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  • Question 1 - What is the preferred investigation to detect renal scarring in a pediatric patient...

    Incorrect

    • What is the preferred investigation to detect renal scarring in a pediatric patient with vesicoureteral reflux?

      Your Answer: Micturating cystourethrogram

      Correct Answer: Radionuclide scan using dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vesicoureteric Reflux

      Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. This is a common urinary tract abnormality in children and can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). In fact, around 30% of children who present with a UTI have VUR. It is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI as around 35% of children develop renal scarring.

      The pathophysiology of VUR involves the ureters being displaced laterally, which causes a shortened intramural course of the ureter. This means that the vesicoureteric junction cannot function properly. VUR can present in different ways, such as hydronephrosis on ultrasound during the antenatal period, recurrent childhood UTIs, and reflux nephropathy, which is chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR. Renal scarring can also produce increased quantities of renin, which can cause hypertension.

      To diagnose VUR, a micturating cystourethrogram is usually performed. A DMSA scan may also be done to check for renal scarring. VUR is graded based on the severity of the condition, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade V being the most severe.

      Overall, understanding VUR is important in preventing complications such as UTIs and renal scarring. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes for children with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery due to persistent leg pains. Which...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery due to persistent leg pains. Which one of the following would not be consistent with a diagnosis of 'growing pains'?

      Your Answer: Present upon waking in the morning

      Explanation:

      Understanding Growing Pains in Children

      Growing pains are a common complaint among children aged 3-12 years. These pains are often attributed to ‘benign idiopathic nocturnal limb pains of childhood’ in rheumatology, as they are not necessarily related to growth. Boys and girls are equally affected by growing pains, which are characterized by intermittent pain in the legs without obvious cause.

      One of the key features of growing pains is that they are never present at the start of the day after the child has woken up. Additionally, there is no limp or limitation of physical activity, and the child is systemically well with normal physical examination and motor milestones. Symptoms may worsen after a day of vigorous activity.

      Overall, growing pains are a benign condition that can be managed with reassurance and simple measures such as massage or heat application. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes of leg pain in children, especially if there are any worrying features present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 6-week-old baby and their mum come to the hospital for their postnatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week-old baby and their mum come to the hospital for their postnatal baby check. The infant has an asymmetrical skinfold around their hips. The skin folds under the buttocks and on the thighs are not aligning properly.
      What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: X-ray of the hips

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan of the hip

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Developmental Hip Dysplasia

      Developmental hip dysplasia is a condition that must be detected early for effective treatment. Clinical tests such as Barlows and Ortolani’s manoeuvres can screen for the condition, but an ultrasound scan of the hips is the gold standard for diagnosis and grading of severity. Asymmetrical skinfolds, limited hip movement, leg length discrepancy, and abnormal gait are also clues to the diagnosis. Isotope bone scans have no place in the diagnosis of developmental hip dysplasia. X-rays may be used in older children, but plain film X-rays do not exclude hip instability. Early detection and treatment with conservative management can prevent the need for complex surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      78.1
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  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic by her father with...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic by her father with a sore throat that worsens with swallowing, headaches, and malaise. He reports no coughing.

      Upon examination, her temperature is 38.5ÂșC, her heart rate is 100 bpm, and her tonsils are symmetrically enlarged and red, with white patches present. There is tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The doctor's overall impression is that of an ill child.

      The patient has no medical history but is allergic to penicillin. What is the most appropriate immediate step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Immediate hospital admission is necessary for a child with fevers who appears unwell to a paediatric healthcare professional, as this is considered a red flag indicating severe illness. In this case, the child has a Centor score of 4 and presents with tonsillitis symptoms, including tonsillar exudate, tender cervical lymphadenopathy, fever, and no cough. While antibiotic treatment may be warranted, the priority is to admit the child for assessment and management of their condition. Delayed antibiotic prescription or prescribing a specific antibiotic, such as clarithromycin or phenoxymethylpenicillin, would not be appropriate in this situation.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.

      The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the GP by concerned parents who have...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the GP by concerned parents who have noticed swelling of the foreskin during urination and inability to retract it. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 6-months

      Explanation:

      Forcible retraction should be avoided in younger children with phimosis, as it can lead to scar formation. It is important to note that phimosis is normal in children under the age of 2 and typically resolves on its own over time. Therefore, there is no urgent need for referral to paediatrics or paediatric surgeons. While lubricant is not helpful in managing phimosis, topical steroids have been found to be beneficial.

      Phimosis in Children: When to Seek Treatment

      Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted. In children under two years old, this may be a normal physiological process that will resolve on its own. The British Association of Paediatric Urologists recommends an expectant approach in such cases, as forcible retraction can lead to scarring. However, personal hygiene is important to prevent infections. If the child is over two years old and experiences recurrent balanoposthitis or urinary tract infections, treatment can be considered.

      It is important to note that parents should not attempt to forcibly retract the foreskin in young children. This can cause pain and scarring, and may not even be necessary. Instead, parents should focus on teaching their child good hygiene habits to prevent infections. If the child is experiencing recurrent infections or other symptoms, it may be time to seek medical treatment. By following these guidelines, parents can help their child manage phimosis and maintain good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A 4-week-old boy has been experiencing vomiting after feeds. His mother reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old boy has been experiencing vomiting after feeds. His mother reports that he is extremely hungry, but shortly after consuming food, he has an episode of projectile vomiting. The vomit does not contain blood, bile or feces. Upon examination, a mass is detected in the epigastrium that is approximately the size of a small grape.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infantile pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Abnormalities of the Gastrointestinal Tract in Infants

      Infants can experience various congenital abnormalities of the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to serious health complications. Here are some of the most common abnormalities and their characteristics:

      Infantile Pyloric Stenosis
      This condition occurs due to hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the pyloric muscle, leading to obstruction of the gastric outlet. Symptoms include non-bilious projectile vomiting within half an hour from feeding and failure to thrive. Diagnosis is via ultrasound, and treatment involves Ramstedt pyloromyotomy.

      Meckel’s Diverticulum
      This is the most common congenital abnormality of the small intestine, caused by persistence of the vitelline duct. Patients are usually asymptomatic, but can present with painless rectal bleeding, signs of obstruction, or acute appendicitis-like symptoms. Treatment involves excision of the diverticulum and adjacent ileal segment.

      Malrotation of the Small Intestine with Volvulus
      This occurs due to disrupted development of the bowel during the embryonic period. It can present acutely as a volvulus with abdominal pain and bilious vomiting. Treatment involves surgical intervention.

      Hirschsprung’s Disease
      This is a congenital disorder caused by absent ganglia in the distal colon, resulting in functional obstruction. Infants present within the first 48 hours of life, having not passed meconium. Diagnosis is via rectal biopsy, and treatment involves surgical intervention.

      Imperforate Anus
      This is a congenital malformation occurring with an incidence of 1 in 5000 births. Infants may have abdominal distension and fail to produce meconium. Treatment involves intravenous hydration and surgical evaluation.

      In conclusion, early diagnosis and prompt treatment of these congenital abnormalities are crucial for the health and well-being of infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old girl with short stature visits her GP due to delayed onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl with short stature visits her GP due to delayed onset of menstruation. During the physical examination, the GP observes a broad neck and detects a systolic murmur in the chest. What condition is most likely causing these symptoms, and with which of the following options is it associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Aortic coarctation, a congenital cardiac abnormality characterized by the narrowing of a section of the aorta, is commonly associated with Turner’s syndrome. This condition results in an increase in afterload, which can be detected as a systolic murmur. The patient’s amenorrhea further supports a diagnosis of Turner’s syndrome over other possibilities. Mitral regurgitation, mitral stenosis, and mitral valve prolapse are unlikely to be associated with Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A paediatrician is conducting a ward round and comes across a 20-hour-old neonate...

