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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman presents to a routine antenatal clinic at 16 weeks gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to a routine antenatal clinic at 16 weeks gestation. She has a history of occasional frontal headaches but no significant past medical history. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 148/76 mmHg. Urinalysis shows a pH of 6.5, +1 protein, 0 nitrates, 0 leucocytes, and 0 blood. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia

      Correct Answer: Chronic hypertension

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis in this case is chronic hypertension. It is unlikely that the patient has developed any pregnancy-related causes of hypertension at only 16 weeks gestation. The small amount of protein in her urine suggests that she may have had hypertension for some time. The patient’s intermittent frontal headaches are a common occurrence and do not indicate pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia and gestational hypertension typically occur after 20 weeks gestation, with pre-eclampsia being associated with significant proteinuria and gestational hypertension without. Nephrotic syndrome would typically present with a larger degree of proteinuria.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In a case-control study on the association between coffee drinking and lung cancer,...

    Incorrect

    • In a case-control study on the association between coffee drinking and lung cancer, 100 patients with lung cancer and 100 healthy controls were recruited.

      It was reported that the odds ratio of lung cancer in people who drank coffee daily as compared to those who did not drink coffee was 1.3 (p=0.01).

      Based on these findings, what is a valid conclusion regarding the relationship between daily coffee consumption and lung cancer risk?

      Your Answer: The result derived from this case-control study is unreliable

      Correct Answer: People who drink coffee daily were at 1.3 times increased odds of being in the lung cancer group

      Explanation:

      The FEV1/FVC ratio is a key measurement in lung function tests. In normal subjects, this ratio ranges from 0.75 to 0.85. If the ratio is less than 0.70, it suggests an obstructive problem that reduces the FEV1, which is the volume of air that can be expelled in one second. However, if the ratio is normal, it indicates that the individual has a healthy respiratory system.

      In cases of restrictive lung disease, the FVC is reduced, which can also affect the FEV1/FVC ratio. In such cases, the ratio may be normal or even high. Therefore, it is important to interpret the FEV1/FVC ratio in conjunction with other lung function test results to accurately diagnose and manage respiratory conditions. This ratio can help healthcare professionals identify potential lung problems and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      214.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old male presents with complaints of difficulty breathing. During the physical examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents with complaints of difficulty breathing. During the physical examination, clubbing of the fingers is observed. What medical condition is commonly associated with clubbing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory and Other Causes of Clubbing of the Fingers

      Clubbing of the fingers is a condition where the tips of the fingers become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. This condition is often associated with respiratory diseases such as carcinoma of the lung, bronchiectasis, mesothelioma, empyema, and pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is not typically associated with chronic obstructive airway disease (COAD). Other causes of clubbing of the fingers include cyanotic congenital heart disease, inflammatory bowel disease, and infective endocarditis.

      In summary, clubbing of the fingers is a physical manifestation of various underlying medical conditions. It is important to identify the underlying cause of clubbing of the fingers in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 4 - A 9-year-old girl presents to a general practice appointment with her mother complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents to a general practice appointment with her mother complaining of right-sided hip pain and occasional limp for the past month. The patient is feeling well, has no fever, and is in the 90th percentile for weight. She was born via spontaneous vertex vaginal delivery at term and had a normal newborn physical examination. On examination, there is limited range of motion in her right hip. A frog-leg hip x-ray is ordered, which reveals sclerosis of the right upper femoral epiphysis and moderate resorption of the femoral head. What is the most accurate diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The condition is 5 times more common in boys

      Explanation:

      Perthes disease is a condition that primarily affects one hip, with only a minority of patients experiencing it in both hips. It is not associated with obesity, unlike slipped capital femoral epiphysis which is more common in overweight children. The management of Perthes disease typically involves conservative measures such as casting or bracing, although surgery may be necessary for older children or those with significant damage to the hip socket. The use of a Pavlik harness is not appropriate for treating Perthes disease, as it is typically used for developmental dysplasia of the hip.

      Understanding Perthes’ Disease

      Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.

      To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.

      The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - An older woman presents with an intermittent frontal headache associated with pain around...

    Incorrect

    • An older woman presents with an intermittent frontal headache associated with pain around her right eye which looks slightly red. She describes episodes occurring while she watches television in the evening, during which she sees halos around lights in the room. On examination, there is no tenderness around her temporal artery and her eye appears normal. She has normal visual acuity.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Closed angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Red Eye with Headache and Visual Symptoms

      When a patient presents with a painful red eye, headache, and visual symptoms, several conditions should be considered. One possible diagnosis is primary closed angle glaucoma, which can present as latent, subacute, or acute. Subacute closed angle glaucoma causes intermittent attacks with blurring of vision and halos around light sources, while acute glaucoma is more severe and requires urgent reduction in intraocular pressure. Another possible diagnosis is anterior uveitis, which presents with a persistent painful red eye and photophobia but does not cause headaches or halos in the vision.

      Migraine is also an important differential, as its symptoms can be mistaken for acute glaucoma. Tension headaches are less likely, as they are not associated with visual symptoms. Finally, giant cell arthritis should be considered, especially if the patient has symptoms of claudication such as temporal headache and jaw pain when chewing food, as well as scalp tenderness and pulseless beaded temporal arteries on examination.

