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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe chest pain that has been ongoing for an hour. Upon examination, he is tall and slim with a blood pressure reading of 135/80 mmHg and an early diastolic murmur. The electrocardiogram reveals 1 mm ST elevation in II, III, and aVF. What is the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Enoxaparin plus 300 mg of aspirin and 300 mg of clopidogrel
Correct Answer: Urgent CT scan of chest
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Chest Pain
This patient’s presentation of chest pain may not be typical and could potentially be caused by an inferior myocardial infarction or aortic artery dissection. However, thrombolysis could be dangerous and should be avoided until a proper diagnosis is made. Due to the patient’s young age, a wide range of potential diagnoses should be considered.
The patient’s physical characteristics, including being tall and slim with an aortic diastolic murmur, suggest the possibility of Marfan’s syndrome and aortic dissection. To confirm this diagnosis, a thorough examination of all peripheral pulses should be conducted, as well as checking for discrepancies in blood pressure between limbs. Additionally, a plain chest x-ray should be scrutinized for signs of a widened mediastinum, an enlarged cardiac silhouette, or pleural effusions.
In summary, a young patient presenting with chest pain requires a thorough differential diagnosis to determine the underlying cause. Careful examination of physical characteristics and diagnostic tests can help identify potential conditions such as Marfan’s syndrome and aortic dissection, and avoid potentially harmful treatments like thrombolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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As a foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the resuscitation nurse to prescribe Tazocin in accordance with departmental policy for a 50-year-old patient with COPD who was previously seen by your colleague and is currently undergoing treatment for severe sepsis. However, ten minutes later, you receive a fast bleep to the resuscitation room where the patient is now experiencing hypotension, tachycardia, and developing a urticarial rash and wheezing. The patient's medical records indicate that they have an allergy to penicillin. What is the next therapeutic measure you will prescribe?
Your Answer: Adrenaline 500 mcg 1:1000 intramuscularly
Explanation:Anaphylaxis: A Life-Threatening Hypersensitivity Reaction
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that affects the airway, breathing, and circulation of an individual. It is crucial for clinicians to keep this diagnosis in mind as it has a lifetime prevalence ranging from 0.05-2%, and most clinicians will encounter this condition at some point in their career. The most common precipitants of anaphylaxis are antibiotics and anaesthetic drugs, followed by stings, nuts, foods, and contrast agents.
In a scenario where a patient has been prescribed a penicillin-based antibiotic despite having a documented penicillin allergy, the acute onset of life-threatening airway, breathing, and circulation issues, along with a rash, are classic symptoms of anaphylaxis. In such cases, adrenaline must be administered urgently, preferably intramuscularly, at a dose of 500 mcg 1:1000, repeated after five minutes if there is no improvement. Hydrocortisone and chlorpheniramine are also given, but their effects are seen approximately four to six hours post-administration. It is essential to note that these drugs should not delay the administration of adrenaline in suspected anaphylaxis.
It is crucial to review patient notes and drug charts carefully before prescribing drugs, especially when taking over care of patients from other clinicians. It is the responsibility of the prescriber and the nurse administering the medication to check and re-check the patient’s allergy status. Finally, the Tazocin must be stopped as soon as possible, and an alternative antibiotic prescribed according to local sepsis policies. However, this is a secondary issue to the acute anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 20-year-old college student has ingested a mixture of over 100 paracetamol tablets and half a bottle of vodka after a disagreement with her partner. She has since vomited and has been rushed to the Emergency department in the early hours. It has been approximately six hours since she took the tablets. Her paracetamol level is 100 mg/L, which is above the normogram treatment line. Her test results show normal levels for sodium, potassium, glucose, INR, albumin, bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase. Her urea and creatinine levels are slightly elevated. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: IV N acetylcysteine
Explanation:Treatment for Paracetamol Overdose
When a patient takes a significant overdose of paracetamol, it is important to seek treatment immediately. If the overdose is above the treatment line at six hours, the patient will require N-acetylcysteine. Even if there is uncertainty about the timing of the overdose, it is recommended to administer the antidote. Liver function tests may not show abnormalities for up to 48 hours, but the international normalised ratio (INR) is the most sensitive marker for liver damage. If the INR is normal at 48 hours, the patient may be discharged. It is crucial to seek medical attention promptly to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine blood pressure check. As she waits in the reception area, she suddenly experiences severe breathlessness with stridor. She had mentioned to someone else in the room that she was stung by an insect on her way to the clinic. Based on your assessment, you determine that she is having an anaphylactic reaction to the sting. What would be the appropriate dose and route of administration for adrenaline in this scenario?
