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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to your General Practice clinic complaining of worsening hearing and tinnitus. She is currently pregnant and has noticed a significant decline in her hearing, although she had hearing problems before her pregnancy. Her father and grandfather also had hearing problems, and she is concerned about her future. During the examination, both tympanic membranes appear normal without abnormalities detected.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Wax build up
Correct Answer: Otosclerosis
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis: A Common Cause of Hearing Loss in Pregnancy
Otosclerosis is a genetic condition that causes the stapes footplate to become fused to the oval window, resulting in hearing loss. While it is an autosomal dominant condition, many people develop it without a family history. Women are twice as likely to be affected, and bilateral deafness is common. The condition typically manifests during middle age and is worsened by pregnancy. Interestingly, background noise can actually improve hearing. Eustachian tube dysfunction is another common cause of hearing loss in pregnancy, but it is usually accompanied by otitis media with effusion. Wax build-up is unlikely to be the cause of hearing loss in this case, and normal age-related hearing loss is not consistent with the rapid progression of symptoms. While Meniere’s disease is a possibility, the lack of vertigo and family history make otosclerosis the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful sore inside her mouth that has been bothering her for the past week. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes metformin for it.
During the mouth examination, the GP observes an oval-shaped, shallow ulcer with a red rim around it. The ulcer is sensitive to touch, and no other lesions are visible. The patient does not have swollen lymph nodes and is in good health otherwise.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical steroids
Explanation:Management of Aphthous Ulcers: Topical Steroids and Pain Control
Aphthous ulcers are a common benign oral lesion that can be triggered by local trauma or certain foods. The first-line management for this condition typically involves topical steroids and topical lidocaine for pain control. Biopsy of the lesion is not indicated unless the ulcer is not healing after three weeks and malignancy needs to be excluded. Epstein-Barr virus testing is only necessary if there are signs of oral hairy leucoplakia. Immediate specialist referral is necessary if there are signs of malignancy. Oral steroids can be considered in refractory cases, but should be used cautiously in patients with diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman is being discharged from the Surgical Ward following a midline laparotomy for a perforated duodenal ulcer. She has several surgical staples in situ.
How many days post-surgery should the staples be removed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10–14 days
Explanation:Proper Timing for Suture Removal
The length of time sutures should remain in place varies depending on the location of the wound and the tension across it. Sutures on the chest, stomach, or back should be removed after 10-14 days to prevent wound dehiscence while reducing the risk of infection and scarring. Facial sutures can be removed after 5-7 days, while sutures over the lower extremities or joints typically need removing after 14-21 days. Sutures should not be left in place for more than 21 days due to the increased likelihood of infection, scarring, and difficult removal. It is important to keep wounds dry for the first 24 hours and avoid baths and swimming until sutures are removed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Incorrect
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How does the combination of gentamicin and benzylpenicillin work together to treat infective endocarditis caused by Streptococcus viridans?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis (translation)
Explanation:Synergistic Action of Gentamicin and Benzylpenicillin
Gentamicin and benzylpenicillin work together to effectively combat bacterial infections. Benzylpenicillin is a bactericidal agent that prevents the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, which allows gentamicin to enter the bacterial cell. Gentamicin then acts on the ribosome, inhibiting protein synthesis and ultimately killing the bacteria. This synergistic action of the two drugs is a powerful tool in the fight against bacterial infections. The combination of these drugs is often used in clinical settings to treat a variety of bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is brought to Accident and Emergency by ambulance, complaining of abdominal pain. He says the pain is 8/10 in strength, radiates to the groin, iliac fossae and back and began suddenly half an hour ago. He cannot identify anything that prompted the pain and has not yet eaten today. He says he also feels dizzy and faint. The man has had two stents after a cardiac arrest in 2011. He has hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia. He smokes 35 cigarettes a day but does not consume alcohol. On examination, the patient looks grey. His blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, heart rate 126 bpm, respiratory rate 28 breaths/minute and temperature 37.4 °C. He has widespread abdominal tenderness on light palpation. You cannot palpate any masses.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Pain: Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm, Pancreatitis, Pyelonephritis, Myocardial Infarction, and Acute Cholecystitis
Abdominal pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and medical history to make an accurate diagnosis. In this case, the patient has multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, including hypertension, smoking, age, and being male. The sudden onset of pain radiating to the groin, back, and iliac fossae is typical of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm, which can cause shock and requires immediate surgical intervention.
Pancreatitis is another possible cause of the patient’s pain, with pain radiating to the back and often accompanied by fever and jaundice. However, the patient has not eaten recently and does not drink alcohol, which are common triggers for gallstone-induced and alcohol-induced pancreatitis.