    Incorrect

    • A paediatrician is conducting a ward round and comes across a 20-hour-old neonate without apparent issues. During the round, the mother expresses concern about her child's hearing, citing her own deafness as a potential risk factor. Which screening tool would be most suitable for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Otoacoustic emission test

      Explanation:

      The otoacoustic emission test is commonly used for screening hearing problems in newborns. In the UK, it is a routine test and if a newborn fails, they are referred for impedance audiometry testing. However, there is no 6-month speech and language assessment as babies are not yet talking at this stage. Impedance audiometry testing is not routine and is only done if a newborn fails the otoacoustic emission test. It would not be appropriate to ask if the patient failed this test before determining if they had it or not. Pure tone audiometry is an adult hearing test and is only done when necessary. Weber’s and Rinne’s tests are screening tools used by clinicians to assess hearing loss in adults, but they may not be suitable for children who may not comply with the test.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 4-year-old girl is seen by the General Practitioner (GP). She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is seen by the General Practitioner (GP). She has been unwell with coryzal symptoms for two days and has fever. She has been eating a little less than usual but drinking plenty of fluids and having her normal amount of wet nappies. Her mother reports that she had an episode of being unresponsive and her limbs were jerking while in the waiting room that lasted about 30 seconds. On examination, following the episode, she is alert, without signs of focal neurology. Her temperature is 38.9 °C, heart rate 120 bpm and capillary refill time < 2 seconds. She has moist mucous membranes. There is no sign of increased work of breathing. Her chest is clear. She has cervical lymphadenopathy; her throat is red, but no exudate is present on her tonsils. She has clear, thick nasal discharge, and both her tympanic membranes are inflamed, but not bulging. Which of the following is most likely to indicate that the child can be managed safely at home?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seizure/convulsion lasted for < 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      When to Seek Urgent Medical Attention for Febrile Convulsions in Children

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in response to a high body temperature in children aged between six months and three years. While most febrile convulsions are harmless and do not require urgent medical attention, there are certain red flag features that parents should be aware of. If any of the following features are present, urgent hospital admission is necessary:

      – Children aged less than 18 months
      – Diagnostic uncertainty
      – Convulsion lasting longer than 5 minutes
      – Focal features during the seizure
      – Recurrence of convulsion during the same illness or in the last 24 hours
      – Incomplete recovery one hour after the convulsion
      – No focus of infection identified
      – Examination findings suggesting a serious cause for fever such as pneumonia
      – Child currently taking antibiotics, with a clear bacterial focus of infection

      It is important to note that a first febrile convulsion in a child is also an indication for urgent hospital admission. If a child less than six months or over three years experiences a seizure not associated with fever, it may be due to an underlying neurological condition and require further specialist investigation. Parents should be aware of these red flag features and seek medical attention promptly if they are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A toddler girl is brought to the emergency room with her abdominal contents...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler girl is brought to the emergency room with her abdominal contents protruding from the abdominal cavity. The contents are lined by the peritoneum. Her parents did not seek any prenatal scans during pregnancy.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omphalocele

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Abnormalities: An Overview

      Congenital abnormalities are defects present at birth, which can affect various parts of the body. Here are some common congenital abnormalities and their characteristics:

      Omphalocele: This condition occurs when a baby’s abdominal contents protrude outside the abdominal cavity, covered by the sac (amnion). It is associated with other anomalies and requires surgical closure.

      Gastroschisis: In this condition, organs herniate in the abdominal wall, but they are not covered by the peritoneum. It is not associated with other anomalies and has a good prognosis.

      Tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF): TOF refers to a communication between the trachea and oesophagus, usually associated with oesophageal atresia. It can cause choking, coughing, and cyanosis during feeding, and is often accompanied by other congenital anomalies.

      Myelomeningocele: This is a type of spina bifida where the spinal cord and meninges herniate through a hole in the spinal vertebra. It can cause paralysis, incontinence, and other complications, and requires surgical closure and hydrocephalus drainage.

      Meningocele: This is another type of spina bifida where the meninges and fluid herniate through an opening in the vertebral bodies with skin covering. It has a good prognosis and requires surgical closure.

      Understanding these congenital abnormalities can help parents and healthcare providers identify and manage them early on, improving outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - A two-hour-old baby born at 38+5 weeks in the Special Care Baby Unit...

    Incorrect

    • A two-hour-old baby born at 38+5 weeks in the Special Care Baby Unit is exhibiting mild respiratory distress, with subcostal recessions and grunting. The baby's respiratory rate is 68/min without any apnoeas, their heart rate is 150 bpm, and their axillary temperature is 36.8ÂșC. The baby appears pink, with normal pre-post ductal saturations and no additional heart sounds. Fontanelles are normal, and their birth weight is within the normal range.

      The chest X-ray shows hyperinflation and a thin fluid line in the right horizontal fissure. What is the most significant risk factor for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caesarean section delivery

      Explanation:

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is most likely the diagnosis for a baby with mildly raised respiratory rate and increased work of breathing in the hours after labour, with all other observations being normal. Caesarean section delivery is the most important risk factor for TTN, with other risk factors including male gender, birth asphyxia, and gestational diabetes. Breech presentation is not a risk factor for TTN, while meconium in liquor would make meconium aspiration the most likely diagnosis. Fever during vaginal delivery would make other infective differentials more likely, but a sepsis screen would be needed to rule this out before a diagnosis of TTN could be made.

      Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.

      The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A mother brings her 9-month-old son Henry to the Emergency Department (ED) at...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 9-month-old son Henry to the Emergency Department (ED) at 0700 h. She is very concerned. She reports that he has been crying all night. She has two older children: a 4-year-old daughter Allison and a 2-year-old son James, who are both well. Henry was born at 40+1 weeks by normal vaginal delivery. She developed gestational diabetes, but there were no other complications during the pregnancy or birth. Henry has had all his vaccinations. He was breastfed until 6 months old, then bottle-fed. Mother reports that he has been crying non-stop since 0400 h this morning. She tried to feed him, but he vomited twice, minutes after the feed. The first vomit contained food only, the second time it was greenish. Mom has not noticed a change in faeces or urine, except that she has not had to change his nappies since last night. On examination: crying, warm and well perfused, heart rate 150 beats per minute (bpm), abdomen appears distended with tinkling bowel sounds. When you look in his nappies, you notice his stools look like redcurrant jelly.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Bowel Obstruction in Children

      Bowel obstruction in children can be caused by various conditions, each with its own distinct features and treatment options. Here are some of the most common causes of bowel obstruction in children:

      1. Intussusception: This occurs when one segment of the bowel telescopes into another segment, leading to obstruction. It is most common in children aged 6-9 months and may be idiopathic or viral in origin. Symptoms include bilious vomiting, distended abdomen, tinkling bowel sounds, and redcurrant jelly stools. Air enema is the preferred treatment.

      2. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis: This is a gastric outlet obstruction that typically presents at around 3 weeks of life. It is caused by hypertrophy of the pylorus and leads to non-bilious projectile vomiting and a palpable olive mass in the epigastric region. Surgical excision is the treatment of choice.

      3. Meconium obstruction: This occurs only in newborns and is characterized by failure to pass meconium, bilious vomiting, and abdominal distension. It is more common in babies with cystic fibrosis. Diagnosis can be made prenatally or shortly after birth, and treatment involves radiographic contrast enema or surgery.