      In summary, a painful red eye with headache and visual symptoms can have several possible causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old male with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is experiencing uncontrolled...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is experiencing uncontrolled tachycardia despite treatment with digoxin and bisoprolol, leading to acute left ventricular dysfunction. The patient has been prescribed amiodarone. What investigation must be done before starting amiodarone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function test

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Function

      Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, can have adverse effects on thyroid function. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can occur as a result of amiodarone use. Clinical assessment alone may not be reliable in detecting these disorders, so the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends laboratory testing before treatment and every six months during therapy.

      It is important to note that amiodarone can cause an elevation in thyroxine (T4) levels, even in the absence of hyperthyroidism. This is due to the medication’s inhibition of the conversion of T4 to triiodothyronine (T3). Therefore, it is crucial to test for both thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and T3 in addition to T4.

      In addition to thyroid dysfunction, amiodarone can also be hepatotoxic, meaning it can cause liver damage. If evidence of liver dysfunction develops, treatment with amiodarone should be discontinued. Regular monitoring and testing can help detect and manage these potential adverse effects of amiodarone therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with her friend. The friend...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with her friend. The friend reports that they had an argument and the patient took 'lots of tablets'. The patient denies this but agrees to further investigations. Her ABG results show:
      Normal range
      pH: 7.47 (7.35 - 7.45)
      pO2: 12 (10 - 14)kPa
      pCO2: 3.6 (4.5 - 6.0)kPa
      HCO3: 22 (22 - 26)mmol/l
      BE: +1 (-2 to +2)mmol/l
      After two hours, the patient complains of feeling very unwell and experiencing ringing in her ears. A repeat ABG is performed and shows:
      Normal range
      pH: 7.16 (7.35 - 7.45)
      pO2: 11 (10 - 14)kPa
      pCO2: 3.1 (4.5 - 6.0)kPa
      HCO3: 8 (22 - 26)mmol/l
      BE: -19 (-2 to +2)mmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin overdose

      Explanation:

      The typical image of an aspirin overdose is characterized by an initial respiratory alkalosis caused by heightened respiratory effort due to stimulation of the central respiratory center. Subsequently, a metabolic acidosis develops in conjunction with the respiratory alkalosis, which is attributed to the direct impact of the salicylic acid metabolite.

      Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 54-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. She has a history of factor V Leiden mutation and has smoked 20 packs of cigarettes per year. Upon examination, the patient has a fever of 38.0 °C, blood pressure of 134/82 mmHg, heart rate of 101 bpm, respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute, and oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. Both lungs are clear upon auscultation. Cardiac examination reveals a loud P2 and a new systolic murmur at the left lower sternal border. The patient also has a swollen and red right lower extremity. An electrocardiogram (ECG) taken in the Emergency Department was normal, and troponins were within the normal range.
      Which of the following chest X-ray findings is consistent with the most likely underlying pathology in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wedge-shaped opacity in the right middle lobe

      Explanation:

      Radiological Findings and Their Significance in Diagnosing Medical Conditions

      Wedge-shaped opacity in the right middle lobe

      A wedge-shaped opacity in the right middle lobe on a chest X-ray could indicate a pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage in a lung artery. This finding is particularly significant in patients with risk factors for clotting, such as a history of smoking or factor V Leiden mutation.

      Diffuse bilateral patchy, cloudy opacities

      Diffuse bilateral patchy, cloudy opacities on a chest X-ray could suggest acute respiratory distress syndrome or pneumonia. These conditions can cause inflammation and fluid buildup in the lungs, leading to the appearance of cloudy areas on the X-ray.

      Rib-notching

      Rib-notching is a radiological finding that can indicate coarctation of the aorta, a narrowing of the main artery that carries blood from the heart. Dilated vessels in the chest can obscure the ribs, leading to the appearance of notches on the X-ray.

      Cardiomegaly

      Cardiomegaly, or an enlarged heart, can be seen on a chest X-ray and may indicate heart failure. This condition occurs when the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs and other parts of the body.

      Lower lobe opacities with blunting of the costophrenic angle on PA chest film and opacities along the left lateral thorax on left lateral decubitus film

      Lower lobe opacities with blunting of the costophrenic angle on a posterior-anterior chest X-ray and opacities along the left lateral thorax on a left lateral decubitus film can indicate pleural effusion. This condition occurs when fluid accumulates in the space between the lungs and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse and leading to the appearance of cloudy areas on the X-ray. The location of the opacities can shift depending on the patient’s position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 9 - A patient in their 50s is brought to the acute mental health unit...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 50s is brought to the acute mental health unit by the police after being found on the street shouting at people. They have no known past medical history.

      On examination, they are poorly dressed. When asked about their mood, they begin by asking what colour the sky is, then begin to talk about their strong dislike for cheese, followed by wanting to break the table lamp they own at home. Throughout the consultation, they speak slowly.