Pyelonephritis, or a kidney infection, can also cause back pain and septic shock, but the sudden onset of pain is less typical. A patient with severe pyelonephritis would also be expected to have a fever.
Although the patient has multiple cardiac risk factors, his pain is not typical of a myocardial infarction, or heart attack. Myocardial infarction can cause abdominal pain, but it is unlikely to radiate to the back and groin.
Acute cholecystitis, or inflammation of the gallbladder, typically causes right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and fever, which are not present in this patient.
In summary, the patient’s symptoms and medical history suggest a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm as the most likely cause of his abdominal pain, but other conditions such as pancreatitis and pyelonephritis should also be considered. A thorough evaluation and prompt intervention are necessary to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are consulting with a family whose daughter has been referred due to suspected learning difficulties. Whilst talking to her parents, you notice that she has a friendly and sociable personality. You begin to wonder if she might have William's syndrome.
What physical characteristic would be the strongest indicator of this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elfin facies
Explanation:William’s syndrome is linked to unique physical characteristics such as elfin facies, a broad forehead, strabismus, and short stature. It is important to note that Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterized by a tall and slender stature. Edward’s syndrome is associated with rocker-bottom feet, while foetal alcohol syndrome is linked to a flattened philtrum. Turner’s syndrome and Noonan’s syndrome are associated with webbing of the neck. Individuals with William’s syndrome often have an elongated, not flat philtrum.
Understanding William’s Syndrome
William’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects neurodevelopment and is caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7. The condition is characterized by a range of physical and cognitive features, including elfin-like facies, short stature, and learning difficulties. Individuals with William’s syndrome also tend to have a very friendly and social demeanor, which is a hallmark of the condition. Other common symptoms include transient neonatal hypercalcaemia and supravalvular aortic stenosis.
Diagnosis of William’s syndrome is typically made through FISH studies, which can detect the microdeletion on chromosome 7. While there is no cure for the condition, early intervention and support can help individuals with William’s syndrome to manage their symptoms and lead fulfilling lives. With a better understanding of this disorder, we can work towards improving the lives of those affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired electrical engineer had a gradual decline in initiating and performing voluntary movements. His face was expressionless and he had tremors, which were particularly obvious when he was sat idle watching tv. He also showed a marked decrease in blinking frequency but had no evidence of dementia.
What is the most probable diagnosis associated with these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parkinson’s disease
Explanation:Movement Disorders and Neurodegenerative Diseases: A Brief Overview
Movement disorders and neurodegenerative diseases are conditions that affect the nervous system and can lead to a range of symptoms, including tremors, rigidity, and difficulty with voluntary movements. Parkinson’s disease is a common neurodegenerative disease that primarily affects the elderly and is characterized by hypokinesia, bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity, lack of facial expression, and decreased blinking frequency. While there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, current treatment strategies involve the administration of L-dopa, which is metabolized to dopamine within the brain and can help stimulate the initiation of voluntary movements.
Huntington’s disease is another neurodegenerative disease that typically presents in middle-aged patients and is characterized by movement disorders, seizures, dementia, and ultimately death. Alzheimer’s disease is a degenerative disorder that can also lead to dementia, but it is not typically associated with movement disorders like Parkinson’s or Huntington’s disease.
In rare cases, damage to the subthalamic nucleus can cause movement disorders like ballism and hemiballism, which are characterized by uncontrolled movements of the limbs on the contralateral side of the body. While these conditions are rare, they highlight the complex interplay between different regions of the brain and the importance of understanding the underlying mechanisms of movement disorders and neurodegenerative diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy is brought to his GP by his mother due to complaints of bilateral leg weakness and difficulty walking, which has been progressively worsening over the past few years. The patient's father, who passed away from a heart attack four years ago, also had similar issues with his legs. During the examination, the patient was found to have pes cavus, bilateral foot drop, and a stamping gait. Additionally, he had bilateral areflexia and flexor plantar responses, as well as glove-and-stocking sensory loss to the ankle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth
Explanation:Neurological Conditions: A Comparison
Charcot–Marie–Tooth Syndrome, Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord, Chronic Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP), Old Polio, and Peripheral Vascular Disease are all neurological conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system. However, each condition has distinct clinical features and diagnostic criteria.
Charcot–Marie–Tooth Syndrome is a hereditary sensorimotor polyneuropathy that presents with foot drop, pes cavus, scoliosis, and stamping gait. A strong family history supports the diagnosis.
Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord is mostly due to vitamin B12 deficiency and presents with a loss of proprioception and vibration sense, spasticity, and hyperreflexia. Risk factors include malabsorption problems or being vegan.