      4. Ileus: This is aperistaltic bowel caused by factors such as abdominal surgery, electrolyte disturbances, or infection. It presents similarly to mechanical obstruction but is unlikely to be the cause if the child was previously well and has not had recent surgery.

      5. Duodenal atresia: This is a type of bowel obstruction that occurs only in neonates and is associated with Down’s syndrome. It leads to bilious vomiting and proximal stomach distension soon after birth, and a double bubble sign on X-ray. It is caused by failure of recanalization of small bowel in early fetal life. Treatment involves surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A couple brings their 5 week old formula fed baby to the short...

    Incorrect

    • A couple brings their 5 week old formula fed baby to the short stay paediatric ward due to persistent non-bilious vomiting and increasing lethargy. However, the baby's appetite remains substantial. During examination, the baby appears pale and visible peristalsis is observed in the left upper quadrant. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      This presentation may indicate the possibility of pyloric stenosis, as there are signs of visible peristalsis where the stomach is attempting to move its contents past the obstruction. The vomiting is non-bilious, which suggests that the obstruction is located before the second part of the duodenum where bile enters the digestive system. This is different from malrotation and duodenal atresia.

      Understanding Pyloric Stenosis

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.

      The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.

      Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 3-year-old boy was brought to his GP by his mother, who had...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy was brought to his GP by his mother, who had noticed a slight squint in his left eye. During the examination, the GP observed that the red reflex was absent.
      What is the most accurate description of this child's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a significant risk for secondary malignancy in survivors

      Explanation:

      Retinoblastoma: A Rare Eye Cancer with High Survival Rate but Risk of Secondary Malignancy

      Retinoblastoma is a rare type of eye cancer that primarily affects children under the age of 5. It is characterized by an abnormal reflection in the pupil, appearing white instead of red, known as leucocoria. Most cases are caused by mutations in the retinoblastoma 1 (RB1) gene, located on chromosome 13, with one-third of cases being inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Surgical removal of the tumor, usually through enucleation, is the standard treatment, and the 5-year survival rate is almost 100% if diagnosed and treated promptly.

      However, survivors of retinoblastoma are at risk of developing secondary non-ocular tumors, including malignant melanoma, sarcoma, brain tumors, leukemia, and osteosarcoma. Therefore, regular monitoring throughout life is necessary. Most cases are diagnosed before the age of 5, with 90% of cases being diagnosed before the child’s fifth birthday. It is important to note that retinoblastoma is not a recessive condition, and the RB1 gene is located on chromosome 13, not 16.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Since...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Since yesterday, she has developed a fever (38.5ÂșC) and become progressively short of breath. On examination, she appears unwell with stridor and drooling. Her past medical history is otherwise unremarkable.
      What is the most probable causative organism for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae B

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae B (HiB) bacteria. It is characterized by a sudden onset of fever, stridor, and drooling due to inflammation of the epiglottis. It is important to keep the affected child calm and seek specialist input from anaesthetics and paediatrics. In the UK, the current vaccination against HiB has made epiglottitis uncommon. Bordetella pertussis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Parainfluenza virus are incorrect answers as they do not produce the same presentation as acute epiglottitis.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - You are asked to help with the resuscitation of a premature neonate who...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to help with the resuscitation of a premature neonate who is displaying respiratory distress immediately after birth at 36 +4 weeks. During auscultation of the precordium, you observe the absence of heart sounds on the left side but can hear tinkling sounds. Additionally, the infant is exhibiting cyanosis.

      What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intubation and ventilation

      Explanation:

      If you hear bowel sounds during a respiratory exam of a neonate experiencing respiratory distress, it may indicate the presence of a diaphragmatic hernia. This condition occurs when abdominal organs protrude through a hole in the diaphragm, typically on the left side, leading to underdeveloped lungs and breathing difficulties. The sound of bowel in the chest cavity causes the bowel sounds to be audible. The heart sounds may also be louder on the right side due to the displacement of the heart. The initial treatment involves inserting a nasogastric tube to prevent air from entering the gut, but for a cyanotic patient, intubation and ventilation are necessary. Surgical repair of the diaphragm is the definitive treatment. BIPAP and CPAP are not appropriate for this condition, as they are used to keep the airway open in conditions such as COPD or respiratory distress syndrome. Facemask ventilation and nasal cannulae should be avoided as they increase the risk of air entering the gut, and an artificial airway is necessary to ensure adequate oxygenation.

      Understanding Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

      Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) is a rare condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,000 newborns. It occurs when the diaphragm, a muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, fails to form completely during fetal development. As a result, abdominal organs can move into the chest cavity, which can lead to underdeveloped lungs and high blood pressure in the lungs. This can cause respiratory distress shortly after birth.

      The most common type of CDH is a left-sided posterolateral Bochdalek hernia, which accounts for about 85% of cases. This type of hernia occurs when the pleuroperitoneal canal, a structure that connects the chest and abdominal cavities during fetal development, fails to close properly.

      Despite advances in medical treatment, only about 50% of newborns with CDH survive. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes. Treatment may involve surgery to repair the diaphragm and move the abdominal organs back into their proper position. In some cases, a ventilator or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) may be necessary to support breathing until the lungs can function properly. Ongoing care and monitoring are also important to manage any long-term complications that may arise.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - Which feature is not associated with Down's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which feature is not associated with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ataxic gait

      Explanation:

      Down’s Syndrome and Cognitive Decline

      Cerebellar dysfunction is not a characteristic of Down’s syndrome. However, individuals with this condition may experience a decline in memory and cognitive abilities similar to Alzheimer’s disease as they approach their mid-thirties. This syndrome is characterized by a gradual loss of cognitive function, including memory, attention, and problem-solving skills. It is important to note that this decline is not universal and may vary in severity among individuals with Down’s syndrome. Despite this, it is crucial to monitor cognitive function in individuals with Down’s syndrome to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician with a 1 day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician with a 1 day history of limping on her left side. Her parents state that she has been healthy except for a recent cough and her daycare provider has not noticed any injuries. During the physical exam, the child appears uncomfortable and in pain, but has normal range of motion in her left hip. What is the best course of action for management at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent hospital assessment

      Explanation:

      If a child under the age of 3 presents with an acute limp, it is crucial to arrange urgent assessment in secondary care. This is because they are at a higher risk of septic arthritis and child maltreatment, according to Nice Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Additionally, the diagnosis of transient synovitis should be made with extreme caution after ruling out serious causes of limp, as it is rare in this age group. Urgent referral for assessment is recommended due to the difficulty in examining and identifying subtle clinical signs.

      Causes of Limping in Children

      Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A 6-year-old boy is brought in to see his GP by his father,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought in to see his GP by his father, who reports that he has been complaining of a sore throat and has developed a skin rash over the past few days. During examination, you observe erythematous macules and papules measuring 3-4 mm on the dorsum of his hands and feet. You diagnose him with hand, foot and mouth disease. The father inquires if his son should stay home from school. What guidance will you provide regarding school exclusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No need to stay off school if she feels well

      Explanation:

      Exclusion from a childcare setting or school is not necessary for a child with hand, foot and mouth disease, as long as they are feeling well.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - A 15-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension following a rugby...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension following a rugby injury. During the game, he was tackled from the side and experienced intense pain in his left lower rib cage. On examination, the patient has a pulse of 140 bpm and a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg. There is visible bruising over the left flank and tenderness upon palpation. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splenic rupture

      Explanation:

      High Impact Injuries to the Left Flank

      High impact injuries to the left flank can result in damage to the spleen or kidney, as well as the ribs and soft tissue. If the patient experiences fractured ribs and hypotension, it is important to suspect a spleen rupture. Fluid resuscitation can be used to determine if the patient responds positively, and a CT scan can be arranged to confirm the diagnosis. Based on the injury grade and physical parameters, a decision can be made to either manage the injury conservatively or operate.