      What term best describes this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Knight's move

      Explanation:

      Knight’s move thinking involves illogical leaps from one idea to another without any discernible link between them, while flight of ideas involves moving from one idea to another with discernible links between them. In this scenario, the patient is exhibiting Knight’s move thinking, which is a thought disorder associated with schizophrenia. This is different from circumstantiality, which involves giving excessive, unnecessary detail without returning to the original point, and clang associations, which involves linking ideas based on their sound or rhyme. Flight of ideas, on the other hand, involves rapid and pressured speech with discernible links between ideas.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment, believing she is 10 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment, believing she is 10 weeks pregnant. Which of the following is not typically done during this appointment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic examination

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain that occurs after eating. She also...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain that occurs after eating. She also reports weight loss due to her abdominal pain preventing her from eating large amounts. Her medical history includes stable angina and intermittent claudication caused by peripheral arterial disease. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities on the abdomen, but there is general tenderness upon palpation, no signs of organ enlargement, and normal bowel sounds. Routine blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests, are normal. CT angiography shows an obstructed coeliac trunk and a stenosed but patent superior mesenteric artery. Which organ is most likely to be ischemic and contributing to this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stomach

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Mesenteric Ischaemia and Organ Involvement

      Chronic mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is reduced blood flow to the intestines due to the narrowing or blockage of major mesenteric vessels. Patients with this condition often present with postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, and concurrent vascular co-morbidities. To develop symptoms, at least two of the major mesenteric vessels must be affected, with one of these two occluded.

      The coeliac trunk is one of the major mesenteric vessels, and when it is occluded, the organs it supplies are at risk. These organs include the stomach, spleen, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, duodenum, and abdominal portion of the oesophagus.

      The jejunum is supplied directly by the superior mesenteric artery, but it is less likely to be the cause of symptoms than a foregut structure supplied by the coeliac trunk. The transverse colon is supplied by the right and middle colic arteries and the left colic artery, but it is unlikely to be the cause of symptoms if neither the superior nor the inferior mesenteric artery is completely occluded. The descending colon is supplied by the left colic artery, but it is unlikely to be the organ causing symptoms if this artery is neither occluded nor stenosed. The ileum is also supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, but it is less likely to be the cause of symptoms than a foregut structure.

      In summary, understanding the involvement of different organs in chronic mesenteric ischaemia can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 75-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type II diabetes complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type II diabetes complains of sudden, painless vision loss in his right eye. Upon examination, his left eye has 6/6 visual acuity, but he can only perceive finger movement in his right eye. Fundoscopy reveals significant retinal hemorrhages originating from the disc. What is the probable cause of his vision loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is central retinal vein occlusion, which presents with sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy. This condition is associated with risk factors such as increasing age, hypertension, high cholesterol, diabetes, smoking, glaucoma, and polycythaemia. The blockage of the vein causes excess fluid and blood to leak into the retina, resulting in the appearance of severe haemorrhages that resemble a cheese and tomato pizza.

      Central retinal artery occlusion shares similar risk factors with retinal vein occlusion, but its appearance on fundoscopy is different. In central retinal artery occlusion, the retina appears pale, and the macula appears red (cherry-red spot).

      Non-arteritic ischaemic optic neuropathy also causes sudden painless loss of vision, but it is characterized by a hyperaemic, oedematous optic disc with a small cup to disc ratio.

      Retinal detachment is another condition that causes painless loss of vision, but patients usually report preceding flashes or floaters. Risk factors for retinal detachment include increasing age, eye injury, or extreme myopia.

      Finally, a vitreous haemorrhage can also cause painless loss of vision, but fundoscopy is not useful in this case as the vitreous is filled with blood, obscuring the view of the retina.

      Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

      Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.

      Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.

      Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 13 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father who is concerned about her growth. He reports that she is not keeping up with her peers in terms of height and weight. The girl has been experiencing smelly diarrhoea around 4-5 times per week and complains of stomach pain.
      During the examination, the GP notes that the girl's abdomen is distended and her buttocks appear wasted. Her growth chart shows a drop of 2 centile lines, now placing her on the 10th centile.
      Which investigation is most likely to lead to a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA TTG antibodies

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by testing for IgA TTG antibodies. To determine the appropriate antibiotic, a stool sample would be necessary to diagnose gastroenteritis. The hydrogen breath test is typically used to diagnose irritable bowel syndrome or certain food intolerances. Endoscopy is more frequently used in adults who are suspected of having cancer. An abdominal X-ray may be beneficial in cases where obstruction is suspected. Coeliac disease is a digestive disorder that is becoming more prevalent and is characterized by an adverse reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye.

      Coeliac Disease in Children: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in cereals. This sensitivity leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Children usually present with symptoms before the age of 3, coinciding with the introduction of cereals into their diet. The incidence of coeliac disease is around 1 in 100 and is strongly associated with HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8. Symptoms of coeliac disease include failure to thrive, diarrhoea, abdominal distension, and anaemia in older children. However, many cases are not diagnosed until adulthood.

      Diagnosis of coeliac disease involves a jejunal biopsy showing subtotal villous atrophy. Screening tests such as anti-endomysial and anti-gliadin antibodies are also useful. Duodenal biopsies can show complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, as well as dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Increased number of intraepithelial lymphocytes and vacuolated superficial epithelial cells can also be observed.