Your Answer: Intramuscular 1:1000 (500 micrograms)
Explanation:Recommended Injection Route for Anaphylactic Reactions
Anaphylactic reactions require immediate treatment, and one of the most effective ways to administer medication is through injection. The recommended route of injection is intramuscular, which involves injecting the medication into the muscle tissue. While the subcutaneous route can also be used, it is not as effective as the intramuscular route. In some cases, intravenous adrenaline 1:10000 may be used, but only under the supervision of a specialist. It is important to follow the guidelines provided by the Resuscitation Council (UK) for the emergency treatment of anaphylactic reactions. By administering medication through the recommended injection route, healthcare providers can effectively manage anaphylactic reactions and potentially save lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents with wheezing and a respiratory rate of 35/min, a pulse of 120 beats per min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, and a peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% predicted. He has received back-to-back nebulisers of salbutamol 5 mg and ipratropium 0.5 mg for the past 45 minutes and is currently on face mask oxygen. Additionally, he has been given hydrocortisone 100 mg IV, and the intensive care team has been notified.
An arterial blood gas test was performed on high-flow oxygen, revealing a pH of 7.42 (7.36-7.44), PaCO2 of 5.0 kPa (4.7-6.0), PaO2 of 22 kPa (11.3-12.6), base excess of -2 mmol/L (+/-2), and SpO2 of 98.
What is the recommended next step in therapy for this patient?Your Answer: Oral aminophylline
Correct Answer: Magnesium 1-2 g IV
Explanation:Treatment for Life Threatening Asthma
This patient is experiencing life threatening asthma, which requires immediate treatment. A normal PaCO2 in an asthmatic can indicate impending respiratory failure. The initial treatment involves administering β2-agonists, preferably nebuliser with oxygen, and repeating doses every 15-30 minutes. Nebulised ipratropium bromide should also be added for patients with acute severe or life threatening asthma. Oxygen should be given to maintain saturations at 94-98%, and patients with saturations less than 92% on air should have an ABG to exclude hypercapnia. Intravenous magnesium sulphate can be used if the patient fails to respond to initial treatment. Intensive care is indicated for patients with severe acute or life threatening asthma who are failing to respond to therapy. Steroids should also be given early in the attack to reduce mortality and improve outcomes.
It is important to note that chest radiographs are not necessary unless there is suspicion of pneumothorax or consolidation, or if the patient is experiencing life threatening asthma, a failure to respond to treatment, or a need for ventilation. Additionally, all patients who are transferred to an intensive care unit should be accompanied by a doctor who can intubate if necessary. In this case, if the patient fails to respond to magnesium, intubation and ventilation may be necessary. It is crucial to discuss the patient’s condition with ITU colleagues during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 65-year-old male presents with a one day history of right-sided chest pain and dyspnoea that has worsened throughout the day. He underwent a right hip replacement and was discharged from BUPA one week ago. On examination, his temperature is 37.5°C, pulse is 96 bpm, blood pressure is 138/88 mmHg, and oxygen saturations are 90% on air. There are no specific abnormalities on chest examination, but his chest x-ray shows consolidation at the right base. The ECG is also normal. What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: CTPA chest
Explanation:Consider Pulmonary Embolism in Post-Surgery Patients
A patient who has recently undergone surgery and presents with chest x-ray changes and respiratory symptoms should be evaluated for pulmonary embolism (PE). While infection is a possibility, it is important to consider thromboembolic disease as it can be fatal if left untreated.
A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan may not be sufficient in this context, and a computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) would provide a more definitive diagnosis. While raised FDPs/D-dimers can indicate PE, they are not specific and only provide value if they fall within a normal range. Blood cultures for chest infection are unlikely to yield significant results.
It is crucial to consider the possibility of PE in post-surgery patients to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 57-year-old male presents with acute abdominal pain that has worsened over the past two hours. The pain originates in the epigastric region and radiates to the left side of his back, with colicky characteristics. He has vomited three to four times, with the vomit being greenish in color.
Upon examination, his temperature is 37.5°C, pulse is 100 beats per minute, and blood pressure is 114/80 mmHg. He has guarding of the abdomen and marked tenderness in the epigastrium. Bowel sounds are infrequent but audible.
Lab results show a neutrophilic leukocytosis, elevated glucose and urea levels, and an elevated creatinine level. Urinalysis reveals an elevated amylase level. Abdominal x-ray shows no abnormalities.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition characterized by sudden and severe abdominal pain that radiates through to the back. It is caused by inflammation and swelling of the pancreas, which leads to the loss of enzymes into the circulation and retroperitoneally. This can result in hyperglycemia, hypocalcemia, and dehydration, which are common features of the condition.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, a serum amylase test is usually performed. A result above 1000 mU/L is considered diagnostic. Other investigations may reveal dehydration, an elevated glucose concentration, a mild metabolic acidosis, and heavy amounts of amylase in the urine.
Treatment for acute pancreatitis involves resuscitation with IV fluids, management of hyperglycemia with sliding scale insulin, nasogastric suction, antibiotics, and analgesia. It is important to manage the condition promptly to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is characterized by inflammation and swelling of the pancreas, which can lead to hyperglycemia, hypocalcemia, and dehydration. Treatment involves resuscitation with IV fluids, management of hyperglycemia, and other supportive measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 72 hour history of lethargy, fever, and a sore throat. The nurse reports that his breathing is harsh and high pitched. His vital signs show a temperature of 39.4°C and an elevated respiratory and heart rate. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Croup
Correct Answer: Bacterial tracheitis
Explanation:Addressing Stridor and Other Airway Sounds
Added airway sounds, particularly stridor, should always be treated as a medical emergency. Stridor is a sign of a compromised upper airway and is heard predominantly on inspiration. It is important to note that stridor is not a diagnosis but a symptom, and the underlying cause must be identified urgently. The patient’s medical history is crucial in determining the correct diagnosis as all the causes listed above can present with stridor.
