-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden vision loss in one eye. What ocular feature would be the most indicative of a diagnosis of giant-cell arteritis?
Your Answer: Retinal pallor with a cherry-red spot
Correct Answer: Pale oedematous optic disc
Explanation:Understanding the Visual Symptoms of Giant-Cell Arteritis
Giant-cell arteritis is a type of vasculitis that affects medium and large arteries, particularly those in the carotid artery and its branches. This condition can cause various symptoms, including headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, and systemic symptoms like weight loss and fever. However, one of the most concerning effects of giant-cell arteritis is its impact on vision.
Inflammation of the ophthalmic artery’s branches can lead to ischaemic optic neuritis, which can cause visual disturbances. Around 50% of patients with giant-cell arteritis eventually experience visual symptoms, such as transient visual blurring, diplopia, visual field defects, and sudden loss of vision.
On fundoscopy, an eye doctor may observe pallor and oedema of the optic disc, as well as cotton-wool patches and small haemorrhages in the retina. These features are usually seen following loss of vision. Transient repeated episodes of blurred vision are usually reversible, but sudden loss is an ominous sign and is almost always permanent. Symptoms can occur in the absence of, or before the development of, headache.
It’s important to note that some symptoms commonly associated with eye problems, such as a hard eye or a pupil that doesn’t respond to light, are not necessarily indicative of giant-cell arteritis. Instead, an eye with very high intraocular pressure may feel hard, while a sluggish or absent pupillary reflex may be present with optic nerve involvement. Additionally, widespread retinal haemorrhages are not typically seen in giant-cell arteritis, but may be a feature of central retinal vein occlusion.
Overall, understanding the visual symptoms of giant-cell arteritis can help individuals seek prompt medical attention and potentially prevent permanent vision loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 55-year-old myopic woman came in with a complaint of left flashing lights and an increase in floaters for the past three days. She has a best corrected visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes according to the Snellen chart. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Refer to an ophthalmologist urgently
Explanation:Importance of Referral to an Ophthalmologist for Myopia Patients
A referral to an ophthalmologist is highly recommended for patients with myopia. This is because myopia is a risk factor for retinal detachment, which can lead to serious vision problems if left untreated. While an ocular examination by a non-ophthalmologist is a good start, it may not be enough to detect small retinal tears or breaks that can lead to more extensive retinal detachment in the future.
Therefore, it is crucial to have a thorough examination by a specialist who is trained to identify and treat such conditions. By referring myopia patients to an ophthalmologist, they can receive the best possible care and ensure that any potential issues are addressed promptly. This can help prevent further complications and preserve their vision in the long run. So, if you or someone you know has myopia, don’t hesitate to seek a referral to an ophthalmologist for a comprehensive eye exam.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 25-year-old patient presents with episodes of blurred vision. The vision is blurred in both eyes. This has been going on for a few weeks but seems worse over the last couple of days. She has not had any headaches. Her eyes look normal and are not red or injected. Visual acuity using a Snellen chart is 6/4. When a pinhole occluder is used to assess her vision, her vision improves.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Suggest she attends her optician for a vision assessment
Explanation:Using a pinhole occluder can help identify if refractive errors are causing a patient’s blurred vision. Refractive errors are the most common cause of blurred vision, and a pinhole occluder can partially improve symptoms. However, visual acuity may be reduced when using a Snellen chart. If a patient complains of blurred vision, they should see an optician for an assessment and may need an updated prescription.
There are no indications in the patient’s history that suggest an acute Intracranial cause for their symptoms. Therefore, there is no need for an urgent CT head or referral to neurology. However, if the patient experiences sudden loss of vision or other associated symptoms such as limb weakness or changes in speech, it may indicate an acute intracranial or vascular cause that requires urgent investigation.
Triptan-based medications are typically used to treat migraines, which can present with blurred vision as an ‘aura’ before the onset of a headache. However, this is not the case for this patient.
Vitamin A deficiency can cause dry skin and hair, inability to gain weight, and skin sores. It may also lead to reduced night vision or decreased ability to see in the dark. However, there is no evidence that supplementing the patient’s vitamin A would improve their blurred vision. It is best for the patient to be assessed by an optician first.
Blurred vision refers to a loss of clarity or sharpness in one’s vision. It is a common symptom experienced by patients with long-term refractive errors. However, the term can have different meanings for different patients and doctors, so it is important to assess for other associated symptoms such as visual loss, double vision, and floaters.
