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Question 1
Correct
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A General Practitioner is approached by an expert reviewer working on the Saving Lives, Improving Mothers' Care report, to provide details about the demise of a postpartum patient who was under the care of the practice. What type of procedure does the Saving Lives, Improving Mothers Care report exemplify?
Your Answer: Confidential enquiry
Explanation:The RCGP curriculum includes public health education, which involves promoting health and preventing disease. GPs are required to have an understanding of the surveillance systems they are involved in. The Saving Lives, Improving Mothers’ Care report is an example of a Confidential Enquiry, which replaces the previous Confidential Enquiry into Maternal and Child Health (CEMACH), also known as Why Mothers Die. The purpose of a Confidential Enquiry is to investigate morbidity and mortality cases to identify areas of practice that need improvement. The details of each individual case are kept confidential and not published. GPs are often involved in providing information about maternal deaths to the team responsible for producing the Saving Lives, Improving Mothers’ Care report. Expert reviewers gather and assess information from various healthcare professionals involved in the patient’s care, including GPs.
Understanding Confidential Enquiries
A confidential enquiry is a process of investigating morbidity and mortality cases to identify areas of practice that need improvement. The purpose of this investigation is to ensure that healthcare providers are delivering the best possible care to their patients. The confidentiality of each case is maintained, and no details are published to protect the privacy of the individuals involved.
During a confidential enquiry, healthcare providers review cases of morbidity and mortality to identify any shortcomings in their practice. This process helps to identify areas where improvements can be made to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future. The confidentiality of each case is essential to encourage healthcare providers to participate in the process without fear of retribution or legal action.
In conclusion, confidential enquiries are an essential tool for improving healthcare practices. By identifying areas of improvement, healthcare providers can work to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future. The confidentiality of each case is critical to ensure that healthcare providers feel comfortable participating in the process and that the privacy of the individuals involved is protected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about her risk of developing osteoporosis. She underwent a hysterectomy and oophorectomy due to uterine fibroids a year ago, which was followed by mild hot flashes that have since resolved. The patient is worried about the possibility of fracture after her mother broke her hip at the age of 72. She inquires about medications for osteoporosis. Her T score is <−2.5, and her body mass index is 17.3 kg/m2. She was on Depo-Provera from the age of 39 to 45, during which time she was amenorrhoeic. The physical examination, including breast examination, is normal. What would you suggest to her?
Your Answer: Bisphosphonate
Explanation:Treatment for Osteoporosis in a High-Risk Patient
This patient has several risk factors for osteoporosis, including a low BMI, a positive family history, and oophorectomy at an appropriate menopausal age. Although she no longer experiences menopausal symptoms, she may still be at risk for severe osteoporosis if she has a T score of <−2.5 SD and one or more fragility fractures. Therefore, the most appropriate therapy for this patient would be a bisphosphonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are conducting a diabetic annual review on a 63-year-old man with type 2 diabetes. As part of the review, you are checking for any indications of depression. NICE suggests using two questions to screen for depression in at-risk patients, such as those with chronic illnesses. What is one of the questions that should be asked as part of the evaluation?
Your Answer: During the last month, have you had trouble falling or staying asleep, or sleeping too much?
Correct Answer: During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?
Explanation:Managing Chronic Medical Conditions in Primary Care
More and more patients with complex, chronic medical conditions are being managed in primary care, such as diabetes where some practices are initiating and managing patients on insulin and newer injectable treatments. However, with this greater workload comes the need for structured regular reviews. Part of reviewing a patient with a chronic medical problem is to consider the psychological impact of their disease and to elicit any depression or mood disorder that may be present.
To approach this scenario, NICE has provided a framework that advises asking two questions. If either question is answered with a ‘yes,’ further inquiry is needed into specific symptoms of depression. The two questions are: During the last month, have you been feeling down, depressed, or hopeless? During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?
By regularly reviewing patients with chronic medical conditions and considering their psychological well-being, primary care providers can provide comprehensive care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 20-year-old female presents to the GP with a complaint of ongoing fatigue for the past 5 months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
- Hb: 118 g/L (Female: 115 - 160)
- Platelets: 240 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC: 6.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Ferritin: 190 ng/mL (20 - 230)
- Vitamin B12: 95 ng/L (200 - 900)
- Folate: 4.8 nmol/L (> 3.0)
What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: Hydroxycobalamin IM
Explanation:Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Correct
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Each of the following is linked to hypertrichosis, except for which one?
Your Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation:Hypertrichosis is the result of Porphyria cutanea tarda, not hirsutism.
Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis
Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.
Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has a pigmented lesion on her leg.
Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of malignancy.Your Answer: Warty surface
Correct Answer: Recent growth
Explanation:Identifying Suspicious Pigmented Lesions: Signs of Malignancy
When it comes to pigmented lesions, it’s important to approach new or growing ones with caution. While benign melanocytic naevi tend to remain stable over time, malignant lesions may exhibit signs of growth and other concerning features. These may include a size greater than 7mm, irregular pigmentation, asymmetry, and an irregular border or contour. While itching and bleeding may also be indicative of malignancy, they can also be caused by other factors such as trauma or seborrhoeic keratosis. To identify potential melanomas, healthcare professionals may use the Glasgow 7-point checklist or the ABCDE’s of melanoma. By remaining vigilant and aware of these warning signs, we can help ensure early detection and treatment of potentially dangerous pigmented lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, back pain, anxiety and depression presents to your clinic as an emergency appointment. She has been booking emergency appointments with the clinic almost every week with mild and vague generalised symptoms. A few weeks ago, you diagnosed her with self-limiting gastroenteritis.
Today, she complains of weakness in both her legs that has been worsening and moving up her legs from her feet over the last few days. She also reports some shooting pains and increased back pain. However, she denies any new incontinence or saddle anaesthesia.
Upon examination, her observations are normal, and she has good power in her upper limbs. However, there appears to be some numbness in both hands. She also has reduced sensation and power in both lower legs symmetrically up to just below her knees. Additionally, she has absent plantar reflexes and reduced ankle reflexes.
What is your plan for managing this patient?Your Answer: Advise her to go home and rest and return in 2 weeks if her symptoms have not improved
Correct Answer: Admit her to hospital for further investigations and treatment
Explanation:The patient’s worsening lower limb weakness following gastroenteritis is concerning for Guillain-Barre syndrome, as indicated by abnormal neurological findings, timing of illness, and age. Immediate admission to hospital for further investigation and treatment is necessary.
Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents for a follow-up appointment. She recently experienced a transient ischemic attack and is currently taking bendroflumethiazide for hypertension. Her blood pressure at the appointment is 130/80 mmHg. As you discuss management options to decrease her risk of future strokes, what is her CHA2DS2-VASc score?
Your Answer: 4
Explanation:Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic with a complaint of amenorrhea for the past eight months. She reports weight gain and decreased libido during this time and has noticed milk production from her breasts. Her last sexual encounter was about seven months ago. On examination, vital signs are normal, and there are no abnormalities on abdominal examination. Galactorrhea is confirmed on expression. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Prolactinoma
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Hyperprolactinaemia
This patient is presenting with several signs and symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia, including weight gain, loss of libido, menstrual disturbance, and galactorrhoea. While conditions such as PCOS, depression, and Cushing’s can cause weight gain and menstrual changes, galactorrhoea is only associated with pregnancy, prolactinoma, certain medications, and hypothyroidism.
It is important to note that the patient’s normal abdominal examination after ten months of amenorrhea, with her last sexual encounter occurring nine months prior, rules out pregnancy as a potential cause for her symptoms. Further investigation and testing may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of her hyperprolactinaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman presents with advanced oesophageal cancer.
She has an inoperable tumour and is being managed palliatively. From the description of her symptoms you diagnose oesophageal spasm.
Which of the following would be most helpful in managing her symptoms?Your Answer: Nifedipine
Correct Answer: Pamidronate
Explanation:Treatment options for oesophageal spasm
This patient is suffering from oesophageal cancer and is experiencing odynophagia and dysphagia. A clinical diagnosis of oesophageal spasm has been made. There are several treatment options available depending on the underlying cause of the symptoms.
Dexamethasone is useful if the dysphagia is due to tumour enlargement and physical blockage is causing dysphagia. Fluconazole is used to treat oesophagitis caused by candidal infection. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that can be helpful if symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease are present. Pamidronate is a bisphosphonate that is administered intravenously to treat bone pain and hypercalcaemia.
Nifedipine can work well in cases like this due to its action of relaxing smooth muscle and can help treat the painful spasm that is underlying the symptoms. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the oesophageal spasm to determine the most effective treatment option. With proper treatment, the patient can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new autoantibody test for detecting suspected Hashimoto's disease in individuals over the age of 50. The test was administered to 1000 participants who reported fatigue, and all test results were compared to FNA biopsy results, which served as the gold standard for diagnosing Hashimoto's disease. The table below shows the results:
Antibody +ve Antibody -ve Total
Hashimoto's disease confirmed at FNA 35 15 50
No evidence of disease at FNA 30 920 950
What is the approximate sensitivity of the autoantibody test for detecting Hashimoto's disease in individuals over the age of 50?Your Answer: 90%
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:Understanding Sensitivity in Medical Testing
Sensitivity is a crucial measure of a medical test’s ability to identify individuals with a particular condition. It is calculated as the proportion of true positives correctly identified by the test. For instance, if 50 individuals have Hashimoto’s disease according to the gold standard test of biopsy, and 35 of these are identified by the antibody test, the sensitivity of the test is 70%. This means that the test correctly identified 35 out of 50 true positives, while 15 were falsely identified as negative. In other words, sensitivity is the ability of a test to detect the presence of a condition in those who have it. Understanding sensitivity is essential in evaluating the accuracy and reliability of medical tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper eyelid that had been bothering him for three days. Upon examination, a chalazion was discovered. There was no swelling or redness around the eye. What would be the most appropriate next step in treating this man's condition?
Your Answer: Surgical drainage of the chalazion at the GP practice on the same day
Correct Answer: Warm compress and gentle massage
Explanation:Management of Chalazion
A chalazion, also known as a meibomian cyst, can be effectively managed with conservative treatment. The first step is to apply warm compress to the affected eye and gently massage it. This should help settle the active chalazion. Surgical drainage should only be considered if there are remnants after the active/inflamed stage that are affecting the patient. However, it is important to note that surgical drainage should not be attempted while the chalazion is still inflamed, as this can worsen the condition. Referral to an ophthalmologist is not necessary unless the chalazion is not improving or causing more complicated problems to the eye.
It is important to note that ocular lubricants and steroids do not play a role in the management of chalazion during the acute inflamed stage. Antibiotics are also not recommended as a first-line treatment. In an examination setting, it is likely that questions on this subject will follow the latest NICE CKS guidance on the management of meibomian cyst chalazion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests following a recent visit to his psychiatrist. The psychiatrist has raised his dosage of lithium and requested that the GP arrange for lithium levels to be checked at the appropriate time after taking the medication. The patient took his first increased dose of lithium at 10AM (two hours ago).
When should the GP schedule the blood test to be taken?Your Answer: 12 hours
Correct Answer: 8 hours
Explanation:Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.
Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.
Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man urgently books an appointment at your clinic. He complains of left-sided facial pain and malaise that has been ongoing for two weeks. He mentions that his symptoms initially improved after a week, but then worsened again, and he now feels worse than he did initially. He has no significant medical history.
During the examination, you note a low-grade fever of 37.9 degrees, but all other observations are normal. Anterior rhinoscopy reveals a purulent discharge from the left middle meatus, but there are no abnormalities in the eyes or periorbital tissues.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Viral sinusitis
Correct Answer: Bacterial sinusitis
Explanation:The man’s symptoms suggest bacterial sinusitis, as he has experienced a double sickening where his symptoms initially improved but then suddenly worsened. This is often caused by a secondary bacterial infection following a viral rhinosinusitis. The presence of a fever and purulent discharge seen on rhinoscopy further support this diagnosis.
Trigeminal neuralgia would not cause a fever, while sialadenitis would result in swelling of only one salivary gland. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a rare complication of bacterial sinusitis and is not likely in this case.
Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old gentleman presents to the emergency department with a persistent cough that has been troubling him for the last six months. His wife has brought him in as he has coughed up small amounts of blood on several occasions and has lost about a stone in weight over the last few months. He is a heavy smoker of 40 cigarettes a day for the last 40 years and has developed noisy breathing over the last few days. He also complains of a persistent headache and feeling a little dizzy. On examination, he has a soft stridor at rest and dilated veins on his chest wall. His oxygen saturations are 98% in room air, blood pressure is 128/88 mmHg, and pulse rate is 90 regular. He is alert, oriented, and afebrile with clear chest sounds on auscultation. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Refer as an urgent suspected cancer to a chest physician
Correct Answer: Admit as a medical emergency
Explanation:Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)
Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is an obstruction of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by extraluminal compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, particularly lung cancer and lymphoma. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.
The typical features of SVCO include facial/upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Other symptoms may include dizziness, syncopal attacks, and headache due to pressure effect. Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds and immediate referral for specialist assessment is crucial. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO is considered a medical emergency.
Management of SVCO involves treatment with steroids and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy and stent insertion may also be indicated. It is important to address the underlying cause of SVCO to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman came to see your colleague two weeks ago with a five day history of pain, redness and swelling of her left breast. She was given seven days of flucloxacillin. She has returned and it is no better; if anything it is slightly worse.
There is no discharge. She stopped Breastfeeding her last child eight months ago. She is otherwise very well. Her mother had breast cancer in her 60s and her maternal aunt had bowel cancer in her 70s.
On examination about half of the breast is erythematous, and the affected breast seems larger than the other side. There is no discrete mass to feel but the whole of the swollen area is indurated. She has a palpable axillary lymph node on that side. Her pulse is 80 bpm and her temperature is 36.2°C.
Which of these options would you select?Your Answer: Send to the Emergency department
Correct Answer: Treat with anti-inflammatories and refer urgently to breast clinic
Explanation:Recognizing Inflammatory Breast Cancer
Most GPs and patients are familiar with the presentation of a breast lump, but inflammatory breast cancer can present in a more unusual way, making a swift diagnosis difficult. However, simply considering the possibility of this rare form of breast cancer can help pick out relevant information in the patient’s history and examination. Inflammatory breast cancer is not common, accounting for only 1-4% of all breast cancers, which can lead to delayed diagnosis in primary care. Patients with a personal or family history of breast cancer, symptoms of non-lactational mastitis that do not respond to antibiotics, palpable lymphadenopathy, involvement of more than 1/3 of the breast, and an absence of fever should be considered at high risk for inflammatory breast cancer.
It is important for GPs to ask about family history of breast cancer and check and record temperature when seeing patients with mastitis. Blindly prescribing another course of antibiotics, especially when the patient doesn’t have a fever or symptoms of infection, may delay diagnosis. Suggesting milk expression would be reasonable for lactational mastitis, but not for a patient who stopped breastfeeding six months ago. Attempting to aspirate would not be advisable for a generalist in a primary care setting, even if an abscess were suspected. Referring the patient to the Emergency department for assessment by a breast surgeon would be a wiser strategy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on how to manage her urge incontinence.
What is the initial management strategy for women with urge or mixed urinary incontinence?Your Answer: Pelvic floor muscle training
Correct Answer: Bladder training
Explanation:Treatment Options for Urinary Incontinence
Bladder training is a highly effective treatment for urge or mixed incontinence. It has fewer adverse effects and lower relapse rates compared to antimuscarinic drugs, which are the next line of treatment. On the other hand, pelvic floor muscle training is recommended as the first line of treatment for stress incontinence symptoms.
Duloxetine is only recommended for stress incontinence and may be offered as a second-line treatment for women who prefer pharmacological treatment over surgery. However, modification of fluid intake is not routinely recommended. It is only recommended if fluid intake is high or low and in cases of urinary incontinence or overactive bladder.
In summary, there are various treatment options available for urinary incontinence, depending on the type and severity of the symptoms. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A randomized controlled trial compared the effectiveness of generic counselling with normal GP care for patients with diverse psychological problems (excluding phobias and psychoses). A total of 172 patients aged 18 years and over were randomized. Counsellors were either British Association of Counselling (BAC) accredited or trained to diploma level. The Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale and the COOP/WONCA functional health assessment charts were used to assess the results of both interventions. The study took place in 9 GP practices in South Wales.
Your Answer: Counsellors and the method of counselling were standardized
Correct Answer: Measures were taken to reduce the risk of observer bias in the results
Explanation:Reducing Observer Bias in a Study on Counselling in Primary Care
The study on counselling in primary care is susceptible to various sources of bias, including the use of different counsellors with varying qualifications and methods, lack of definition for normal GP care, and recruitment of patients with diverse psychological disorders. However, the study employed two objective outcome measures to minimize observer bias. The sample size calculation and generalizability of the results are not specified, but the study found no significant difference in outcome between the two groups. Overall, this pragmatic study aimed to conduct a randomized controlled trial and economic evaluation of counselling in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman has recently discovered that she is expecting her first child. She has no significant medical history and is seeking guidance on vitamin D supplementation. What would be the most suitable recommendation to provide?
Your Answer: Should be avoided - potential risk to developing fetus
Correct Answer: Offer vitamin D supplementation
Explanation:Pregnant women should steer clear of soft cheese as it may pose a risk of Listeria infection.
Specific Points for Antenatal Care
Antenatal care is an essential aspect of pregnancy, and NICE has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. Some specific points to consider during antenatal care include nausea and vomiting, vitamin D, and alcohol consumption.
For nausea and vomiting, natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point are recommended by NICE. However, antihistamines such as promethazine are suggested as first-line treatment in the BNF.
Vitamin D is crucial for the health of both the mother and the baby. NICE recommends that all women should be informed about the importance of maintaining adequate vitamin D stores during pregnancy and breastfeeding. Women may choose to take 10 micrograms of vitamin D per day, as found in the Healthy Start multivitamin supplement. Women at risk, such as those who are Asian, obese, or have a poor diet, should take particular care.
Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to long-term harm to the baby. In 2016, the Chief Medical Officer proposed new guidelines recommending that pregnant women should not drink alcohol at all. The official advice is to keep risks to the baby to a minimum, and the more alcohol consumed, the greater the risk.
In summary, antenatal care should include specific points such as managing nausea and vomiting, maintaining adequate vitamin D levels, and avoiding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. These guidelines aim to ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 20
Correct
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A 50-year-old lady presents to you seeking advice on how to manage her possible menopause. Her periods have been light and infrequent for a few years and stopped about three months ago. She has no significant medical or surgical history. Her family history doesn't reveal any significant cardiovascular or thromboembolic disease, and she has never smoked. She has had two pregnancies, both resulting in healthy children. Currently, she feels well, and on further questioning, she reports experiencing mild flashes that are not bothersome. On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80, and her BMI is 23. What advice should you give her regarding her possible menopause?
Your Answer: She is probably post menopausal but she should continue to use contraception until 12 months have elapsed since her last period
Explanation:Understanding Menopause and Hormone Replacement Therapy
The menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is defined as the cessation of normal menstruation, which typically occurs around the age of 51 in the UK. However, the climacteric, a period of gradually declining ovarian function, can begin years before and last years after menopause itself. This perimenopausal period can be characterized by irregular periods and occasional menorrhagia.
To be considered postmenopausal, a woman must have gone without menstruation for at least 12 months. However, it is important to note that a woman can still potentially become pregnant for up to two years after her last period if she is under 50, and one year if over 50. Therefore, contraception should be discussed with healthcare providers.
While hormone replacement therapy (HRT) can be used to alleviate symptoms of hypo-oestrogenism, it is not always necessary or appropriate. Routine hormone testing is not recommended unless there is diagnostic doubt. Women who are considering HRT should discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider, as well as any pre-existing medical conditions that may affect their suitability for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 21
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought in by her mother who is worried about her occasional wheezing. The child is not experiencing any symptoms at the moment and her wheezing seems to only occur during upper respiratory tract infections. There is no history of atopy in the family or the child's medical history. The girl was previously seen by another doctor 4 months ago and was given salbutamol to use as needed, but her mother reports that it doesn't seem to help. What should be the next appropriate step to take?
Your Answer: Reassure and plan a review
Explanation:The father has reported that the child experiences wheezing only during upper respiratory tract infections and not at any other time. This suggests that the child may not have asthma and instead may be experiencing viral-induced wheezing, which is common in children of this age.
Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.
For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Correct
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A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal weakness of her left lower limb and reduced pinprick sensation of her right leg and the right side of her trunk up to the level of the umbilicus.
Joint position sense is impaired at her left big toe but is normal elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal. Upper limb neurological examination is normal.
What is the most likely site of the lesion?
Your Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord
Explanation:Understanding Brown-Séquard Syndrome: Identifying the Location of the Spinal Cord Lesion
Brown-Séquard Syndrome is a rare condition that results from a lesion in one-half of the spinal cord. This can be caused by various factors such as trauma, neoplasia, cysts, multiple sclerosis, haemorrhage, and infections. The syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral hemiplegia and dorsal column sensory loss, with contralateral pain and temperature sensation deficits due to the crossing of the fibres of the spinothalamic tract.
To identify the location of the spinal cord lesion, a thorough neurological examination is necessary. If the sensory level is around T10, the lesion is likely to be above this, ruling out the left lumbosacral plexus. A cervical spine lesion is unlikely if the upper limb neurological examination is normal. A midline mid-thoracic cord lesion is less likely as a hemicord lesion is more consistent with the combination of one-sided hemiplegia and loss of proprioception, with contralateral pain and temperature sensation deficits.
Therefore, a right mid-thoracic cord lesion is the most probable cause of Brown-Séquard Syndrome in this scenario. The left-sided hemiplegia and loss of proprioception, with right-sided loss of pinprick sensation, indicate a left-sided hemicord lesion. Understanding the location of the spinal cord lesion is crucial in diagnosing and managing Brown-Séquard Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old football player comes in for evaluation the day after a game. He has noticeable swelling and redness in his left ear. Upon examination, it appears to be an auricular hematoma. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: Apply an ice-pack six times a day for the next three days
Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care
Explanation:The RCGP curriculum includes a specific mention of auricular haematomas.
