarteritis obliterans)

      Explanation:

      Appendicitis is a common condition that occurs when the appendix becomes inflamed and infected. It can be caused by obstruction of the appendix, usually by a faecolith, leading to the build-up of mucinous secretions and subsequent infection. Alternatively, pressure within the closed system can compress the superficial veins and eventually lead to thrombosis of the appendicular artery, resulting in ischaemic necrosis and gangrene. Appendicitis is most common between the ages of 10 and 30 years, and conservative management is rarely effective. Without treatment, appendicitis can progress to perforation and generalised peritonitis, which can be life-threatening. The pain associated with appendicitis is initially referred to the epigastric region and later localises to the right iliac fossa. Surgical intervention is almost always required, except in the case of an appendix mass or abscess, where removal is advised after an interval of 6-8 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman with Crohn's disease undergoes a resection of her terminal ileum....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with Crohn's disease undergoes a resection of her terminal ileum. What is her greatest risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrocytic normochromic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal Disorders and Associated Nutritional Deficiencies

      The gastrointestinal tract plays a crucial role in the absorption of essential nutrients, and any disruption in this process can lead to various nutritional deficiencies. Here are some common gastrointestinal disorders and their associated nutritional deficiencies:

      1. Macrocytic normochromic anaemia: This type of anaemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, which is absorbed in the terminal ileum. Without adequate B12, megaloblasts form in the bone marrow, leading to macrocytic normochromic anaemia. B12 supplements are necessary to prevent this condition.

      2. Osteomalacia: Reduced vitamin D absorption can cause osteomalacia, a condition where bones become soft and weak. Vitamin D is absorbed in the jejunum, so an ileal resection would not affect absorption. Crohn’s disease may also cause osteomalacia, but it typically affects the terminal ileum and proximal colon.

      3. Microcytic hypochromic anaemia: Iron deficiency is the most common cause of microcytic anaemia. Iron is absorbed in the duodenum and jejunum, so deficiency leading to microcytic normochromic anaemia is less likely. However, iron deficiency may occur secondary to internal bleeding or extensive small bowel disease.

      4. Angular stomatitis: This condition is commonly caused by Candida or staphylococcal infection. Iron deficiency, vitamin B12 deficiency, or dermatitis may also be causes. Patients with B12 deficiency may develop angular stomatitis, but not all patients with B12 deficiency develop this condition.

      5. Wernicke’s encephalopathy: Reduced thiamine (B1) absorption can cause Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a neurological disorder. Thiamine is absorbed in the upper small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease undergoes emergency surgery involving resection of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease undergoes emergency surgery involving resection of a portion of his bowel. At the clinico-pathological conference, the histological findings of the operative sample are discussed.
      Which of the following features is most indicative of Crohn’s disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transmural inflammation

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Crohn’s Disease and Ulcerative Colitis: Histopathological Features

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a term used to describe two conditions: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. While both conditions share some similarities, they have distinct differences that can be identified through histopathological examination of surgical specimens.

      Transmural inflammation, which affects all layers of the intestinal wall, is a hallmark feature of Crohn’s disease. This type of inflammation is not typically seen in ulcerative colitis. Additionally, Crohn’s disease often presents as skip lesions, meaning that affected areas are separated by healthy tissue. In contrast, ulcerative colitis typically presents as continuous disease limited to the large bowel.

      Crypt abscesses, which are collections of inflammatory cells within the crypts of the intestinal lining, are more commonly seen in ulcerative colitis. Mucosal inflammation, which affects only the surface layer of the intestinal lining, is more typical of ulcerative colitis as well.

      Other histopathological features that can help distinguish between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis include the presence of rose thorn ulcers (deep ulcers with a characteristic appearance) in Crohn’s disease and lymphoid aggregates in Crohn’s disease but not in ulcerative colitis.

      In summary, while Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis share some similarities, histopathological examination of surgical specimens can help differentiate between the two conditions based on the presence or absence of certain features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of lower abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of lower abdominal pain. He reports that the pain began 6 hours ago as a vague discomfort around his belly button, but has since become a sharp pain in the right iliac fossa, which worsens when he walks or coughs. He has lost his appetite and has vomited twice. The examining surgeon suspects that he may have appendicitis.
      Which dermatome level in the spinal cord receives afferent signals from the periumbilical pain in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Sensory Levels and Pain Localization in Appendicitis

      Appendicitis is a common condition that causes inflammation of the appendix. The initial pain associated with this condition is vague and poorly localized, and it is felt in the periumbilical region. However, as the inflammation progresses and the parietal peritoneum adjacent to the appendix becomes inflamed, the pain becomes sharp and localizes to the right iliac fossa.

      The sensory level for visceral afferents from the appendix is at the 10th thoracic segment, which is the same level as the somatic afferents from the anterior abdominal wall in the region of the umbilicus. This is why the initial pain is felt in the periumbilical region.

      The hip girdle and groin area are innervated by the cutaneous dermatome representing L1 spinal cord. However, T6 to T12 affect abdominal and back muscles, and T8 and T12 are not the correct sensory levels for appendicitis pain localization. Understanding the sensory levels and pain localization in appendicitis can aid in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 10 - You are a Foundation Year 2 (FY2) doctor on your general surgical rotation,...

    Incorrect

    • You are a Foundation Year 2 (FY2) doctor on your general surgical rotation, and the consultant has asked you to scrub in to help assist. He informs you that it will be a fantastic learning opportunity and will ask you questions throughout. He goes to commence the operation and the questions begin.
      When making a midline abdominal incision, what would be the correct order of layers through the abdominal wall?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, peritoneum

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Abdominal Incisions and Their Layers

      Abdominal incisions are commonly used in surgical procedures. There are different types of abdominal incisions, each with its own set of layers. Here are some of the most common types of abdominal incisions and their layers:

      1. Midline Incision: This incision is made in the middle of the abdomen and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. This incision is versatile and can be used for most abdominal procedures.

      2. Transverse Incision: This incision is made horizontally across the abdomen and involves the following layers: skin, fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus muscle, transversus abdominis, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.

      3. Paramedian Incision above the Arcuate Line: This incision is made to the side of the midline above the arcuate line and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, anterior rectus sheath, posterior rectus sheath, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.

      4. Paramedian Incision below the Arcuate Line: This incision is made to the side of the midline below the arcuate line and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, anterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.

      Knowing the different types of abdominal incisions and their layers can help surgeons choose the best approach for a particular procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with three positive faecal occult blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with three positive faecal occult blood specimens. He has had no significant symptoms, apart from mild fatigue over the past few months.
      On examination, he has pale conjunctiva, but there are no other specific findings.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 79 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 275 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 11 mm/hour 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 35 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 46 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Flexible colonoscopy: abnormal vessels visualised on the right side of the colon
      Which of the following is the initial therapy of choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoscopic ablation of abnormal vessels

      Explanation:

      Management of Angiodysplasia of the Colon

      Angiodysplasia of the colon is a condition that commonly affects individuals over the age of 60 and presents with chronic hypochromic microcytic anemia or massive bleeding with hemodynamic instability in 15% of patients. The treatment of choice for this condition is endoscopic ablation of abnormal vessels. Surgery may be considered for those who do not respond to ablation therapy. A review colonoscopy in 6 months would not be appropriate as management is required for the observed angiodysplasia. Blood transfusion is not indicated unless there are signs of acute large-volume blood loss. Iron sulfate supplementation may not be necessary if the underlying condition is treated, as the iron deficiency should correct itself with adequate dietary intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old medical student presents with a 2-month history of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old medical student presents with a 2-month history of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. She has no family history of bowel conditions, has not traveled recently, and has no sick contacts. During colonoscopy, seven polyps measuring <5 mm in diameter are found proximal to the sigmoid colon and removed for further analysis. Which of the following conditions linked to bowel polyps is considered non-hereditary?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serrated polyposis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Overview of Hereditary Colorectal Polyp Disorders

      Hereditary colorectal polyp disorders are a group of genetic conditions that increase the risk of developing colorectal cancer. These disorders are caused by various genetic defects and are inherited in different patterns. Here are some of the most common hereditary colorectal polyp disorders:

      1. Serrated Polyposis Syndrome: This condition is characterized by the presence of numerous serrated and/or hyperplastic polyps in the colon and rectum. It is not associated with any specific genetic defect and is linked to an increased risk of colorectal cancer.

      2. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP): FAP is an autosomal dominant condition that causes the development of hundreds or thousands of adenomatous polyps in the colon. These polyps have a high risk of malignant transformation, and patients with FAP are likely to develop colorectal cancer if left untreated.

      3. Lynch Syndrome: Also known as hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer, Lynch syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer and other malignancies, including breast, stomach, endometrial, and urinary tract cancers.

      4. Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome: This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by the development of gastrointestinal hamartomatous polyps and mucocutaneous hyperpigmentation. Patients with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing colorectal, breast, liver, and lung cancers.

      5. Gardner Syndrome: Gardner syndrome is a subtype of FAP that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterized by the development of numerous colorectal polyps and extracolonic manifestations such as desmoids, osteomas, and epidermoid cysts. Prophylactic surgery is the mainstay of treatment for patients with Gardner syndrome.