      Observation should be conducted in a High Dependency Unit (HDU) setting initially to ensure that any deterioration in haemodynamic parameters can be addressed promptly. CT scans are also useful in trauma cases to rule out other injuries, such as hollow visceral injuries that would require a laparotomy. Renal trauma typically does not cause hypotension unless other organs are also injured, and aortic dissection would require more force.

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  • Question 21 - A 10-week-old baby is admitted to the Paediatric Ward by her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-week-old baby is admitted to the Paediatric Ward by her General Practitioner (GP). She was born at term via normal vaginal delivery after an uncomplicated pregnancy. Her birthweight was 2900 g. Her 20-week anomaly scan was unremarkable. Her parents inform you that a heart murmur was noted at her 8-week check, for which she is awaiting routine outpatient assessment. Her parents report that, over the last week, she has had episodes of going blue during feeds and friends have remarked that she looks ‘off colour’. She had a similar episode while with her GP, and oxygen saturation was recorded at 88% peripherally. As a result, the GP called 999 and transferred her to hospital. She is growing along the 25th centile. On examination, she is alert with normal vital signs. Heart sounds reveal a loud systolic murmur at the lower left sternal edge; she had palpable femoral pulses bilaterally and very slight cyanosis. Her chest is clear, without recession or signs of distress. Her liver is not enlarged.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot is a common congenital heart disease that affects around 3-6 out of every 10,000 births. It is characterized by four heart abnormalities that can cause symptoms such as cyanosis, difficulty with feeding, failure to thrive, and Tet spells. Diagnosis is typically made through echocardiography, and surgical correction is usually performed within the first two years of life.

      Cyanotic heart disease can be divided into two groups: those that present in the first week of life and those that present after the first week. Examples of conditions that present in the first week include total pulmonary atresia, tricuspid atresia, and transposition of the great arteries. Examples of conditions that can present after the first week include tetralogy of Fallot, total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage, and tricuspid regurgitation with right-to-left shunt via atrial septal defect.

      Transposition of the great arteries is a cyanotic congenital heart condition where the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary arteries from the left ventricle. It typically presents with central cyanosis within the first day or two of life and is managed with intravenous prostaglandin E1 and balloon atrial septostomy.

      Total pulmonary atresia is a congenital heart abnormality where the pulmonary valve fails to develop, resulting in disrupted blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary trunk. It can occur with or without a ventricular septal defect and is associated with tetralogy of Fallot.

      Ventricular septal defect is a congenital heart defect located in the interventricular septum that allows mixing of blood between the two sides of the heart. Symptoms depend on the size of the defect and can range from asymptomatic to signs of heart failure.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is the failure of closure of the fetal connection between the descending aorta and pulmonary artery. It is not a cyanotic congenital heart defect and can be treated with intravenous indomethacin, cardiac catheterization, or ligation. Symptoms may include decreased exercise tolerance, pulmonary congestion, a cardiac murmur, or heart failure.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother, who reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother, who reports that the child has been feeling unwell for the past day. The mother explains that the girl has a fever and has not been eating properly. The child has no significant medical history. Upon examination, the child appears pale and flushed. There is a widespread maculopapular rash on her chest and back, and small white papules are visible on the inside of her cheeks.
      What is the most common complication associated with the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Otitis media

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of fever, maculopapular rash, and koplik spots suggest a diagnosis of measles. The most common complication of measles is otitis media, which can cause unilateral ear pain, fever, and redness/swelling of the tympanic membrane. While bronchitis and encephalitis are possible complications of measles, they are less common than otitis media. Meningitis is also a serious complication of measles, but it typically presents with different symptoms such as neck stiffness and a non-blanching rash. Orchitis, which causes scrotal pain, is a complication of mumps rather than measles.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease

      Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.

      The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

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  • Question 23 - A 14-month-old boy is brought to the children's emergency department by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old boy is brought to the children's emergency department by his parents who report loss of consciousness and seizure activity. Paramedics state that he was not seizing when they arrived. He has a temperature of 38.5ÂșC and has been unwell recently. His other observations are normal. He has no known past medical history.

      After investigations, the child is diagnosed with a febrile convulsion. What advice should you give his parents regarding this new diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call an ambulance only when a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Febrile convulsions are a common occurrence in young children, with up to 5% of children experiencing them. However, only a small percentage of these children will develop epilepsy. Risk factors for febrile convulsions include a family history of the condition and a background of neurodevelopmental disorder. The use of regular antipyretics has not been proven to decrease the likelihood of febrile convulsions.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - A 7-year-old is brought in by his father who is worried about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old is brought in by his father who is worried about his son's right hip pain that has been ongoing for the past 7 weeks. The father reports that the pain has been getting worse and is now causing his son to wake up at night. Over the last week, he has noticed his son limping and having difficulty getting in and out of the car and bathtub.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perthes' disease

      Explanation:

      Perthes disease is characterized by avascular necrosis of the femoral head, leading to progressive hip pain, stiffness, and limp. It typically affects children between the ages of 4-8 years and can take 2-3 years to heal. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis, which affects overweight or tall thin adolescents, and developmental dysplasia present differently. Transient synovitis of the hip, which resolves within 7-10 days, is not likely due to the absence of a preceding viral illness. Septic joint is also unlikely based on the given information.

      Understanding Perthes’ Disease

      Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.

      To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.

      The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.

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  • Question 25 - What characteristic would be indicative of a ventricular septal defect in an acyanotic,...

    Incorrect

    • What characteristic would be indicative of a ventricular septal defect in an acyanotic, healthy infant who has just had their one-month check-up and a murmur was detected for the first time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A murmur which is loudest at the left sternal edge

      Explanation:

      Ventricular Septal Defects

      Ventricular septal defects (VSD) are a common congenital heart condition that can be classified by location and size. The size of the VSD determines the clinical features and haemodynamic consequences. Small VSDs generate a loud, harsh, pansystolic murmur that is heard best at the left sternal edge and often associated with a thrill. They have minimal haemodynamic consequence so children are asymptomatic. Large VSDs cause greater haemodynamic effects, such that there is little flow through the VSD causing a quiet murmur or none at all. These children present with cardiac failure at around 1 month and, if untreated, over 10-20 years they may progress to Eisenmenger syndrome with reversal of the shunt.

      Central cyanosis in infancy would indicate that an alternative diagnosis is more likely. In addition, children with large VSDs suffer an increased frequency of chest infections. There is pulmonary hypertension with increased vascularity seen on chest x Ray and evidence on ECG e.g. upright T-waves in V1. Initially, they are treated with diuretics and an ACE inhibitor, with surgical closure performed at 3-6 months. On the other hand, small VSDs usually close spontaneously, so children are monitored with ECG and echocardiography. the classification and clinical features of VSDs is crucial in the diagnosis and management of this congenital heart condition.