Auricular haematomas are frequently observed in individuals who participate in rugby or wrestling. It is crucial to seek immediate medical attention to prevent the development of ‘cauliflower ear’. The management of auricular haematomas necessitates an evaluation by an ENT specialist on the same day. Incision and drainage have been demonstrated to be more effective than needle aspiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You see a 75-year-old male patient with back pain. He reports having lower back pain for the past year, which has gradually worsened. The pain now radiates bilaterally to his buttocks, thighs, and legs, with the left leg being worse than the right. He describes the pain as 'cramping' and 'burning'. Walking for more than a few minutes causes weakness and numbness in his legs, which improves when he sits down and leans forward. Standing exacerbates the symptoms, and he has lost his independence and now uses a walking aid. His wife has noticed a more stooped posture than 12 months ago.
The patient's medical history includes hypertension, which is controlled with medication. He has never smoked and has a normal BMI. On examination, he has a wide-based gait, and neurological examination of his lower limbs is normal. Peripheral pulses feel normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient's presentation and examination findings?Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis
Explanation:A patient who experiences gradual leg and back pain, weakness, and numbness while walking, with a normal clinical examination, is most likely suffering from spinal stenosis. This condition is characterized by symptoms that are relieved by sitting and leaning forward, and worsened by walking, especially on flat surfaces. Although physical examination findings are often normal in patients with lumbar spinal stenosis, it is important to rule out other conditions such as vascular claudication. Sciatica, which typically presents with unilateral leg pain, is less likely to be the cause of these symptoms.
Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis
Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.
Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.
After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.
Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 25
Correct
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How is the BCG vaccine administered for infants?
Your Answer: Intradermally
Explanation:The BCG vaccine is a form of immunization that provides limited protection against tuberculosis (TB). In the UK, it is typically given to high-risk infants and was previously administered to children at the age of 13 years until 2005. The Greenbook recommends that the vaccine be given to infants living in areas with an annual incidence of TB of 40/100,000 or greater, as well as infants with a parent or grandparent born in a country with a similar incidence rate. Other groups that should receive the vaccine include previously unvaccinated contacts of respiratory TB cases, healthcare workers, prison staff, and those who work with homeless people.
The vaccine contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis and also offers limited protection against leprosy. Before receiving the BCG vaccine, individuals must undergo a tuberculin skin test, with the exception of children under six years old who have had no contact with tuberculosis. The vaccine is administered intradermally to the lateral aspect of the left upper arm and can be given at the same time as other live vaccines, with a four-week interval if not administered simultaneously.
There are several contraindications for the BCG vaccine, including previous vaccination, a history of tuberculosis, HIV, pregnancy, and a positive tuberculin test. It is not recommended for individuals over the age of 35, as there is no evidence that it is effective for this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 26
Correct
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What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for a 4-year-old child with eczema on both lower legs (excluding the feet) for a two-week period?
Your Answer: 30 g
Explanation:How to Apply Topical Corticosteroids
Topical corticosteroids are medications that are applied to the skin to treat various skin conditions. It is important to spread the cream or ointment thinly on the affected area, but enough to cover it completely. To determine the right amount to use, the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu). One ftu is approximately 500 mg or 0.5 g, which is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand.
When applying to a child’s lower legs, two ftus or 1 g per daily dose is recommended. To treat both lower legs for two weeks, a prescription for 15g is required. It is important to start with the lowest effective dose and apply once daily. Only if there is no improvement should the treatment be increased to twice daily. By following these guidelines, topical corticosteroids can be used safely and effectively to treat skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 27
Correct
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What substance can be safely taken with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?
Your Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:MAOIs and Paracetamol: Safe Combination
Paracetamol is a safe medication to take with MAOIs. However, it is important to avoid other drugs, foodstuffs, and alcoholic beverages that can trigger the cheese reaction. This reaction can be caused by consuming food high in tyramine, which is listed in the accompanying leaflet of the prescribed drug. It is worth noting that MAOIs are not commonly prescribed in general practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 28
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her mother, complaining of a rash of small red dots on both arms that has been gradually worsening over the past month. The patient reports feeling generally well, but has been experiencing increased fatigue lately. Upon examination, you note a petechial rash on both forearms and her left calf, as well as hepatomegaly and splenomegaly (3 cm and 2cm below the costal margin, respectively). What is the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Refer her for an immediate specialist assessment
Explanation:The presence of a deteriorating petechial rash, fatigue, and hepatosplenomegaly indicates a possible case of leukemia in this patient. As per NICE guidelines, an urgent referral for specialist evaluation is advised. The specialist will conduct additional tests, including blood tests and bone marrow biopsy, and discuss potential hospitalization and treatment options.
Understanding Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children, accounting for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children aged 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fever, and testicular swelling.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and pre-B phenotype. T-cell ALL accounts for 20% of cases, while B-cell ALL accounts for only 5%.
Certain factors can affect the prognosis of ALL, including age, white blood cell count at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, race, and sex. Children under 2 years or over 10 years of age, those with a WBC count over 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, and those with T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian, and male sex have a poorer prognosis.
Understanding the different types and prognostic factors of ALL can help in the early detection and management of this cancer. It is important to seek medical attention if any of the symptoms mentioned above are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner concerned about his recent diagnosis of membranous glomerulonephritis. He inquires if there is any other health condition that could be associated with this diagnosis.
What is a possible condition that can lead to membranous glomerulonephritis?Your Answer: Hypercholesterolaemia
Correct Answer: Colorectal cancer
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Membranous Glomerulonephritis
Membranous glomerulonephritis is a kidney disease that often presents with a mixed nephrotic and nephritic picture. The condition is characterized by widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, and its cause is often unknown. However, certain factors have been linked to the development of membranous glomerulonephritis, including cancers of the lung and bowel, infections such as hepatitis and malaria, and drugs like penicillamine and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
One of the most significant risk factors for membranous glomerulonephritis is malignancy, which is responsible for approximately 5-10% of cases. Patients over the age of 60 are at higher risk, and effective treatment of the underlying malignancy can sometimes lead to improvement in renal symptoms. However, spontaneous recovery occurs in about one-third of patients, while one-third remain with membranous nephropathy and one-third progress to end-stage renal failure.
Other conditions, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hepatic fibrosis, hypercholesterolemia, and hypertension, can also impact renal function but do not directly cause membranous glomerulonephritis. COPD, for example, can induce microvascular damage, albuminuria, and a worsening of renal function, while hepatic fibrosis can lead to hepatorenal syndrome. Chronic hypertension can also lead to hardening of the arteries and a reduction in renal function. However, understanding the specific causes and risk factors for membranous glomerulonephritis is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A woman who is 12 weeks pregnant is seen in the antenatal clinic for her initial check-up. According to her electronic records, she is identified as a former smoker. In accordance with current NICE recommendations, what is the best approach to evaluate her smoking status?
Your Answer: Use a 'NHS Smoking Exposure in Pregnancy' questionnaire
Correct Answer: Use a carbon monoxide detector, explaining that all women are checked regardless of their declared smoking status
Explanation:Could you please tell me if you or anyone in your household smokes? If yes, how many cigarettes do they smoke per day? Additionally, may I examine your fingers for any signs of tar-staining?
Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits you a few days after seeing his neurologist. He has a history of idiopathic Parkinson's disease that was diagnosed a few years ago. Apart from that, he has no other medical history. Lately, his symptoms have been getting worse, so his neurologist increased his levodopa dosage.
He complains of feeling very nauseous and vomiting multiple times a day since starting the higher dose of levodopa. He requests that you prescribe something to help alleviate the vomiting.
What is the most suitable anti-emetic to prescribe?Your Answer: Cyclizine
Correct Answer: Domperidone
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.
Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.
It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman has a 3-week history of increasing jaundice and dark urine. In the past 4 months she has noticed intermittent loose, pale stools and has lost 6 kg in weight. On examination she is thin and jaundiced, with epigastric tenderness and a palpable gallbladder. Urine dipstick shows glucose +++, bilirubin +++ and urobilinogen +.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Haemochromatosis
Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas
Explanation:Courvoisier’s Law and Obstructive Jaundice in Diagnosing Pancreatic Carcinoma
Courvoisier’s law is a crucial factor in diagnosing the cause of jaundice. If a palpable gallbladder is present in the presence of jaundice, it is unlikely to be due to gallstones. This is because gallstones cause a fibrotic gallbladder that will not distend in the presence of obstruction of the common bile duct. However, absence of Courvoisier’s sign doesn’t rule out malignancy.
In cases of obstructive jaundice, haemochromatosis can be excluded as a cause. The initial symptoms of haemochromatosis are usually vague and nonspecific, such as fatigue, weakness, arthropathy, and nonspecific abdominal problems.
Of the three obstructive neoplastic processes that remain, carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is the only one that will cause glycosuria. Therefore, the development of diabetes in anyone who is non-obese and over 50 years old without definite risk factors should raise suspicion of pancreatic carcinoma.
In conclusion, understanding Courvoisier’s law and the exclusions of other potential causes of obstructive jaundice is crucial in diagnosing pancreatic carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents with persistent atrial fibrillation. He has a past medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes, both of which are being treated with oral agents. He has no contraindications to any antithrombotic treatments and has come to discuss his risk of stroke and the need for antithrombotic treatment. What is the first-line antithrombotic treatment that should be considered in this case?
Your Answer: Dipyridamole
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Understanding the CHA2DS2-VASc Score for Atrial Fibrillation Treatment
The CHA2DS2-VASc score is a validated scoring system used by clinicians to determine the most appropriate antithrombotic treatment for patients with atrial fibrillation. It takes into account various risk factors, including congestive heart failure, hypertension, age, diabetes mellitus, prior stroke or TIA, vascular disease, and sex category. Patients scoring two or more should be considered for warfarinisation, provided there are no contraindications.
In this case, the patient scores one point for hypertension and one point for diabetes, making him eligible for warfarinisation. However, it is also important to assess his bleeding risk using the HAS BLED score, as newer anticoagulants like Dabigatran and rivoroxiban may be more appropriate. The CHA2DS2-VASc score is recommended over the CHADS2 score, as it provides a more detailed assessment of risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been advised to begin taking methotrexate by her Rheumatologist. She is anxious about potential side effects and wants to discuss the safe administration of the medication. This is her first experience with methotrexate, and she has undergone recent blood tests that indicate normal liver and renal function.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Issue a prescription for a loading dose of folic acid, to be started before four weeks before methotrexate is commenced.
Correct Answer: Arrange a chest X-ray (CXR) and issue the methotrexate script if this is normal
Explanation:Guidelines for Prescribing Methotrexate in Rheumatoid Arthritis Patients
Methotrexate is a commonly prescribed medication for patients with rheumatoid arthritis. However, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure the safety and efficacy of treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind when prescribing methotrexate:
Baseline Investigations: Before starting treatment, patients should undergo a chest X-ray, full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests. A normal CXR is necessary as methotrexate can cause pulmonary toxicity. Repeat baseline blood tests in 4-6 weeks before commencing methotrexate.
Concurrent Folic Acid: Methotrexate is a folate antagonist, so patients must take folic acid alongside it. Folic acid should be taken daily on the days when methotrexate is not taken.