      In conclusion, hereditary colorectal polyp disorders are a group of genetic conditions that increase the risk of developing colorectal cancer. Early detection and management are crucial in preventing the development of cancer in these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 13 - You are asked to see a 43-year-old man with a stoma in the...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 43-year-old man with a stoma in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen. It is sprouted and produces a liquid, light brown fluid.
      What form of stoma is this likely to be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ileostomy

      Explanation:

      Types of Stomas: Ileostomy, Colostomy, Enterocutaneous Fistula, Mucous Fistula, and Urostomy

      Stomas are surgical openings created in the abdomen to allow for the elimination of waste products from the body. There are different types of stomas, each with its unique characteristics and functions.

      An ileostomy is a stoma created from the small intestine. The stool from an ileostomy is looser and more acidic, making it more likely to cause skin damage. To prevent this, ileostomies are fashioned with a spout for better delivery of the stoma content into the stoma bag.

      A colostomy, on the other hand, is a stoma created from the large intestine. Colostomies are generally flat and placed in the left iliac fossa, although this can vary.

      An enterocutaneous fistula is an abnormal passage between the gastrointestinal tract and the skin. It is not a stoma.

      A mucous fistula is a stoma that allows the collection of mucous associated with inflammatory bowel disease.

      Finally, a urostomy is formed as a result of bladder excision. Urostomies are created by anastomosis of the ureters and drainage into a segment of the small bowel, which has been resected and used to form an ileal conduit. This conduit delivers urine to the skin in the form of a spouted stoma. Urostomies can be differentiated from ileostomies by their output (urine vs. feces).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old man with a chronic bowel condition presents with severe pain on...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with a chronic bowel condition presents with severe pain on defecation, which has lasted over two months despite increasing fluid intake and stool softeners. He has had anal fissures in the past, as well as a previous perianal abscess. On examination, the anal area is inflamed, with evidence of a deep anal fissure with an associated large sentinel tag.
      The doctor explains that this is a symptom of active perianal disease secondary to this patient’s chronic bowel condition.
      With which of the following conditions is perianal disease most commonly associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Perianal Manifestations in Inflammatory Bowel Disease: A Comparison

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic condition that affects the digestive tract. Two main types of IBD are Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Both conditions can cause perianal manifestations, but the prevalence and severity differ.

      Crohn’s disease is commonly complicated by perianal abscesses, fistula-in-ano, anal fissures, and skin tags. Up to 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease may suffer from perianal disease, which can significantly impair their quality of life. In contrast, perianal disease is far less common in patients with ulcerative colitis.

      Coeliac disease, another digestive disorder, is not associated with perianal disease. However, it is linked to an increased risk of other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes and autoimmune thyroid disease.

      Diverticular disease, which causes abdominal pain, bloating, constipation, and diarrhea, is also not associated with an increased risk of perianal disease.

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a functional disorder that causes symptoms such as bloating, cramping, abdominal pain, and constipation or diarrhea. Unlike IBD, IBS is not associated with an increased risk of perianal disease.

      In summary, perianal manifestations are more commonly seen in Crohn’s disease than ulcerative colitis or other digestive disorders. A multidisciplinary approach may be required to manage severe cases of perianal Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended abdomen. The pain started 4 days ago and was initially colicky in nature but is now continuous. She has vomited several times and only emptied her bowels once in the last 3 days, which is unusual for her. She had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 3 weeks ago, from which she made a rapid recovery. There is no past medical history of note. On examination, she appears unwell. The abdomen is tender and mildly distended. Bowel sounds are reduced. Observations: pulse rate 119 bpm, blood pressure 130/90 mmHg, temperature 38.7 °C.
      What is the single most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Preoperative preparation and consideration for surgery

      Explanation:

      Preoperative Preparation and Consideration for Bowel Obstruction Surgery

      When a patient presents with colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, recent abdominal surgery, a distended abdomen, and reduced bowel sounds, the most likely diagnosis is bowel obstruction. If the patient appears unwell, as in the case of tachycardia and fever, urgent investigation and/or intervention is necessary.

      While an urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis would be ideal, the patient in this scenario requires immediate surgery. Keeping the patient nil by mouth and providing intravenous fluids are important, but they do not treat or investigate the underlying cause. Placing a nasogastric tube can help relieve symptoms and reduce the risk of aspiration, but it is not enough on its own.

      In summary, preoperative preparation and consideration for bowel obstruction surgery involve urgent investigation and/or intervention, keeping the patient nil by mouth, providing intravenous fluids, and potentially placing a nasogastric tube. Conservative management is not suitable for an unwell patient with bowel obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 16 - You are observing the repair of an inguinal hernia as a medical student....

    Incorrect

    • You are observing the repair of an inguinal hernia as a medical student. The consultant asks you what structures form the roof of the inguinal canal.

      What forms the roof of the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The arched fibres of internal oblique and transversus abdominis

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Inguinal Canal: Structures and Functions

      The inguinal canal is a passage located in the abdominal wall that extends from the abdominal inguinal ring to the subcutaneous inguinal ring. It is about 4 cm long, slanting downwards and medially, and is situated just above the medial part of the inguinal ligament. The canal contains important structures such as the spermatic cord and the ilioinguinal nerve in males, and the round ligament of the uterus and the ilioinguinal nerve in females.

      The roof of the inguinal canal is formed by the arched fibres of the internal oblique muscle and transversus abdominis, along with the transversalis fascia. The floor of the canal is formed by the union of the transversalis fascia with the inguinal ligament, along with the lacunar ligament at the medial third. The medial third of the floor is also formed by the lacunar ligament, while the posterior wall is formed by the reflected inguinal ligament, also known as the conjoint tendon, and the transversalis fascia.

      Understanding the anatomy of the inguinal canal is important for medical professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions such as hernias and nerve entrapment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 17 - A 76-year-old man has been diagnosed with colon cancer and is a candidate...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man has been diagnosed with colon cancer and is a candidate for an extended left hemicolectomy. The tumour is located in the descending colon and the surgery will involve ligating the blood vessel that supplies it. What is the name of the artery that provides the primary blood supply to the descending colon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Abdomen: Supplying the Digestive System

      The digestive system is supplied by several arteries in the abdomen. The inferior mesenteric artery provides blood to the colon from the splenic flexure to the upper part of the rectum. On the other hand, the superior mesenteric artery branches into several arteries, including the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery, intestinal arteries, ileocolic artery, and right and middle colic arteries. It supplies up to the splenic flexure. The cystic artery, as its name suggests, supplies the gallbladder. Lastly, the ileocolic artery supplies the caecum, ileum, and appendix, while the middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon up to the splenic flexure. These arteries play a crucial role in ensuring the proper functioning of the digestive system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 18 - A 59-year-old librarian has been experiencing more frequent episodes of intermittent abdominal discomfort...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old librarian has been experiencing more frequent episodes of intermittent abdominal discomfort and bloating. She also reports having episodes of diarrhea with mucous in her stool, but no blood. The pain tends to worsen after meals and improve after having a bowel movement. Despite her symptoms, she has not experienced any weight loss and maintains a healthy appetite. She has undergone surgery for osteoarthritis in her hip, but has no other significant medical history.
      Upon investigation, the patient has been diagnosed with diverticular disease. What is the most likely complication this patient may develop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colovesical fistulae

      Explanation:

      Complications and Associations of Diverticular Disease

      Diverticular disease is a condition that can lead to various complications. One of the most common complications is the formation of fistulae, which are abnormal connections between different organs. The most frequent type of fistula associated with diverticular disease is the colovesical fistula, which connects the colon and the bladder. Other types of fistulae include colovaginal, colouterine, and coloenteric. Colocutaneous fistulae, which connect the colon and the skin, are less common.

      Diverticular disease does not increase the risk of developing colorectal carcinoma, a type of cancer that affects the bowel. However, it can cause other symptoms such as haemorrhoids, which are not directly related to the condition. Anal fissure, another medical condition that affects the anus, is not associated with diverticular disease either. Instead, it is linked to other conditions such as HIV, tuberculosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and syphilis.

      In summary, diverticular disease can lead to various complications and associations, but it is not a pre-malignant condition and does not directly cause haemorrhoids or anal fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 19 - A teenager makes an uneventful recovery post-appendicectomy, and three months later is back...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager makes an uneventful recovery post-appendicectomy, and three months later is back at school when he gets a sharp pain in the right inguinal region and notices a bulge just above his groin on the right. His GP diagnoses an inguinal hernia.
      Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged during the teenager's appendicectomy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      Nerve Damage during Appendicectomy: Understanding the Ilioinguinal, T10, Femoral, Genitofemoral, and Obturator Nerves

      During an appendicectomy, it is possible for nerves to be damaged if the surgeon performs overzealous sharp dissection of the musculature within the incision. One of the nerves that can be affected is the ilioinguinal nerve, which is a branch from the first lumbar nerve. This nerve passes between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles, supplying these muscles that form the roof of the inguinal canal in the groin region. Damage to the ilioinguinal nerve can lead to the development of an indirect inguinal hernia.

      It is important to note that the T10 nerve, which originates from below the thoracic vertebra 10, is too high to be damaged during an appendicectomy. The femoral nerve, which supplies the thigh and arises from the second, third, and fourth lumbar nerves, is also unlikely to be damaged during the procedure. The genitofemoral nerve and obturator nerve are also not typically affected during an appendicectomy.