In children, croup caused by the parainfluenza 1 virus is the most common reason for stridor. However, stridor in adults should prompt the clinician to consider other diagnoses. If the patient appears toxic with worsening lethargy, pyrexia, and overt deterioration of the upper airway, bacterial tracheitis is the most likely cause. Diphtheria can also cause stridor, but immunization programs have reduced its incidence in the western world.
Laryngospasm is a common cause of stridor in adults, but the clinician must seek a relevant precipitant. Exposure to smoke and toxic fumes in the patient’s history should raise a high degree of suspicion and prompt the clinician to involve the anaesthetic teams in securing the patient’s airway. Foreign body aspiration and anaphylaxis are both life-threatening conditions that must be considered and excluded. The duration and onset of the stridor will be a key factor in determining the diagnosis. An abrupt onset with a history of eating nuts or chewing on a pen lid or plastic bead is often present in foreign body aspiration, while anaphylaxis may have a defined food precipitant and a more rapid onset than other conditions.
Overall, addressing stridor and other airway sounds requires urgent attention and a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history to determine the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a 24-hour history of epigastric pain that radiates to his back and vomiting. The doctors diagnose him with pancreatitis after his serum amylase levels come back at 2000. They also run some additional blood tests and find the following results:
- WCC: 22 ×109/L (Neutrophils: 17.2)
- Hb: 155 g/L
- Urea: 18.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 105 μmol/L
- AST: 250 IU
- LDH: 654 IU
- Calcium: 2.3 mmol/L
- Albumin: 38 g/L
- Glucose: 7.5 mmol/L
- PaO2: 9.9 KPa
What is the Modified Glasgow score for this patient?Your Answer: 5
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:Glasgow Score as a Predictor of Pancreatitis Severity
The Glasgow score is a tool used to predict the severity of pancreatitis. It is based on several factors, which can be remembered using the mnemonic PANCREAS. These factors include low PaO2 levels, age over 55 years, high neutrophil count, low calcium levels, impaired renal function, elevated enzymes such as AST and LDH, low albumin levels, and high blood sugar levels. Each factor is assigned a certain number of points, and the total score can help determine the severity of the pancreatitis.
For example, a patient who is over 55 years old, has high neutrophil count, impaired renal function, and elevated enzymes would score a total of 4 points. The higher the score, the more severe the pancreatitis is likely to be. UK guidelines recommend that a severity score be calculated for every patient with acute pancreatitis to help guide their management and treatment.
In summary, the Glasgow score is a useful tool for predicting the severity of pancreatitis based on several factors. By calculating a patient’s score, healthcare providers can better manage and treat their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What EEG findings are typically observed in patients with hepatic encephalopathy?
Your Answer: Theta waves
Correct Answer: Delta waves
Explanation:EEG Changes in Hepatic Encephalopathy
Classic EEG changes that are commonly associated with hepatic encephalopathy include delta waves with high amplitude and low frequency, as well as triphasic waves. However, it is important to note that these findings are not specific to hepatic encephalopathy and may be present in other conditions as well. In cases where seizure activity needs to be ruled out, an EEG can be a useful tool in the initial evaluation of patients with cirrhosis and altered mental status. It is important to consider the limitations of EEG findings and to interpret them in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory data. Proper diagnosis and management of hepatic encephalopathy require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the underlying liver disease and any contributing factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A 70-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes and stable ischaemic heart disease presents with palpitations lasting for 4 days. The patient is currently taking metformin 500 mg tds, aspirin 75 mg daily, ramipril 2.5 mg daily, and simvastatin 40 mg daily. Upon examination, the patient's pulse rate is 140/minute and blood pressure is 128/98 mmHg. There is no chest pain or evidence of acute heart failure, but the ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. What is the most appropriate treatment for managing the patient's atrial fibrillation?
Your Answer: Oral bisoprolol
Explanation:Management of Acute Onset Symptomatic Atrial Fibrillation
In cases of acute onset symptomatic atrial fibrillation (AF), the most appropriate chemical agent for rate control is beta blockers. However, if the patient has ischaemic heart disease, rate control is the initial management strategy. If beta blockers are contraindicated, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers can be used instead. In the event that the patient is hypotensive, IV digoxin is the preferred rate control medication. If the patient cannot tolerate beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin, amiodarone is given.
Long-term anticoagulation is necessary after an appropriate risk assessment. Chemical cardioversion can be performed with amiodarone or flecainide, but the latter is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease. Although AF is generally well tolerated, patients with haemodynamic instability that is considered life-threatening require DC cardioversion. If there is a delay in DC cardioversion, amiodarone is recommended.
