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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman has been recently diagnosed with chronic open-angle glaucoma. The Ophthalmologist also comments that she has mild bilateral cataracts. When light from a pen torch is shone into the left eye, both pupils constrict. When the torch is moved to the right eye, both pupils appear to be more dilated.
Which of the following most correctly identifies the significance of this finding?Your Answer: The intraocular pressure in the right eye is greater than in the left eye
Correct Answer: There is already optic nerve damage in the right eye
Explanation:Understanding the Afferent Pupillary Defect in Glaucoma
The afferent pupillary defect is a key diagnostic tool in glaucoma. It refers to differences in the afferent pathway between the two eyes, indicating retinal or optic nerve disease. This defect can be detected even if visual field testing is not positive, making it a valuable tool in diagnosing glaucoma.
Contrary to popular belief, the presence of neurosyphilis doesn’t necessarily indicate an afferent pupillary defect. Instead, the Argyll Robertson pupils, which are small, irregular pupils that constrict during accommodation but not in response to light, are a hallmark of neurosyphilis.
It is also important to note that the density of a cataract or intraocular pressure doesn’t affect the presence of an afferent pupillary defect. Even with a dense cataract or corneal scar, a positive test can still be obtained as long as the retina and optic nerve are healthy.
Finally, while miotic drugs like pilocarpine can be used to treat glaucoma, they do not cause an afferent pupillary defect. This defect is a result of underlying retinal or optic nerve disease and should be carefully evaluated by a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman, in good health, visits your clinic with a complaint of an itchy, watery, red right eye that has been bothering her for one day. She reports no vision problems and there is no discharge from the eye. Upon examination, you observe chemosis and redness in the affected eye. What is the most appropriate course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Give patient a short course of oral antihistamine
Correct Answer: Give patient topical antihistamine
Explanation:Ocular Allergic Reaction: Symptoms and Management
An ocular allergic reaction is a common condition that is usually self-limiting and doesn’t require any specific treatment. It is characterized by symptoms such as itching, redness, and swelling of the eyes. In most cases, no specific cause is found, and the condition is bilateral and seasonal.
Symptomatic management is the best approach for this condition. A short course of topical antihistamine is the most effective treatment option among the five choices available. This medication can help alleviate the symptoms and provide relief to the patient. It is important to note that if the symptoms persist or worsen, a visit to an ophthalmologist may be necessary to rule out any underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 3
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents with a painful and red right eye that started 10 days ago. He complains of a foreign body sensation but cannot recall any incident of something entering his eye. His eye is swollen and tearing, and he experiences blurred vision and light sensitivity. Despite washing his eye with water daily, there has been no improvement. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and hypertension and wears contact lenses regularly. He denies having a history of cold sores.
During the examination, the patient's right eye appears diffusely red, and his visual acuity is slightly reduced. The pupil reaction is normal, but there is a small, circular area on the cornea that takes up the dye.
What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Urgent, same day ophthalmology assessment
Explanation:When a patient presents with symptoms and signs that are consistent with a corneal ulcer, the most appropriate course of action is to urgently refer them to an ophthalmologist for assessment on the same day. Typically, a corneal ulcer is seen in patients who wear contact lenses and experience a foreign body sensation in the eye, along with a red eye and an ulcer on staining. While ophthalmic herpes may present similarly, the ulcer would be dendritic, and the patient would have a history of facial herpes. In such cases, the treatment involves aciclovir and topical ganciclovir, along with same-day ophthalmology assessment.
A corneal ulcer is a condition where there is a defect in the cornea, usually caused by an infection. This is different from a corneal abrasion, which is a defect in the cornea caused by physical trauma. Risk factors for corneal ulcers include using contact lenses and having a vitamin A deficiency, which is more common in developing countries.
The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can be caused by bacterial, fungal, viral, or Acanthamoeba infections. Bacterial keratitis, fungal keratitis, and viral keratitis (such as herpes simplex or herpes zoster) can lead to a dendritic ulcer. Acanthamoeba keratitis is often associated with contact lens use.