      In summary, understanding the potential nerve damage that can occur during an appendicectomy is important for both patients and surgeons. By being aware of the nerves that are at risk, surgeons can take appropriate precautions to minimize the risk of complications and ensure the best possible outcome for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 20 - A junior resident performing his first appendectomy was unable to locate the base...

    Incorrect

    • A junior resident performing his first appendectomy was unable to locate the base of the appendix due to extensive adhesions in the peritoneal cavity. The senior physician recommended identifying the caecum first and then locating the base of the appendix.
      What anatomical feature(s) on the caecum would have been utilized to locate the base of the appendix?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teniae coli

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Large Intestine: Differentiating Taeniae Coli, Ileal Orifice, Omental Appendages, Haustra Coli, and Semilunar Folds

      The large intestine is a vital part of the digestive system, responsible for absorbing water and electrolytes from undigested food. It is composed of several distinct structures, each with its own unique function. Here, we will differentiate five of these structures: taeniae coli, ileal orifice, omental appendages, haustra coli, and semilunar folds.

      Taeniae Coli
      The taeniae coli are three bands of longitudinal muscle on the surface of the large intestine. They are responsible for the characteristic haustral folds of the large intestine and meet at the appendix.

      Ileal Orifice
      The ileal orifice is the opening where the ileum connects to the caecum. It is surrounded by the ileocaecal valve and is not useful in locating the appendix.

      Omental Appendages
      The omental appendages, also known as appendices epiploicae, are fatty appendages unique to the large intestine. They are found all over the large intestine and are not specifically associated with the appendix.

      Haustra Coli
      The haustra are multiple pouches in the wall of the large intestine, formed where the longitudinal muscle layer of the wall is deficient. They are not useful in locating the appendix.

      Semilunar Folds
      The semilunar folds are the folds found along the lining of the large intestine and are not specifically associated with the appendix.

      Understanding the anatomy of the large intestine and its various structures is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By differentiating these structures, healthcare professionals can better identify and address issues related to the large intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 21 - A 76-year-old woman who has recently seen her GP for a change in...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman who has recently seen her GP for a change in bowel habit towards constipation arrives in the Emergency Department with a tender, distended abdomen. She has also been suffering with a chest infection recently and has known chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4. Bowel sounds are absent. The rectum is empty on examination. Abdominal X-ray reveals distended loops of large bowel, consistent with large bowel obstruction.
      Which one of these investigations should be performed next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan with Gastrografin®

      Explanation:

      Imaging and Diagnostic Procedures for Bowel Obstruction in CKD Patients

      Computed tomography (CT) scan with Gastrografin® is a safe and effective diagnostic tool for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who present with bowel obstruction. This oral contrast medium provides crucial diagnostic information without posing a significant risk of renal injury. It is important to differentiate between large bowel obstruction and pseudo-obstruction, which can be achieved through imaging studies. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is not indicated in the absence of trauma. Gastroscopy is not necessary as the issue is bowel obstruction, and an ultrasound would not provide the level of detail needed. While magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can provide quality images, a CT scan is more readily available and can be organized faster.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old dentist visits the GP with a complaint of severe pain during...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old dentist visits the GP with a complaint of severe pain during bowel movements, accompanied by fresh red blood on the tissue and in the toilet pan. The patient also experiences anal pain that lasts for a few hours after defecation. He has been constipated for a few weeks, which he attributes to a recent change in diet. There have been no other symptoms such as abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, or weight loss, and there is no family history of gastrointestinal conditions. The doctor attempts a rectal examination but has to abandon it due to pain. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options

      Anal fissures are a common condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort when passing stool. This occurs when hard stool tears the anal mucosa, resulting in bleeding and pain during bowel movements. Patients may also experience continued pain hours after passing stool, leading to further constipation and exacerbation of symptoms.

      Diagnosis of anal fissures is based on a patient’s history, rectal examination, and visual inspection to confirm the fissure. Initial treatment includes prescribing stool softeners, encouraging fluid intake, and advising the use of sitz baths to help alleviate pain symptoms. Topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) creams may also be recommended to promote healing.

      Chronic or recurrent fissures may require surgical referral for management options, including local Botox injection and sphincterotomy. However, it is important to consider other conditions such as Crohn’s colitis, which may present with perianal symptoms like anal fissures.

      It is unlikely that this patient has colorectal malignancy, as they are young and have no family history of bowel disease. A perianal abscess would present with a painful swelling adjacent to the anus, while a thrombosed haemorrhoid would result in a tender dark blue swelling on rectal examination.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment options for anal fissures can help patients manage their condition and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man comes to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a 6-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a 6-month history of rectal bleeding, altered bowel habit and weight loss. Given his strong family history of colorectal cancer, the physician wants to investigate and rule out this diagnosis.

      What would be the most suitable investigation to perform in a patient with suspected colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tools for Colorectal Cancer

      Colorectal cancer is a prevalent malignancy in the western world, with symptoms varying depending on the location of the cancer within the intestinal tract. Colonoscopy is currently the preferred diagnostic tool for young, otherwise healthy patients. Management decisions are made after multidisciplinary team discussions, with surgical removal of the tumor being a common approach. Preoperative radiotherapy may be used to shrink tumors, and post-operative adjuvant chemotherapy can improve survival rates. Other diagnostic tools include endorectal ultrasound for staging rectal cancers, pelvic MRI for detailed staging and operative planning, and CT colonography as a sensitive diagnostic test when colonoscopy is high risk or incomplete. However, CT colonography cannot take biopsies or remove polyps. While raised CEA levels may indicate colorectal cancer, they can also be elevated for other reasons, and normal levels do not rule out the possibility of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 24 - A 78-year-old man comes to the General Practice after noticing blood in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to the General Practice after noticing blood in the toilet bowl following a bowel movement. He reports no other symptoms. During a digital rectal examination, you observe fresh blood in the rectum and feel a regular, circular mass in the midline through the anterior rectal wall.
      What is the probable object being detected in the anterior rectum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Pelvic Region: Palpable Structures on Digital Rectal Examination

      During a digital rectal examination, several structures in the pelvic region can be palpated. The following are some of the structures that can be identified and their characteristics:

      Prostate: The prostate is a regular, round mass located in the midline that can be felt through the anterior rectal tissue. It is unlikely to be the cause of blood per rectum, as prostate cancer invading rectal tissue is rare.

      Rectal Tumour: An irregular and firm mass felt on digital rectal examination is more likely to be a rectal tumour, which is an important cause of bleeding per rectum. However, the description and location of the mass make it much more likely to be the prostate.

      Urinary Bladder: The urinary bladder is located superior to the prostate and is usually beyond the reach of a digital rectal examination.

      Sigmoid Colon: The sigmoid colon, which is the length of bowel found proximal to the rectum, cannot be palpated on digital rectal examination.

      Pubic Symphysis: The pubic symphysis, located anterior to the bladder and prostate, is not palpable via the rectum.

      Understanding the palpable structures on digital rectal examination is important for diagnosing and treating conditions in the pelvic region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old man presents with severe left lower abdominal pain, his third attack...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with severe left lower abdominal pain, his third attack in the past 2 years. He admits to intermittent dark red blood loss per rectum (PR) and diarrhoea. He generally has a poor diet and dislikes fruit and vegetables. On examination, he has a temperature of 38.2 °C and a tachycardia of 95 bpm, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg; his body mass index is 32. There is well-localised left iliac fossa tenderness.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14.5 × 109/l (N 11.0) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 280 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 10.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 145 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 64 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Diverticulitis from Other Colonic Conditions in Older Adults

      Diverticulitis is a common condition in older adults, characterized by recurrent attacks of lower abdominal pain, fever, and tenderness in the left lower quadrant. It is associated with increasing age and a diet poor in soluble fiber. Left-sided involvement is more common due to increased intraluminal pressures. Management is usually conservative with antibiotics, but surgery may be necessary in 15-25% of cases. Complications include bowel obstruction, perforation, fistula formation, and abscess formation.

      Colonic cancer, on the other hand, presents with insidious symptoms such as loss of appetite, weight loss, and rectal bleeding, especially if left-sided. Late presentations may cause bowel obstruction or disseminated disease. Inflammatory bowel disease is less common in older adults and would present differently. Irritable bowel syndrome does not cause periodic fevers and has a different pattern of pain. Gastroenteritis is usually viral and self-limiting, unlike diverticulitis. It is important to differentiate these conditions to provide appropriate management and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 26 - A 78-year-old man presents with weight loss and blood in his stool. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents with weight loss and blood in his stool. During rectal examination, a suspicious lesion is found below the pectinate line, raising concern for malignancy. You proceed to palpate for lymphadenopathy.
      Where might you anticipate discovering enlarged lymph nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inguinal

      Explanation:

      Lymph Node Drainage in the Pelvic Region

      The lymphatic drainage in the pelvic region is an important aspect of the body’s immune system. Understanding the different lymph nodes and their drainage patterns can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions.

      Inguinal lymph nodes are responsible for draining the anal canal below the pectinate line. These nodes then drain into the lateral pelvic nodes. The external iliac nodes are responsible for draining the upper thigh, glans, clitoris, cervix, and upper bladder. On the other hand, the internal iliac nodes drain the rectum and the anal canal above the pectinate line.