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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman has just had her 34 week check. The patient reported...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has just had her 34 week check. The patient reported reduced fetal movements 3 days ago, but they are now back to normal. An ultrasound was performed to investigate any potential issues. The obstetrician informs her that a defect in the abdominal wall has been detected and the baby's intestines are outside the body but enclosed in a membrane. Despite this, the baby is healthy. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plan a caesarean section at 37 weeks

      Explanation:

      If the unborn baby has exomphalos, it is recommended to opt for a caesarean section to minimize the chances of sac rupture. The presence of a membrane containing the abdominal content suggests that the baby is likely to have exomphalos. While vaginal delivery is possible, a caesarean section is the safest delivery option. There is no need for an emergency caesarean section as the baby is not experiencing any distress. Inducing labor for vaginal delivery is not advisable, and a caesarean section is a better option. Additionally, IM corticosteroids are not necessary as there is no risk of premature delivery at present. These steroids are typically used when women are at risk of or experience premature labor.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

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  • Question 27 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the Urgent Paediatric Clinic with a urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the Urgent Paediatric Clinic with a urinary tract infection (UTI) that was treated in the community. He was born at term and has been healthy throughout infancy, without previous history of UTI. There is no significant family history. The child's development is appropriate for his age and there have been no concerns about his growth. The antibiotics took effect after 4 days and he is currently doing well. Physical examination, including vital signs, is unremarkable. The child's height and weight are both at the 50th percentile. The microbiology results confirm a UTI caused by Enterococcus. What is the most suitable imaging approach that should have been taken/ordered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent USS during the acute infection with routine DMSA and MCUG

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Imaging in Atypical UTIs in Children

      When a child presents with an atypical urinary tract infection (UTI), imaging is necessary to identify any structural abnormalities in the urinary tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines provide recommendations for imaging based on the age of the child and the severity of the infection.

      For children under 6 months of age with an atypical UTI, an urgent ultrasound scan (USS) is required during the acute infection. Once the infection has resolved, a routine dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan and a micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG) are performed 4-6 months later.

      For children older than 6 months with recurrent UTIs, a routine USS and DMSA scan plus MCUG are recommended. However, for children aged 6 months to 3 years with an atypical UTI, an urgent USS followed by a routine DMSA is sufficient. An MCUG is only performed if there is any dilation identified on USS, poor urine flow, family history of vesico-ureteric reflux, or a non-E. coli infection.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure appropriate imaging and management of atypical UTIs in children.

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  • Question 28 - A 16-month-old toddler comes to your primary care clinic after experiencing a seizure....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old toddler comes to your primary care clinic after experiencing a seizure. The parents are extremely worried as one of their relatives has epilepsy and they fear that their child may have it too. Upon examination, the child seems alert and has a temperature of 38.4C, which the parents say has been present for four days. They have been giving calpol, which has helped to bring it down from a high of 40.7ÂșC. You also notice a pink, maculopapular rash on the chest with minimal spread to the limbs, which the mother says she noticed this morning. The child has been eating but has had some diarrhea, and you can feel some enlarged glands on the back of their head. There is no rash in the mouth. Based on your observations, what do you think is the most probable underlying cause of the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes virus 6

      Explanation:

      Herpes virus 6 is responsible for causing Roseola infantum, which is identified by a high fever lasting for 3-5 days followed by a rash that appears on the chest and spreads to the limbs over a period of 2 days. This rash typically emerges as the fever subsides. Kaposi’s sarcoma is linked to Herpes virus 8 and is commonly observed in individuals with AIDS. ‘Slapped cheek syndrome’ is caused by Parvovirus B19, which initiates a rash that starts on the cheeks and then spreads. Group A Streptococcus is known to cause infections of the throat (also known as strep throat) and skin, including cellulitis, erysipelas, and impetigo.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

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  • Question 29 - You are attending labour for an emergency Caesarean section for failure to progress....

    Incorrect

    • You are attending labour for an emergency Caesarean section for failure to progress. The operation goes on without any complications. The baby cries immediately after birth and there is 30 seconds of delayed cord clamping. On examination, baby is centrally pink with blueish hands and feet. Saturation probes are attached to the baby and show an oxygen saturation of 73% at 5 minutes. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observe and reassess at next interval

      Explanation:

      During the first 10 minutes after birth, it is normal for a healthy newborn to have SpO2 readings that are not optimal. It is also common for them to experience temporary cyanosis, which typically resolves on its own and does not require intervention. It is important to evaluate the baby’s appearance and color using the APGAR scoring system at 1 minute after birth, and then again at 5 and 10 minutes.

      Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, is a common occurrence in newborns. Peripheral cyanosis, which affects the hands and feet, is often seen in the first 24 hours of life and can be caused by crying or illness. Central cyanosis, on the other hand, is a more serious condition that occurs when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl. To differentiate between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis, doctors may use the nitrogen washout test, which involves giving the infant 100% oxygen for ten minutes and then measuring arterial blood gases. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease, which can be caused by conditions such as tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia.

      If cyanotic congenital heart disease is suspected, initial management involves supportive care and the use of prostaglandin E1, such as alprostadil, to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. This can serve as a temporary measure until a definitive diagnosis is made and surgical correction is performed.

      Acrocyanosis, a type of peripheral cyanosis, is a benign condition that is often seen in healthy newborns. It is characterized by bluish discoloration around the mouth and extremities, such as the hands and feet, and is caused by vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction. Unlike other causes of peripheral cyanosis that may indicate significant pathology, such as septic shock, acrocyanosis occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants and typically resolves within 24 to 48 hours.

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  • Question 30 - What is the preferred investigation for diagnosing vesicoureteric reflux in pediatric patients? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the preferred investigation for diagnosing vesicoureteric reflux in pediatric patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Micturating cystourethrogram

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vesicoureteric Reflux

      Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. This is a common urinary tract abnormality in children and can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). In fact, around 30% of children who present with a UTI have VUR. It is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI as around 35% of children develop renal scarring.

      The pathophysiology of VUR involves the ureters being displaced laterally, which causes a shortened intramural course of the ureter. This means that the vesicoureteric junction cannot function properly. VUR can present in different ways, such as hydronephrosis on ultrasound during the antenatal period, recurrent childhood UTIs, and reflux nephropathy, which is chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR. Renal scarring can also produce increased quantities of renin, which can cause hypertension.

      To diagnose VUR, a micturating cystourethrogram is usually performed. A DMSA scan may also be done to check for renal scarring. VUR is graded based on the severity of the condition, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade V being the most severe.

      Overall, understanding VUR is important in preventing complications such as UTIs and renal scarring. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes for children with this condition.

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  • Question 31 - A 6-month-old infant, one of twins born at term, presents with central cyanosis....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant, one of twins born at term, presents with central cyanosis. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transposition of great arteries

      Explanation:

      Congenital Heart Diseases and their Association with Cyanosis

      Congenital heart diseases can be classified into cyanotic and acyanotic types. Coarctation of the aorta is an example of an acyanotic congenital heart disease, which is not associated with cyanosis. On the other hand, tricuspid atresia and transposition of the great arteries are both cyanotic congenital heart diseases that present in the immediate newborn period. Transposition of the great arteries is more common than tricuspid atresia and is therefore more likely to be the cause of cyanosis in newborns.

      It is important to note that some congenital heart diseases involve shunting of blood from the left side of the heart to the right side, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow and eventually causing cyanosis. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) and ventricular septal defect (VSD) are examples of such left-to-right shunts. However, these conditions are not considered cyanotic congenital heart diseases as they do not present with cyanosis in the immediate newborn period.

      In summary, the presence of cyanosis in a newborn can be indicative of a cyanotic congenital heart disease such as tricuspid atresia or transposition of the great arteries. Coarctation of the aorta is an example of an acyanotic congenital heart disease, while PDA and VSD are left-to-right shunts that do not typically present with cyanosis.

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  • Question 32 - When do most children begin to say mama and dada? Is there a...

    Incorrect

    • When do most children begin to say mama and dada? Is there a typical age range for this milestone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 9-10 months

      Explanation:

      Developmental milestones for speech and hearing are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s progress and identify any potential issues early on. At three months, a baby should be able to quieten to their parents’ voice and turn towards sound. They may also start to squeal. By six months, they should be able to produce double syllables like adah and erleh. At nine months, they may say mama and dada and understand the word no. By 12 months, they should know and respond to their own name and understand simple commands like give it to mummy.