Regular Monitoring: Patients should have a full blood count every 1-2 weeks until treatment is stabilised, as well as renal and liver function tests. Once treatment is stabilised, monitoring can become less frequent, but should still occur every 2-3 months.
No Loading Dose: There is no need for a loading dose of folic acid to be given before starting methotrexate, as long as baseline investigations are normal.
By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure the safe and effective use of methotrexate in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman has a blood pressure of 150/96 mmHg on ambulatory blood pressure testing.
She has no heart murmurs and her chest is clear. Past medical history includes asthma and chronic lymphoedema of the legs.
As per the latest NICE guidance on hypertension (NG136), what would be the most suitable approach to manage her blood pressure in this situation?Your Answer: Investigate for end organ damage, diabetes and 10 year risk before deciding on treatment
Correct Answer: Advise lifestyle changes and repeat in one year
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Antihypertensive Treatment for People Over 55 and Black People of African or Caribbean Family Origin
According to the latest NICE guidance, people aged over 55 years and black people of African or Caribbean family origin of any age should be offered step 1 antihypertensive treatment with a CCB. If a CCB is not suitable due to oedema or intolerance, or if there is evidence of heart failure or a high risk of heart failure, a thiazide-like diuretic should be offered instead.
This guidance aims to provide effective treatment options for hypertension in these specific populations, taking into account individual circumstances and potential side effects. It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these recommendations to ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old patient who has just enrolled in college comes in for a meningitis ACWY vaccine. While waiting, he notices a poster about Chlamydia screening and inquires about getting tested despite not experiencing any symptoms.
What type of sample needs to be collected for the test?Your Answer: None - not indicated in absence of symptoms
Correct Answer: Urine
Explanation:The most appropriate screening test for asymptomatic males to detect chlamydia is a urine test. This is preferred over blood serology, urethral swab, or semen sample as it is less invasive and has similar sensitivity to urethral swab. It is important to note that Chlamydia infection can often be asymptomatic, so screening is still recommended even in the absence of symptoms.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old female has been diagnosed with a small area of Bowen's disease on her right foot. She is concerned about the possibility of it developing into invasive squamous cell carcinoma and is asking whether she should consider having it surgically removed instead of using 5-fluorouracil cream.
As her healthcare provider, you explain the diagnosis and the likelihood of the Bowen's disease progressing into invasive cancer.
What is the risk of it developing into invasive squamous cell carcinoma?Your Answer: 1-2%
Correct Answer: 5-10%
Explanation:In some instances, it may develop into an invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
Understanding Bowen’s Disease: A Precursor to Skin Cancer
Bowen’s disease is a type of skin condition that is considered a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma, a type of skin cancer. It is more commonly found in elderly patients and is characterized by red, scaly patches that are often 10-15 mm in size. These patches are slow-growing and typically occur on sun-exposed areas such as the head, neck, and lower limbs.
If left untreated, there is a 5-10% chance of developing invasive skin cancer. However, Bowen’s disease can often be diagnosed and managed in primary care if the diagnosis is clear or if it is a repeat episode. Treatment options include topical 5-fluorouracil, which is typically used twice daily for four weeks. This treatment often results in significant inflammation and erythema, so topical steroids are often given to control these side effects. Other management options include cryotherapy and excision.
In summary, understanding Bowen’s disease is important as it is a precursor to skin cancer. Early diagnosis and management can prevent the development of invasive skin cancer and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man who has never been screened for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) wishes to be included in the NHS screening programme for AAA.
He denies having recent abdominal or back pain. He doesn't have any long term medical condition and is not on any long term medication. He has never smoked and his family history is negative for AAA.
He is offered an aortic ultrasound which reveals an abdominal aorta diameter of 5.7 cm.
What course of action should be taken for this patient based on the given information?Your Answer: Admit him to the emergency department immediately
Correct Answer: Refer him to be seen by a vascular specialist within 2 weeks
Explanation:Individuals who have an abdominal aorta diameter measuring 5.5 cm or greater should receive an appointment with a vascular specialist within two weeks of being diagnosed. Those with an abdominal aorta diameter ranging from 3 cm to 5.4 cm should be referred to a regional vascular service and seen within 12 weeks of diagnosis. For individuals with an abdominal aorta diameter of 3 cm to 4.4 cm, a repeat scan should be conducted annually. As the patient is in good health, hospitalization in the emergency department is unnecessary.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is interested in getting an intrauterine device (IUD). What is the correct statement about the expulsion rate?
Your Answer: Occurs in around 1 in 200 women, and is more likely after having the IUD for more than 3 years
Correct Answer: Occurs in around 1 in 20 women, and is more likely in the first 3 months
Explanation:The risk of expulsion for intrauterine contraceptive devices is 1 in 20 during the first 3 months, making it the most common reason for IUD failure. Therefore, it is crucial to check the threads after every menstrual cycle.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and CLO testing during gastroscopy confirms the presence of Helicobacter pylori. What is the best course of action for eradicating Helicobacter pylori?
Your Answer: Lansoprazole + amoxicillin + clindamycin
Correct Answer: Lansoprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin
Explanation:Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems
Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.
The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.
The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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You plan to investigate the effectiveness of a new asthma management programme for children aged 6-12 years. The programme is not implemented in all of the clinics in the region. What study design would be most suitable to determine the programme's effectiveness?
Your Answer: Looking at improvements in target achievement over time in an intervention surgery only
Correct Answer: Comparing average target achievement for CV risk factors in intervention surgeries, versus target achievement over a historical period prior to introduction of the programme
Explanation:Appropriate Study Designs for Type 2 Diabetes Management
Historical controls are not suitable for evaluating the management of type 2 diabetes as targets have become more stringent over time. Additionally, it is not valid to assess an intervention without a comparator. National targets do not consider local factors such as ethnicity, deprivation, and resource provision. Therefore, the most appropriate study design is to compare the intervention’s effect in surgeries versus local controls, matched for other resources, age mix, ethnic mix, and social deprivation level.
Cross-over trials are ideal when there is reasonable evidence that patients will benefit from the treatment, and it would be unethical to withhold it from all patients. These trials are also useful when the treatment effect can be observed quickly. By using appropriate study designs, researchers can accurately evaluate the effectiveness of type 2 diabetes management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male presents with polyuria and polydipsia. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 12 units per week. He is employed as a taxi driver.
On examination he has a BMI of 33.4 kg/m2, and a blood pressure of 132/82 mmHg, with all other aspects of the cardiovascular examination normal.
Investigations confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, and the following:
Fasting blood glucose 12.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
HbA1c 75 mmol/mol (20-42)
Total cholesterol 5.8 mmol/L (<5.2)
What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Diet and lifestyle advice alone
Correct Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Treatment for Type 2 Diabetes
This patient presents with typical type 2 diabetes, which should be initially treated with a combination of diet and lifestyle advice along with metformin. The EASD/ADA guidelines were revised in 2007-2008 due to the evidence base supporting the earlier use of metformin. As a result, diet and lifestyle advice alone is no longer considered sufficient.
It is important to note that metformin is not a cure for type 2 diabetes, but rather a medication that helps manage blood sugar levels. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to continue making lifestyle changes, such as maintaining a healthy diet and engaging in regular physical activity, in order to effectively manage their diabetes. Additionally, regular monitoring and follow-up with healthcare providers is essential to ensure proper management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a persistent cough. He reports no other health concerns and is not taking any regular medications. During the consultation, he requests a brief examination of his toenail, which has recently changed in appearance without any known cause. Specifically, the nail on his right big toe is thickened and yellowed at the outer edge. Although he experiences no discomfort or other symptoms, he is curious about the cause of this change.
What initial management approach would you recommend in this scenario?Your Answer: Check liver function tests and prescribe an oral antifungal such as terbinafine if normal
Correct Answer: No treatment necessary if he is happy to leave it; give self-care advice
Explanation:If a patient has a fungal nail infection that is asymptomatic and doesn’t bother them in terms of appearance, treatment may not be necessary according to NICE CKS guidelines. However, if treatment is desired, topical antifungal treatment for 9-12 months may be appropriate for minor involvement of a single nail. Liver function tests should be checked before prescribing oral antifungal medication such as terbinafine. Self-care advice can be given to the patient, including keeping feet clean and dry, wearing breathable socks and footwear, and avoiding going barefoot in changing rooms. Referral to podiatry is not necessary unless the patient is unable to perform their own foot-care. Swabbing the skin for microscopy and culture may not be useful in cases where the skin is not involved.
Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her father. For the past 4 days she has been experiencing a sticky discharge from both eyes upon waking up. Upon examination, there is some crusting around the eyelid margins and the sclera are slightly pink. The father inquires if his daughter should stay home from preschool. What is the best answer to give?
Response:Your Answer: He can return to nursery if he has been using antibiotic eye drops for the past 48 hours
Correct Answer: He doesn't need to be kept off nursery
Explanation:Although nurseries and schools may provide contradictory advice, the guidelines from the Health Protection Agency are unambiguous in stating that children do not require exclusion. Providing parents with a copy of these guidelines to present to their childcare provider can be beneficial in certain situations.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.
Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with liver cirrhosis of unknown origin is being evaluated in the clinic. What factor is most likely to indicate a poor prognosis?
Your Answer: Splenomegaly
Correct Answer: Ascites
Explanation:Scoring Systems for Liver Cirrhosis
Liver cirrhosis is a serious condition that can lead to liver failure and death. To assess the severity of the disease, doctors use scoring systems such as the Child-Pugh classification and the Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD). The Child-Pugh classification takes into account five factors: bilirubin levels, albumin levels, prothrombin time, encephalopathy, and ascites. Each factor is assigned a score of 1 to 3, depending on its severity, and the scores are added up to give a total score. The total score is then used to grade the severity of the disease as A, B, or C.
The MELD system uses a formula that takes into account a patient’s bilirubin, creatinine, and international normalized ratio (INR) to predict their survival. The formula calculates a score that ranges from 6 to 40, with higher scores indicating a higher risk of mortality. The MELD score is particularly useful for patients who are on a liver transplant waiting list, as it helps to prioritize patients based on their risk of mortality. Overall, both the Child-Pugh classification and the MELD system are important tools for assessing the severity of liver cirrhosis and determining the best course of treatment for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A case-control study is being designed to investigate the association between hypertension and a new medication. What is the typical outcome measure in a case-control study?
Your Answer: Relative risk
Correct Answer: Odds ratio
Explanation:The odds ratio is typically the outcome measure in a case-control study.
There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.
On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy presents with croup to the out-of-hours centre. He has a temperature of 38.2°C, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min and a croupy cough. There is no intercostal recession.
What is the most appropriate treatment for him? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: Intramuscular (IM) hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Croup: Choosing the Right Approach
Croup is a common respiratory illness in children that can cause coughing, difficulty breathing, and other symptoms. When it comes to treating croup, there are several options available, but not all of them are appropriate for every child. Here’s a breakdown of some common treatment options and when they might be used:
Oral Dexamethasone: For mild-to-moderate croup, a single oral dose of dexamethasone is often the best choice. This medication can help reduce inflammation in the airways and alleviate symptoms. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide may be used instead.