      The superior mesenteric nodes are responsible for draining parts of the upper gastrointestinal tract, specifically the duodenum and jejunum. Lastly, the inferior mesenteric nodes drain the sigmoid, upper rectum, and descending colon.

      In conclusion, understanding the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 27 - A 71-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of rectal bleeding. The blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of rectal bleeding. The blood is not mixed in with the stool and is noticed on the paper after defecation. She has been becoming more constipated over the last 6 months; however, she reports no weight loss or change in dietary habits. There is a past medical history of haemorrhoids 10 years ago, which were treated with creams. On examination, she appears well. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, without organomegaly. Rectal examination reveals two third-degree haemorrhoids. She is anxious because her father died 15 years ago from colorectal cancer.
      What is the gold standard investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Colorectal Cancer Investigations: Colonoscopy, CT Colonography, Barium Enema, Flexible Sigmoidoscopy, and Proctoscopy

      When a patient has a first-degree relative with colorectal carcinoma or reports persistent and progressive changes in bowel habits, investigations are necessary to detect any malignancy. While haemorrhoids may be the cause of bleeding, the presence of a coexisting lesion cannot be excluded without further investigation.

      Colonoscopy is the gold standard investigation for suspected colorectal cancer, allowing for examination of the large bowel and removal of suspicious lesions. CT colonography is a second-line alternative for patients unable to undergo a full colonoscopy, while a barium enema may be considered for those unable to complete colonoscopy.

      Flexible sigmoidoscopy views the rectum, sigmoid colon, and distal descending colon, but does not provide information about the more proximal colon. Proctoscopy allows views of the rectum but does not provide information about lesions found further along the bowel.

      In summary, early detection of colorectal cancer is crucial, and these investigations play a vital role in identifying and treating the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of painless rectal bleeding that...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of painless rectal bleeding that has been occurring for the past 5 days. The patient reports experiencing bright red bleeding during bowel movements, which appears as streaks on the toilet paper and in the toilet bowl. The blood is not mixed in with the stool. This has been happening every time he has a bowel movement since the symptoms began. He does not feel any pain during these episodes, but he does experience some itching and irritation around the anal area afterwards. He is otherwise healthy, without changes in bowel habits or weight loss.
      During a rectal examination, the doctor observes a fleshy protrusion at the 7 o'clock position that appears when the patient strains but recedes into the anus when he stops straining.
      Which of the following management options would be appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Injection sclerotherapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemorrhoids and Treatment Options

      Haemorrhoids, also known as piles, are swollen vascular mucosal cushions within the anal canal that can cause discomfort and pain. They are more common with advancing age and can be associated with pregnancy, constipation, increased intra-abdominal pressure, low-fibre diet, and obesity. Haemorrhoids can be classified by the degree of prolapse through the anus, with grade 1 being the mildest and grade 4 being the most severe.

      Patients with haemorrhoids may present with painless rectal bleeding, anal itching and irritation, rectal fullness or discomfort, and soiling. Pain is not a significant feature unless the haemorrhoid becomes strangulated or thrombosed. It is important to exclude ‘red flag’ symptoms such as change in bowel habit, weight loss, iron deficiency anaemia, or unexplained abdominal pain, especially in patients over 40.

      Conservative treatment options for haemorrhoids include lifestyle changes such as increasing fluid and fibre intake, managing constipation, anal hygiene advice, and simple analgesia. If conservative treatment fails, secondary care treatment options include rubber band ligation, injection sclerotherapy, photocoagulation, diathermy, haemorrhoidectomy, and haemorrhoid artery ligation. Referral to specialists or admission may be necessary for acutely thrombosed haemorrhoids or perianal haematoma, associated perianal sepsis, large grade 3 or 4 haemorrhoids, and persistent or worsening symptoms despite conservative management.

      Other treatment options such as mebendazole, topical lidocaine ointment, incision and drainage, and sphincterotomy are not indicated for haemorrhoids. Mebendazole is used to treat threadworms, while topical lidocaine ointment is useful for anal fissures. Incision and drainage are indicated for perianal abscesses, and sphincterotomy is used to manage chronic or recurrent anal fissures.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for haemorrhoids is essential for effective management and improved quality of life for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fever and a painful lump near his anus. Upon examination, a 4 cm peri-anal swelling is observed, accompanied by surrounding erythema. The swelling is very tender and fluctuant.
      What is the most effective treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incision and drainage

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Incision and Drainage for Abscess Treatment

      When it comes to treating an abscess, the most appropriate course of action is always incision and drainage of the pus. This procedure can typically be done with local anesthesia and involves sending a sample of the pus to the lab for cultures and sensitivities. While severe abscesses may require additional medication like flucloxacillin after the incision and drainage, a biopsy is not necessary in most cases. It’s important to note that simply taking pain medication and waiting for the abscess to resolve is unlikely to be effective. Instead, seeking prompt medical attention for incision and drainage is crucial for successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 30 - What is the correct statement regarding the greater omentum when asked to identify...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding the greater omentum when asked to identify it during an open repair of a perforated gastric ulcer by the operating surgeon, as observed by a medical student?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It provides a route of access to the lesser sac

      Explanation:

      The Greater Omentum: An Integral Structure with Surgical Importance

      The greater omentum, also known as the gastrocolic omentum, is a double sheet of peritoneum that hangs down like an apron overlying loops of intestine. It is made up of four layers, two of which descend from the greater curvature of the stomach and are continuous with the peritoneum on the anterior and posterior surfaces of the stomach. The other two layers run between the anterior layers and the transverse colon, loosely blending with the peritoneum on the anterior and posterior surfaces of the colon and the transverse mesocolon above it.

      Contrary to the belief that it has no surgical importance, the greater omentum is of paramount surgical importance. Surgeons use it to buttress an intestinal anastomosis or in the closure of a perforated gastric or duodenal ulcer. It also attempts to limit the spread of intraperitoneal infections, earning it the nickname great policeman of the abdomen. The greater omentum is supplied by the right and left gastric arteries, and its blood supply may be cut off if it undergoes torsion.

      Furthermore, the greater omentum is often found plugging the neck of a hernial sac, preventing the entry of coils of the small intestine and strangulation of the bowel. In an acutely inflamed appendix, the omentum adheres to the appendix and wraps itself around the infected organ, localizing the infection to a small area of the peritoneal cavity. However, in the first two years of life, the greater omentum is poorly developed and less protective in young children.

      In conclusion, the greater omentum is an integral structure with significant surgical importance, providing access to the lesser sac and attempting to limit the spread of intraperitoneal infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 31 - A 55-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense abdominal pain. She is currently receiving peritoneal dialysis, and the physician suspects that she may be suffering from peritonitis.
      What is the most indicative sign or symptom of peritonitis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Peritonitis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Peritonitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the serosa that lines the abdominal cavity and viscera. It is commonly caused by the introduction of an infective organism, perforation of an abdominal organ, trauma, or collection formation. Patients may also present with sterile peritonitis due to irritants such as bile or blood. Risk factors include existing ascites, liver disease, or peritoneal dialysis.

      Symptoms of peritonitis include abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, with reduced or absent bowel sounds. Movement and coughing can worsen pain symptoms. Patients may have a fever and become tachycardic as the condition progresses due to intracapsular hypovolemia, release of inflammatory mediators, and third space losses. As the condition worsens, patients may become hypotensive, indicating signs of sepsis.

      Treatment for peritonitis involves rapid identification and treatment of the source, aggressive fluid resuscitation, and targeted antibiotic therapy.

      It is important to note that hyperactive tinkling bowel sounds are suggestive of obstruction, whereas patients with peritonitis typically present with a rigid abdomen and increased abdominal guarding. Pain tends to worsen with movement, as opposed to conditions such as renal colic where the patient may writhe around in pain.

      In severe cases, patients with peritonitis may become hypothermic, but this is not a common presentation. Understanding the symptoms and treatment of peritonitis is crucial for prompt and effective management of this serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 32 - A 21-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with intermittent watery diarrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with intermittent watery diarrhoea and lower colicky abdominal pain. He has experienced these symptoms for two years and during this time has lost over a stone in weight. Recently he has noticed a strange red rash on his shins. Past medical history includes a diagnosis of a fissure-in-ano three years ago.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Crohn’s Disease: Clinical Picture and Differential Diagnosis

      The clinical presentation of a patient with weight loss and a red rash on the shins suggests a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease. This condition typically affects individuals between the ages of 15-30 and is characterized by symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss.

      A history of fissure-in-ano further supports the possibility of Crohn’s disease, as this condition is commonly associated with perianal disease. To confirm the diagnosis, a full blood count and colonoscopy with biopsy are necessary. Crohn’s disease is transmural and can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, leading to the formation of skip lesions between inflamed and unaffected bowel.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include infective colitis, ulcerative colitis, irritable bowel syndrome, and appendicitis. However, infective colitis typically has a shorter duration of symptoms, while ulcerative colitis presents with bloody diarrhea and mucous discharge. Irritable bowel syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion, and a 2-year history effectively rules out appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 33 - A 28-year-old gardener who is typically healthy and in good shape visits his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old gardener who is typically healthy and in good shape visits his doctor complaining of worsening abdominal pain that has been present for two days. He also reports feeling nauseous and experiencing loose bowel movements. During the examination, the patient's temperature is found to be 37.9 °C, and he has a heart rate of 90 bpm and a blood pressure of 118/75 mmHg. The doctor notes that the patient's abdomen is tender to the touch and that he has a positive Rovsing sign. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Appendicitis

      Explanation:

      Physical Signs and Symptoms of Abdominal Conditions

      Abdominal conditions can present with a variety of physical signs and symptoms that can aid in their diagnosis. Here are some common signs and symptoms associated with different abdominal conditions:

      Appendicitis: A positive Rovsing sign, psoas sign, and obturator sign are less commonly found symptoms of appendicitis. More common signs include rebound tenderness, guarding, and rigidity.