Overall, the management of acute onset symptomatic AF involves careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and current condition to determine the most appropriate treatment strategy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 19-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department by a group of individuals who quickly leave before medical staff can speak with them. The patient is barely conscious, with a respiratory rate of 8/min, blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg, and a pulse of 60 bpm. Needle track marks are visible on his arms, and his pupils are constricted. What is the first treatment you would provide?
Your Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:Opiate Toxicity and the Role of Naloxone
Opiate toxicity is a common occurrence among individuals who abuse street drugs like heroin. This condition is characterized by respiratory depression and small pupils, which can lead to unconsciousness. To address this issue, naloxone is often administered as it is an opiate receptor antagonist that can quickly relieve the symptoms of opiate toxicity. However, it is important to note that naloxone has a shorter half-life than many opiates, which means that multiple doses may be necessary to fully address the issue. Overall, naloxone plays a crucial role in addressing opiate toxicity and can help save lives in emergency situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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You are the foundation year doctor on the medical admissions unit and have been asked to review a 60-year-old female who has been referred to the unit for palpitations.
The venous gas has been performed by the nurse and has revealed a potassium of 6.5 mmol/L. The patient's ECG shows tented T waves.
What is the most important first drug intervention?Your Answer: Calcium gluconate 10% 10 ml
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is a potentially life-threatening condition with a strict definition of K+ > 5.5 mmol/L. The underlying causes can be divided into renal, intracellular shift out, increased circulatory K+, and false positives. In severe cases with symptomatic and ECG changes, calcium chloride should be given first to stabilise the myocardium. The conventional treatment is a combination of insulin and dextrose infusions, with salbutamol nebulisers and sodium bicarbonate as additional options. Sodium bicarbonate should be used in discussion with a renal physician.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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As the foundation year doctor on ward cover, you are asked to assess a 75-year-old male who was admitted to the cardiac care unit five hours ago due to chest pain. The patient has been given morphine, aspirin, clopidogrel, enoxaparin, and metoprolol. However, he has recently experienced a sudden worsening of chest pain, and his heart rate has dropped to 30 beats per minute. His other vital signs are BP 140/85 mmHg, O2 98%, and RR 18. An ECG has been conducted, revealing complete heart block. What is the most probable cause of this sudden development?
Your Answer: Posterior myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Inferior myocardial infarction
Explanation:Managing Bradycardia in Patients with Myocardial Infarctions
Bradycardia is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention and should be managed according to the Resuscitation Council guidelines algorithm. Patients with myocardial infarctions are at a higher risk of developing associated arrhythmias, particularly those with inferior MIs, which can cause transient complete heart block due to the right coronary artery supplying the AV node. Although arrhythmogenic episodes are less common in other territory infarcts, they can still occur.
In this scenario, the patient has received ACS treatment, including morphine and a beta blocker, which should not cause a sustained or profound bradycardia at therapeutic dosages. However, it is important to check for iatrogenic errors, and drug charts should be closely inspected to identify any potential errors. If an overdose of morphine has occurred, naloxone should be administered urgently, while beta blocker overdoses may require large doses of glucagon to counteract their effects. Any drug errors should be documented on an incident report form as per local policy.
When managing bradycardia, the patient should be approached in an ABC fashion, and adverse features should be sought out. Four features that suggest decompensation include hypotension <90 systolic, loss of consciousness, chest pain, and shortness of breath. Atropine is the first-line drug, with aliquots of 500 mcg given up to 3 mg. Isoprenaline and adrenaline infusions are suggested as next-line treatments, but they may not be immediately available unless the patient is in a high dependency setting. Transcutaneous pacing should be readily available as an additional function on most defibrillator machines and is the next option if the patient continues to decompensate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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As the foundation year doctor in general surgery, you are called to assess a patient who has suddenly become unresponsive at 4 am. The patient is a 45-year-old female who has been admitted for an elective cholecystectomy scheduled for 8 am.
Upon examination, the patient appears sweaty and clammy and is hypoventilating. She is only responsive to painful stimuli.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 115, blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate of 8, oxygen saturation of 99%, and blood glucose level of 1.1.
What would be your next step in initiating drug therapy?Your Answer: Glucagon 1 mg IM
Correct Answer: Dextrose 20% 100 ml IV
Explanation:Hypoglycaemia: The Importance of Early Recognition and Management
Clinicians should always consider hypoglycaemia as a potential cause of acute unresponsiveness in patients. The diagnosis of hypoglycaemia is made when there is evidence of low blood sugar, associated symptoms, and resolution of symptoms with correction of hypoglycaemia. The management of hypoglycaemia should be prompt and involves administering 100 ml of 20% dextrose, as opposed to 50%, which can be too irritating to the veins. Repeat blood sugar measurements should be taken to ensure that levels remain above 3.0.