      Between 12 and 15 months, a child may know about 2-6 words and understand more complex commands. By two years old, they should be able to combine two words and point to parts of their body. Their vocabulary should be around 200 words by 2 1/2 years old. At three years old, they should be able to talk in short sentences and ask what and who questions. They may also be able to identify colors and count to 10. By four years old, they may start asking why, when, and how questions. These milestones are important to keep in mind as a child grows and develops their speech and hearing abilities.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 33 - A mother who has recently moved brings her 9-year-old child to a new...

    Incorrect

    • A mother who has recently moved brings her 9-year-old child to a new local GP for the first time to check for thyroid issues. During the examination, the GP observes that the child has a short neck, flattened nose, and is of short stature. Additionally, the GP notices prominent epicanthic folds and a single palmar crease. What long-term condition is this child at a higher risk for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer's disease

      Explanation:

      It is believed that around 50% of individuals over the age of 85 may suffer from Alzheimer’s. Asthma is an incorrect option as there is no evidence to suggest that individuals with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of developing the condition. The patient was brought in for a thyroid check as there is a link between hypothyroidism and Down syndrome, but no association between Down syndrome and hyperthyroidism exists, making this option incorrect. While acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is associated with Down syndrome, lymphoma is not, making it an incorrect option.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

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  • Question 34 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father with...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father with bruising after a fall. During assessment, it is noted that she has a global developmental delay. She walks with difficulty, has some fine motor skills, and is playing with toys during the consultation. There are bruises on her back, right elbow, and right thigh, at different stages of healing.
      Her father reports that these bruises are from her being clumsy for the past few months and he himself once had bruising which required oral steroids and thinks she has developed the same condition.
      What would be the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediately contact safeguarding lead

      Explanation:

      The presence of multiple bruises at different stages of healing in an infant who has been brought a few months after the injuries occurred should raise suspicion of non-accidental injury. This is because it is unlikely for a child to have so many bruises from clumsiness alone. A delayed presentation may also suggest non-accidental injury. Therefore, the correct course of action is to immediately contact the safeguarding lead. While coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing may be performed later, they are not the first priority. Similarly, oral prednisolone is not the first-line treatment for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and is not relevant in this case. The priority is to assess the infant for non-accidental injury.

      Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms

      Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.

      Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.

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  • Question 35 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. They report that she has had an upper respiratory tract infection for the past few days. Upon arrival, she complains of an increased headache. Upon examination, she exhibits neck stiffness and a positive Kernig's sign.

      The following investigations were conducted:

      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 16.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Creatinine 98 ÎŒmol/l 50–120 ”mol/l
      Lumbar puncture Gram-negative diplococci –

      What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stat dose of cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Management of Meningococcal Meningitis in Children: Prioritizing Antibiotic Administration

      Meningococcal meningitis is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent morbidity and mortality. The first step in management is administering a stat dose of third-generation cephalosporin antibiotics, such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone, as early as possible after lumbar puncture. If lumbar puncture cannot be performed within 30 minutes of admission, empirical treatment should be considered.

      While other interventions, such as intubation and mechanical ventilation, correction of electrolyte abnormalities, and imaging studies like CT or MRI scans, may be necessary at some point in management, they should not take precedence over administering antibiotics. Urgent CT or MRI scans are only indicated if there are clinical signs and symptoms of raised intracranial pressure or complications of meningitis.

      In summary, the priority in managing meningococcal meningitis in children is administering antibiotics as early as possible to prevent the rapid dissemination of the disease and its associated morbidity and mortality.

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  • Question 36 - A 24-hour old baby is evaluated in the neonatal intensive care unit due...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-hour old baby is evaluated in the neonatal intensive care unit due to tremors in his limbs, as observed by his nurse. He is also experiencing poor feeding, increased irritability, and excessive drowsiness. The baby was delivered via emergency caesarean section at 34 weeks due to reduced foetal movements and foetal bradycardia. The mother had an otherwise healthy pregnancy, but was taking lamotrigine for epilepsy. During the examination, the baby appeared larger than expected for his prematurity and exhibited visible arm tremors. Based on these symptoms, which aspect of the baby's medical history is most likely responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prematurity

      Explanation:

      Prematurity is a significant risk factor for neonatal hypoglycaemia, which is characterized by autonomic symptoms such as irritability and jitteriness, as well as neuroglycopenic symptoms like drowsiness and poor feeding. This is because preterm infants have not yet developed the same glycogen reserve as term infants. Admission to the neonatal intensive care unit, delivery via emergency caesarean section, formula feeding, and maternal lamotrigine use are not independent risk factors for neonatal hypoglycaemia. While caesarean section may result in transient hypoglycaemia, it is not typically symptomatic due to the lack of catecholamine release present during vaginal delivery. Terbutaline use, on the other hand, may increase the risk of hypoglycaemia.

      Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.

      Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.

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  • Question 37 - A 4-year-old boy, with a history of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy, with a history of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), is admitted to the Paediatric Ward due to a fever of 38.9 °C at home. He received his last treatment 1 week ago. His parents report that he has been feeling well, without cough, cold, rash, or vomiting.
      Upon examination, his vital signs are stable except for a temperature of 38.4 °C. Physical examination is unremarkable. Blood tests and blood culture are taken from the portacath, revealing a haemoglobin (Hb) level of 11.5, a white cell count (WCC) of 1.1, neutrophils of 0.2, and a C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 85.
      What is the most crucial next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start intravenous (iv) TazocinÂź

      Explanation:

      Management of Febrile Neutropenia in a Child with ALL Receiving Chemotherapy

      Febrile neutropenia is a serious complication in cancer patients, particularly those receiving chemotherapy. It is defined as neutropenia with fever or symptoms of significant sepsis. In such cases, immediate initiation of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics is crucial to prevent mortality.

      In this scenario, a child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) presents with febrile neutropenia. The first step is to start intravenous TazocinÂź monotherapy, pending blood cultures and a thorough physical examination. A urine sample should also be obtained, particularly for children under the age of 5. Chest radiography is only necessary for symptomatic children.

      After 48 hours, if the child shows improvement and cultures are negative, empirical antibiotic treatment can be discontinued or switched to oral antibiotics such as AugmentinÂź. Intravenous fluids may be necessary if the child deteriorates or becomes haemodynamically unstable.

      It is also important to send urine and stool samples for microbial culture and sensitivity (MC&S) to investigate sepsis. However, initiating antibiotics should be the first priority.

      In summary, febrile neutropenia in cancer patients is a medical emergency that requires prompt initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics. Close monitoring and appropriate investigations are necessary to ensure timely and effective management.

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  • Question 38 - A 35-year-old mother had a natural birth at home. Ten days later, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old mother had a natural birth at home. Ten days later, she brought her newborn to the Emergency Department, complaining of a musty odour of the skin and urine. Examination reveals hypopigmentation and eczema. Genetic testing revealed an autosomal recessive genetic disorder.
      Which of the following is most likely linked to the condition of the newborn?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase

      Explanation:

      Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Defects and Their Characteristics

      Phenylketonuria (PKU) is caused by a defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase, leading to an excess of phenylalanine and phenylketones in the urine. A musty odour of the skin and hair is a common symptom.

      Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) is characterized by decreased α-ketoacid dehydrogenase, which can cause brain damage and is often fatal in infants.

      Cystinuria is caused by a defect in the transporter for cysteine, leading to persistent kidney stones.