      Splenic rupture: A positive Kehr’s sign, which is acute shoulder tip pain due to irritation of the peritoneum by blood, is associated with a diagnosis of splenic rupture.

      Pyelonephritis: Positive costovertebral angle tenderness, also known as the Murphy’s punch sign, may indicate pyelonephritis.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm: A large abdominal aortic aneurysm may present with a pulsatile abdominal mass on palpation of the abdomen. However, the Rovsing sign is associated with appendicitis, not an abdominal aneurysm.

      Pancreatitis: A positive Grey Turner’s sign, which is bruising/discoloration to the flanks, is most commonly associated with severe acute pancreatitis. Other physical findings include fever, abdominal tenderness, guarding, Cullen’s sign, jaundice, and hypotension.

      Knowing these physical signs and symptoms can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of abdominal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 34 - A 55-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting rectal bleeding and a significant family...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting rectal bleeding and a significant family history of colon cancer. The doctor refers him to a colorectal surgeon who orders a colonoscopy. The results show a cancerous tumor in the sigmoid colon after a biopsy and pathological analysis. What is the colon's venous drainage, and where is colonic cancer likely to spread?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sigmoid veins to the inferior mesenteric veins

      Explanation:

      Venous Drainage of the Intestines

      The intestines are drained by a complex network of veins that ultimately lead to the hepatic portal vein. The sigmoid veins drain into the inferior mesenteric veins, while the superior rectal veins drain into the same. The left colic vein drains into the inferior mesenteric vein, while the middle colic vein drains into the superior mesenteric vein. Finally, the jejunal and ileal veins drain into the middle colic vein. This intricate system of venous drainage is essential for the proper functioning of the digestive system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 35 - A 65 year old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and distension. He reports not having a bowel movement in 4 days and is now experiencing vomiting. An abdominal X-ray reveals enlarged loops of the large intestine. The patient has no history of surgery and a physical examination shows a soft, tender abdomen without palpable masses. A rectal exam reveals an empty rectum. What is the probable cause of the obstruction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sigmoid carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Causes of Large Bowel Obstruction: Differential Diagnosis

      Large bowel obstruction can be caused by various conditions, and a proper diagnosis is crucial for appropriate management. The following are some possible causes of large bowel obstruction and their distinguishing features:

      1. Sigmoid Carcinoma: Colorectal cancer is a common cause of large bowel obstruction, with the sigmoid colon being the most commonly affected site. Patients may present with abdominal pain, distension, and constipation. Treatment usually involves emergency surgery.

      2. Sigmoid Volvulus: This occurs when the sigmoid colon twists on itself, leading to obstruction. The classic coffee bean sign may be seen on abdominal X-ray. Treatment involves endoscopic or surgical decompression.

      3. Incarcerated Inguinal Hernia: This occurs when a portion of the intestine protrudes through the inguinal canal and becomes trapped. Patients may present with a palpable mass in the groin, which is not described in the case history above. Treatment involves surgical repair.

      4. Adhesions: Adhesions are bands of scar tissue that can form after abdominal surgery. They can cause bowel obstruction by kinking or compressing the intestine. Adhesions usually affect the small bowel, but they can also involve the large bowel. Treatment involves surgery.

      5. Constipation: Chronic constipation can cause pseudo-obstruction, which mimics mechanical obstruction. However, the finding of an empty rectum on digital rectal examination makes constipation unlikely as the sole cause of large bowel obstruction.

      In conclusion, large bowel obstruction can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying condition and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 36 - A 21-year-old, asymptomatic man presents to you with a family history of colorectal...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old, asymptomatic man presents to you with a family history of colorectal cancer. His father passed away from the disease at the age of 35, and the patient is worried about his own risk. He has no knowledge of any other cancer in his family.
      What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Importance of Colonoscopy in Patients with Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

      Explanation:
      It is crucial to consider familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) in patients with a family history of colorectal cancer at a young age. FAP is an autosomal dominant condition associated with a mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene, leading to the development of numerous polyps in the colon. If left untreated, patients with FAP develop colorectal cancer by the age of 35-40.

      In this scenario, the patient’s father likely had FAP, and the patient has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutation and developing the disease. Therefore, regardless of the patient’s symptoms or blood results, a colonoscopy is necessary to review the colon and identify any polyps. Treatment for FAP involves a total colectomy at around the age of 20.

      Reassurance would be inappropriate in this scenario, and a digital rectal examination alone is not sufficient. It is essential to arrange a colonoscopy for patients with a family history of FAP to detect and treat the condition early. Additionally, it is recommended to review the patient with a view to colonoscopy at the age of 30 to monitor for any polyp development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 37 - A 45-year-old woman who is 21 weeks pregnant presents with abdominal pain associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman who is 21 weeks pregnant presents with abdominal pain associated with a loss of appetite and nausea. On examination, the patient is apyrexial, with a blood pressure of 122/80 mmHg and a heart rate of 92 bpm. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness at McBurney’s point. Urine dip reveals a trace of glucose.
      What would be the most appropriate investigation to diagnose the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound abdomen

      Explanation:

      Imaging and Blood Tests for Suspected Appendicitis in Pregnancy

      Appendicitis is a common surgical problem during pregnancy, often presenting with non-specific symptoms and a positive McBurney’s sign. Pregnant women may not exhibit the classic low-grade fever and may experience loss of appetite and nausea. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the preferred imaging study for suspected appendicitis, with MRI used when ultrasound is inconclusive. Blood tests, including FBC, urea and electrolytes, and LFTs, may show a raised white cell count but are not definitive for diagnosis. CT scan is a last resort and not preferred in pregnancy. Ultrasound KUB is useful for renal causes of abdominal pain but not for diagnosing appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 38 - A 65-year-old male patient is admitted with severe abdominal pain and is diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male patient is admitted with severe abdominal pain and is diagnosed with mesenteric vascular occlusion. The small bowel becomes gangrenous and requires resection. What is a potential complication of this surgical procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrolithiasis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Short Bowel Syndrome

      Short bowel syndrome refers to clinical problems that arise from the removal of varying lengths of the small bowel. One common complication is nephrolithiasis, which is caused by enteric hyperoxaluria resulting from increased absorption of oxalate in the large intestine. Bile acids and fatty acids increase colonic mucosal permeability, leading to increased oxalate absorption. Steatorrhoea is also common due to fat malabsorption in the small bowel. Weight loss, not weight gain, is a complication of this syndrome. Diarrhoea is a severe complication, especially after ileal resection, which results in malabsorption of bile acid and stimulates fluid secretion in the intestinal lumen. Nutritional deficiencies of vitamins A, D, E, K, folate, and B12 are also seen. Gastric hypersecretion is common, but achlorhydria is not a complication of small bowel resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 39 - A 45-year-old man is admitted to the Surgical Unit with colicky central abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is admitted to the Surgical Unit with colicky central abdominal pain. He has been vomiting for 6 hours and has not passed any stools for over 24 hours. On examination, he is in obvious discomfort; his abdomen is distended, and his pulse is 90 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute and blood pressure 90/55 mmHg. A supine radiograph film confirms small bowel obstruction.
      What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction in the United Kingdom (UK)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adhesions

      Explanation:

      Causes and Management of Small Bowel Obstruction

      Small bowel obstruction is a common surgical condition that can be caused by various factors. The most common cause in the UK is adhesions, accounting for 50-70% of cases. Other causes include volvulus, hernia, malignancy, and foreign bodies. The obstruction can be classified based on its location, whether it is intraluminal, intramural, or extramural.

      The typical presentation of small bowel obstruction includes pain, vomiting, and failure to pass stool or gas. Abdominal distension and tinkling bowel sounds may also be observed, along with tachycardia and hypotension. Diagnosis is made through plain abdominal X-ray, which may show distended bowel loops in the center.

      Management of small bowel obstruction involves fluid resuscitation and prompt correction of the underlying cause. Conservative treatment, such as intravenous fluids and regular aspiration through a nasogastric tube, may be used initially. However, operative intervention is necessary for suspected strangulation, irreducible hernias, and cases that do not resolve with conservative management.

      In summary, small bowel obstruction can have various causes and presentations, but early diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial for successful outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 40 - A 72-year-old man is undergoing open surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is undergoing open surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia. In theatre, the hernial sac is noted to lie medial to the inferior epigastric artery.
      To weakness of which of the following structures can the hernia best be attributed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Explanation:

      Types of Abdominal Hernias and Their Characteristics

      Abdominal hernias occur when an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak point in the abdominal wall. There are different types of abdominal hernias, each with its own characteristics and symptoms.