In patients who are fasting overnight for surgery, intravenous fluids should be prescribed with close monitoring of blood sugars to determine whether slow 5% dextrose is required to maintain an acceptable blood sugar level. Glucagon and Hypostop are alternative therapies used to increase glucose levels, but they are not rapid rescue drugs for the correction of low sugars in symptomatic patients.
To identify the cause of hypoglycaemia, the acronym EXPLAIN is used. This stands for Exogenous insulin administration, Pituitary insufficiency, Liver failure, Alcohol/Autoimmune/Addison’s, Insulinoma, and Neoplasia. All episodes of hypoglycaemia require an explanation, and further endocrine workup may be necessary if no cause is identified.
In conclusion, early recognition and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial in preventing further deterioration of the patient’s condition. Clinicians should always consider hypoglycaemia as a potential cause of acute unresponsiveness and promptly administer appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department from the local psychiatric hospital where he is being treated for resistant schizophrenia.
His medical history is otherwise significant only for depression, asthma and occasional cannabis use.
He is extremely agitated and confused and unable to deliver a coherent history. Examination is difficult as he is unable to lie on the bed due to extreme muscle rigidity and his limbs are fixed in partial contractures and there is mild tremor. Chest and heart sounds are normal although he is tachycardic at 115 bpm. He is sweating profusely and his temperature is measured at 40.2°C. Blood pressure is 85/42 mmHg.
Blood tests reveal:
Haemoglobin 149 g/L (130-180)
White cells 21.7 ×109/L (4-11)
Neutrophils 17.4 ×109/L (1.5-7)
Lymphocytes 3.6 ×109/L (1.5-4)
Platelets 323 ×109/L (150-400)
Sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 5.7 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 10.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 145 μmol/L (60-110)
CRP 45 g/L -
Bilirubin 14 μmol/L (0-3.4)
ALP 64 U/L (45-405)
ALT 38 U/L (5-35)
Calcium (corrected) 2.93 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
CK 14398 U/L -
The registered psychiatric nurse who accompanies him tells you he has been worsening over the previous 48 hours and his regular dose of risperidone was increased a few days ago. Other than risperidone 10 mg daily, he is also taking salbutamol four times a day.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Serotonergic toxidrome
Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Explanation:Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a serious condition that can occur with the long-term use of certain antipsychotic drugs. It is important to consider NMS as a potential cause of deterioration in patients taking these drugs, especially if there has been a recent increase in dosage. Unfortunately, NMS is often misdiagnosed as it can mimic other conditions, including the underlying psychiatric disorder. NMS is caused by changes in dopamine levels in the brain and the release of calcium from muscle cells. This occurs due to activation of the ryanodine receptor, which causes high metabolic activity in muscles, leading to hyperpyrexia and rhabdomyolysis.
Symptoms of NMS include extreme muscle rigidity, parkinsonism, and high fever. Patients may also experience confusion, fluctuations in consciousness, and autonomic instability. Treatment for NMS involves IV fluid rehydration, dantrolene, and bromocriptine. It is important to differentiate NMS from other conditions, such as sepsis or asthma exacerbation, through careful examination and testing. Discontinuation of the offending drug is mandatory, and patients may require prolonged ITU admissions.
In conclusion, NMS is a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur with the use of certain antipsychotic drugs. It is important to consider NMS as a potential cause of deterioration in patients taking these drugs and to differentiate it from other conditions through careful examination and testing. Treatment for NMS involves supportive care and discontinuation of the offending drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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A known case of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency department, distressed and cyanosed. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.2 (7.36-7.44), PaO2 8.3 kPa (11.3-12.6 kPa), PaCO2 10 kPa (4.7-6.0 kPa). The patient, who is in his 60s, is given high concentration oxygen together with a salbutamol nebuliser and intravenous hydrocortisone. Despite these interventions, the patient's breathing effort worsens, although pulse oximetry showed SaO2 of 93%. What could be the reason for the patient's deterioration?
Your Answer: High concentration oxygen administration
Explanation:The Dangers of High Concentration Oxygen for COPD Patients
The patient’s acute exacerbation of COPD had led to hypoxia and hypercapnia. Due to the nature of his condition, his respiratory centre was only stimulated by hypoxia. As a result, when he was given high concentration oxygen, his respiratory effort decreased and his condition worsened. This is because the high concentration of oxygen deprived him of the hypoxic drive that was necessary to stimulate his respiratory centre. Therefore, it is important to be cautious when administering oxygen to COPD patients, as high concentrations can have dangerous consequences. Proper monitoring and management of oxygen levels can help prevent exacerbations and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with a scalp laceration she sustained while playing basketball.
Upon examination, it is found that she has a clean incised wound on her scalp that is approximately 2 cm in length.
What is the most appropriate method of managing this wound?Your Answer: Suture with a non-absorbable suture
Correct Answer: Tissue adhesive glue
Explanation:Tissue Adhesive Glue for Scalp Wounds in Children
Tissue adhesive glue is a highly effective method for closing scalp wounds, especially in children. This technique is suitable for wounds that are clean and less than 3 cm in length. However, it should not be used for wounds around the eyes or over joints. Unlike other methods such as staples or sutures, tissue adhesive glue can be performed without the need for local anesthesia, making it less distressing for patients. Therefore, it is the preferred closure technique for scalp wounds.