Chronic Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP) causes peripheral neuropathy that is mainly motor. It is associated with anti-GM1 antibody, motor conduction block on nerve conduction studies, and elevated protein in the cerebrospinal fluid. It can be treated with intravenous immunoglobulin, prednisolone, plasmapheresis, and azathioprine.
Old Polio presents with a lower motor neuron pattern of weakness without sensory signs. The signs are often asymmetrical, and the lower limbs are more commonly affected than the upper limbs. Patients may have contractures and fixed flexion deformities from long-standing immobility.
Peripheral Vascular Disease is accompanied by a history of pain, often in the form of calf claudication on walking, and is unlikely to cause the clinical signs described in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male is admitted with an intracranial bleed and is under the care of the neurosurgeons. After undergoing magnetic resonance angiography, he undergoes clipping of a cerebral arterial aneurysm and is stable the following morning. The surgical team records the following blood chemistry results on successive postoperative days:
Day 1:
- Plasma Sodium: 130 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L
- Urea: 4.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 95 µmol/L
Day 2:
- Plasma Sodium: 127 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
- Urea: 4.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 90 µmol/L
Day 3:
- Plasma Sodium: 124 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
- Urea: 4.4 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 76 µmol/L
Day 4:
- Plasma Sodium: 120 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L
- Urea: 5.0 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 70 µmol/L
Normal Ranges:
- Plasma sodium: 137-144 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L
- Urea: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 60-110 µmol/L
On day four, the patient is put on a fluid restriction of 1 litre per day. Investigations at that time show:
- Plasma osmolality: 262 mOsmol/L (278-305)
- Urine osmolality: 700 mOsmol/L (350-1000)
- Urine sodium: 70 mmol/L -
What is the most likely diagnosis to explain these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)
Explanation:The causes of hyponatremia are varied and can include several underlying conditions. One common cause is the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), which is characterized by elevated urine sodium, low plasma osmolality, and an osmolality towards the upper limit of normal. Diabetes insipidus, on the other hand, leads to excessive fluid loss with hypernatremia.
Fluid overload is another possibility, but it is unlikely in patients who have commenced fluid restriction. Hypoadrenalism may also cause hyponatremia, but it is not likely in the context of this patient’s presentation. Other causes of SIADH include pneumonia, meningitis, and bronchial carcinoma.
Sick cell syndrome is also associated with hyponatremia and is due to the loss of cell membrane pump function in particularly ill subjects. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hyponatremia to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents at the outpatient clinic with altered bowel habit and occasional per rectum bleeding for the past 3 months. During examination, he experiences tenderness on the left iliac fossa and is unable to tolerate a pr examination. His liver function tests at the general practice surgery showed an elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level. Based on these symptoms, which of the following autoantibody screen findings is most likely?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA)
Explanation:Interpreting Autoantibody Results in a Patient with Abnormal Liver Function Tests and Colitis-like Symptoms
The patient in question presents with abnormal liver function tests and colitis-like symptoms, including bloody stools and tenderness in the left iliac fossa. The following autoantibody results were obtained:
– Raised anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA): This suggests the possibility of inflammatory bowel disease, particularly ulcerative colitis (UC), which is strongly associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). PSC is characterized by immunologically mediated inflammation of the bile ducts, leading to obstruction and a cholestatic pattern of liver dysfunction. ASMA and p-ANCA are often elevated in PSC, and an isolated rise in alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is common.
– Raised anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA): This enzyme is typically detected in primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), which causes destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts and a cholestatic pattern of jaundice. However, given the patient’s gender and coexisting UC, PBC is less likely than PSC as a cause of the elevated ALP.
– Raised anti-endomysial antibody: This is associated with coeliac disease, which can cause chronic inflammation of the small intestine and malabsorption. However, the patient’s symptoms do not strongly suggest this diagnosis.
– Negative result for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) antibodies: SLE is not clinically suspected based on the patient’s history.
– Raised anti-Jo antibody: This is associated with polymyositis and dermatomyositis, which are not suspected in this patient.In summary, the patient’s autoantibody results suggest a possible diagnosis of PSC in the context of UC and liver dysfunction. Further imaging studies, such as ERCP or MRCP, may be necessary to confirm this diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward after undergoing a laparotomy for small bowel obstruction. She is currently on patient controlled analgesia with morphine. The nursing staff reports that she has a decreased level of consciousness and a respiratory rate of 5 breaths per minute. While attending to her, she experiences a respiratory arrest. What is the appropriate treatment for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 400 microgram bolus of naloxone
Explanation:To treat the respiratory arrest caused by opioid toxicity, the patient should receive a 400 microgram bolus of naloxone. It is crucial to keep in mind that naloxone half-life is short, so additional doses may be necessary.