There are various causes of blurred vision, including cataracts, retinal detachment, age-related macular degeneration, acute angle closure glaucoma, optic neuritis, and amaurosis fugax. To determine the underlying cause, a visual acuity test using a Snellen chart, pinhole occluders, visual fields, and fundoscopy may be conducted.
Management of blurred vision depends on the suspected underlying cause. If the onset is gradual, corrected by a pinhole occluder, and there are no other associated symptoms, an optician review may be the next step. However, patients with other associated symptoms such as visual loss or pain should be seen by an ophthalmologist urgently.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 40-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Grave's disease and is now seeking a review 3 months after commencing a 'block and replace' regimen with carbimazole and thyroxine. She is worried about the possibility of developing thyroid eye disease. What measures can be taken to minimize her risk of developing this condition?
Your Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:Smoking is the primary controllable risk factor for thyroid eye disease.
Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.
Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.
Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 5-week-old girl presents to your clinic with a three-day history of mild yellow discharge from her right eye and a 9 mm erythematous swelling inferior to the medial canthus of the right eye. Her mother reports that her eyes have always been watery. Upon examination, she has a temperature of 38.3°c. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Nasolacrimal duct obstruction
Correct Answer: Dacryocystitis
Explanation:Eye Infections and Obstructions: Understanding the Differences
Dacryocystitis is an inflammation of the nasolacrimal sac caused by an infection resulting from an obstruction in the nasolacrimal duct. This obstruction leads to the stagnation of tears and can cause systemic illness in infants. If left untreated, the infection can spread and cause orbital cellulitis.
A chalazion, also known as a meibomian cyst, occurs when the small oil glands around the eyelashes become blocked due to inflammation. This blockage leads to the formation of a small, tender swelling within the eyelid. Chalazions can occur on either the inferior or superior eyelids.
An external hordeolum, commonly known as a stye, is a localized infection or inflammation of the eyelash follicle. This type of infection is usually caused by a staphylococcal infection.
While nasolacrimal duct obstruction can contribute to the development of dacryocystitis in infants, it should not cause inflammation and illness on its own. It is important to note that congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction is common in infants and typically resolves within 12 months.
Ophthalmia neonatorum caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae typically occurs within the first five days of birth and is characterized by bilateral purulent discharge. When caused by chlamydial infection, the conjunctivitis may occur after three days but can arise as late as two weeks after birth.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man presents with an acute red eye.
Of the following conditions which is the most likely cause?Your Answer: Optic neuritis
Correct Answer: Closed angle glaucoma
Explanation:Causes of Acute Red Eye
There are several causes of acute red eye, with glaucoma being the most likely to present with this symptom. Other possible causes include anterior uveitis, corneal ulcers, conjunctivitis, scleritis and episcleritis, and subconjunctival haemorrhage. It is important to note that optic neuritis presents with a specific type of central visual loss known as a central scotoma, while retinal vein occlusion, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage typically present as visual loss or disturbance. Understanding the various causes of acute red eye can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 50-year-old female patient of yours has a history of bilateral dry eyes and was prescribed hypromellose in the past. She now reports persistent discomfort and grittiness in her eyes despite using hypromellose for over three months.
What would be your next course of action in managing her symptoms?Your Answer: Stop the hypromellose and try her on another type of ocular lubricant
Explanation:The Importance of Addressing Dry Eye in General Practice
Dry eye is a common condition that is often overlooked as a trivial problem. However, it can be an under-treated condition that causes discomfort and visual debility for patients. Unfortunately, many clinicians do not take the time to explore the patient’s genuine concerns and the impact of dry eyes on their mental health.
It is important to note that not all ocular lubricants are suitable or agreeable to all patients. Therefore, if one lubricant is not working, there are many others that can be tried before referring the patient to ophthalmology. This condition must be treated on a case-by-case basis to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
In conclusion, addressing dry eye in general practice is crucial to improving the quality of life for patients. By taking the time to understand their concerns and exploring different treatment options, clinicians can help alleviate discomfort and improve visual function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Each of the following can lead to cataract formation except for one. Which one is it?
Down's syndrome
12%
Hypercalcaemia
28%
Diabetes mellitus
6%
Long-term steroid use
6%
Uveitis
48%
Is it true that hypocalcaemia, not hypercalcaemia, is a contributing factor to cataract formation?Your Answer: Uveitis
Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Cataract formation is more likely to occur due to hypocalcaemia rather than hypercalcaemia.