On the other hand, steristrips are not appropriate for scalp wounds as they do not adhere well to the skin due to the presence of hair. In summary, tissue adhesive glue is a safe and efficient method for closing scalp wounds in children, providing a less painful and more comfortable experience for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department after taking 60 of his father's fluoxetine tablets about four hours ago.
Which of the following symptoms is consistent with his reported ingestion?Your Answer: QRS duration of 120 ms (<100)
Correct Answer: Vomiting
Explanation:Safety and Adverse Effects of Fluoxetine Overdose
Fluoxetine, an SSRI, is considered safe in overdose and has minimal adverse effects compared to tricyclic antidepressants. However, there have been rare reports of tachycardia occurring alongside symptoms such as tremors, drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting. If pupillary constriction or respiratory suppression is present, it may suggest an opiate overdose. On the other hand, a prolonged QRS complex is consistent with a tricyclic antidepressant overdose. Despite these potential symptoms, fluoxetine remains a relatively safe option for treating depression and anxiety disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A middle-aged homeless man in his early 50s is brought to the emergency department with a six hour history of profuse vomiting. He complains of nausea and headache.
The history available is sketchy. He is of no fixed abode and denies having any previous medical problems. He appears unkempt and is confused - oriented to person but not time or place. He is afebrile. His breath smells of ketones.
Twelve hours after admission his condition deteriorates. He complains of blurred vision and his pupils are fixed and dilated; his respiratory rate increases sharply over the next few minutes and he becomes unconscious.
Investigations show:
Hb 138 g/L (130-180)
WCC 7.1 ×109/L (4-11)
Platelets 401 ×109/L (150-400)
Plasma sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)
Plasma potassium 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Plasma urea 5.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Plasma creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-110)
Plasma chloride 100 mmol/L (95-107)
Plasma bicarbonate 12 mmol/L (20-28)
Plasma glucose 5.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
Plasma lactate 4.1 mmol/L (0.6-1.7)
PaO2 12 kPa (11.3-12.6)
PaCO2 4.2 kPa (4.7-6.0)
pH 7.22 (7.36-7.44)
Urine microscopy Crystals seen
What is the calculated anion gap in this case?Your Answer: 28 mmol/L
Explanation:Methanol Toxicity: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Methanol toxicity is the most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, headache, and confusion. Early signs of toxicity are caused by methanol, while later signs are due to its metabolite, formic acid. The laboratory data shows a high gap metabolic acidosis, which can be diagnosed early by measuring the serum methanol and serum formate levels. Anion gap, which is the difference between positively charged ions and negatively charged ions in the blood, is elevated but lactate levels do not account for it.
Treatment for methanol toxicity involves eliminating formic acid through alkaline diuresis or haemodialysis, correcting acidosis with IV bicarbonate, and preventing the metabolism of methanol to formic acid by administering IV ethanol. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing further complications such as metabolic acidosis and retinal injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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A 20-year-old college student is rushed to a university hospital after being found semi-conscious at home. Upon examination, the patient has a Glasgow coma scale of 12, a fever of 39.5°C, a pulse of 120/min, a blood pressure of 105/60 mmHg, photophobia, and meningism. The medical team has already inserted a cannula and sent blood cultures. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: IV antibiotics followed by CT head and subsequent lumbar puncture
Explanation:Importance of CT Head Scanning and Lumbar Puncture in Suspected Bacterial Meningitis
The availability of 24-hour computerised tomography (CT) head scanning in hospitals is crucial in the early recognition of any contraindications to lumbar puncture (LP) in patients with suspected bacterial meningitis. Prior to LP, a CT head scan should be performed to prevent the risk of brain herniation or coning. However, it is important to note that antibiotics should not be delayed while waiting for CT head scanning as this may prove fatal. In any case of suspected bacterial meningitis, a lumbar puncture must be performed to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment. Clinicians can refer to the Meningitis Research Foundation Clinician’s Guide to Recognition and Early Management of Meningococcal Disease in Children for further information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A 29-year-old female presents to the surgical intake with abdominal pain and a five day history of vomiting.
Over the last three months she has also been aware of a 6 kg weight loss.
On examination, she is pale, has a temperature of 38.5°C, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg and pulse rate of 130 in sinus rhythm. The chest is clear on auscultation but she has a diffusely tender abdomen without guarding. Her BM reading is 2.5.
Initial biochemistry is as follows:
Sodium 124 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 6.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 78 µmol/L (60-110)
Glucose 2.0 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Addison's disease
Explanation:Hypoadrenal Crisis and Addison’s Disease
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of hypoadrenal crisis, including abdominal pain, vomiting, shock, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. In the UK, this is typically caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands, known as Addison’s disease. Other less common causes include TB, HIV, adrenal hemorrhage, or anterior pituitary disease. Patients with Addison’s disease often experience weight loss, abdominal pain, lethargy, and nausea/vomiting. Additionally, they may develop oral pigmentation due to excess ACTH and other autoimmune diseases such as thyroid disease and vitiligo.