Nebulised Epinephrine: For children with moderate-to-severe distress, nebulised epinephrine can be effective in reducing swelling in the trachea. However, this treatment only lasts for a few hours, so close monitoring is necessary.
Inhaling Humidified Air: While inhaling humidified air may help reduce a child’s anxiety, there is little evidence to suggest that it provides any significant symptomatic relief.
IM Hydrocortisone: IM hydrocortisone is not typically used to treat croup. However, IM dexamethasone may be used as an alternative to oral dexamethasone.
Nebulised Salbutamol: Salbutamol is not an appropriate treatment for croup, as it is typically used to treat asthma.
In summary, the best treatment for croup will depend on the severity of the child’s symptoms and their overall health. If you suspect that your child has croup, it’s important to seek medical attention promptly to ensure that they receive the appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 48
Incorrect
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As per the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following tests should not be routinely offered to women during the initial antenatal care visit?
Your Answer: Hepatitis B
Correct Answer: Blood glucose
Explanation:NICE has made a surprising decision to no longer recommend routine glucose testing during antenatal care. Instead, they suggest that only individuals who are considered at risk, such as those with a history of obesity, previous macrosomic baby, family history, or Asian ethnicity, should have their blood glucose levels checked.
Antenatal care is an important aspect of pregnancy, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. The guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 visits for subsequent pregnancies, provided that the pregnancy is uncomplicated. Women do not need to see a consultant if their pregnancy is uncomplicated.
The timetable for antenatal visits begins with a booking visit between 8-12 weeks, where general information is provided on topics such as diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, and antenatal classes. Blood and urine tests are also conducted to check for conditions such as hepatitis B, syphilis, and asymptomatic bacteriuria. An early scan is conducted between 10-13+6 weeks to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancies, while Down’s syndrome screening is conducted between 11-13+6 weeks.
At 16 weeks, women receive information on the anomaly and blood results, and if their haemoglobin levels are below 11 g/dl, they may be advised to take iron supplements. Routine care is conducted at 18-20+6 weeks, including an anomaly scan, and at 25, 28, 31, and 34 weeks, where blood pressure, urine dipstick, and symphysis-fundal height (SFH) are checked. Women who are rhesus negative receive anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.
At 36 weeks, presentation is checked, and external cephalic version may be offered if indicated. Information on breastfeeding, vitamin K, and ‘baby-blues’ is also provided. Routine care is conducted at 38 weeks, and at 40 weeks (for first pregnancies), discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy takes place. At 41 weeks, labour plans and the possibility of induction are discussed. The RCOG advises that either a single-dose or double-dose regime of anti-D prophylaxis can be used, depending on local factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents for follow-up of her depression. Despite taking citalopram 20 mg once daily for 4 months, she has not experienced any significant improvement in her symptoms. The decision is made to switch her medication to imipramine. What is the recommended approach for transitioning to imipramine?
Your Answer: Wait 2 weeks after withdrawing citalopram before commencing imipramine
Correct Answer: Period of cross-tapering of the two drugs
Explanation:Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is experiencing a range of symptoms such as headaches and tingling sensations on her skin. She is worried that she might be suffering from multiple sclerosis. What is the typical way that multiple sclerosis presents itself?
Your Answer: Tremor
Correct Answer: Optic neuritis
Explanation:Features of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that can present with nonspecific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis is based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.
MS can affect various parts of the body, leading to different symptoms. Visual symptoms include optic neuritis, optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome. Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms may include ataxia and tremor. Other symptoms may include urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration.
It is important to note that MS symptoms can vary greatly between individuals and may change over time. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their symptoms and receive appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 51
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue after experiencing a bout of gastroenteritis last week. She reports no other symptoms and no longer has diarrhea or vomiting. Upon examination, her blood pressure is normal at 128/72 mmHg and her pulse is 92 beats per minute. The following investigations are conducted:
Haemoglobin (Hb) - 129 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
Sodium (Na+) - 143 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
Potassium (K+) - 5.6 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
Creatinine (Cr) - 80 µmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
Urea - 9.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-6.5 mmol/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Mild dehydration
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Mild Dehydration
A patient presents with a slightly raised urea level and normal creatinine (Cr) level, along with mild fatigue. The most likely diagnosis is mild dehydration, which could be caused by gastroenteritis. No further treatment may be necessary, but the patient should ensure adequate nutrition and hydration in the next few days/weeks.
Other possible diagnoses include acute gastrointestinal bleeding, acute kidney injury, chronic kidney disease, and malnutrition due to gastroenteritis. However, the patient’s normal hemoglobin level makes acute GI bleeding unlikely, while the absence of an elevated Cr level rules out acute kidney injury and CKD. Malnutrition is also unlikely given the short duration of gastroenteritis symptoms and lack of other indications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman has neuropathic pain and has recently been prescribed amitriptyline. What is the most frequent side effect of this medication?
Your Answer: Hyponatraemia
Correct Answer: Convulsions
Explanation:Understanding Amitriptyline Side Effects
All medications have potential side effects, and amitriptyline is no exception. Dry mouth is the most common side effect associated with this drug. However, candidates taking the RCGP exam must demonstrate a comprehensive understanding of various factors related to drug treatments, including drug metabolism, absorption, and excretion. They should also be knowledgeable about multiple prescribing, non-compliance by patients, and iatrogenic disease.
Amitriptyline is a frequently prescribed medication, and the elderly population is more susceptible to its adverse effects. Therefore, it is crucial to understand the most likely side effects of this drug. The British National Formulary provides a comprehensive list of amitriptyline side effects that candidates should be familiar with.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 53
Incorrect
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As part of a research project, you are investigating whether the use of pacifiers in toddlers is associated with sleep disturbances. What study design would be most suitable for this inquiry?
Your Answer: Cross-sectional survey
Correct Answer: Case-control study
Explanation:A case-control design is more suitable for studying sudden infant death syndrome due to its low incidence compared to a cohort study. This design compares a group with the disease to a group without, analyzing their past exposure to a potential causal agent for the condition.
There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.
On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 54
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman began to stumble when walking. Her right leg was slightly stiff and weak, especially after exercise and hot showers. These symptoms developed over 3 days and gradually disappeared over 4 weeks. She was on the college swimming team before these symptoms arose. There, she developed a unique and extreme type of fatigue that was different from the usual fatigue she experienced when swimming. This disappeared after several weeks, but reappeared again 6 months before her current presentation.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Sclerosis and its Symptoms
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that often presents with symptoms that worsen with exercise and heat, and profound fatigue. These symptoms are not consistent with chronic fatigue syndrome, as MS symptoms are separated by time and can vary in intensity. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, and diabetic neuropathy tend to have symmetrical neurological impairment, which is not typical of MS.
Fatigue is a common symptom experienced by about 70% of MS patients. It is different from regular tiredness or exhaustion and is often out of proportion to any activity performed. Primary fatigue is caused by MS itself, while secondary fatigue is caused by other factors that affect MS patients more than those without the condition, such as depression, pain, and sleep disturbance. Understanding the symptoms of MS can help patients manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl has recently been seen by the dermatologists.
She had some scalp scrapings and hair samples sent to the laboratory for analysis following a clinical diagnosis of tinea capitis. The laboratory results confirmed the diagnosis of tinea capitis and the dermatologists faxed through a letter asking you to prescribe griseofulvin suspension at a dose of 12 mg/kg once daily.
The child weighs 20 kg. Griseofulvin suspension is dispensed at a concentration of 125 mg/5 ml.
What is the correct dosage of griseofulvin in millilitres to prescribe?Your Answer: 25 ml
Correct Answer: 9 ml
Explanation:Calculation of Griseofulvin Dosage
When calculating the dosage of Griseofulvin for a patient, it is important to consider their weight and the recommended dose per kilogram. For example, if a patient weighs 15 kg and the recommended dose is 15 mg/kg OD, then the total dosage would be 225 mg.
Griseofulvin is available in a concentration of 125 mg in 5 ml, which means there is 25 mg in 1 ml. To determine the correct dosage, divide the total dosage (225 mg) by the concentration (25 mg/ml), which equals 9 ml. Therefore, the correct dosage for this patient would be 9 ml OD. It is important to carefully calculate and administer the correct dosage to ensure the patient receives the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 56
Incorrect
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Nine therapists gather to discuss challenging clients in a casual setting. Each takes a turn to share their difficulties in working with the client. Afterwards, the group engages in a discussion about various aspects of the therapist-client relationship.
Which one of the following does this best describe?Your Answer: Pendleton discussion
Correct Answer: Balint group
Explanation:Balint Groups: A Patient-Centred Approach to Healthcare
Michael Balint, a Hungarian psychoanalyst and psychiatrist, played a significant role in shaping modern views on patient-centred healthcare. He believed that many presenting complaints had underlying psychological and emotional problems that needed to be explored to understand patients better. Balint coined the phrase ‘the doctor as a drug’, emphasizing the importance of the doctor-patient relationship in the healing process.
During the 1950s, Balint established small groups called ‘Balint Groups’ that allowed GPs to discuss their patients on an informal basis. These groups were similar to discussions held amongst GP Registrars during their half-day release. Balint’s ideas were published in the book ‘The doctor, his patient and the illness’.
Balint Groups provide a safe space for GPs to discuss their patients’ emotional and psychological needs, which can often be overlooked in a busy clinical setting. By exploring these areas, GPs can gain a deeper understanding of their patients and provide more effective care. Balint’s patient-centred approach to healthcare has had a significant impact on modern medicine and continues to be used today.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 57
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 75-year-old patient who has just been diagnosed with heart failure after an echocardiogram revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%. He has been experiencing mild shortness of breath during physical activity and has no other known medical conditions. He is not currently taking any medications.
What is the most suitable recommendation to provide?Your Answer: One off pneumococcal vaccine
Correct Answer: Yearly influenza and one off pneumococcal vaccines
Explanation:It is recommended that patients diagnosed with heart failure receive an annual influenza vaccine and a single pneumococcal vaccine.
The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.
The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 58
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes to his general practice clinic with a 3-month history of alternating constipation and diarrhea, along with gradual weight loss. During the examination, he looks cachectic and has nodular hepatomegaly. He doesn't have jaundice, and his liver function tests are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Liver metastases
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of nodular hepatomegaly
Nodular hepatomegaly, or an enlarged liver with palpable nodules, can have various causes. Among them, liver metastases and cirrhosis are common, while hepatocellular carcinoma, lymphoma, and myelofibrosis are less frequent but still possible differential diagnoses.
Liver metastases often originate from the bowel or breast and may not affect liver function until they involve over half of the liver or obstruct the biliary tract. Cirrhosis, on the other hand, results from chronic liver disease and typically raises the serum alanine aminotransferase level, but this patient’s liver function tests are normal.
Hepatocellular carcinoma, a type of liver cancer, shares some features with liver metastases but is less common and may be associated with hepatitis B or C. Lymphoma, a cancer of the lymphatic system, is even rarer than hepatocellular carcinoma as a cause of nodular hepatomegaly, but it may involve other sites besides the liver.