      Direct Inguinal Hernia

      A direct inguinal hernia occurs medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac is pushed directly through a weak point in the conjoint tendon, which is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles. This type of hernia is more common in men and worsens with exercise, coughing, or straining.

      Aponeurosis of External Oblique

      In a direct inguinal hernia, the bowel sac does not push through the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle.

      Muscular Fibres of Internal Oblique

      A ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the anterior abdominal muscles, such as the internal oblique. It can be incisional or occur at any site of muscle weakening. Epigastric hernias occur above the umbilicus, and hypogastric hernias occur below the umbilicus.

      Muscular Fibres of Transversus Abdominis

      Another type of ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the transversus abdominis. It becomes more prominent when the patient is sitting, leaning forward, or straining. Ventral hernias can be congenital, post-operative, or spontaneous.

      Superficial Inguinal Ring

      An indirect inguinal hernia is the most common type of abdominal hernia. It occurs in men and children and arises lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac protrudes through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal and then through the superficial inguinal ring, extending into the scrotum. It may be asymptomatic but can also undergo incarceration or strangulation or lead to bowel obstruction.

      Understanding the Different Types of Abdominal Hernias

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 41 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fresh blood per rectum....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fresh blood per rectum. He had previously received treatment for haemorrhoids, including dietary advice, rectal analgesics, and haemorrhoid banding, but his symptoms have persisted. What is the next step in managing this man before conducting an examination under anaesthesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexible sigmoidoscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Procedures for Haemorrhoidal Disease

      Haemorrhoidal disease is a common condition that can be managed with dietary changes, analgesia, and anti-inflammatory agents. However, if symptoms persist, outpatient interventions such as banding or injection may be necessary. In some cases, further investigation is required to rule out colorectal cancer.

      Flexible sigmoidoscopy is a useful tool for young patients with low risk of cancer, while older patients or those with a family history of colorectal cancer may require a full colonoscopy. If sigmoidoscopy is normal, an examination under anaesthesia can be performed to diagnose and treat any haemorrhoids, fissures, fistulas, or abscesses.

      A barium follow-through is not necessary in the absence of suspicion of malignancy. Similarly, a CT scan or MRI of the abdomen and pelvis is not the best choice for direct visualisation of the bowel mucosa.

      In summary, a range of diagnostic procedures are available for haemorrhoidal disease, depending on the patient’s age, risk factors, and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 42 - You are called to see an 80-year-old man who was admitted for an...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see an 80-year-old man who was admitted for an anterior resection for sigmoid cancer. His operation was uncomplicated, and he is now three days post operation. He has hypercholesterolaemia and hypertension, but was otherwise fit before diagnosis. You find that the man is in atrial fibrillation. Nursing staff report that he is increasingly confused and appears to be in pain despite postoperative pain relief. They also report decreased urine output and tachycardia when they last took observations.
      What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anastomotic leak

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Signs of Sepsis Post-Abdominal Surgery

      When a patient presents with signs of sepsis post-abdominal surgery, it is important to consider the possible causes. While anastomotic leak is a common complication, hospital-acquired pneumonia, consequences of surgery, pulmonary embolus, and pre-existing cardiac conditions can also be potential factors. However, it is crucial to note that each condition presents with distinct symptoms and signs. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and investigation are necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 43 - A 56-year-old man comes in with a fistula in ano. During the anal...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes in with a fistula in ano. During the anal examination, the Consultant mentions that he is searching for the location of the fistula in relation to a specific anatomical landmark.
      What is the landmark he is referring to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pectinate line

      Explanation:

      Anatomy Landmarks in Relation to Fistulae

      Fistulae are abnormal connections between two organs or tissues that are not normally connected. In the case of anal fistulae, there are several important anatomical landmarks to consider. One of these is the pectinate line, also known as the dentate line, which marks the junction between the columnar epithelium and the stratified squamous epithelium in the rectum and anus. Fistulae that do not cross the sphincter above the pectinate line can be treated by laying the wound open, while those that do require treatment with a seton.

      The anal margin, on the other hand, is not a landmark in relation to fistulae. The ischial spines, which are palpated to assess descent of the baby’s head during labor, are also not directly related to fistulae.

      Another important landmark in relation to anal fistulae is the internal anal sphincter, which is an involuntary sphincter that is always in a state of contraction. This muscle is necessary for fecal continence. Finally, the puborectalis muscle, which is part of the levator ani muscle group that makes up the pelvic floor muscles, is also relevant to anal fistulae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 44 - A 55-year-old man with gradually worsening anaemia was discovered to have positive faecal...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with gradually worsening anaemia was discovered to have positive faecal occult blood. Upon further questioning, he disclosed that his bowel movements have altered in the past few months. During physical examination, he appeared pale and breathless, but otherwise his examination was normal. Laboratory tests indicated that he had anaemia caused by a lack of iron.
      What would be the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis in this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations for Iron Deficiency Anaemia in a Man

      Iron deficiency anaemia in a man is often caused by chronic blood loss from the gastrointestinal tract. In this case, the patient’s altered bowel habits and lack of other symptoms suggest a colonic pathology, most likely a cancer. Therefore, a colonoscopy is the best investigation to identify the source of the bleeding.

      A barium swallow is not appropriate in this case as it only examines the upper gastrointestinal tract. Abdominal angiography is an invasive and expensive test that is typically reserved for patients with massive blood loss or mesenteric ischaemia. While abdominal radiographs are useful, a colonoscopy is a more appropriate investigation in this case.

      Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is unlikely to reveal the cause of the patient’s symptoms as it primarily examines the upper gastrointestinal tract. However, it may be useful in cases of upper gastrointestinal bleeds causing melaena.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 45 - A 60-year-old man with altered bowel habit undergoes surgery for a colorectal carcinoma....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with altered bowel habit undergoes surgery for a colorectal carcinoma. A pathologist’s report indicates it is a Dukes’ C colorectal malignancy.
      Which of the following most accurately describes Dukes’ C tumours?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tumour extending to the muscle layer with lymph node involvement

      Explanation:

      The Dukes’ Classification: A Simple Way to Classify Colorectal Carcinomas

      The Dukes’ classification is a useful tool for classifying colorectal carcinomas and predicting prognosis. It is based on whether the tumour has breached the muscularis propria of the bowel wall and whether the disease has spread to the regional lymph nodes or more distally.

      Tumours that extend through the bowel wall, without nodal involvement, are classified as Dukes’ B. Tumours extending through the bowel wall with lymph node involvement are classified as Dukes’ C tumours, which are further subclassified into C1 and C2 depending on whether the involved lymph nodes are local or distal, respectively.

      Tumour confined to the mucosa is classified as a Dukes’ A tumour, while carcinoma of the colon associated with distant metastases are classified as Dukes’ D tumours. These are associated with poor survival rates.

      The Dukes’ classification provides a simple way to classify colorectal carcinomas and gives useful information regarding prognosis. The survival rates for each stage are as follows: A (97% 5-year survival), B (80% 5-year survival), C1 (65% 5-year survival), C2 (35% 5-year survival), and D (<5% 5-year survival).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 46 - A 70-year-old man has been recommended for colonoscopy due to ongoing rectal bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has been recommended for colonoscopy due to ongoing rectal bleeding and unexplained weight loss over the past 3 months. During a direct rectal examination, his GP detected a mass in the anal sphincter area. Unfortunately, further testing confirmed the presence of a mass in the distal part of his rectum. What would be the most suitable surgical procedure for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominoperineal resection

      Explanation:

      Surgical Options for Rectal Tumours

      When a patient presents with a rectal tumour, there are several surgical options available depending on the location of the tumour. In the case of a tumour in the lower third of the rectum, near the anal margin, an abdominoperineal (AP) resection is the appropriate treatment. This involves the removal of the anus, rectum, and part of the descending colon, resulting in a permanent end-colostomy.

      An anterior resection, on the other hand, is the removal of the rectum and can be either high or low depending on the tumour’s position. However, this procedure does not involve the removal of the anus and would not be suitable for a tumour near the anal margin.

      In some cases, a Hartmann’s procedure may be performed as an emergency surgery, involving the removal of the sigmoid colon and upper rectum, and the formation of an end-colostomy. This procedure may be reversed at a later date with an anastomosis formed between the remaining bowel and lower rectum.

      Finally, a right or left hemicolectomy may be performed, involving the removal of the right or left hemicolon, respectively. However, these procedures are not appropriate for rectal tumours near the anal margin.

      In conclusion, the appropriate surgical option for a rectal tumour depends on the tumour’s location and the patient’s individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 47 - A 17-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a lump in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a lump in his groin that he noticed while lifting weights. Upon examination, a soft palpable mass is found in the scrotum that can be reduced with gentle massage. What structure is most likely ascending along the deep inguinal ring through which this mass has passed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery and vein

      Explanation:

      Anatomy Landmarks in Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are a common condition that occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the inguinal canal. Understanding the anatomy landmarks involved in inguinal hernias is crucial for diagnosis and treatment. Here are some important landmarks to consider:

      1. Inferior epigastric artery and vein: These vessels lie immediately medial to the deep inguinal ring and are important landmarks when performing laparoscopic indirect inguinal hernia repair.