In cases like this, emergency fluid resuscitation, steroid administration, and a thorough search for underlying infections are necessary. It is important to measure cortisol levels before administering steroids. None of the other potential causes explain the patient’s biochemical findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing lethargy. She has a history of drinking a bottle of vodka daily and has been experiencing persistent vomiting for the past week.
On examination, her pulse is 96/min and blood pressure is 109/70 mmHg. The following blood results are obtained:
- pH 7.32 (7.36-7.44)
- PaO2 12.0 kPa (11.3-12.6)
- PaCO2 3.1 kPa (4.7-6.0)
- Standard bicarbonate 10 mmol/L (20-28)
- Base excess −8 mmol/L (+/−2)
- Lactate 1.2 mmol/L (0.5-2.2)
- Sodium 142 mmol/L (137-144)
- Potassium 3.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine 72 µmol/L (60-110)
- Plasma glucose 3.4 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
- Urine analysis Ketones +++
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: 1,000 ml of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: IV thiamine followed by 5% dextrose plus 40 mmoles potassium chloride
Explanation:Treatment for Starvation Ketosis in Alcoholic Abuse Patients
Alcoholic abuse patients with starvation ketosis exhibit low pH, low bicarbonate, low base excess, and compensatory low PaCO2. The appropriate treatment for this condition is intravenous (IV) dextrose. However, it is important to note that glucose can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a neurological disorder that affects the brain’s ability to process information. Therefore, before administering IV dextrose, patients with alcoholic abuse and starvation ketosis require initial treatment with IV Pabrinex.
In summary, patients with alcoholic abuse and starvation ketosis require prompt medical attention to prevent further complications. The treatment involves administering IV Pabrinex before IV dextrose to avoid triggering Wernicke’s encephalopathy. This approach can help stabilize the patient’s condition and prevent further health complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 24
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman who underwent Hartmann’s procedure six hours ago has started to complain of abdominal pain and light-headedness. On assessment, she has a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg, a heart rate of 120 bpm, a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations of 98% and a temperature of 36.7 °C. She appears drowsy and pale, and the radial pulse is difficult to detect. Her abdomen appears rigid and is painful to palpate, and a bleed is suspected.
What type of shock is this patient most likely to have?Your Answer: Hypovolaemic
Explanation:Types of Shock and their Causes
Shock is a medical emergency that occurs when the body’s organs and tissues do not receive enough oxygen and nutrients. There are different types of shock, each with its own causes and symptoms.
Hypovolaemic shock is caused by a significant loss of blood volume, usually more than 20%. This can occur due to trauma, surgery, or internal bleeding. Symptoms include low blood pressure, rapid heartbeat, and confusion. Treatment involves urgent fluid resuscitation and surgical intervention.
Anaphylactic shock is an allergic reaction to a substance, such as medication, food, or insect venom. Symptoms include swelling of the face and throat, hives, and difficulty breathing. Treatment involves administering epinephrine and seeking emergency medical care.
Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. This can occur after a heart attack or other cardiac event. Symptoms include low blood pressure, rapid heartbeat, and shortness of breath. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cardiac issue and providing supportive care.
Neurogenic shock occurs due to damage to the central nervous system or spinal cord. Symptoms include low blood pressure, slow heartbeat, and warm skin. Treatment involves stabilizing the spine and providing supportive care.
Septic shock occurs as a result of a severe infection that spreads throughout the body. Symptoms include fever, low blood pressure, and confusion. Treatment involves administering antibiotics and providing supportive care.
In conclusion, recognizing the type of shock a patient is experiencing is crucial for providing appropriate and timely treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 25
Correct
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A previously healthy 85-year-old woman presents to the surgical admissions unit after being referred by her GP due to a two-day history of increasing pain and swelling in the right groin area. Upon examination, there is a firm and red swelling that extends from the pubic tubercle downwards and outwards. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Femoral hernia
Explanation:Types of Hernias and their Characteristics
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of hernia in adults, while femoral hernias are more commonly seen in elderly females. The femoral canal is formed by several ligaments and opens at the femoral ring, which is located inferolaterally to the pubic tubercle. On the other hand, inguinal hernias open at the superficial inguinal ring, which is found superolateral to the pubic tubercle. Therefore, options A and D are incorrect.
Incisional hernias occur at a previous site of surgery where the underlying tissue has been weakened. This type of hernia can occur anywhere on the abdomen where surgery has taken place. However, in the absence of any previous surgery or scar, it is not the correct answer.
Spigelian hernias occur in the abdominal wall within the aponeurotic layer between the rectus abdominis muscle medially and the semilunar line laterally. They do not present with a groin swelling.
In summary, there are different types of hernias, each with its own characteristics and location. It is important to correctly identify the type of hernia to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 26
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient has just been administered intravenous ceftazidime. Suddenly, the patient experiences flushing and wheezing, and their blood pressure drops to 80/40 mmHg. What is the most suitable immediate action to take for this patient?