      Alkaptonuria is caused by a deficiency in homogentisic acid oxidase, which can cause brown or black coloration of urine upon exposure to air.

      Albinism is caused by a defect in tyrosinase, resulting in a partial or complete absence of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes, leading to a characteristic pale appearance.

      These inherited metabolic disorders have distinct defects and characteristics that can aid in their diagnosis and management.

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  • Question 39 - A 2-year-old boy is admitted to the ward with difficulty breathing. His mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy is admitted to the ward with difficulty breathing. His mother reports a 3-day illness with cough and cold symptoms, low-grade fever and increasing difficulty breathing this morning. He has had no similar episodes. The family are all non-smokers and there is no history of atopy. His immunisations are up-to-date and he is otherwise growing and developing normally.
      In the Emergency Department, he was given burst therapy and is now on one-hourly salbutamol inhalers. On examination, he is alert and playing. Heart rate (HR) 150 bpm, respiratory rate (RR) 40 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 94% on air. There is mild subcostal recession, and his chest shows good air entry bilaterally, with mild wheeze throughout.
      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stretch to 2-hourly salbutamol and add 10 mg soluble prednisone for 3 days

      Explanation:

      Management of Viral-Induced Wheeze in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Viral-induced wheeze is a common presentation of wheeze in preschool children, typically associated with a viral infection. Inhaled b2 agonists are the first line of treatment, given hourly during acute episodes. However, for children with mild symptoms and maintaining saturations above 92%, reducing the frequency of salbutamol to 2-hourly and gradually weaning off may be appropriate. Steroid tablet therapy is recommended for use in hospital settings and early management of asthma symptoms in this age group. It is important to establish a personal and family history of atopy, as a wheeze is more likely to be induced by asthma if it occurs when the child is otherwise well. Oxygen via nasal cannulae is not necessary for mild symptoms. Prednisolone may be added for 3 days with a strong history of atopy, while montelukast is given for 5 days to settle inflammation in children without atopy. AtroventÂź nebulisers are not typically used in the treatment of viral-induced wheeze but may be useful in children with atopy history where salbutamol fails to reduce symptoms.

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  • Question 40 - A 4-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a fever, poor...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a fever, poor feeding, and cough. The infant has received all routine vaccinations. Upon examination, the baby is alert and responsive, but there is increased work of breathing. Coarse crackles and a wheeze can be heard throughout the chest. The infant's heart sounds and ECG are normal, and a lumbar puncture is performed and reported as unremarkable. However, one hour later, the patient experiences a cardiac arrest. What is the most probable underlying cause of this arrest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      The most frequent reason for children’s cardiac arrest is respiratory issues, with bronchiolitis being the most common cause. Bronchiolitis is characterized by symptoms such as cough, fever, and poor feeding, as well as physical examination findings like wheezing, crackles, and increased respiratory effort. Congenital cardiac disease is an incorrect option since the patient has normal cardiac findings and ECG. Croup is also an incorrect option as it causes a distinct barking noise and is more prevalent in children aged 6 months to 2 years. Meningitis is another incorrect option as it typically results in an unwell infant with a fever and rapid breathing, but the analysis of cerebrospinal fluid would show abnormalities, which is not the case for this patient.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 41 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother. His father...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother. His father passed away two weeks ago. He is feeling very emotional and is hesitant to return to school. He has no known risk factors for depression.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing his situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supportive chat, provide resources and arrange follow-up

      Explanation:

      Managing Traumatic Life Events in Children: Appropriate Interventions and Referrals

      When a child experiences a traumatic life event, it is important to provide appropriate interventions and referrals to prevent the development of depression. For children with low risk of developing depression, a supportive chat, resource provision, and follow-up should be the first line of management. Urgent referral to Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) is only necessary if the child has two or more risk factors for depression or is currently displaying signs of depression.

      Encouraging the child to return to school as soon as possible is also crucial. The school can offer support and help the child maintain contact with peers. Referral to CAMHS should only be considered if the child meets the criteria mentioned above.

      Initiating antidepressant medication such as fluoxetine should be done in secondary care and is not recommended for this child at present. By following appropriate interventions and referrals, we can help children cope with traumatic life events and prevent the development of depression.

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  • Question 42 - A 7-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with severe wheezing and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with severe wheezing and shortness of breath. She is struggling to speak in full sentences and her peak expiratory flow rate is 320 l/min (45% of normal). Her oxygen saturation levels are at 92%. Her pCO2 is 4.8 kPa.

      What is the most concerning finding from the above information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pCO2 (kPa)

      Explanation:

      Assessing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children, the 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines recommend using specific criteria. These criteria can help determine whether the attack is severe or life-threatening. For a severe attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% of their best or predicted, and may be too breathless to talk or feed. Additionally, their heart rate may be over 125 (for children over 5 years old) or over 140 (for children between 1-5 years old), and their respiratory rate may be over 30 breaths per minute (for children over 5 years old) or over 40 (for children between 1-5 years old). They may also be using accessory neck muscles to breathe.

      For a life-threatening attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% of their best or predicted, and may have a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, or cyanosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to take appropriate action to manage the child’s asthma attack. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that children with asthma receive the appropriate care and treatment they need during an acute attack.

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  • Question 43 - A toddler is brought to the emergency department after a near-drowning incident in...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler is brought to the emergency department after a near-drowning incident in a swimming pool. The child is unresponsive and requires intubation for airway management. Upon examination, the child is found to have global hypotonia and abnormal reflexes, indicating possible hypoxic brain injury. What is the most crucial intervention for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Therapeutic cooling

      Explanation:

      The most important intervention for reducing the likelihood of significant hypoxic-ischaemic brain injury in neonates with poor neurological status following a traumatic delivery and acidosis is therapeutic cooling at 33-35 degrees. This approach attempts to prevent severe brain damage. The use of sodium bicarbonate correction, blood transfusion, skin to skin contact with mum, and vitamin K are not essential or effective in reducing brain damage from hypoxic injury.

      Therapeutic Cooling for Neonates with Hypoxic Brain Injury

      Therapeutic cooling, also known as therapeutic hypothermia, is a medical procedure that involves deliberately lowering a patient’s body temperature to cool the brain and prevent brain damage. This procedure has been proposed for several therapeutic uses, including neuroprotection during open-heart and neurosurgical procedures, in patients following a return of spontaneous circulation post-ventricular fibrillation arrest, in patients with trauma head injuries, in patients who have suffered acute ischemic stroke, and in neonates with moderate to severe hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE). However, the only use whose efficacy has been consistently proven in existing literature is the use of therapeutic cooling in neonates.

      The use of therapeutic cooling in carefully selected term neonates with moderate to severe HIE has been recommended as standard care by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). It has been shown in studies to decrease mortality and improve the neurological and neurodevelopmental outcomes of treated neonates. Hypoxic perinatal brain injury is caused by a decrease in the amount of oxygen supplied to an infant’s brain just prior to, or during the process of, labor. Neonates who survive a hypoxic brain injury can develop HIE, which occurs in an estimated 2.5/1000 term births in developed countries and 26/1000 term births in the developing world.

      Therapeutic cooling remains the only intervention shown to reduce neuronal damage caused by perinatal hypoxia. The procedure is thought to influence the extent of secondary neuronal death in a multifactorial manner, although the exact way in which it achieves this is not fully understood. The procedure involves placing the infant on a cooling blanket or mattress circulated with coolant fluid or circulating cold water in a cap fitted around the head. Temperature is continuously monitored throughout the treatment using either a rectal or nasopharyngeal thermometer. Close surveillance of infants during the cooling process is required given the risk for complications of both HIE and the process of cooling itself.