Symptoms of a corneal ulcer include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and watering of the eye. The cornea may also show focal fluorescein staining.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a painful and red left eye. She denies any recent trauma to the eye but reports seeing floaters and experiencing discomfort when moving her eye. She also notes blurred vision. This is the fourth time she has experienced these symptoms.
Upon examination, the left eye appears red and the pupil is irregular. The patient's visual acuity is slightly worse in the left eye compared to the right. Corneal staining reveals no abnormalities, but there are some cells present in the anterior chamber.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient, and what is the recommended management plan?Your Answer: Prescribe oral prednisolone and refer to eye casualty if no improvement in 24 hours
Correct Answer: Arrange same day assessment in eye casualty
Explanation:If a patient displays symptoms consistent with anterior uveitis, such as a red and painful eye with reduced vision and flashes/floaters, urgent referral for assessment by an ophthalmologist on the same day is the most appropriate course of action. Anterior uveitis is characterized by inflammation in the anterior segment of the eye, with the presence of cells in the aqueous humour and an abnormally shaped or differently sized pupil compared to the unaffected eye. While the pain is not as severe as scleritis, prompt evaluation by a specialist is crucial for proper treatment.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male patient of yours is confused. He has had nausea and vomiting for two days and is now complaining of yellow vision.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?Your Answer: Amiodarone
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Xanthopsia and Digoxin Toxicity
Confusion, nausea, vomiting, and yellow discoloration of vision are all symptoms that suggest digoxin toxicity. Xanthopsia, or yellow vision, is a rare but possible side effect of digoxin toxicity, particularly in the elderly. Amiodarone can cause corneal deposits and impaired vision, but it doesn’t result in xanthopsia.
While rotavirus and viral labyrinthitis may cause nausea and vomiting, they do not result in xanthopsia. It is important to note that the elderly are often more susceptible to side effects from medications due to various factors such as declining renal function and rates of gastric emptying.
If a patient presents with xanthopsia and other symptoms of digoxin toxicity, it is crucial to consider the possibility of digoxin toxicity and take appropriate action. The British National Formulary provides information on digoxin and its potential side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are conducting a HGV medical examination on a 65-year-old truck driver. He reports a decline in his vision but doesn't use corrective lenses. What is the method used to verify if he should be cautioned against driving according to DVLA standards?
Your Answer: The person cannot read a number plate in good light at a distance of 30 metres
Correct Answer: Their visual acuity according to a Snellen chart is 6/7.5 in the best eye and 6/60 in the other eye
Explanation:DVLA Fitness to Drive Standards: Vision Requirements
According to the DVLA Fitness to Drive Standards, there are specific requirements for vision when driving. These include being able to read a car number plate made after 1 September 2001 from 20 meters away, having a visual acuity of at least decimal 0.5 (6/12) measured on the Snellen scale, and having an adequate field of vision. Lorry and bus drivers have additional requirements, including a visual acuity of at least 0.8 (6/7.5) in their best eye and an uninterrupted horizontal visual field of at least 160 degrees. It is important to note that if you have any problems with your eyesight that affect either eye, you must inform the DVLA. While there are some exceptions for those who held their license before 1 January 1997, it is crucial to meet these standards to ensure safe driving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man comes to your clinic with a complaint of diplopia on left, right and down gaze for the past three months. He reports that this symptom worsens towards the end of the day. Additionally, he mentions that his family members have noticed that his speech has become more slurred over the last three months. He also reports difficulty drinking water over the past month. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this man's condition?
Your Answer: Referral to an optometrist urgently
Correct Answer: Referral to a physician urgently
Explanation:Myasthenia: A Medical Emergency
This case presents with diplopia that worsens towards the end of the day, without following any pattern of cranial nerve palsies. This suggests fatigue and raises the possibility of myasthenia. The patient also experiences slurring speech and difficulties in swallowing, indicating that the extraocular muscles and bulbar function are affected.