Understanding Cataracts
A cataract is a common eye condition that occurs when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy, making it difficult for light to reach the retina and causing reduced or blurred vision. Cataracts are more common in women and increase in incidence with age, affecting 30% of individuals aged 65 and over. The most common cause of cataracts is the normal ageing process, but other possible causes include smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes mellitus, long-term corticosteroids, radiation exposure, myotonic dystrophy, and metabolic disorders such as hypocalcaemia.
Patients with cataracts typically experience a gradual onset of reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. Signs of cataracts include a defect in the red reflex, which is the reddish-orange reflection seen through an ophthalmoscope when a light is shone on the retina. Diagnosis is made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which reveal a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts, involving the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, patient choice, and the risks and benefits of surgery. Complications following surgery may include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis. Despite these risks, cataract surgery has a high success rate, with 85-90% of patients achieving corrected vision of 6/12 or better on a Snellen chart postoperatively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 21-year-old woman presents with a one week history of anisocoria, the right pupil being larger than the left. This was initially noticed by her concerned mother, who insisted that she come to see you for advice.
She also brought with her a recent close-up photograph of herself taken one month ago which showed equal size pupils. She doesn't complain of any headaches or diplopia or reduced vision. She is otherwise fit and healthy.
On examination, the anisocoria is more pronounced in a well lit room than a dim lit room. The eyes appeared white and not inflamed.
Which one of the following statements best describes the patient's condition?Your Answer: This is an efferent pupillary defect of the right eye
Explanation:Understanding Pupillary Light Reaction Pathways
Pupillary light reaction pathways are crucial in neuro-ophthalmology and can aid in formulating differential diagnoses. It is important to note that these pathways do not involve the parietal and temporal lobes of the brain. Anisocoria in a healthy patient without any previous ocular problems may indicate an efferent problem affecting the pathway between the Edinger-Westphal nucleus and the innervation of the sphincter pupillae. In such cases, a relative pupillary defect would not be expected as the afferent pathway remains unaffected.
Optic neuritis, on the other hand, may cause ocular pain, reduced vision, and occasionally, a relative afferent pupillary defect in the affected eye. However, the diagnosis in this case is Adie’s tonic pupil, which is of no clinical significance and requires only reassurance. Nonetheless, a thorough physical examination should be conducted to rule out other treatable conditions such as berry aneurysm or other intracranial compressive lesions, especially if the patient is symptomatic.
In summary, understanding pupillary light reaction pathways is crucial in neuro-ophthalmology and can aid in formulating differential diagnoses. Anisocoria in an otherwise healthy patient may indicate an efferent problem, while optic neuritis may cause ocular pain and reduced vision. The diagnosis of Adie’s tonic pupil requires reassurance, but a thorough physical examination should be conducted to rule out other treatable conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man with poorly controlled type II diabetes presents with sudden onset of visual loss in one eye. Examination of his eye reveals loss of red reflex, acuity of 6/24 in the affected eye (6/6 in the good eye) and blood in the posterior chamber of the eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage
Explanation:Common Causes of Visual Impairment: A Comparison of Vitreous Haemorrhage, Central Retinal Artery Occlusion, Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion, Commotio Retinae, and Vitreous Detachment
Vitreous Haemorrhage: Patients with vitreous haemorrhage often experience floaters and a red hue, and the blood appears as a cloud in the vitreous. This condition is commonly seen in patients with proliferative diabetic retinopathy, as well as those who have experienced trauma or have other causes of proliferative retinopathy. It may also be an early sign of retinal tears and detachment.
Central Retinal Artery Occlusion: Sudden loss of vision is the hallmark of central retinal artery occlusion. Fundoscopy reveals a pale retina due to retinal ischaemia, with the centre of the macula appearing as a cherry-red spot.
Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion: Fundoscopy reveals superficial haemorrhages, retinal oedema, and cotton-wool spots in a sector of retina drained by the affected vein. The obstructed vein is dilated and tortuous. Visual loss largely depends on the compromise to macular drainage, and peripheral occlusions may be asymptomatic.
Commotio Retinae: Commotio retinae, or Berlin’s oedema, is caused by blunt injury to the eye. Decreased vision in the injured eye occurs a few hours after the injury. The retina appears opaque and white in colour in the periphery, but the blood vessels are normal. It is usually self-limiting.
Vitreous Detachment: Vitreous detachment is the most common cause of light flashes and floaters, but not visual loss. A slit-lamp examination is mandatory to exclude retinal tears, which are present in about 10% of cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)