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  • Question 44 - A 22-month-old toddler has been hospitalized after experiencing a significant rectal hemorrhage that...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-month-old toddler has been hospitalized after experiencing a significant rectal hemorrhage that necessitated a blood transfusion. Despite the bleeding, the child seems calm and free of discomfort.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital disorder that can cause malformation in the small intestine. Although it is often asymptomatic, it can lead to acid release and ulceration of the small intestine. This condition is the most common cause of gastrointestinal bleeding requiring transfusion in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years, presenting with symptoms such as bright red rectal bleeding, constipation, nausea and vomiting, and abdominal pain.

      Other conditions that can cause bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract include oesophagitis, which is typically caused by acid reflux and presents with heartburn, and anal fissures, which are often painful or itchy and commonly occur in those who have been constipated. However, these conditions are not typically associated with transfusion.

      Necrotising enterocolitis is another condition that can cause gastrointestinal bleeding and severe illness, but it is more common in neonates, particularly those born prematurely. Meckel’s diverticulum remains the most common cause of painless massive GI bleeding requiring transfusion in young children.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.

      In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.

      To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.

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  • Question 45 - A 10-month-old infant is brought to the ward following a visit to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old infant is brought to the ward following a visit to the emergency department due to seizures. The parents present a video of the contractions that seem to resemble colic. They also express worry about their child's development, noting a change. An EEG and MRI head are conducted, revealing hypsarrhythmia and an abnormality, respectively. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: West's syndrome

      Explanation:

      West’s syndrome is characterized by infantile spasms, which can be mistaken for colic by families. However, it is crucial to recognize that there is an underlying pathology indicated by abnormal EEG and MRI results, with hypsarrhythmia being a classic feature of West’s syndrome. While seizures in babies may resemble infantile colic or pseudo seizures, the presence of abnormal EEG readings confirms a brain pathology. There is no evidence of infection or fever to suggest febrile convulsions. Partial seizures with sensory auras are often associated with temporal lobe seizures.

      Understanding Infantile Spasms

      Infantile spasms, also known as West syndrome, is a form of epilepsy that typically occurs in infants between 4 to 8 months old, with a higher incidence in male infants. This condition is often associated with a serious underlying condition and has a poor prognosis. The characteristic feature of infantile spasms is the salaam attacks, which involve the flexion of the head, trunk, and arms followed by the extension of the arms. These attacks last only 1-2 seconds but can be repeated up to 50 times.

      Infants with infantile spasms may also experience progressive mental handicap. To diagnose this condition, an EEG is typically performed, which shows hypsarrhythmia in two-thirds of infants. Additionally, a CT scan may be used to identify any diffuse or localized brain disease, which is present in 70% of cases, such as tuberous sclerosis.

      Unfortunately, infantile spasms carry a poor prognosis. However, there are treatment options available. Vigabatrin is now considered the first-line therapy, and ACTH is also used.

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  • Question 46 - A 14-year-old girl presents to her GP with concerns about not having started...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to her GP with concerns about not having started her periods. She has also not developed any other secondary sexual characteristics. Upon examination, she is found to be proportionate but notably short in stature. Additionally, she has wide-spaced nipples, low-set ears, and subtle neck webbing. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic coarctation

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Turner’s syndrome (XO) often exhibit physical characteristics such as a webbed neck, low set ears, and widely spaced nipples. Short stature and primary amenorrhea are common, along with a degree of puberty failure. Other physical features to look for include a wide carrying angle, down-sloping eyes with partial ptosis, and a low posterior hairline. Turner’s syndrome is frequently linked to aortic coarctation and bicuspid aortic valve, while other cardiac abnormalities may be associated with different genetic conditions.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

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  • Question 47 - A 16-week-old infant is brought to the GP by their mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-week-old infant is brought to the GP by their mother due to regurgitation and vomiting after most feeds, ongoing diarrhea with significant amounts of mucous, and difficulty settling. The mother also reports that the infant often pulls their legs up to their chest during crying episodes. The infant was born at full term, had a healthy weight at birth, and is formula-fed. They have a history of eczema managed with emollients. What is the recommended next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of extensively hydrolysed formula

      Explanation:

      In case of mild-moderate cow’s milk protein intolerance in a baby who is fed with formula, it is recommended to switch to an extensively hydrolyzed formula.

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 48 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician as her mother has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician as her mother has noticed her limping for the past day. She is up to date with her vaccinations and has no past medical history, although she did have symptoms of a cold a few days ago.

      During the examination, the girl appears to be in good health. Her temperature is 38.3ÂșC, her heart rate is 110 beats per minute, her respiratory rate is 25 breaths per minute, and her oxygen saturation is 100% on air. There is no redness, swelling, or erythema to her hip joint, and she allows slight movement of the hip, although she becomes upset with excessive movement.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for a same-day hospital assessment

      Explanation:

      If a child is experiencing hip pain or a limp and also has a fever, it is important to refer them for same-day assessment, even if the suspected diagnosis is transient synovitis.

      Based on the child’s age, overall health (aside from the fever), recent cold, and examination findings (limited movement but a normal-looking joint without significant restriction), transient synovitis is the most likely cause of the hip pain. While this condition can be managed with pain relief and typically resolves on its own, any child with hip pain and a fever should be assessed immediately to rule out septic arthritis.

      In secondary care, the Kocher criteria are used to determine the likelihood of a septic joint based on a combination of signs and symptoms (fever and non-weight bearing) and blood tests (ESR and white cell count).

      A routine hip ultrasound is not necessary in this case, as it is typically used to screen for developmental dysplasia of the hip in newborns or those with risk factors. Bilateral hip x-rays are also not required, as they are used to investigate suspected Perthes’ disease, which presents differently and is more common in slightly older children.

      Conservative management is appropriate for transient synovitis, but it is important to have a low threshold for referral to secondary care given the potential for septic arthritis. A routine referral to paediatric orthopaedics is not necessary for either transient synovitis or septic arthritis.

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 49 - A 6-year-old boy fell off his bike and now has an angled left...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy fell off his bike and now has an angled left elbow. His left hand feels cold and there are no detectable brachial, radial, or ulnar pulses. An X-ray of the elbow reveals a displaced humeral supracondylar fracture on the left side (Milch Type 1/Gartland II). What is the most suitable initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning of the fracture

      Explanation:

      Complications and Management of Supracondylar Fractures

      Supracondylar fractures can lead to various complications, including vascular and nerve injuries, compartment syndrome, and malunion. Arterial injury is a common complication, occurring in 5% of fractures, and can result from the brachial artery becoming kinked or lacerated. It is important to carefully check and record the distal circulation in the patient’s notes.

      Initial management of supracondylar fractures involves providing analgesia and performing an emergency reduction of the fracture to restore the brachial artery’s unkinking and distal blood flow. Displaced fractures are typically treated with percutaneous pinning. However, if blood flow is not restored, a vascular surgeon should perform a surgical exploration of the brachial artery.

      Lacerations of the artery can be repaired either primarily with sutures or with a vein graft. It is crucial to address complications promptly to prevent further damage and ensure proper healing. By the potential complications and appropriate management strategies, healthcare professionals can provide optimal care for patients with supracondylar fractures.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 50 - A 4 month old boy is suspected of having hypospadias. In boys with...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 month old boy is suspected of having hypospadias. In boys with this condition, where is the urethral opening most commonly located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: On the distal ventral surface of the penis

      Explanation:

      The anomaly is typically situated on the underside and frequently towards the end. Urethral openings found closer to the body are a known occurrence. Surgical removal of the foreskin may hinder the process of repairing the defect.

      Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis

      Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.

      Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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