      In summary, coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and to seek medical attention if necessary. Diagnosis involves a biopsy and screening tests, and treatment involves a gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A concerned mother visits her GP to discuss her 8-week-old baby. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned mother visits her GP to discuss her 8-week-old baby. She is worried as he is not feeding well, his urine has a musty smell and he has very dry skin all over his trunk, which is not responding to regular emollients. On examination, the baby’s weight has dropped from the 25th to the 9th centile, he has a mild tremor and his trunk is covered in an eczema-like rash. Her older son has an inborn error of metabolism and she is concerned this baby may also be affected.
      Which of the following is a disorder of amino acid metabolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenylketonuria (PKU)

      Explanation:

      Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Symptoms

      Inherited metabolic disorders are genetic conditions that affect the body’s ability to process certain nutrients. Here are some common types and their symptoms:

      Phenylketonuria (PKU): This autosomal recessive condition affects amino acid metabolism. It causes a deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase, which can lead to behavioural problems, seizures, and learning disability. PKU is screened for with the newborn heel prick test.

      G6PD deficiency: This X-linked recessive condition predisposes those affected to develop haemolysis. It does not affect amino acid metabolism. Patients are usually asymptomatic unless they have a haemolytic crisis triggered by an infection or certain medications.

      Lesch–Nyhan syndrome: This X-linked condition affects uric acid metabolism and causes hyperuricaemia. It does not affect amino acid metabolism. Affected males have severe developmental delay, behavioural and cognitive dysfunction, and marked involuntary movements. They also develop recurrent self-mutilation habits.

      Medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD): This autosomal recessive condition affects fatty acid oxidation. It does not affect amino acid metabolism. Babies with MCADD usually present with lethargy, poor feeding, and vomiting. It is screened for with the newborn heel prick test.

      Porphyria: This is a deficiency of enzymes that affect haem synthesis. It can lead to acute porphyria (abdominal pain, psychiatric symptoms, breathing problems) or cutaneous porphyria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A mother takes her four-week-old daughter to visit her pediatrician. The baby has...

    Incorrect

    • A mother takes her four-week-old daughter to visit her pediatrician. The baby has been throwing up white substance after feeds, particularly when laid down afterwards. The mother reports that the baby also frequently cries during breastfeeding. The baby was born at 36 weeks through vaginal delivery and has been meeting developmental milestones. There are no other siblings. There have been no instances of bloody stools or diarrhea. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for an infant under eight weeks who is experiencing milky vomits after feeds, particularly when laid flat, and excessive crying during feeds is gastro-oesophageal reflux. This is supported by the risk factor of preterm delivery in this case. Coeliac disease is an unlikely diagnosis as the child is exclusively breastfed and would typically present with diarrhoea and failure to thrive when introduced to cereals. Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy is also unlikely as it is more commonly seen in formula-fed infants and would typically present with additional symptoms such as atopy and diarrhoea. Duodenal atresia, which causes bilious vomiting in neonates a few hours after birth, is also an unlikely diagnosis for a six-week-old infant experiencing white vomitus.

      Understanding Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux in Children

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not being overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless the child is experiencing unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Ranitidine, previously used as an alternative to PPIs, has been withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of carcinogens in some products. Prokinetic agents should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. In severe cases where medical treatment is ineffective, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for parents and caregivers to understand the symptoms and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in children to ensure the best possible outcomes for their little ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - You have been referred a 14-year-old girl who appears very upset by her...

    Incorrect

    • You have been referred a 14-year-old girl who appears very upset by her parents’ ongoing divorce. She has begun to engage in self-injurious behaviour by banging her head against walls at times of stress. Her intelligence quotient (IQ) has been assessed by her school as 62.

      With which of the following is this score most consistent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mild learning disability

      Explanation:

      Understanding Learning Disabilities: Levels of Intelligence Quotient (IQ)

      Learning disabilities are diagnosed through a combination of intelligence testing and functional assessments. The intelligence quotient (IQ) level is used to determine the severity of the learning disability. A score of 70 is considered within the normal range, while a score between 50-69 indicates a mild learning disability. A score of 35-49 is classified as a moderate learning disability, and a score of 20-34 is considered a severe learning disability. Scores below 20 indicate a profound learning disability. It’s important to note that a score of 60 falls within the mild learning difficulty range, which is still considered a learning disability. Understanding IQ levels can help individuals and their families better understand and manage their learning disabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 56-year-old Caucasian man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) for routine health...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old Caucasian man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) for routine health screening. He has a background history of obesity (BMI 31 kg/m2), impaired glucose tolerance and he used to smoke. His blood pressure is 162/100 mmHg. It is the same in both arms. There is no renal bruit and he does not appear cushingoid. He does not take regular exercise. At his previous appointment his blood pressure was 168/98 mm/Hg and he has been testing his BP at home. Average readings are 155/95 mmHg. He does not drink alcohol. His father had a heart attack at age 58. Blood results are listed below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      HbA1C 46 mmol/l < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
      Potassium 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5 mmol/l
      Urea 7 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 84 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Total cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
      High-density lipoprotein (HDL) 1.1 mmol/l > 1.0 mmol/l
      Low density-lipoprotein (LDL) 3 mmol/l < 3.5 mmol/l
      Triglycerides 1.1 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
      Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) 2 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
      Free T4 16 pmol/l 11–22 pmol/l
      What is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Stage 2 Hypertension: Commencing ACE Inhibitor

      Stage 2 hypertension is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to reduce the risk of a cardiac event. According to NICE guidelines, ACE inhibitors or ARBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension. This man, who has multiple risk factors for hypertension, including age, obesity, and physical inactivity, should commence pharmacological treatment. Lifestyle advice alone is not sufficient in this case.