The management of overdoses and poisonings involves specific treatments for each toxin. For paracetamol overdose, activated charcoal is recommended if ingested within an hour, followed by N-acetylcysteine or liver transplantation if necessary. Salicylate overdose can be managed with urinary alkalinization using IV bicarbonate or haemodialysis. Opioid/opiate overdose can be treated with naloxone, while benzodiazepine overdose can be treated with flumazenil in severe cases. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose may require IV bicarbonate to reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias, but class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics should be avoided. Lithium toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline or haemodialysis in severe cases. Warfarin overdose can be treated with vitamin K or prothrombin complex, while heparin overdose can be treated with protamine sulphate. Beta-blocker overdose may require atropine or glucagon. Ethylene glycol poisoning can be managed with fomepizole or ethanol, while methanol poisoning can be treated with the same. Organophosphate insecticide poisoning can be treated with atropine, and digoxin overdose can be treated with digoxin-specific antibody fragments. Iron overdose can be managed with desferrioxamine, and lead poisoning can be treated with dimercaprol or calcium edetate. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be managed with 100% oxygen or hyperbaric oxygen, while cyanide poisoning can be treated with hydroxocobalamin or a combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is brought to the hospital by air ambulance due to dyspnoea and severe chest pain after being thrown from a horse and trampled during an event.
Upon examination, there is a decrease in breath sounds on the left side of the chest with hyper-resonant percussion, and the apex beat is shifted to the right. Additionally, the patient's right arm appears to have a closed humeral fracture.
Considering the examination results, which medication should be used with caution?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrous oxide
Explanation:When treating a patient with a pneumothorax, caution should be exercised when using nitrous oxide. This is because nitrous oxide has a tendency to diffuse into air-filled spaces, including pneumothoraces, which can worsen cardiopulmonary impairment. In contrast, desflurane may be safely administered to patients with pneumothoraces as it does not diffuse into gas-filled airspaces as readily as nitrous oxide. Ketamine and morphine are also safe options for pain control in patients with traumatic pneumothoraces, with ketamine not being associated with cardiorespiratory depression and morphine being considered first-line due to its predictable effects and reversibility with naloxone. Neither ketamine or morphine are listed as a ‘caution’ for pneumothoraces in the BNF.
Overview of General Anaesthetics
General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.
Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.
It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman is being evaluated in the Gastroenterology Clinic after being hospitalized for a Crohn's flare. The physician is considering starting her on azathioprine to maintain remission while she is on steroids. What tests can be done to determine if azathioprine is suitable for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyl transferase activity
Explanation:Azathioprine is a medication used to suppress the immune system in organ transplantation and autoimmune disease. It is also used to treat moderate to severe active Crohn’s disease by blocking DNA synthesis and inhibiting cell growth. Before starting treatment with azathioprine, it is important to measure the activity of the enzyme TPMT, which is involved in inactivating the medication. Patients with lower TPMT activity may require a lower dose of azathioprine, while those with extremely low activity may not be able to take the medication at all.
Faecal calprotectin is a substance released into the intestine in the presence of inflammation and is used to diagnose inflammatory bowel disease. Alpha-1-antitrypsin is measured in patients with unknown causes of liver or respiratory disease, as deficiency of this enzyme can cause a syndrome associated with these conditions.
CYP2D6 is an enzyme involved in the metabolism of several medications, including tricyclic antidepressants, SSRIs, and anti-psychotics. Inhibitors and inducers of this enzyme can affect medication efficacy. Lactate dehydrogenase is a non-specific test used in a variety of conditions but is not relevant in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male with sickle cell disease complains of severe abdominal pain. He has a blood pressure of 105/80 mmHg, heart rate of 110 bpm, and temperature of 38.0°C. What would be your initial step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV normal saline
Explanation:Management of Sickle Cell Crisis in Septic Patients Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 8-10% of the African population. When a patient with sickle cell disease presents with sepsis and tachycardia, the first step in management is to administer a fluid bolus. Intravenous fluids and analgesia, usually with opiates, are the mainstay of treatment for sickle cell crisis. However, analgesia should be managed in a step-wise manner. In addition to fluid and pain management, antibiotics should be considered to cover potential infections such as Haemophilus influenzae type b, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and Pneumococcus. Ceftriaxone, erythromycin, and cefuroxime are examples of antibiotics that can be used. It is important to note that patients with sickle cell disease may also develop appendicitis, like any other young patient. Therefore, a surgical consult may be necessary. Despite the severity of sickle cell disease, the prognosis is good. Approximately 50% of patients survive beyond the fifth decade.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old metal worker slips onto a furnace wall. He presents with a leathery lesion on his chest. It is dry and insensate with a waxy appearance. It does not blanch.
