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Question 1
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A 35-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her migraine prophylaxis medication and its potential effects on her unborn child. She reports that her migraines used to occur 1-2 times per week, but since starting the medication, they have decreased to 1-2 times per month. Which medication commonly used for migraine prophylaxis is associated with congenital abnormalities, specifically cleft lip and palate?
Your Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:If a person experiences more than 2 migraine attacks a month, they should be offered migraine prophylaxis. Propranolol and topiramate are both options for this, but propranolol is preferred for women of child-bearing age due to the risk of cleft lip/cleft palate in infants if topiramate is used during the first trimester of pregnancy. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not typically prescribed for migraines, and if a patient using it becomes pregnant, it will not harm the fetus. Triptan medications like sumatriptan and zolmitriptan are used for acute migraine treatment and should be taken as soon as a migraine starts. They may also be used for menstrual migraine prophylaxis, but should be avoided during pregnancy due to limited safety data.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has been experiencing fatigue and has not had a regular period for the past 5 months. She previously had a consistent 28-day cycle. A pregnancy test is negative, her pelvic exam is normal, and routine blood work is ordered:
- Complete blood count: Normal
- Blood urea nitrogen and electrolytes: Normal
- Thyroid function test: Normal
- Follicle-stimulating hormone: 40 iu/l ( < 35 iu/l)
- Luteinizing hormone: 30 mIU/l (< 20 mIU/l)
- Oestradiol: 75 pmol/l ( > 100 pmol/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Premature ovarian failure
Explanation:Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management
Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.
Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting several strange experiences. She explains feeling as though her environment is not real, almost like a dream. Additionally, she has been informed that she begins to smack her lips, although she has no memory of doing so. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Focal impaired awareness seizure
Explanation:Focal aware seizures do not affect consciousness or awareness, and may involve automatic, repetitive actions such as lip smacking.
Epilepsy is classified based on three key features: where seizures begin in the brain, level of awareness during a seizure, and other features of seizures. Focal seizures, previously known as partial seizures, start in a specific area on one side of the brain. The level of awareness can vary in focal seizures, and they can be further classified as focal aware, focal impaired awareness, or awareness unknown. Focal seizures can also be motor, non-motor, or have other features such as aura. Generalized seizures involve networks on both sides of the brain at the onset, and consciousness is lost immediately. They can be further subdivided into motor and non-motor types. Unknown onset is used when the origin of the seizure is unknown. Focal to bilateral seizures start on one side of the brain in a specific area before spreading to both lobes and were previously known as secondary generalized seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department. He reports experiencing sudden blurred vision and difficulty speaking. He denies any history of head injury or trauma and does not have a headache. On examination, he exhibits exaggerated reflexes and upward plantars. Fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cerebral venous thrombosis
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Neurological Conditions and Upper Motor Neurone Signs
Upper motor neurone signs, such as spasticity, hyperreflexia, clonus, and the Babinski reflex, are indicative of certain neurological conditions. Multiple sclerosis, a demyelinating disease, is one such condition that causes these signs. On the other hand, a stroke in a young person is relatively unlikely to cause upper motor neurone signs. Cerebral venous thrombosis could cause these signs, but it would be highly unlikely without a headache and normal fundoscopy. Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is a relatively symmetrical, ascending lower motor neurone disease that does not typically present with blurred vision and speech disturbances. Poliomyelitis, a lower motor neurone condition, is characterised by hypotonia and hyporeflexia and would not cause the Babinski reflex.
Understanding Upper Motor Neurone Signs in Neurological Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which one of the following regarding the FAST questionnaire for alcohol misuse is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: May be stopped after first question depending on the answer
Explanation:Alcohol Problem Drinking: Detection and Assessment
Alcohol problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and well-being. Therefore, it is important to detect and assess problem drinking early on. Screening tools such as AUDIT, FAST, and CAGE can be used to identify individuals who may have hazardous or harmful alcohol consumption or alcohol dependence.
AUDIT is a 10-item questionnaire that takes about 2-3 minutes to complete. It has been shown to be superior to CAGE and biochemical markers for predicting alcohol problems. A score of 8 or more in men, and 7 or more in women, indicates a strong likelihood of hazardous or harmful alcohol consumption. A score of 15 or more in men, and 13 or more in women, is likely to indicate alcohol dependence. AUDIT-C is an abbreviated form consisting of 3 questions.
FAST is a 4-item questionnaire with a minimum score of 0 and a maximum score of 16. The score for hazardous drinking is 3 or more. Over 50% of people will be classified using just the first question, which asks how often the individual has had eight or more drinks on one occasion (or six or more drinks for women).
CAGE is a well-known screening test, but recent research has questioned its value. Two or more positive answers are generally considered a ‘positive’ result. The questions ask if the individual has ever felt the need to cut down on their drinking, if people have annoyed them by criticizing their drinking, if they have ever felt guilty about their drinking, and if they have ever had a drink in the morning to get rid of a hangover.
To diagnose alcohol dependence, the ICD-10 definition requires three or more of the following: compulsion to drink, difficulties controlling alcohol consumption, physiological withdrawal, tolerance to alcohol, neglect of alternative activities to drinking, and persistent use of alcohol despite evidence of harm.