Your Answer: Adrenaline 0.5 mg of 1:1,000 IM
Explanation:Immediate Treatment for Anaphylaxis and Non-Shockable Cardiac Arrest
Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The first step is to stop whatever caused the reaction. After that, the patient should be given oxygen, fluids, and adrenaline. It is important to check the concentration of adrenaline, especially in high-pressure situations. Adrenaline can be administered intramuscularly or subcutaneously at a dose of 0.5 mg of 1:1,000. However, intravenous administration of adrenaline can be hazardous unless it is appropriately diluted.
In the case of a non-shockable cardiac arrest, the treatment involves the intravenous administration of adrenaline at a dose of 0.5mg of 1:10,000. It is important to note that the concentration of adrenaline used in the treatment of anaphylaxis is different from that used in the treatment of non-shockable cardiac arrest. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the appropriate concentration of adrenaline to use in each situation. Proper administration of adrenaline can be life-saving in both anaphylaxis and non-shockable cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man has been brought into Accident and Emergency, after being rescued from a fire in his home by firefighters. He has extensive burns across most of his torso and lower limbs; however, on assessment, his airway is patent and he currently has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 11. Paramedics have already been able to gain bilateral wide-bore access in both antecubital fossae. He weighs approximately 90 kg, and estimates from the paramedics are that 55% of his body is covered by burns, mostly second-degree, but with some areas of third-degree burns. His observations are:
Temperature 36.2 °C
Blood pressure 102/73 mmHg
Heart rate 112 bpm
Saturations 96% on room air
Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min
What would be the most appropriate initial method of fluid resuscitation?Your Answer: Maintenance fluids based on the Parkland formula
Correct Answer: Hartmann’s 2 litre over 1 h
Explanation:Fluid Management in Burn Patients: Considerations for Initial Resuscitation and Maintenance
Burn patients require careful fluid management to replace lost fluid volume and electrolytes. In the initial resuscitation phase, it is important to administer fluids rapidly, with warm intravenous fluids considered to minimize heat loss. Accurate fluid monitoring and titration to urine output is vital. While colloids such as Gelofusin may be used, crystalloids like Hartmann’s or normal saline are preferred. Maintenance fluids should be based on the modified Parkland formula, with electrolyte losses in mind. However, in the initial phase, replacing lost fluid volume takes priority over maintenance fluids based on oral intake.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What factor is linked to a higher likelihood of developing hepatocellular carcinoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C
Explanation:Risk of Hepatocellular Carcinoma in Cirrhosis Patients with Hepatitis C
Cirrhosis patients with hepatitis C have a 2% chance of developing hepatocellular carcinoma. This means that out of 100 people with cirrhosis caused by hepatitis C, two of them will develop liver cancer. It is important for these patients to receive regular screenings and follow-up care to detect any signs of cancer early on. Early detection can improve the chances of successful treatment and increase the likelihood of survival. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals with cirrhosis from hepatitis C to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and reduce their risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man who has been physically active throughout his life experiences a sudden onset of severe chest pain that spreads to his back, causing him to lose consciousness within minutes. He has a medical history of hypertension, but a recent treadmill test showed no signs of cardiac disease. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tear in the aortic intima
Explanation:Aortic Dissection: A Probable Cause of Sudden Collapse with Acute Chest Pain
The given history suggests that aortic dissection is the most probable cause of sudden collapse with acute chest pain radiating to the back. Although other conditions may also lead to sudden collapse, they do not typically present with acute chest pain radiating to the back in the presence of a recent normal exercise test. While acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a possible cause, it is not the most likely in this scenario.
References such as BMJ Best Practice, BMJ Clinical Review, and eMedicine support the diagnosis and management of aortic dissection. Therefore, it is crucial to consider this condition as a potential cause of sudden collapse with acute chest pain and seek immediate medical attention. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis and prevent life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are summoned to an emergency on the orthopaedic ward where a 75-year-old male has been discovered unconscious by nursing staff. He has recently undergone surgery for a fractured hip.
Upon examination, he is tachycardic with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. His oxygen saturation was 90% on air, and the nursing staff have administered oxygen at 15 litres/minute. His respiratory rate is 5 breaths per minute, and his chest is clear. The abdomen is soft, and his Glasgow coma scale is 10/15. Pupils are equal, small, and unreactive, and he has flaccid limbs bilaterally.
What is the appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent review of the drug chart
Explanation:Managing Opioid Toxicity in Post-Surgical Patients
When a patient exhibits symptoms of opioid toxicity, such as reduced consciousness, respiratory depression, and pinpoint pupils, it is important to review their treatment chart to confirm if they have received opiate analgesia following recent surgery. If confirmed, the patient should be prescribed naloxone to reverse the effects of the opioid and may require ventilatory support.
Opioid toxicity can be a serious complication in post-surgical patients, and prompt management is crucial to prevent further harm. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely for signs of opioid toxicity and to have a plan in place for managing it if it occurs. By being vigilant and prepared, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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