How would you describe this burn?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full-thickness burn (third-degree burn)
Explanation:Understanding Burn Classification: From Superficial to Full-Thickness Burns
Burns can be classified based on their depth and severity. While the general public may be familiar with the ‘degree’ classification, plastic surgeons prefer to use the ‘thickness’ classification. Superficial burns, also known as first-degree burns, only affect the epidermis and are painful and red. Partial-thickness burns, or second-degree burns, penetrate deeper into the dermis layer and are more painful and prone to infection. Full-thickness burns, or third-degree burns, are painless and do not blanch due to damage to the nerves and microvasculature. The skin can be charred and leathery, with scarring likely in the long term. Fourth-degree burns involve damage to not only the skin but also the underlying muscles, tendons, or ligaments. Fifth-degree burns, which are rare and often only diagnosed at autopsy, penetrate down to the bone. It is important to understand the different classifications of burns to properly evaluate and treat them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old, 80 kg woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain that began 5 hours ago. She has no known allergies and is not taking any regular medications. Her electrocardiogram shows T-wave inversion in lateral leads but no ST changes, and her serum troponin level is significantly elevated. What is the appropriate combination of drugs to administer immediately?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg, prasugrel 60 mg, fondaparinux 2.5 mg
Explanation:For patients with different combinations of medications, the appropriate treatment plan may vary. In general, aspirin should be given as soon as possible and other medications may be added depending on the patient’s condition and the likelihood of undergoing certain procedures. For example, if angiography is not planned within 24 hours of admission, a loading dose of aspirin and prasugrel with fondaparinux may be given. If PCI is planned, unfractionated heparin may be considered. The specific dosages and medications may differ based on the patient’s individual needs and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) with unsteadiness on her feet and frequent falls of two days’ duration.
On examination, she is noted to have loss of sensation and weakness of the proximal and distal muscles of the left lower limb. Her upper limbs and face have no weakness or sensory deficit.
Her GP refers her to the nearest Stroke Unit for assessment and management. Computed tomography (CT) scan confirms a thromboembolic cerebrovascular accident.
Which vessel is most likely to have been involved?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch
Explanation:Understanding the Role of Cerebral Arteries in Neurological Symptoms
When assessing neurological symptoms, it is important to consider the involvement of different cerebral arteries. In the case of right-sided weakness and lower limb involvement without upper limb or facial signs, the left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch is likely affected. This artery supplies the medial aspect of the frontal and parietal lobes, which includes the primary motor and sensory cortices for the lower limb and distal trunk.
On the other hand, a left posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion is unlikely as it would not cause upper limb involvement or visual symptoms. Similarly, a right anterior cerebral artery distal occlusion would result in left-sided weakness and sensory loss in the lower limb.
A main stem occlusion in the left middle cerebral artery would present with right-sided upper limb and facial weakness, as well as speech and auditory comprehension difficulties due to involvement of Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas.
Finally, a right posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion would cause visual field defects and contralateral loss of sensation, but not peripheral weakness on the right-hand side. Understanding the role of cerebral arteries in neurological symptoms can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man undergoes an arterial blood gas test and the results show the following while he is breathing room air:
pH 7.49
pCO2 2.4 kPa
pO2 8.5 kPa
HCO3 22 mmol/l
What is the most probable condition responsible for these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:Hyperventilation leads to a respiratory alkalosis (non-compensated) due to the reduction in carbon dioxide levels.
Disorders of Acid-Base Balance: An Overview
The acid-base normogram is a useful tool for categorizing the various disorders of acid-base balance. Metabolic acidosis is the most common surgical acid-base disorder, characterized by a reduction in plasma bicarbonate levels. This can be caused by a gain of strong acid (such as in diabetic ketoacidosis) or a loss of base (such as from bowel in diarrhea). Metabolic alkalosis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a rise in plasma bicarbonate levels, which can be due to problems of the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is a rise in carbon dioxide levels, usually as a result of alveolar hypoventilation, while respiratory alkalosis results from hyperventilation, leading to excess loss of carbon dioxide.
Each of these disorders has its own set of causes and mechanisms. For example, metabolic alkalosis can be caused by vomiting/aspiration, diuretics, or primary hyperaldosteronism, among other factors. The mechanism of metabolic alkalosis involves the activation of the renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone (RAA) system, which causes reabsorption of Na+ in exchange for H+ in the distal convoluted tubule. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, can be caused by COPD, decompensation in other respiratory conditions, or sedative drugs like benzodiazepines and opiate overdose.