Overall, using screening tools and diagnostic criteria can help healthcare professionals identify individuals with alcohol problem drinking and provide appropriate interventions and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a cough that has been producing green sputum and shortness of breath for the past three days. During the examination, the GP detects the presence of rhonchi. The patient's vital signs are stable. Given his medical history of type 2 diabetes, which is being managed with metformin, and heart failure, for which he is taking ramipril, bisoprolol, and furosemide, the GP suspects acute bronchitis. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral doxycycline
Explanation:Antibiotics may be prescribed for acute bronchitis if the patient has co-existing co-morbidities or is at high risk of complications. NICE guidelines advise against the use of antibiotics for those who are not systemically very unwell and not at high risk of complications. However, if the patient is very unwell or at risk of complications, antibiotics should be offered. In this case, the patient’s age, diabetes, and heart failure put him at high risk, so antibiotics should be offered in accordance with NICE guidelines. While local guidelines should be consulted, NICE recommends oral doxycycline as the first-line treatment. Inhaled bronchodilators should not be offered unless the patient has an underlying airway disease such as asthma. Oral flucloxacillin is not commonly used for respiratory tract infections, and IV co-amoxiclav is not necessary in this stable patient who can be managed without admission.
Acute bronchitis is a chest infection that typically resolves on its own within three weeks. It occurs when the trachea and major bronchi become inflamed, leading to swollen airways and the production of sputum. The primary cause of acute bronchitis is viral infection, with most cases occurring in the autumn or winter. Symptoms include a sudden onset of cough, sore throat, runny nose, and wheezing. While most patients have a normal chest examination, some may experience a low-grade fever or wheezing. It is important to differentiate acute bronchitis from pneumonia, which presents with different symptoms and chest examination findings.
Diagnosis of acute bronchitis is typically based on clinical presentation, but CRP testing may be used to determine if antibiotic therapy is necessary. Management involves pain relief and ensuring adequate fluid intake. Antibiotics may be considered for patients who are systemically unwell, have pre-existing health conditions, or have a CRP level between 20-100mg/L. Doxycycline is the recommended first-line treatment, but it cannot be used in children or pregnant women. Alternatives include amoxicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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In a patient with parkinsonian features, what is the single most appropriate feature that supports the diagnosis of progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP) over idiopathic Parkinson's disease (PD)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early postural instability
Explanation:Differentiating Progressive Supranuclear Palsy from Other Movement Disorders
Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP) is a neurodegenerative condition that typically affects individuals over the age of 50, with a higher incidence in men. Early postural instability is a hallmark feature of PSP, often leading to falls within the first year of onset. The Clinical Criteria for the Diagnosis of Progressive Supranuclear Palsy developed by the National Institute for Neurological Disorders and Society for PSP (NINDS-SPSP) suggests that a poor or absent response to levodopa is indicative of PSP.
Unlike Parkinson’s disease (PD), PSP is not associated with Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia (INO) and does not typically present with marked tremors. Instead, PSP is characterized by supranuclear gaze dysfunction, rigidity, bradykinesia, dysarthria, and dysphagia. Symptoms are usually symmetrical, and unilateral onset is more suggestive of idiopathic PD.
In summary, early postural instability, poor response to levodopa, absence of INO, and lack of marked tremors are key features that can help differentiate PSP from other movement disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a contraindication to using a triptan for treating migraines in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A history of ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Triptan use is contraindicated in individuals with cardiovascular disease.
Triptans for Migraine Treatment
Triptans are medications that act as agonists for 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D receptors and are commonly used in the acute treatment of migraines. They are often prescribed in combination with NSAIDs or paracetamol and are typically taken as soon as possible after the onset of a headache, rather than at the onset of an aura. Triptans are available in various forms, including oral tablets, orodispersible tablets, nasal sprays, and subcutaneous injections.
While triptans are generally well-tolerated, some patients may experience triptan sensations, such as tingling, heat, tightness in the throat and chest, heaviness, or pressure. It is important to note that triptans are contraindicated in patients with a history of or significant risk factors for ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease.
In summary, triptans are a commonly used medication for the acute treatment of migraines. They should be taken as soon as possible after the onset of a headache and are available in various forms. However, patients should be aware of potential adverse effects and contraindications before taking triptans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a known side effect of the combined oral contraceptive pill?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased risk of ovarian cancer
Explanation:While the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of breast and cervical cancer, it has been found to provide protection against ovarian and endometrial cancer. In fact, studies have shown that the pill can actually decrease the risk of ovarian cancer.
Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than 1 per 100 woman years. It does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to the combined oral contraceptive pill. One of the main issues is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side-effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
It is important to weigh the pros and cons of the combined oral contraceptive pill before deciding if it is the right method of birth control for you. While some users report weight gain while taking the pill, a Cochrane review did not support a causal relationship. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be an effective and convenient method of birth control, but it is important to discuss any concerns or potential risks with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman arrives at the delivery ward for childbirth. She is 38 weeks pregnant and had an uncomplicated pregnancy. Her first child, who is now 2 years old, had neonatal sepsis due to Group B Streptococcus (GBS). She has no significant medical history. What is the best course of action for managing the risk of GBS?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Women who have had a previous baby affected by early- or late-onset GBS disease should be offered maternal intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis. The recommended option is to prescribe intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin or ampicillin to the mother. This is according to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists guidelines published in 2017. Administering intravenous benzylpenicillin to the child at birth is not appropriate unless they show signs of neonatal sepsis. Prescribing intrapartum intravenous ceftazidime is also not recommended. Monitoring the newborn for signs of sepsis for the next 72 hours is not sufficient in this case. The best approach is to administer antibiotics to the mother to prevent the development of neonatal sepsis.
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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