      2. Rectus abdominis muscle: This muscle forms the medial border of a spigelian hernia and also a direct inguinal hernia.

      3. Inguinal ligament: This represents the inferior limit of the deep inguinal ring.

      4. Femoral artery and vein: These vessels lie inferior to the inguinal ligament which forms the inferior boundary on the deep inguinal ring.

      5. Superficial inguinal ring: This lies medial to the deep inguinal ring but is not considered to form its medial border. Indirect hernias then travel through the inguinal canal after passing through the deep inguinal ring.

      In conclusion, understanding the anatomy landmarks involved in inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 48 - A 55-year-old woman is incidentally found to have an adenomatous polyp measuring 12...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is incidentally found to have an adenomatous polyp measuring 12 mm, following a colonoscopy for a 3-month history of change in bowel habit. No other bowel pathology is found. The polyp is removed completely during the procedure.
      When will this patient be offered a further colonoscopy for surveillance of the bowel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At three years

      Explanation:

      Colorectal Adenomas: Risk Classification and Surveillance Recommendations

      Patients diagnosed with colorectal adenomas are assessed for their risk of developing colorectal cancer and are managed accordingly. The risk classification is based on the number and size of adenomas found at colonoscopy.

      Low-risk patients, with one or two adenomas smaller than 10mm, should have a colonoscopy at five years. Intermediate-risk patients, with three or four adenomas smaller than 10mm or one or two adenomas with one larger than 10mm, should have a colonoscopy at three years. High-risk patients, with five or more adenomas smaller than 10mm or three or more adenomas with one larger than 10mm, should have a colonoscopy at one year.

      If a patient is found to have one adenomatous polyp of the bowel measuring >10mm, they are defined as having an intermediate risk for developing colorectal cancer and will require a repeat test at three years. A repeat test at one year is reserved for patients at high risk for developing cancer.

      Patients with an intermediate risk for developing colorectal cancer, like the patient in this scenario, will require a retest at three years, not two. Patients with a low risk for developing colorectal cancer, with one or two adenomas smaller than 10mm, should have a colonoscopy at five years.

      It is important to note that any patient who is found to have an adenoma at colonoscopy will be offered repeat surveillance, regardless of whether the initial polyp was completely removed. The time for the next colonoscopy will depend on the number and size of adenomas found at the initial colonoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 49 - A woman was brought to the Emergency Department after being stabbed in the...

    Incorrect

    • A woman was brought to the Emergency Department after being stabbed in the abdomen, one inch (2.54 cm) superior to the umbilicus in the midline.
      Assuming the knife entered the peritoneal cavity, which one of the following abdominal wall structures would the knife penetrate first?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aponeurosis of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles

      Explanation:

      Layers of the Anterior Abdominal Wall

      The anterior abdominal wall is composed of several layers that provide support and protection to the abdominal organs. Understanding the layers of the abdominal wall is important for surgical procedures and diagnostic imaging.

      Skin and Superficial Fascia
      The outermost layer of the abdominal wall is the skin, followed by the superficial fascia. The superficial fascia contains adipose tissue and is important for insulation and energy storage.

      Anterior Rectus Sheath
      The anterior rectus sheath is formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles. It covers the rectus muscle and provides additional support to the abdominal wall.

      Rectus Muscle
      The rectus muscle is located deep to the anterior rectus sheath and is responsible for flexing the trunk. It is an important muscle for maintaining posture and stability.

      Posterior Rectus Sheath
      The posterior rectus sheath is formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses of the internal oblique and transversus muscles. It provides additional support to the rectus muscle and helps to maintain the integrity of the abdominal wall.

      Transversalis Fascia
      The transversalis fascia is a thin layer of connective tissue that lies deep to the posterior rectus sheath. It separates the abdominal wall from the peritoneum and provides additional support to the abdominal organs.

      Extraperitoneal Fat and Peritoneum
      The extraperitoneal fat is a layer of adipose tissue that lies deep to the transversalis fascia. It provides insulation and energy storage. The peritoneum is a thin layer of tissue that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the abdominal organs.

      Conclusion
      Understanding the layers of the anterior abdominal wall is important for surgical procedures and diagnostic imaging. Each layer provides important support and protection to the abdominal organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 50 - A 21-year-old student presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of passing bright...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of passing bright red blood during bowel movements. The patient experiences severe pain each time they open their bowels, which has been ongoing for the past two weeks. The patient is now very anxious and avoids opening their bowels whenever possible, but this seems to worsen the pain symptoms. Rectal examination is not possible due to the patient's inability to tolerate the procedure because of pain.
      What is the recommended treatment for the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitroglycerin ointment

      Explanation:

      Anal Fissure: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      An anal fissure is a common condition that can occur at any age, but is most common in individuals aged 15-40. It can be primary, without underlying cause, or secondary, associated with conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease or constipation. Symptoms include severe anal pain during and after bowel movements, bleeding, and itching.

      Treatment options include managing pain with simple analgesia and topical anesthetics, regular sitz baths, increasing dietary fiber and fluid intake, and stool softeners. Topical glyceryl trinitrate ointment may also be used to promote relaxation of the anal sphincter and aid healing. If the fissure remains unhealed after 6-8 weeks, surgical management options such as local Botox injection or sphincterotomy may be considered.

      Antibiotic therapy does not have a role in the management of anal fissures, and band ligation is a secondary care option for the treatment of hemorrhoids, not anal fissures. Incision and drainage would only be indicated if the patient presented with a perianal abscess. Simple analgesia can be offered to manage pain symptoms, but opioid-containing preparations should be avoided to prevent further constipation and worsening of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 51 - A 68-year-old man presents to the General Surgical Outpatient Clinic with a 4-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the General Surgical Outpatient Clinic with a 4-week history of altered bowel habit. There is no history of rectal bleeding, although faecal occult blood testing is positive. He denies any other symptoms from the abdominal point of view, and his general examination is otherwise unremarkable.
      You discuss this case with the patient and agree that the next best step would be to undergo a colonoscopy and some blood tests. The results are shown below:
      Bloods:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 112g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 205 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Urea 4.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 71 mmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 135 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Endoscopy Report:
      The endoscope was passed to the caecum without complication. The caecum was identified with confidence as the ileocaecal valve and appendicular orifice were seen and also confirmed with transillumination. There are multiple diverticulae seen in the sigmoid colon. A large ulcerated and haemorrhagic lesion resembling a tumour was found at the splenic flexure. Multiple biopsies were taken and sent for histology. Small polyp found in ascending colon, snared without complication.
      Follow-up with histology results in General Surgery Clinic in one week. Histology to be discussed at the next gastrointestinal multidisciplinary meeting.
      The histology results come back as adenocarcinoma of the colon involving the splenic flexure. Further staging reveals no initial metastatic disease.
      Which of the following is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proceed to left hemicolectomy

      Explanation:

      Surgical Options for Bowel Carcinoma: Choosing the Right Procedure

      When it comes to resecting bowel carcinoma, the location of the tumor and the blood supply to the bowel are the primary factors that determine the appropriate operation. It’s crucial to ensure that the remaining bowel has a good blood supply after the resection.

      For tumors in the splenic flexure or descending colon, a left hemicolectomy is the most suitable procedure. This operation involves removing part of the transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid up to the upper rectum, which are supplied by the left colic artery and its branches.

      If the tumor is located in the transverse colon, a transverse colectomy may be performed. An extended right hemicolectomy is necessary for tumors in the hepatic flexure.

      For non-metastatic bowel cancer, surgical removal of the tumor and a portion of the bowel is the primary treatment. However, if the patient refuses surgery, chemotherapy alone can be used, but the prognosis may vary.

      Preoperative neoadjuvant chemotherapy and surgery are not recommended at this point since there are no identifiable metastases, and the histology results are not yet available to determine the grade of the tumor and the number of mesenteric lymph nodes affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 52 - A 60-year-old bus driver is referred by his general practitioner with a change...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old bus driver is referred by his general practitioner with a change in bowel habit and bleeding per rectum. He reports no further symptoms, and an abdominal and digital rectal examination are unremarkable. However, colonoscopy shows a high rectal tumour, encompassing approximately two-thirds of the diameter of the colon. He is booked to have an operation.
      Which of the following is he most likely to be listed for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior resection

      Explanation:

      Types of Colorectal Resection Surgeries

      Colorectal resection surgeries are performed to remove cancerous or non-cancerous tumors in the colon or rectum. Here are the different types of colorectal resection surgeries:

      1. Anterior Resection: This surgery is recommended for non-obstructed tumors in the distal sigmoid colon, middle or upper rectum.

      2. abdominoperineal Resection: This surgery is used for operable low rectal and anorectal tumors. It involves the removal of the anus, rectum, and sigmoid colon, and the formation of an end-colostomy.