      It is important to note that beta blockers are not considered first-line treatment due to their side-effect profile. Spironolactone is used as fourth-line treatment in resistant hypertension or in the setting of hyperaldosteronism. If cholesterol-lowering treatment were commenced, a statin would be first line. However, in this case, the patient’s cholesterol is normal, so a fibrate is not indicated.

      In summary, commencing an ACE inhibitor is the appropriate course of action for this patient with stage 2 hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman complains of dull lower back pain after relocating. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman complains of dull lower back pain after relocating. She has no significant medical history and her physical examination is unremarkable. What is the initial treatment option for her pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naproxen

      Explanation:

      According to the updated NICE guidelines in 2016, NSAIDs are now the first choice for managing lower back pain. The recommended NSAIDs are ibuprofen or naproxen, and it is advisable to consider co-administration of PPI. Paracetamol alone is not recommended for lower back pain, and for patients who cannot tolerate NSAIDs, co-codamol should be considered. If patients report spasms as a feature of their pain, a short course of benzodiazepines may be considered. NICE recommends referring patients to physiotherapy only if they are at higher risk of back pain disability or if their symptoms have not improved at follow-up. Additionally, there may be some delay in attending physiotherapy, and NSAIDs can be started immediately.

      Management of Non-Specific Lower Back Pain

      Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, NICE updated their guidelines on the management of non-specific lower back pain. The guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for back pain. Lumbar spine x-rays are not recommended, and MRI should only be offered to patients where malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected.

      Patients with non-specific back pain are advised to stay physically active and exercise. NSAIDs are recommended as the first-line analgesia, and proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs. For patients with sciatica, NICE guidelines on neuropathic pain should be followed.

      Other possible treatments include exercise programmes and manual therapy, but only as part of a treatment package including exercise, with or without psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anaesthetic and steroid may also be considered for acute and severe sciatica.

      In summary, the management of non-specific lower back pain involves encouraging self-management, staying physically active, and using NSAIDs as the first-line analgesia. Other treatments may be considered as part of a treatment package, depending on the severity of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 19 - A 31-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner 7 days after giving birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner 7 days after giving birth to her first child. The patient has been complaining of feeling ‘down’ for the last 4 or 5 days. She also describes being tearful and tired. She denies loss of interest in her hobbies, difficulty concentrating, guilt, change in appetite, sluggishness and suicidal thoughts. She also denies hallucination.
      Which of the following statements concerning this patient’s likely condition is most accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her condition will probably improve within 10–14 days following birth

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mood Disorders: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Postpartum mood disorders are a common occurrence among women after giving birth. There are three main types of postpartum mood disorders: postpartum blues, postpartum depression, and postpartum psychosis.

      Postpartum blues is the mildest form and affects at least 50% of women. Symptoms include fatigue, tearfulness, and a depressed mood that develops 2-3 days after giving birth. This condition usually resolves without treatment within 10-14 days following birth.

      Postpartum depression is a more serious condition that affects about 10% of women. Patients present with at least 2 weeks of depressed mood that begins within 4 weeks of delivery. They also suffer from five of the following symptoms: change in sleep, loss of interest, guilt, decreased energy, difficulty concentrating, sluggishness, and suicidal ideation. Treatment options include antidepressants and psychotherapy.

      Postpartum psychosis is the rarest form, with an incidence rate of about 0.1%. It is characterized by hallucinations and delusions, and patients may feel suicidal or homicidal, especially towards the newborn. This condition can last 1 month or more and often requires hospitalization with anti-psychotic treatment.

      It is important to note that there is no time limit on diagnosing these conditions. If you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of a postpartum mood disorder, seek medical attention immediately. With proper treatment, these conditions can be managed effectively, and the patient can make a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old Caucasian woman who is 26 weeks pregnant with her first child...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old Caucasian woman who is 26 weeks pregnant with her first child presents to antenatal clinic. She had been invited to attend screening for gestational diabetes on account of her booking BMI, which was 32kg/m². Prior to her pregnancy, she had been healthy and had no personal or family history of diabetes mellitus. She takes no regular medications and has no known allergies.

      During her antenatal visit, she undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which reveals the following results:
      - Fasting glucose 6.9mmol/L
      - 2-hour glucose 7.8 mmol/L

      An ultrasound scan shows no fetal abnormalities or hydramnios. She is advised on diet and exercise and undergoes a repeat OGTT two weeks later. Due to persistent impaired fasting glucose, she is started on metformin.