Myelofibrosis is a bone marrow disorder that can lead to fibrosis in the liver and spleen, among other organs. It may not cause symptoms in the early stages but can manifest as leukoerythroblastic anaemia, malaise, weight loss, and night sweats later on. While myelofibrosis is not a common cause of nodular hepatomegaly, it should be considered in the differential diagnosis, especially if other features suggest a myeloproliferative neoplasm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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You assess a 26-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with chronic plaque psoriasis. He has responded positively to a 4-week course of a potent corticosteroid + vitamin D analogue topical treatment. The patient inquires if he can obtain more of the medication in case of future flare-ups. What is the most suitable answer regarding the use of topical corticosteroids?
Your Answer: He can use topical corticosteroids indefinitely as long as less than 10% of the body area is affected
Correct Answer: He should aim for a 4 week break in between courses of topical corticosteroids
Explanation:It is recommended to have a 4 week interval between courses of topical corticosteroids for patients with psoriasis.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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One of the nurses at your hospital sustains a needlestick injury while administering medication to a patient.
What is the single, most appropriate, immediate management?Your Answer: Prompt administration of antiretroviral therapy
Correct Answer: Wash the wound with soap under running water
Explanation:First Line Management of Needlestick Injuries
First line management of needlestick injuries involves immediate washing of the affected area under running water. It is important to report all incidents to the occupational health department and undergo a careful risk assessment. If the donor is known to be hepatitis B positive and the victim is non-immune, HBIG is given. However, antiretroviral therapy is only given after counselling if the donor is known to be HIV positive and the exposure is deemed high risk. By following these guidelines, the risk of infection can be minimized and appropriate treatment can be administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 61
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding QFracture is correct?
Your Answer: Asks about fewer risk factors than FRAX
Correct Answer: Is based on UK primary care data
Explanation:The data used for QFracture is derived from primary care in the UK.
Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.
NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.
Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.
NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired teacher visits your clinic after his wife called earlier to express concerns about his memory and concentration. His daughter has also noticed these issues but has not discussed them directly. During the mini-mental state examination, he scores 10/30. You suggest referring him to a specialist memory clinic and advise him to stop driving for the time being. However, he refuses to stop driving, claiming that he feels safe and wants to wait until he sees the specialist. What is the appropriate course of action regarding his driving, according to current guidelines?
Your Answer: Do nothing more
Correct Answer: Phone the DVLA for advice
Explanation:Reporting concerns about patients’ fitness to drive
It is important to take action if you have concerns about a patient’s fitness to drive. However, there are guidelines that must be followed to ensure patient confidentiality is maintained. Before contacting the DVLA, it is recommended to inform the patient of your decision to disclose personal information and then inform them in writing once you have done so. If a patient continues to drive despite being unfit to do so, every reasonable effort should be made to persuade them to stop. If this fails, the DVLA should be contacted immediately and any relevant medical information disclosed in confidence to the medical adviser.
Leaving the decision about driving to specialists is not recommended. Patients who refuse to accept a diagnosis or the effect of their condition on their ability to drive should be advised to seek a second opinion and not to drive in the meantime. If unsure about a specific case, seeking advice from the DVLA’s medical adviser is recommended.
DVLA guidance on dementia states that those with poor short-term memory, disorientation, lack of insight, and judgment are almost certainly not fit to drive. Reporting a patient to the police is not in line with current guidance. It is important to follow the guidelines to ensure patient confidentiality is maintained while taking appropriate action to ensure road safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 63
Incorrect
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Your next appointment is with a 48-year-old man. He has come for the results of his ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM). This was arranged as a clinic reading one month ago was noted to be 150/94 mmHg. The results of the ABPM show an average reading of 130/80 mmHg. What is the most suitable plan of action?
Your Answer: Reassure her that she doesn't need another blood pressure check for 10 years
Correct Answer: Offer to measure the patient's blood pressure at least every 5 years
Explanation:If the ABPM indicates an average blood pressure below the threshold, NICE suggests conducting blood pressure measurements on the patient every 5 years.
NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.
To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.
If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.
ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.
Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 64
Correct
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A worried 30-year-old mother expresses concern about a lump that has emerged on her infant's head, stating with certainty that it was not present at birth and was only noticed 45 minutes ago. The baby was delivered vaginally with forceps 10 hours ago at 39 weeks gestation.
Upon examination, there is a clearly defined, fluid-filled bump that doesn't cross suture lines and is located on the parietal bone. The baby appears to be in good health otherwise, with normal skin color and tone, as well as regular vital signs.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cephalhaematoma
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the newborn baby’s well-demarcated, fluctuant swelling that appeared two days after birth is cephalohaematoma. This is a haemorrhage between the skull and periosteum that occurs when blood vessels crossing the periosteum rupture. The swelling is subperiosteal and limited by individual bones, and typically appears 2-3 days after birth, taking months to resolve. It is more common in prolonged and/or instrumental deliveries. Caput succedaneum, a fluid collection caused by pressure of the presenting part of the scalp against the cervix during delivery, is less likely as it would cross suture lines and is present at birth. A chignon, a swelling caused by ventouse suction cup delivery, would be apparent immediately and disappear quickly. Normal skull shape is inconsistent with the examination findings. A subgaleal haemorrhage, bleeding in the potential space between the skull periosteum and scalp galea aponeurosis, is less likely as it develops gradually and may cause periorbital ecchymosis and haemorrhagic shock, which are not present in this case.
Understanding the Difference between Caput Succedaneum and Cephalohaematoma
Caput succedaneum and cephalohaematoma are two common conditions that can occur in newborns. Caput succedaneum is a swelling that appears on the baby’s scalp during delivery. It is caused by the pressure of the baby’s head against the mother’s cervix during labor. The swelling usually disappears within a few days without any treatment.
On the other hand, cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on the newborn’s head several hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the periosteum and skull. The most common site affected is the parietal region. Unlike caput succedaneum, cephalohaematoma can take up to 3 months to resolve.
One of the complications of cephalohaematoma is jaundice, which can occur due to the breakdown of red blood cells. It is important to monitor the baby’s condition and seek medical attention if necessary. Understanding the difference between caput succedaneum and cephalohaematoma can help parents and caregivers identify any potential issues and seek appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 65
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic for follow-up. She reports feeling increasingly fatigued and overwhelmed with caring for her grandchild. Additionally, she has noticed a hoarse voice and persistent tiredness. She has no significant medical history and has never smoked. She has also been experiencing constipation and has started taking daily senna. On examination, her blood pressure is 115/75 mmHg, pulse is 55 and regular, and BMI is 29 kg/m2. She has a smooth, non-tender goiter. Laboratory results show Hb 118 g/L (115-165), WCC 8.0 ×109/L (4.5-10), PLT 180 ×109/L (150-450), Na 131 mmol/L (135-145), K 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5.5), and Cr 99 µmol/L (70-110). What test or investigation would be most helpful in clarifying the diagnosis?
Your Answer: C reactive protein
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Hypothyroidism
In this case, the patient presents with symptoms of tiredness, weight gain, and bradycardia on examination, along with a smooth non-tender goitre and low sodium on U&E testing. These clues suggest a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which can be confirmed through thyroid function testing. C reactive protein is a nonspecific result that may indicate possible infection or inflammation, while a chest x-ray can help rule out chest pathology as an alternative cause for the hyponatraemia. If the thyroid function testing is normal and the chest x-ray is unremarkable, an ENT referral may be appropriate. Ultrasound is indicated if there is a suspicion of nodularity within the thyroid gland. By following these steps, healthcare professionals can effectively diagnose and manage hypothyroidism in patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 66
Incorrect
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You diagnosed a 12-year-old patient with scabies recently. She reports finishing the treatment course of permethrin 5% cream 1 week ago but is still itching. She has not noticed new burrows. On further questioning, she appears to have followed the full two-week course as prescribed.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: No intervention, watchful waiting
Correct Answer: Oral ivermectin 20 mg
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies
The itch of scabies can persist for up to 4 weeks after treatment. If no new burrows appear, monitoring the symptoms is reasonable. Malathion aqueous 0.5% is an alternative treatment for patients who cannot use permethrin or if the permethrin treatment fails. Oral ivermectin is a potential option for crusted scabies that doesn’t respond to topical treatment alone. It is important to note that there is no need to repeat permethrin treatment in this case, and there is no 10% formulation available. Remember to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 67
Correct
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A 54-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus presents for his annual review. He is currently taking metformin 500 mg twice daily.
On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 130/84 mmHg. His glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is 63 mmol/mol (normal range: < 48 mmol/mol), while his urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 1.2 mg/mmol (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol).
What is the most appropriate action to take to minimise his risk of kidney disease?Your Answer: Increase metformin to 1 g twice daily
Explanation:Optimizing Glycemic Control in Type II Diabetes: Treatment Options for Renal Protection
The prevalence of kidney disease is increasing in those with type II diabetes, making primary prevention crucial. Optimal control of blood glucose and blood pressure are key factors in preventing renal disease. In a patient with normal blood pressure but elevated HbA1c, increasing metformin to optimize glycemic control is appropriate. While ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor antagonists are useful for renoprotection in diabetic patients, they should be reserved for those with evidence of kidney failure. Insulin therapy should also be considered only after trying other oral diabetic medications. Low-protein diets are recommended for patients with established renal disease, but not for those without microalbuminuria. Overall, optimizing glycemic control is the priority in preventing renal disease in type II diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He has hypertension, depression, type II diabetes and benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).
On examination, he is found to have an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 (normal range: > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2).
What is the most appropriate medication to reduce given this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Tamsulosin
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Medication Management in Renal Impairment: A Case Study
In managing patients with renal impairment, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of medication use. In this case study, we will review the medication regimen of a patient with an eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 and discuss any necessary adjustments.
Metformin carries a risk of lactic acidosis and should be avoided if the patient’s eGFR is ≤ 30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. The dose should be reviewed if the eGFR is ≤ 45 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Treatment should also be withdrawn in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function.
Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used in the treatment of depression, can be used with caution in renal failure and doesn’t require dose reduction.
Finasteride, used to treat BPH, doesn’t require dose adjustment in those with renal failure.
Tamsulosin, also used to treat BPH, should be used with caution in patients with an eGFR level < 10 ml/min per 1.73 m2. However, this patient's eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 doesn't meet this threshold, so no adjustment is necessary at this time. Nifedipine, used to treat hypertension and angina, doesn’t require dose modification in those with renal impairment. In conclusion, medication management in renal impairment requires careful consideration of each patient’s individual case and potential risks and benefits of medication use. Close monitoring and regular review of medication regimens are essential to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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John, a 16-year-old boy, needs to undergo a medical procedure. He wants to make the decision himself without involving his parents. What is the age of consent in the UK for a young person to make their own medical decisions?