      3. Sigmoid Colectomy: This surgery is used for operable tumors in the sigmoid colon.

      4. Left Hemicolectomy: This surgery is used for operable tumors in the descending colon.

      5. Pan-colectomy: This surgery involves the removal of the entire colon and is typically performed in cases of ulcerative colitis. It requires the formation of a permanent ileostomy or the construction of an ileal-anal pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 53 - A 35-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding that has been going on for 2 days. The bleeding worsens after passing stools. He has recently increased his fibre intake, but he still finds it very difficult to pass stools. Defecation causes him severe pain that lasts for hours. During the examination, you try to perform a DRE, but the patient experiences severe pain, making it impossible to complete the procedure. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      Common Anal Conditions and Their Differentiating Features

      Anal conditions can cause discomfort and pain, but each has its own unique symptoms and characteristics. Anal fissures, for example, are caused by a tear in the sensitive skin-lined lower anal canal and cause acute pain on defecation. Treatment involves analgesia or topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) or diltiazem to relax the sphincter. Rectal prolapse, on the other hand, causes a mass protruding through the anus and may also result in constipation and/or faecal incontinence. Fistula in ano is an abnormal connection between the anal canal and perianal skin, while anal carcinoma is a rare but serious condition that presents with rectal bleeding, unexplained weight loss, persistent change in bowel habit, iron deficiency anaemia, and abdominal or rectal mass. Finally, haemorrhoids are vascular cushions in the anal canal that usually cause painless PR bleeding, but rarely cause discomfort. Understanding the differentiating features of these common anal conditions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 54 - A 43-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of colicky abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of colicky abdominal pain and vomiting. His medical history shows that he has had previous abdominal surgery. During the examination, you notice that his abdomen is distended, and upon auscultation, you hear 'tinkling' bowel sounds. An abdominal radiograph reveals multiple loops of dilated bowel centrally, with valvulae conniventes present. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adhesions

      Explanation:

      Causes of Bowel Obstruction: Understanding the Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Bowel obstruction is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In young patients, adhesions secondary to previous surgery are the most common cause of bowel obstruction, particularly in the small intestine. The four classical features of bowel obstruction are abdominal pain, vomiting, abdominal distension, and absolute constipation. It is important to differentiate between small bowel and large bowel obstruction, with age being a helpful factor in determining the latter.

      While colorectal carcinoma is a significant cause of large bowel obstruction, it only accounts for about 5% of cases in the UK. Hernias are the second most common cause of small bowel obstruction, but adhesions are more likely in patients with a history of abdominal surgery. Crohn’s disease typically presents with diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss, while diverticulitis is more common in older patients and is unlikely to cause the symptoms described.

      In conclusion, understanding the various causes of bowel obstruction and their associated symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 55 - A 20-year-old woman has come in with acute appendicitis and is currently undergoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman has come in with acute appendicitis and is currently undergoing surgery to have her appendix removed. The peritoneal cavity has been opened using the appropriate approach and the caecum is visible. What would be the most appropriate feature to follow in order to locate the appendix?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Taeniae coli

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Large Bowel: Taeniae Coli, Appendices Epiploicae, Haustrations, Ileocolic Artery, and Right Colic Artery

      The large bowel is composed of various structures that play important roles in digestion and absorption. Among these structures are the taeniae coli, which are three bands of longitudinal smooth muscle found on the outside of the large bowel. These bands produce haustrations or bulges in the colon when they contract. Additionally, the appendices epiploicae, or epiploic appendages, are protrusions of subserosal fat that line the surface of the bowel. The large bowel also contains the ileocolic artery, which runs over the ileocaecal junction, and the right colic artery, which supplies the ascending colon. Understanding the anatomy of the large bowel is crucial in diagnosing and treating various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 56 - A 30-year-old receptionist presents to her General Practice (GP) with a 3-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old receptionist presents to her General Practice (GP) with a 3-week history of painless rectal bleeding. She reports seeing blood on the toilet paper and in the toilet bowl after defecation. The blood is not mixed with the stool, and there is no associated weight loss or change in bowel habit. She gave birth to twin boys after an uncomplicated pregnancy and normal vaginal delivery. She has no past medical or family history of note.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemorrhoids: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Haemorrhoids are a common condition that can affect individuals of all ages, but pregnancy is a known risk factor. Contrary to previous beliefs, haemorrhoids are not simply varicose veins, but rather enlarged vascular cushions with a complex anatomy. The main function of these cushions is to help maintain continence, but when they become enlarged or prolapsed, they can cause a range of symptoms.

      The most common symptom of haemorrhoids is rectal bleeding, which may be visible on toilet paper or in the toilet bowl. Other symptoms may include mucous discharge, pruritus, and soiling episodes due to incomplete closure of the anal sphincter. However, pain is not a typical feature of first-degree haemorrhoids, unless they become thrombosed.

      To confirm the diagnosis of haemorrhoids, a thorough examination is necessary, including an abdominal assessment and proctoscopy. It is important to rule out other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as fissure-in-ano, perianal haematoma, anorectal abscess, or colorectal carcinoma (especially in older patients).

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of haemorrhoids can help healthcare providers provide appropriate management and improve patients’ quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 57 - A 9-year-old girl is brought to the paediatrics department with a 2-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought to the paediatrics department with a 2-day history of worsening abdominal pain, accompanied by fever, nausea and vomiting. The pain initially started in the middle of her abdomen but has now become focused on the right lower quadrant.
      What is the most frequent surgical diagnosis in children of this age group?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Appendicitis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Acute Abdominal Pain in Children

      Acute abdominal pain is a common complaint among children, and it can be caused by a variety of conditions. Among the most common surgical diagnoses in children with acute abdominal pain is appendicitis, which typically presents with central colicky abdominal pain that localizes to the right iliac fossa. However, over half of children with abdominal pain have no identifiable cause.

      Intussusception is another common surgical diagnosis in children under two years of age, characterized by the telescoping of one portion of bowel over another. Symptoms include loud crying, drawing up of the knees, vomiting, and rectal bleeding that resembles redcurrant jelly.

      Mesenteric adenitis is a self-limiting condition that can present similarly to appendicitis but is not a surgical diagnosis. Cholecystitis, a common cause of abdominal pain in adults, is rare in children. Ovarian torsion is also a rare cause of acute abdominal pain in children, accounting for less than 5% of cases.

      Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial for conditions like appendicitis and intussusception, as delays can increase the risk of complications. However, it is important to consider a range of potential causes for acute abdominal pain in children and to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 58 - A 60-year-old diabetic arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old diabetic arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe abdominal pain. The pain started suddenly and he has been experiencing bloody diarrhoea for the past six hours. Despite his discomfort, his physical examination does not reveal any significant findings. The patient has a notable medical history, having previously suffered a myocardial infarction that necessitated the placement of a pacemaker.
      What test is most likely to confirm a diagnosis of mesenteric ischemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal computed tomography (CT)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Imaging Techniques for Mesenteric Ischaemia

      Mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a lack of blood flow to the intestines, which can lead to serious complications. There are several diagnostic imaging techniques that can be used to identify mesenteric ischaemia, including abdominal computed tomography (CT), abdominal ultrasound, abdominal X-ray, colonoscopy, and magnetic resonance angiography (MRA).

      Abdominal CT is often the first-line investigation used to rule out other causes and can identify signs of mesenteric ischaemia, such as gas in the intestinal wall and portal vein. Abdominal ultrasound is not useful in assessing bowel lesions but may indicate perforation and free fluid in the abdomen. Abdominal X-ray findings are non-specific and may not be helpful in narrowing down the differential. Colonoscopy can be helpful in looking at mucosal lesions of the bowel but carries a risk of perforation. MRA can be useful in assessing vascular pathology but is not recommended for patients with pacemakers.

      In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic imaging techniques may be necessary to accurately diagnose mesenteric ischaemia and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 59 - A 42-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe pain during...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe pain during bowel movements and passing fresh red blood while opening her bowels for the past 2 weeks. She is experiencing slight constipation but is otherwise healthy and has no significant medical history.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe GTN cream and laxatives

      Explanation:

      Management of Anal Fissure: Laxatives and GTN Cream

      An anal fissure is often the cause of pain during defecation and fresh red blood per rectum. To diagnose the fissure, a full blood count and digital examination per rectum may be necessary. However, initial management should involve a combination of laxatives to soften the stool and glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) cream. Drinking plenty of fluids is also advised. These measures are effective in 80% of cases. Surgery may be considered if medical management fails. Colonoscopy is not necessary in this scenario. Co-codamol is not recommended as it may worsen constipation and aggravate the fissure. While dietary advice is helpful, prescribing laxatives and GTN cream is the best course of action for healing the fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 60 - A 35-year-old woman is experiencing constipation and undergoes diagnostic imaging, which reveals a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is experiencing constipation and undergoes diagnostic imaging, which reveals a sigmoid volvulus. What are the most likely direct branches of the arteries that supply blood to this part of the colon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries Involved in Sigmoid Colon Volvulus

      Sigmoid colon volvulus is a condition where a part of the colon twists and rotates, causing obstruction and ischemia. The following arteries are involved in this condition:

      1. Inferior mesenteric artery: The sigmoid colon is directly supplied by the sigmoid arteries, which branch directly from the inferior mesenteric artery.

      2. Ileocolic artery: The ileocolic artery is the terminal branch of the superior mesenteric artery and supplies the ileum, caecum, and ascending colon.

      3. Left common iliac artery: The left common iliac artery branches into the left external and internal iliac arteries, which supply the lower limbs and pelvis, including the rectum.

      4. Superior mesenteric artery: The superior mesenteric artery originates from the abdominal aorta and supplies the caecum, ascending colon, and transverse colon. However, the sigmoid colon is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      While the inferior mesenteric artery is the most specific artery involved in sigmoid colon volvulus, understanding the other arteries can also aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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