      After taking metformin for two weeks, she undergoes another OGTT, with the following results:
      - Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/L
      - 2-hour glucose 7.2mmol/L

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing her glycaemic control?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add insulin

      Explanation:

      If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced. This patient was diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 25 weeks due to a fasting glucose level above 5.6mmol/L. Despite lifestyle changes and the addition of metformin, her glycaemic control has not improved, and her fasting glucose level remains above the target range. Therefore, NICE recommends adding short-acting insulin to her current treatment. Switching to modified-release metformin may help patients who experience side effects, but it would not improve glycaemic control in this case. Insulin should be added in conjunction with metformin for persistent impaired glycaemic control, rather than replacing it. Sulfonylureas like glibenclamide should only be used for patients who cannot tolerate metformin or as an adjunct for those who refuse insulin treatment, and they are not the best option for this patient.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 21 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the attention of a psychiatrist by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the attention of a psychiatrist by her father with complaints of difficulty concentrating at home and at school. She is reported by the teachers to be easily distracted which is adversely affecting her learning. She also shows repeated outbursts of anger and her father thinks she has 'too much energy'. The psychiatrist diagnoses her with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and starts her on methylphenidate (Ritalin).

      What parameter must be monitored every 6 months in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight and height

      Explanation:

      Regular monitoring of weight and height is recommended every 6 months for patients taking methylphenidate, a stimulant medication. This is important as the drug may cause appetite suppression and growth impairment in children. Additionally, blood pressure and pulse should also be monitored regularly.

      In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.

      NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.

      Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.

      As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - Drugs X and Y can both bind to receptor Z and activate an...

    Incorrect

    • Drugs X and Y can both bind to receptor Z and activate an intracellular signalling pathway. At their highest concentrations, drug X can fully activate the pathway, while drug Y can only activate it to a moderate extent. This difference in efficacy can be attributed to the varying affinities of the drugs for the receptor or their ability to induce conformational changes in the receptor.
      What term would you use to describe the action of drug X?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full agonist

      Explanation:

      Agonists and Antagonists in Pharmacology

      Drugs A and B are both types of agonists, which means they bind to a receptor and cause a biological response by increasing receptor activity. The efficacy of an agonist is determined by its ability to provoke maximal or sub-maximal receptor activity. Drug A is a full agonist, while drug B is a partial agonist. The degree of receptor occupancy is also important, which is determined by the affinity of the drug for the receptor and its concentration. Even low degrees of receptor occupancy can achieve a biological response for agonists.

      On the other hand, an antagonist is a ligand that binds to a receptor and inhibits receptor activity, causing no biological response. The degree of receptor occupancy is also important for antagonists, but a relatively high degree is needed for them to work. Affinity to the receptor is also a factor. The efficacy of an antagonist to prompt a biological response is technically zero.

      There are two types of antagonists: competitive and non-competitive. A competitive antagonist has a similar structure to an agonist and binds to the same site on the receptor, reducing the binding sites available to the agonist. A non-competitive antagonist has a different structure to the agonist and may bind to a different site on the receptor. When the antagonist binds to the receptor, it may cause an alteration in the receptor structure or the interaction of the receptor with downstream effects in the cell. This prevents the normal consequences of agonist binding and biological actions are prevented.

      the differences between agonists and antagonists is important in pharmacology, as it can help in the development of drugs that can either stimulate or inhibit certain biological responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old man is found talking incoherently, confused and aggressive outside the local...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is found talking incoherently, confused and aggressive outside the local shopping centre late at night. Apparently, he has attended the Emergency Department on two previous occasions, one when he made a number of cuts to his forearms with a knife, and another when he was drunk and disorderly. When you question him in the Emergency Department, he tells you that he is a spy, that the TVs in the local department store are reading his thoughts and that voices are telling him to kill his mother as she is informing on him. He mentions that this has been going on for two months. He rambles when you talk to him and seems to have created a number of new words to describe his mission.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 7.6 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 203 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 25 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Bilirubin 31 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Schizophrenia from Other Mental Health Conditions

      The patient’s disordered speech, derogatory hallucinations, and delusions about the television reading his thoughts are indicative of schizophrenia. These symptoms are often accompanied by thoughts of persecution or paranoia, which are known as first rank symptoms.

      A manic episode is less likely as there is no history of overspending, pressured speech, or flight of thoughts. Similarly, endogenous depression is unlikely as neologisms and incoherent speech are not common presenting symptoms.

      Drug-induced psychosis is also unlikely as neologisms and delusions about being a spy are not typical symptoms. Alcohol intoxication is also less likely as there is no evidence of alcohol involvement in this presentation or previous visits to Casualty.

      Therefore, based on the symptoms presented, schizophrenia is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A 31-year-old man and his wife, who have been trying to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man and his wife, who have been trying to have a baby, visit a Fertility Clinic to receive the results of their tests. The man's semen sample has revealed azoospermia. Upon further inquiry, the man reports having a persistent cough that produces purulent sputum. What test would confirm the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) genetic screening and sweat test

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Male Infertility: A Case of Azoospermia and Bronchiectasis

      Azoospermia, or the absence of sperm in semen, can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic disorders and respiratory diseases. In this case, a man presents with a longstanding cough productive of purulent sputum and is found to have azoospermia. The combination of azoospermia and bronchiectasis suggests a possible diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF), a genetic disorder that affects the respiratory and reproductive systems.

      CF is diagnosed via a sweat test showing high sweat chloride levels and genetic screening for two copies of disease-causing CFTR mutations. While most cases of CF are diagnosed in infancy, some are diagnosed later in life, often by non-respiratory specialties such as infertility clinics. Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder characterized by an extra X chromosome in males, can also cause non-obstructive azoospermia and is diagnosed by karyotyping.