It is important to understand the different types of acid-base disorders and their causes in order to properly diagnose and treat them. By using the acid-base normogram and understanding the underlying mechanisms, healthcare professionals can provide effective interventions to restore balance to the body’s acid-base system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man, who is taking long-term warfarin for atrial fibrillation, comes to the surgery for review. He has had a recent review at the Cardiology Clinic and you understand that he has had some of his long-term medication changed. He also has type II diabetes and has recently been started on medication for neuropathy. In addition, he is following a ‘juicing diet’ to lose weight.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 115 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
International normalised ratio (INR) 4.9 (previously 2.1)
Which one of the following medications/dietary changes is most likely to be responsible?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grapefruit juice
Explanation:Drug Interactions with Warfarin: Effects of Grapefruit Juice, Amlodipine, Bisoprolol, Orange Juice, and Carbamazepine on INR
Warfarin is a commonly prescribed anticoagulant medication that requires careful monitoring of the international normalized ratio (INR) to ensure therapeutic efficacy and prevent adverse events. However, certain drugs, herbal products, and foods can interact with warfarin and affect its metabolism, leading to changes in INR levels.
Grapefruit juice and cranberry juice are known inhibitors of the cytochrome p450 enzyme system, which is responsible for metabolizing warfarin. As a result, these juices can downregulate warfarin metabolism and increase INR levels in some patients. On the other hand, orange juice has no effect on warfarin metabolism.
Amlodipine and bisoprolol are two commonly prescribed medications that do not affect INR levels. However, they may cause side effects such as dizziness, fatigue, and gastrointestinal disturbances.
Carbamazepine, a medication used to treat seizures and neuropathic pain, is a cytochrome p450 enzyme inducer. This means that it can increase the metabolism of warfarin and lead to a fall in INR levels. Therefore, clinicians must monitor INR levels closely when prescribing carbamazepine to patients taking warfarin.
In summary, understanding the potential drug interactions with warfarin is crucial for clinicians to ensure safe and effective treatment. Regular monitoring of INR levels is essential when prescribing medications that may interact with warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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During a Monday lunchtime home visit, you encounter a 72-year-old patient with metastatic colon cancer who has been experiencing a decline in health over the past 2 months. The patient has extensive disease with liver and peritoneal metastatic deposits and also suffers from type II diabetes mellitus and moderately severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). To manage her pain, she takes ibuprofen 400 mg three times daily (tid), paracetamol 1 g four times daily (qds), morphine sulfate modified-release tablets (MST) 30 mg twice daily (bd), and Oramorph® 10 mg as required (prn). However, her abdominal pain has worsened over the weekend, and she has required three doses of Oramorph® per day in addition to her other analgesia. Although the dose is effective, the pain returns after about 2-3 hours. The patient is able to consume small amounts of food and fluid but appears to be in poor health with jaundice and quick, shallow breathing. What is the most appropriate treatment for her pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase her MST dose to 45 mg bd and Oramorph® dose to 15 mg prn
Explanation:Managing Pain in a Palliative Care Patient: Dosage Adjustments and Adjuncts
When managing pain in a palliative care patient, it is important to consider the appropriate dosage adjustments and adjuncts to provide effective pain relief. In the given scenario, the patient was taking 60 mg of morphine (as MST) and required another 30 mg of Oramorph® per day for breakthrough pain, resulting in a total daily dose of 90 mg. To address uncontrolled pain, the MST dose was increased to 45 mg bd and the Oramorph® dose was adjusted to 15 mg prn, with the breakthrough dose being one-sixth of the total daily dose.
While dexamethasone may be considered as an adjunct for liver capsule pain, amitriptyline is not indicated for neuropathic pain in this case. Increasing the dose of ibuprofen is also unlikely to provide significant pain relief. Instead, it is advisable to stick to oral morphine and adjust the dosage accordingly.
In some cases, a continuous subcutaneous infusion of morphine sulfate may be necessary, but it is preferable to use the oral route when possible to reduce the risk of infection and improve patient comfort. Overall, careful consideration of dosage adjustments and adjuncts can help provide effective pain relief for palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of gastroenteritis. He has experienced severe cramps in his left calf and has vomited five times in the last 24 hours. Blood tests reveal hypokalaemia, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed. Which ECG change is most commonly linked to hypokalaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prominent U waves
Explanation:ECG Changes Associated with Hypo- and Hyperkalaemia
Hypokalaemia, or low levels of potassium in the blood, can cause various changes in an electrocardiogram (ECG). One of the most prominent changes is the appearance of U waves, which follow T waves and usually have the same direction. Hypokalaemia can also cause increased amplitude and width of P waves, prolonged PR interval, T wave flattening and inversion, ST depression, and Q-T prolongation in severe cases.
On the other hand, hyperkalaemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, can cause peaked T waves, which represent ventricular repolarisation. Hyperkalaemia is also associated with widening of the QRS complex, which can lead to life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. Flattening of P waves and prolonged PR interval are other ECG changes seen in hyperkalaemia.