Myasthenia is a medical emergency that requires urgent referral to a physician or neurologist for further investigations and treatment. Failure to do so may result in aspiration pneumonia, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, prompt action is necessary to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of sudden discomfort in her right eye. She describes it as feeling 'gritty' and notices watering. She also experienced some discharge from the eye upon waking up in the morning. Upon examination, the conjunctiva appears red and inflamed. What is the most appropriate management for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Resolution is slow and spontaneous
Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics can be withheld
Explanation:Understanding Conjunctivitis: Topical Antibiotics and Treatment Options
Conjunctivitis, commonly known as pink eye, is a condition characterized by inflamed conjunctiva, discharge, and gritty eye discomfort. While most cases are self-limiting and resolve spontaneously within 5-7 days, severe symptoms or rapid resolution may require the use of topical antibiotics such as chloramphenicol and fusidic acid. However, NICE guidelines recommend withholding antibiotics unless necessary. Bacterial and viral forms of conjunctivitis can be differentiated clinically, with purulent discharge indicating a positive bacterial culture. Mucopurulent discharge with crusting is suggestive of bacterial conjunctivitis, while pruritis and petechial subconjunctival hemorrhages suggest a viral cause. While antibiotics can improve rates of clinical and microbiological remission, most cases resolve spontaneously. Referral to ophthalmology should be considered if symptoms persist for longer than 5-7 days. Serious complications from untreated infective conjunctivitis are rare but can include epidemic keratoconjunctivitis, keratitis, and corneal perforation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old lady comes to the clinic with a complaint of sticky, painless, red right eye, accompanied by yellowish-green ocular discharge that has been present for three weeks. Despite using topical antibiotics, there has been no improvement. Upon examination, follicular tarsal conjunctivitis is observed, along with right pre-auricular lymphadenopathy. Her visual acuity is 6/6 on Snellen chart in both eyes. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Start the patient on oral steroids
Correct Answer: Refer her urgently to an ophthalmologist
Explanation:Chlamydial Conjunctivitis: A Case for Prompt Referral
The presented case of a young patient with non-responsive conjunctivitis, ocular discharge, and pre-auricular lymphadenopathy should raise suspicion for chlamydial conjunctivitis. Therefore, a prompt referral to an ophthalmologist for further examination, investigation, and treatment is necessary. Once confirmed, management can be done jointly with a genito-urinary medicine specialist (GUM).
It is crucial to identify and treat chlamydial conjunctivitis promptly to prevent complications such as corneal scarring and vision loss. Therefore, clinicians should have a high index of suspicion for this condition, especially in sexually active individuals. Referral to an ophthalmologist and GUM specialist can ensure comprehensive management and prevent further spread of the infection. Proper education and counseling on safe sex practices should also be provided to prevent future occurrences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents with itchy, red eyelid margins. He often feels there is something in his eye. The conjunctiva in each eye is injected. The problem is longstanding but it has only recently become bad enough for him to seek medical attention. You advise him about eyelid hygiene.
Which of the following is the least suitable component of long-term eyelid hygiene?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Applying an antibiotic-steroid combination ointment to the lid margin
Explanation:Proper Eyelid Hygiene for Blepharitis Treatment
Blepharitis is a common eye condition that requires a long-term programme of eyelid margin hygiene for effective treatment. While antibiotic-steroid ointment combinations can be used for short courses, their prolonged use can lead to risks such as raised intraocular pressure, cataract formation, and potentiation of infection. Instead, proper eyelid hygiene involves cleaning the eyelid margin with a warm washcloth or gauze pads, using baby shampoo mixed with warm water, and applying antibiotic ointment to the lid margin after cleaning. Warm compresses can also be used to accompany eyelid massage. Washing the eyelid margin with water alone is an acceptable alternative to using diluted baby shampoo. By following these steps, patients can effectively manage their blepharitis symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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