      Computed tomography (CT) thorax can be helpful in diagnosing bronchiectasis, but the underlying diagnosis in this case is likely to be CF. Testicular biopsy and testing FSH and testosterone levels can be used to investigate the cause of azoospermia, but in this case, investigating for CF is the most appropriate next step. Nasal biopsy can diagnose primary ciliary dyskinesia, another cause of bronchiectasis and subfertility, but it is not relevant in this case.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of male infertility should include a comprehensive medical history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations to identify any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome secondary to focal segmental glomerulosclerosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome secondary to focal segmental glomerulosclerosis after presenting with pedal oedema. She is being treated with furosemide 40 mg and prednisolone 60 mg. Her potassium level is 3.0 mEq/l (3.5–5.1).
      Which of the following medications will not increase potassium levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Medications that can cause hyperkalaemia

      Hyperkalaemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, can be caused by certain medications. Here are some medications that can lead to hyperkalaemia:

      1. Corticosteroids: Oral or IV steroids with glucocorticoid properties, such as prednisone and hydrocortisone, can be used to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and increase renal potassium excretion.

      2. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs): Use of ARBs can be associated with hyperkalaemia, particularly in patients with chronic renal insufficiency. It is important to monitor serum potassium levels shortly after initiating therapy.

      3. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors: Use of ACE inhibitors can also be associated with hyperkalaemia, particularly in patients with chronic renal insufficiency. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by suppressing angiotensin II, which leads to a decrease in aldosterone levels.

      4. Spironolactone: Hyperkalaemia is an established adverse effect of both spironolactone and eplerenone. Potassium levels should be monitored regularly in patients taking spironolactone.

      5. Digoxin: Hyperkalaemia is the most common electrolyte abnormality in acute digoxin toxicity. Chronic toxicity does not cause hyperkalaemia. Digoxin blocks the sodium-potassium ATPase pump.

      It is important to be aware of these medications and their potential to cause hyperkalaemia, and to monitor serum potassium levels in patients taking them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department following a fall. According to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department following a fall. According to her son, she stumbled over an exposed tree root and landed on her outstretched arms. Since the fall, she has been holding her right arm and complaining of intense pain.

      An x-ray is ordered, revealing a fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement. Additionally, the ulnar tip is also fractured. The fracture is located across the metaphysis of the radius and does not involve the articular cartilage.

      What is the name of this type of fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colles fracture

      Explanation:

      The most likely fracture resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH) is Colles fracture. This type of fracture occurs in the distal radius and typically does not involve the joint. It is the most common type of distal radius fracture. Bennett fracture, Dupuytren fracture, and Galeazzi fracture are all incorrect answers as they describe different types of fractures in other parts of the body.

      Understanding Colles’ Fracture

      Colles’ fracture is a type of distal radius fracture that typically occurs when an individual falls onto an outstretched hand, also known as a FOOSH. This type of fracture is characterized by the dorsal displacement of fragments, resulting in a dinner fork type deformity. The classic features of a Colles’ fracture include a transverse fracture of the radius, located approximately one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation.

      In simpler terms, Colles’ fracture is a type of wrist fracture that occurs when an individual falls and lands on their hand, causing the bones in the wrist to break and shift out of place. This results in a deformity that resembles a dinner fork. The fracture typically occurs in the distal radius, which is the bone located near the wrist joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman presents at 29 weeks’ gestation very concerned as she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents at 29 weeks’ gestation very concerned as she has not felt her baby move at all since the night before. She has a history of coeliac disease. No fetal movements can be palpated. An ultrasound scan confirms fetal death. Blood investigations were performed: thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 10.5 μu/l (0.17–3.2 μu/l) and free thyroxine (fT4) 4 pmol/l (11–22 pmol/l). These were not performed at booking.
      According to the national antenatal screening programme, which of the following groups of patients should be screened for thyroid disorders in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Screening in Pregnancy: Identifying High-Risk Patients

      Pregnancy can increase the risk of developing thyroid disorders, which can have detrimental effects on both the mother and fetus. Therefore, it is important to identify high-risk patients and screen them for thyroid function early in pregnancy. According to updated guidelines, patients with a current or previous thyroid disease, family history of thyroid disease in a first-degree relative, autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as gestational diabetes are considered at higher risk. These patients should be screened by performing TSH and serum fT4 levels in the preconception period, if possible, or as soon as pregnancy is confirmed.

      Detecting hypothyroidism early is crucial, as symptoms can mimic those of a normal pregnancy, making detection harder. Hypothyroidism in the mother can lead to fetal demise, severe neurodevelopmental abnormalities, congenital malformations, and congenital hypothyroidism. Patients diagnosed with overt hypothyroidism in pregnancy should be started on levothyroxine immediately.

      There is no recommendation to screen women with a history of chronic kidney disease or hypertension for thyroid disease in pregnancy. However, chronic kidney disease is a high-risk factor for pre-eclampsia, and commencing aspirin at 12 weeks through to delivery is essential to reduce the risk of developing pre-eclampsia or any of its complications. Women who are carriers of the thalassaemia trait are not screened for thyroid disease in pregnancy, but their partner should be tested for carrier status to assess the risk to the fetus.