It is important to note that some of these ECG changes can overlap between hypo- and hyperkalaemia, such as prolonged PR interval. Therefore, other clinical and laboratory findings should be considered to determine the underlying cause of the ECG changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You are recommending hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for a 50-year-old woman who is healthy but is suffering from severe menopausal symptoms. She is curious about the advantages and disadvantages of various HRT options.
What is the accurate response concerning the risk of cancer associated with different types of HRT preparations?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined HRT increases the risk of breast cancer
Explanation:The addition of progesterone to HRT increases the likelihood of developing breast cancer, but this risk is dependent on the duration of treatment and decreases after HRT is discontinued. However, it does not affect the risk of dying from breast cancer. HRT with only oestrogen is linked to a lower risk of coronary heart disease, while combined HRT has a minimal or no impact on CHD risk. progesterone-only HRT is not available. NICE does not provide a specific risk assessment for ovarian cancer in women taking HRT, but refers to a meta-analysis indicating an increased risk for both oestrogen-only and combined HRT preparations.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.
Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.
HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department (ED) via ambulance with sudden and severe central chest pain that radiates to his back and down his left arm. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus (controlled by diet), and hypercholesterolemia. Upon examination, he appears pale and sweaty with a heart rate of 120 bpm and blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg on the right arm and 80/50 mmHg on the left arm. An early diastolic murmur is also present. A chest X-ray shows a slightly widened mediastinum with a normal-sized heart and no consolidation or pleural effusions. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST elevation in leads I, II, and aVF. What immediate management should be implemented?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Limited fluid resuscitation, CT scan, urgent referral to cardiothoracic surgery
Explanation:Management of Aortic Dissection
Explanation: Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and management. Patients typically present with sudden-onset severe central chest pain, shock, and markedly unequal blood pressure in the arms. The chest X-ray may show mediastinal widening, which is a characteristic feature of aortic dissection.
The first step in management is careful fluid resuscitation, aiming for a systolic blood pressure of 100-120 mmHg (permissive hypotension). This is followed by a chest-abdo-pelvis CT scan to identify the type and extent of the dissection. Type A dissections, which occur proximal to the left subclavian artery origin, require urgent surgery, while type B dissections, which are distal to the left subclavian artery, are treated medically.
Urgent referral to the cardiothoracic surgery team is essential for patients with aortic dissection. Thrombolysis is rarely used to treat ST-elevation myocardial infarction now, with the success of primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Therefore, immediate treatment as per acute coronary syndrome (ACS) protocol is not appropriate for aortic dissection.
In summary, aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. Careful fluid resuscitation, CT scan, and urgent referral to cardiothoracic surgery are the key steps in managing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes in for a routine antenatal check-up at 15 weeks of pregnancy. During the clinic visit, her blood pressure is measured at 154/94 mmHg, which is confirmed by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. Four weeks prior, her blood pressure was recorded at 146/88 mmHg. A urine dipstick test shows no abnormalities, and there is no significant medical history to report. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-existing hypertension
Explanation:It should be noted that the woman already had hypertension before becoming pregnant. Blood pressure issues related to pregnancy, such as pre-eclampsia or pregnancy-induced hypertension, typically do not occur until after 20 weeks of gestation. The elevated blood pressure readings obtained through ambulatory monitoring rule out the possibility of white-coat hypertension. It is important to note that the term pre-existing hypertension is used instead of essential hypertension, as high blood pressure in a woman of this age is uncommon and may indicate secondary hypertension.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old-male presents to his GP with a chief complaint of forgetfulness over the past 3 months. He reports difficulty recalling minor details such as where he parked his car and the names of acquaintances. He is a retired accountant and reports feeling bored and unstimulated. He also reports difficulty falling asleep at night. His MMSE score is 27 out of 30. When asked to spell WORLD backwards, he hesitates before correctly spelling the word. His medical history includes hyperlipidemia and osteoarthritis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest pseudodementia caused by depression rather than dementia. Managing the depression should reverse the cognitive impairment.
Differentiating between Depression and Dementia
Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.
One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.
Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.
The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.
In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the most appropriate description of how furosemide works?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of NKCC2
Explanation:Loop Diuretics and their Mechanisms of Action
Loop diuretics are commonly used to treat fluid retention in patients with heart failure, liver cirrhosis, and kidney disease. The primary mechanism of action of loop diuretics is the inhibition of NKCC2, the luminal Na-K-2Cl symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This inhibition results in increased excretion of sodium, calcium, and magnesium, leading to a reduction in fluid volume. Furosemide is the first choice loop diuretic for the treatment of fluid retention.