Your Answer: 15-years-old
Correct Answer: 12-years-old
Explanation:Children’s Competence in Medical Decision-Making
When children turn 16 years old, they are considered legally competent to make their own decisions regarding medical treatment. However, for children under the age of 16, an assessment of their competence must be conducted before they can make their own decisions. Once deemed competent, they can provide consent for medical examinations and treatments without requiring parental consent. This means that if a child agrees to a specific treatment, healthcare professionals do not need to seek permission from their parents. It is important to note that this only applies to medical decisions and not other legal matters, such as signing contracts or voting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 70
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of exertional breathlessness and leg swelling that has developed over the past few months. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a previous myocardial infarction. Her current medications include metformin 500 mg TDS, aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 7.5 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg ON, and bisoprolol 5 mg OD. Recent blood tests done at her diabetic annual review show normal full blood count, renal function, liver function, and thyroid function. Her latest HbA1c is 50 mmol/mol. On clinical examination, you note bibasal crepitations on auscultation of the chest, a slightly raised jugular venous pressure, and bilateral pitting lower limb edema to the ankles. She is comfortable at rest, with a pulse rate of 80 bpm and regular, blood pressure of 138/84 mmHg, and oxygen saturations of 97% in air. Based on your assessment, you diagnose her with cardiac failure. What is the next appropriate step in the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Measure NT-proBNP
Explanation:Next Steps in Diagnosing Heart Failure
This patient is presenting with symptoms and signs of heart failure. The next step in the diagnosis, according to NICE’s summary flowchart, is to measure NT-proBNP. This will help determine the urgency of referral for specialist clinical assessment, which may include transthoracic echocardiography. Other potential steps in the diagnosis process include performing an ECG, chest X-ray, blood tests, urinalysis, peak flow, or spirometry. However, since these options are not listed, it is important to choose the best option available, which in this case is measuring NT-proBNP. It is crucial to read the question carefully to ensure the correct next step is taken in the diagnosis process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old construction worker presents with a painful and red right eye. He reports feeling like there is something in his eye for the past four days but cannot recall how it happened. He works in a dusty environment and doesn't always wear eye protection. He notes that his vision in the right eye is blurry. Otherwise, he is healthy.
Upon examination, the patient has a red and watery right eye. His visual acuity is slightly diminished in the right eye compared to the left. Pupil reactions are normal and equal. A foreign body is visible in the centre of the cornea over the iris, appearing superficial.
What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient, given his history and examination findings?Your Answer: Do not remove the FB, prescribe lubricating eye drops, chloramphenicol eye drops for 7 days and follow up in 24 hours if it has not come out
Correct Answer: Immediate referral to ophthalmology for assessment
Explanation:Immediate referral to ophthalmology is necessary for assessment of foreign bodies in or near the center of the cornea. Signs of a corneal foreign body may include visible foreign material on the eye’s surface or linear scratches on the cornea. Removal of foreign bodies is crucial to prevent permanent scarring and vision loss. If the foreign body is loose and superficial, experienced individuals with the appropriate equipment can remove it. Saline irrigation and topical ocular anesthetics can be used, and metallic foreign bodies may require follow-up and removal by ophthalmology. Patients with suspected penetrating eye injuries, significant orbital or peri-ocular trauma, chemical injuries, organic material foreign bodies, or red flag symptoms should receive urgent assessment by an ophthalmologist rather than FB removal in primary care. Ocular lubricants and analgesia can be prescribed for symptom control, and follow-up appointments should be arranged.
Corneal foreign body is a condition characterized by eye pain, foreign body sensation, photophobia, watering eye, and red eye. It is important to refer patients to ophthalmology if there is a suspected penetrating eye injury due to high-velocity injuries or sharp objects, significant orbital or peri-ocular trauma, or a chemical injury has occurred. Foreign bodies composed of organic material should also be referred to ophthalmology as they are associated with a higher risk of infection and complications. Additionally, foreign bodies in or near the centre of the cornea and any red flags such as severe pain, irregular pupils, or significant reduction in visual acuity should be referred to ophthalmology. For further information on management, please refer to Clinical Knowledge Summaries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 72
Correct
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A 25-year-old transgender man comes to your clinic for a follow-up on his testosterone treatment. He discloses that he had unprotected vaginal sex three days ago and doesn't want to conceive.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Prescribe emergency contraception and advise the patient that testosterone therapy is contraindicated in pregnancy
Explanation:Transgender males who are on testosterone therapy should be aware that this treatment doesn’t prevent pregnancy. In the event that a patient becomes pregnant, testosterone therapy is not recommended as it can have harmful effects on the developing fetus. Instead, emergency contraception should be prescribed and the patient should be advised against continuing testosterone therapy during pregnancy. It is important to note that emergency contraception is still safe for patients on testosterone therapy. While discussing the risk of sexually transmitted infections is important, it is not a substitute for effective contraception. While a future pregnancy test may be necessary, the immediate priority is to provide emergency contraception. It is also important to note that testosterone therapy is not a form of emergency contraception and that other options, such as a copper intrauterine device or specific medications, should be considered.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.
For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.
In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic neck pain that has recently become more severe, making it difficult for her to find a comfortable sleeping position at night. Upon examination, there is no tenderness in the area, but her range of motion is limited in all directions. She has been taking regular paracetamol, but it has not been effective in relieving her pain. When codeine was added to her regimen, she experienced constipation. What is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
Correct Answer: Short course of an oral NSAID
Explanation:Treatment Options for Cervical Spondylosis Pain
Cervical spondylosis is a chronic degenerative condition affecting the cervical spine. The pain can be caused by poor posture, muscle strain, and other factors. Here are some treatment options:
Short Course of Oral NSAID: A standard non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), such as ibuprofen, can be prescribed for a short period. This should be co-prescribed with a proton pump inhibitor and the patient must have no contraindications to using NSAIDs.
Capsaicin: Some local guidelines support the use of capsaicin, particularly for hand or knee osteoarthritis, but a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) would be tried first.
Long-term Regular Treatment with Oral NSAIDs: An oral NSAID is the best next step, but at the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible period of time, due to the extra risks associated with taking them regularly.
Oral Glucosamine: Oral glucosamine is not recommended in guidelines and has no consistent evidence supporting its use as an analgesic.
Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation: A transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation machine may be effective but often is not readily available, and affordability may be an issue for patients.
Treatment Options for Cervical Spondylosis Pain
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old girl has gradually become more short of breath following an upper respiratory tract infection and her mother is very worried about her. What is the single finding on examination that is a high-risk sign rather than an intermediate sign?
Your Answer: Capillary refill time > 3 seconds
Correct Answer: Respiratory rate 60/min
Explanation:Assessing and Managing Respiratory Tract Infections in Children: NICE Traffic-Light System
When a child presents with respiratory tract infection and chest signs, it is important to assess the underlying condition and level of risk. The NICE traffic-light system is a useful tool for identifying the likelihood of serious illness in a feverish child. High-risk (red) signs such as grunting, moderate or severe chest indrawing, and observed pallor of the skin require immediate hospital admission. Other signs, such as intermediate (amber) risk features, may require a safety net or referral to specialist paediatric care for further assessment. Effective assessment and management can help ensure the best possible outcomes for children with respiratory tract infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 75
Incorrect
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You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a female aged 35, who has recently registered. She is living in a hostel near to the practice. She has a previous medical history of anxiety and depression, and is coded to be an ex-intravenous drug user.
She reports having intensely itchy 'lumps' on her arms and legs for the past two weeks. Upon examination, she has multiple red bumps and raised areas on her limbs and torso, with some of these appearing in a curved line pattern. Her hands, feet, and groin are unaffected.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Scabies infestation
Correct Answer: Bedbug infestation
Explanation:If a patient complains of intensely itchy bumps on their arms, torso, or legs, it may be a sign of a bed bug infestation. This is especially true if the patient has recently stayed in a hotel, hostel, or other temporary accommodation, as bed bugs can easily travel on clothing and luggage.
While scabies is a possible differential diagnosis, it is less likely if the patient doesn’t have involvement of the finger webs or linear burrows beneath the skin. Bed bug bites tend to appear as lumps or welts, rather than small spots.
If the lesions are aligned in a line or curve, this is also suggestive of a bed bug infestation, as the insects tend to move across the skin in a linear fashion.
Dealing with Bed Bugs: Symptoms, Treatment, and Prevention
Bed bugs are a type of insect that can cause a range of clinical problems, including itchy skin rashes, bites, and allergic reactions. Infestation with Cimex hemipterus is the primary cause of these symptoms. In recent years, bed bug infestations have become increasingly common in the UK, and they can be challenging to eradicate. These insects thrive in mattresses and fabrics, making them difficult to detect and eliminate.
Topical hydrocortisone can help control the itch. However, the definitive treatment for bed bugs is through a pest management company that can fumigate your home. This process can be costly, but it is the most effective way to eliminate bed bugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female with a past medical history of depression visits her primary care physician complaining of numbness in her right arm affecting the C6 distribution for the past two days. She denies any neck pain or injury. Upon neurological examination, there is a confirmed decrease in sensation in that dermatome, but otherwise, the exam is unremarkable. The patient reports no previous similar episodes, but she does recall an incident three months ago where she experienced reduced vision and painful movements in her right eye, which resolved on its own, and she did not seek medical attention. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Somatisation disorder
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:It is probable that the symptoms experienced three months ago were caused by optic neuritis, which is a typical initial symptom of multiple sclerosis.
Although the patient is currently experiencing depression, it cannot be assumed that her symptoms are a result of either conversion or somatization disorder. Depression is a prevalent condition and could potentially be a subtle indication of multiple sclerosis.
Features of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that can present with nonspecific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis is based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.
MS can affect various parts of the body, leading to different symptoms. Visual symptoms include optic neuritis, optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome. Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms may include ataxia and tremor. Other symptoms may include urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration.
It is important to note that MS symptoms can vary greatly between individuals and may change over time. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their symptoms and receive appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 77
Correct
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A 15-year-old male with a history of asthma is brought in by his worried father due to the sudden appearance of a rash on his leg. The patient reports no new product usage or trauma. His father also expresses concerns about his recent lack of motivation in school.
Upon examination, there are distinct linear lesions forming geometric shapes on the left lower leg and dorsal aspect of the foot. The patient appears healthy, and there are no other notable findings.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Dermatitis artefacta
Explanation:The sudden appearance of well-defined skin lesions in a linear pattern, accompanied by a lack of concern or emotional response, is indicative of dermatitis artefacta. This condition is often associated with self-inflicted injuries that stem from underlying psychological issues, such as deliberate self-harm or attention-seeking behavior. The lesions are typically geometric in shape and appear in easily accessible areas, such as the limbs or face. Patients with dermatitis artefacta may deny causing the lesions themselves. The patient’s declining grades may be linked to psychological difficulties that have led to this form of self-harm.
Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta
Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.
Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.
Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.
Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.
In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of fever, dysuria, suprapubic pain, and increased frequency of micturition. This is happening 14 days after finishing antibiotic treatment for an Escherichia coli (E coli) urinary-tract infection (UTI). She is currently using condoms for contraception. Urine culture reveals the presence of the same E coli. She has no history of recurrent UTIs and is in good health otherwise.