      In conclusion, identifying high-risk patients and screening for thyroid function early in pregnancy can help prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old woman has been admitted to the Acute Medical Unit with shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has been admitted to the Acute Medical Unit with shortness of breath, dizziness and feeling generally lethargic. Her full blood count reveals that her haemoglobin is 60 g/l. She reports that she suffers from menorrhagia. It is decided that she requires a blood transfusion. A few minutes after the transfusion begins, she develops a fever, lower back pain and starts vomiting.
      What is the diagnostic tool used to identify an ABO incompatibility transfusion reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct antiglobulin test (Coombs test)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Blood Transfusion Reactions

      Blood transfusion reactions can be life-threatening if not diagnosed and treated promptly. Several diagnostic tests are available to identify the cause of haemolysis and diagnose an ABO incompatibility transfusion reaction. Here are some of the commonly used tests:

      Direct Antiglobulin Test (Coombs Test)
      This test is used to identify whether red blood cells have antibodies attached to their surface. It is useful in diagnosing the cause of haemolysis in ABO incompatibility following transfusion, haemolytic disease of the newborn, drug-induced anaemia, and other autoimmune conditions that cause the destruction of red blood cells.

      Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
      ESR measures the sedimentation of erythrocytes in a tall, thin tube of blood. Although it is not a useful test to establish the cause of haemolysis and diagnose an ABO incompatibility transfusion reaction, it can be used to diagnose infection, cancers, and inflammatory disease.

      Indirect Antiglobulin Test
      This test is an in vitro test for antibody-antigen reactions prior to blood transfusion. It can detect very low concentrations of antibodies in a patient’s plasma to ensure that donor blood will be compatible.

      Schirmer’s Test
      This test is used to diagnose keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eyes).

      White Cell Count
      Obtaining a white cell count is not a useful test in diagnosing an ABO incompatibility transfusion reaction. Although the patient may have fever and chills, it is likely secondary to a blood transfusion reaction rather than an acute infective process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old man reports experiencing a scratchy sensation in his eyes as the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man reports experiencing a scratchy sensation in his eyes as the day goes on. He feels that his eyes become tired. These symptoms only occur during weekdays when he works as a computer programmer for a local business. During examination, there is mild conjunctival hyperemia, but the rest of the ocular examination is normal. Which nerve stimulation is linked to tear production?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intermediate nerve

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerves and Their Parasympathetic Functions

      The cranial nerves play a crucial role in the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for regulating various bodily functions. Here are some of the cranial nerves and their parasympathetic functions:

      1. Intermediate Nerve: This nerve supplies secretomotor innervation to the lacrimal gland. The parasympathetic fibers originate from the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve and travel through the greater petrosal nerve, deep petrosal nerve, Vidian nerve, and maxillary nerve to reach the lacrimal gland.

      2. Oculomotor Nerve: The oculomotor nerve provides motor innervation to four of the six ocular muscles and parasympathetic innervation to the ciliary muscle and sphincter pupillae muscle of the iris.

      3. Glossopharyngeal Nerve: This nerve provides secretomotor innervation to the parotid gland. The parasympathetic fibers travel through the tympanic branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, tympanic plexus, lesser petrosal nerve, and auriculotemporal nerve to reach the parotid gland.

      4. Vagus Nerve: The vagus nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lung, and gastrointestinal tract.

      5. Chorda Tympani: This branch of the facial nerve contains preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that synapse at the submandibular ganglion attached to the lingual nerve. The postganglionic parasympathetic fibers reach the submandibular and sublingual glands via the branches of the lingual nerve.

      Understanding the parasympathetic functions of these cranial nerves is essential in diagnosing and treating various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 30 - As an FY-2 doctor in ophthalmology, you encounter a 59-year-old male patient who...

    Incorrect

    • As an FY-2 doctor in ophthalmology, you encounter a 59-year-old male patient who complains of pain in his right eye, accompanied by tearing and reduced vision. Upon examination, you diagnose a corneal ulcer. What is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steroid eye drops

      Explanation:

      Fungal infections and subsequent corneal ulcers can be caused by the use of steroid eye drops. These drops are designed to reduce inflammation, but they can also weaken the immune response to infections, leaving the cornea vulnerable to bacteria, fungi, or protists. Treatment for corneal ulcers typically involves targeted eye drops to address the specific organism causing the infection, such as antibacterial or antifungal drops. Saline or lubricant eye drops, on the other hand, are sterile and do not pose a risk for corneal ulcers.

      Understanding Corneal Ulcers

      A corneal ulcer is a condition that occurs when there is a defect in the cornea, which is usually caused by an infection. It is important to note that corneal abrasions, on the other hand, are typically caused by physical trauma. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing a corneal ulcer, including contact lens use and vitamin A deficiency, which is particularly common in developing countries.

      The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can vary depending on the underlying cause. Bacterial, fungal, and viral infections can all lead to the development of a corneal ulcer. In some cases, contact lens use can also be associated with a type of infection called Acanthamoeba keratitis.

      Symptoms of a corneal ulcer typically include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and excessive tearing. Additionally, a focal fluorescein staining of the cornea may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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