Other diuretics, such as spironolactone, work by blocking aldosterone receptors, resulting in potassium retention and sodium excretion. Angiotensin receptor blockers, on the other hand, work by antagonizing angiotensin 1 receptors. Indapamide’s primary mode of action is by blocking net calcium inflow, while thiazides such as hydrochlorothiazide block the thiazide-sensitive Na Cl co-transporter.
In summary, loop diuretics are effective in treating fluid retention by inhibiting NKCC2, resulting in increased excretion of sodium, calcium, and magnesium. Other diuretics work through different mechanisms, such as blocking aldosterone receptors or angiotensin 1 receptors. the mechanisms of action of these diuretics is crucial in selecting the appropriate treatment for patients with fluid retention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents to your clinic after being diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis. You inform him that this diagnosis increases his likelihood of developing diabetes mellitus. What tests should you suggest to assess his risk for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annual HbA1c
Explanation:Type 3c diabetes mellitus is a rare complication of pancreatitis that is more difficult to manage than type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus due to the accompanying exocrine insufficiency, which leads to malabsorption and malnutrition. The development of diabetes mellitus may take years after the onset of pancreatitis, necessitating lifelong monitoring through annual HbA1c measurements. An ultrasound of the pancreas will not provide any indication of diabetes development. Additionally, it is crucial to counsel the patient on their alcohol misuse, as it may exacerbate their pancreatitis.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What are the possible causes of cyanosis in a newborn?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:Common Heart Conditions and Their Characteristics
Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a heart condition where there is a hole in the wall that separates the two lower chambers of the heart. This results in a left to right shunt, which means that oxygen-rich blood from the left side of the heart flows into the right side of the heart and mixes with oxygen-poor blood. This can lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and poor growth in infants.
Coarctation is another heart condition where there is a narrowing of the aortic arch, which is the main blood vessel that carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body. This narrowing can cause high blood pressure in the arms and head, while the lower body receives less blood flow. Symptoms may include headaches, dizziness, and leg cramps.
Hyperbilirubinaemia, on the other hand, is not associated with cyanosis, which is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood. Hyperbilirubinaemia is a condition where there is an excess of bilirubin in the blood, which can cause yellowing of the skin and eyes.
Lastly, Eisenmenger syndrome is a rare but serious complication that can develop much later in life following a left to right shunt, such as in VSD. This occurs when the shunt reverses and becomes a right to left shunt, leading to low oxygen levels in the blood and cyanosis. Symptoms may include shortness of breath, fatigue, and heart palpitations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with advanced prostate cancer is referred by his GP to hospital as today’s blood test shows an elevated calcium level.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV 0.9% normal saline
Explanation:Management of Electrolyte Imbalances: Fluids and Medications
Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypercalcaemia and hyperkalaemia, can have serious consequences if left untreated. The following are some common treatments for these conditions:
IV 0.9% normal saline: Rehydration is crucial in managing hypercalcaemia. Up to 3 liters of normal saline can be given daily to correct elevated calcium levels. Bisphosphonates may also be used after fluids are administered.
Insulin dextrose: This is used to treat hyperkalaemia.
Alendronic acid: While this medication can be given after fluids in patients with hypercalcaemia, fluid administration is the preferred management strategy.
Calcium Resonium: This medication is used after the acute treatment of hyperkalaemia.
Calcium gluconate: This medication is used to treat hyperkalaemia.
Overall, a combination of fluids and medications may be necessary to effectively manage electrolyte imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy attends the Emergency Department (ED) with his father. They are both heavily intoxicated with alcohol. The boy’s records show that this is the fourth time in eight months that he has attended the ED with alcohol-related problems. The safeguarding lead has advised you to contact social services.
What is the most suitable course of action in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inform the patient and her mother you are referring them to social services
Explanation:Referring a Child at Risk to Social Services: Best Practices
When a child is believed to be at risk, it is crucial to refer them to social services for safeguarding. However, the process of making a referral can be sensitive and requires careful consideration. Here are some best practices to follow:
1. Inform the patient and their parent/guardian about the referral: It is important to inform the patient and their parent/guardian that a referral to social services is being made. However, if there is a risk that informing them could put the child in further danger, the referral should be made without informing them.
2. Seek consent for the referral: Consent should be sought from the patient or their parent/guardian before making a referral. If consent is refused, the referral should still be made, but the patient and/or parent must be fully informed.
3. Refer urgently: If there is a concern that the child is at immediate risk, the referral should be made urgently.
4. Follow up with a written referral: A phone referral should be made initially, but it is important to follow up with a written referral within 48 hours.
By following these best practices, healthcare professionals can ensure that children at risk receive the support and protection they need.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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