What is the most likely cause of her persistent symptoms?Your Answer: Interstitial cystitis
Correct Answer: Silent pyelonephritis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of recurrent UTI in a young woman
Recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a common problem in women, but their underlying causes can vary. In this case, the patient presents with symptoms suggestive of cystitis, but her urine culture is positive for the same organism despite completing a course of antibiotics. This raises the possibility of silent pyelonephritis, a condition in which the kidney is infected but there are no overt signs of inflammation. Other potential diagnoses to consider include interstitial cystitis, atrophic vaginitis, chlamydial urethritis, and use of spermicidal jelly. Each of these conditions has distinct features that can help guide further evaluation and management. For example, interstitial cystitis is characterized by sterile urine cultures and chronic pelvic pain, while atrophic vaginitis is more common in postmenopausal women and can cause recurrent UTIs due to changes in vaginal flora. Chlamydial urethritis may be suspected if there is a history of unprotected sexual activity, and a mid-stream urine culture would be negative. Finally, the use of spermicidal jelly can increase the risk of UTIs, but this is usually due to re-infection rather than relapse. Overall, a careful history and physical examination, along with appropriate laboratory tests, can help narrow down the differential diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of worsening headaches. She mentions experiencing blurred vision and that her headaches intensify when she bends forward. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) as her only medication. During fundi examination, papilloedema is suspected. Her prolactin level is mildly elevated at 800 mU/l (normal range: < 400 mU/l). She is also obese. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Superior sagittal sinus thrombosis
Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH)
Explanation:Neurological Conditions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatments
Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)
IIH is a condition that primarily affects obese young women. It is characterized by papilloedema, headaches, and visual disturbances. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills may worsen the condition. Lumbar puncture reveals elevated cerebrospinal fluid pressure, but there is no associated intracranial mass or ventricular enlargement. If left untreated, IIH can lead to irreversible optic neuropathy. Treatment options include serial lumbar punctures, prednisolone, thiazide diuretics, acetazolamide, weight loss, and surgical decompression or shunting.Microprolactinoma and Macroprolactinoma
Microprolactinoma is a pituitary tumor that is less than 10 mm in size. It can cause amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, and galactorrhea, accompanied by high prolactin levels. Macroprolactinoma, on the other hand, is larger than 10 mm and can cause headaches and visual field defects. Persistent high prolactin levels may indicate a pathological cause and require further investigation.Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
Normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterized by ventricular dilation without raised cerebrospinal fluid pressure. It mainly affects the elderly and is characterized by a triad of gait abnormality, urinary incontinence, and dementia. It may be caused by meningitis, head injury, subarachnoid hemorrhage, or a tumor. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a potentially reversible cause of dementia.Superior Sagittal Sinus Thrombosis
Thrombosis of the cerebral veins or venous sinuses can cause cerebral infarction or hemorrhage. Superior sagittal sinus thrombosis can cause headache, seizures, paralysis, visual disturbances, and neck stiffness. Symptoms are related to the area of thrombosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with fatigue, fever, sweating (especially at night), aching joints and headaches. On examination, there are no focal signs.
Which is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection
Explanation:Common Infections in Kidney Transplant Patients
Kidney transplant patients are at a higher risk of infections due to immunosuppression. In the first month post-transplant, infections are similar to those in non-immunosuppressed individuals. However, in the one-month to six-month period, immunomodulating viruses like Cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes simplex viruses, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus-6, hepatitis A, B and C viruses, and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are most problematic. influenza can also cause respiratory symptoms, but routine annual administration of the injectable inactivated vaccine is recommended. Herpes simplex virus can cause severe lesions and even disseminated or visceral disease. Pneumonia and urinary infections are also common, and patients should receive appropriate immunisation and prophylactic antibiotics and antiviral drugs for a few months after transplantation. A small group of patients may experience persistence of viral infections and are at risk of opportunistic infections like cryptococcus, pneumocystis, listeria, and nocardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 81
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of leg pain while walking. Upon examination, his feet appear cool and dusky, with the right foot being more affected than the left. An ankle brachial pressure index is measured at 0.8 on the right and 0.9 on the left. Both femoral pulses are present, but posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses are absent in both legs. His blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg.
Which of the following medications is LEAST likely to provide relief for his symptoms?Your Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:Treatment options for Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)
Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD) is a condition that causes intermittent claudication. Antiplatelet therapy is recommended for those with symptomatic disease to reduce major cardiovascular events. Clopidogrel is suggested as the drug of first choice by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors have been shown to reduce cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in patients with PAD. However, they should be carefully monitored as more than 25% of patients have co-existent renal artery stenosis. Statins are also recommended as they reduce the risk of mortality, cardiovascular events and stroke in patients with PAD. Naftidrofuryl oxalate is an option for the treatment of intermittent claudication in people with PAD for whom vasodilator therapy is considered appropriate. Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man inquires about the 'shingles vaccine'. Which of the following statements about Zostavax is accurate?
Your Answer: Prevents 8 out of 10 cases of shingles
Correct Answer: Is suitable for patients who've had Chickenpox
Explanation:Regardless of whether a person has had Chickenpox or shingles previously, Zostavax should still be administered.
Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles
Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.
The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.
The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old nursing home resident presents with a severely itchy rash. Upon examination, red linear lesions are observed on the wrists and elbows, while red papules are present on the penis. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Topical betnovate
Correct Answer: Topical permethrin
Explanation:Although lichen planus can have similar symptoms, scabies is more likely to cause intense itching. Additionally, lichen planus is less frequently seen in older individuals, as it typically affects those between the ages of 30 and 60.
Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 84
Correct
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A 19-year-old female seeks guidance as she has missed taking her Microgynon 30 pills during a weekend trip. She usually remembers to take her pill but has missed days 10, 11, and 12 of her packet, and it is now day 13. Despite taking the day 13 pill this morning, she is worried about the possibility of pregnancy as she had unprotected sex while away. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: No action needed but use condoms for next 7 days
Explanation:The patient is protected for the next 7 days as she had taken the pill for 7 days in a row previously. According to the FSRH guidelines, emergency contraception is not required after taking seven consecutive pills. However, the guidelines suggest using condoms for the next 7 days in this scenario. Please refer to the provided link for more information.
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old infant born in Bangladesh is presented for surgery. The mother reports that the baby has been experiencing coryzal symptoms for the past week and has not been feeding well for the last two days. Today, the baby has started vomiting. The mother is particularly worried about the baby's cough, which comes in bouts and is so severe that the baby turns red. There are no inspiratory or expiratory noises. Upon clinical examination, the baby is found to have a clear chest and no fever. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia
Correct Answer: Pertussis
Explanation:It is rare for patients of this age to exhibit the inspiratory ‘whoop’.
A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 86
Incorrect
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What is a contraindication to rotavirus immunisation that the mother should be aware of during the routine six week check on her newborn baby?
Your Answer: Infants who are breastfed
Correct Answer: Infants with an egg allergy
Explanation:Rotavirus Immunisation Programme
The Rotavirus Immunisation Programme aims to prevent severe gastroenteritis caused by rotavirus by administering two doses of Rotarix® vaccine orally via a special applicator. However, the Department of Health Green Book advises that Rotarix® use is contraindicated in infants with certain conditions, such as a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of rotavirus vaccine or any components of the vaccine, a previous history of intussusception, and infants over 24 weeks of age. Additionally, infants with severe combined immune-deficiency, malformation of the gastrointestinal tract, and rare hereditary problems of fructose intolerance, glucose-galactose malabsorption, or sucrase-isomaltase insufficiency should not receive the vaccine.
Research has suggested that Rotarix® may be associated with a small increased risk of intussusception within seven days of vaccination, particularly in infants with a previous history of intussusception. The annual incidence of intussusception in the UK is 120 cases per 100,000 children below the age of 1, with a peak at 5 months of age. To minimize the risk of temporal association between rotavirus vaccination and intussusception, the first dose of the vaccine should not be administered after 15 weeks of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rubbery 3-cm swelling of the left breast disc. He has no past history of breast disease and is currently undergoing hormone therapy for prostatic cancer. His body mass index is 28 kg/m2. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Carcinoma of the breast
Correct Answer: Gynaecomastia
Explanation:Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Gynaecomastia is a common condition characterized by the benign enlargement of male breast tissue. It affects more than 30% of men and can occur at any age, with prevalence increasing with age. The condition presents as a firm or rubbery mass that extends concentrically from the nipples. While usually bilateral, it can also be unilateral.
Gynaecomastia can be classified as physiological or pathological. Physiological gynaecomastia is seen in newborns, adolescents during puberty, and elderly men with low testosterone levels. Pathological causes include lack of testosterone, increased estrogen levels, liver disease, and obesity. Drugs, such as finasteride and spironolactone, can also cause gynaecomastia in adults.
In this scenario, the patient is likely being treated with a gonadorelin analogue for prostate cancer, which can cause side effects similar to orchidectomy. While the patient is overweight, his body mass index doesn’t meet the definition of obesity.
It is important to note that male breast cancer accounts for only 1% of all breast cancer cases. While unilateral swelling may increase the likelihood of breast cancer, other factors such as rapid growth, a hard irregular swelling, or a size greater than 5cm should also be considered.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for gynaecomastia can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and seek appropriate medical care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 88
Incorrect
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Assuming the patient has no significant medical history, what is the recommended age for administering the Meningitis ACWY vaccine according to the UK immunisation schedule?
Your Answer: 16 weeks
Correct Answer: 8 weeks
Explanation:Understanding the Timing of Men ACWY Immunisation
When reading the introduction, it is important to pay attention to the specific type of immunisation being discussed. This question pertains to Men ACWY, not Men B. Misreading the question could lead to confusion about the correct timing of the immunisation. For Men ACWY in an otherwise healthy individual, the vaccine is administered at 14 years of age.
It is important to note that patients with certain medical conditions should also receive the Men ACWY vaccine. These conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction (including Coeliac disease and sickle cell disease) and complement disorders (including those receiving complement inhibitor therapy). By understanding the timing and circumstances in which Men ACWY immunisation is necessary, we can ensure the best possible protection against meningococcal disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 89
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 28-year-old woman who has chronic plaque psoriasis. Despite trying various combinations of potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, coal tar and dithranol over the past two years, she has seen limited improvement. Light therapy was attempted last year but the psoriasis returned within a month. The patient is feeling increasingly discouraged, especially after a recent relationship breakdown. As per NICE guidelines, what is a necessary requirement before considering systemic therapy for this patient?
Your Answer: For female patients they should have no plans for further children
Correct Answer: It has a significant impact on physical, psychological or social wellbeing
Explanation:Referral Criteria for Psoriasis Patients
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that affects a significant number of people. According to NICE guidelines, around 60% of psoriasis patients will require referral to secondary care at some point. The guidance provides some general criteria for referral, including diagnostic uncertainty, severe or extensive psoriasis, inability to control psoriasis with topical therapy, and major functional or cosmetic impact on nail disease. Additionally, any type of psoriasis that has a significant impact on a person’s physical, psychological, or social wellbeing should also be referred to a specialist. Children and young people with any type of psoriasis should be referred to a specialist at presentation.
For patients with erythroderma or generalised pustular psoriasis, same-day referral is recommended. erythroderma is characterized by a generalised erythematous rash, while generalised pustular psoriasis is marked by extensive exfoliation. These conditions require immediate attention due to their severity. Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the referral criteria for psoriasis patients to ensure that they receive appropriate care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 90
Correct
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Which beta blocker has been approved for treating heart failure?
Your Answer: Acebutolol
Explanation:Heart Failure Treatment Options
According to the 2010 update by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), there are several medications that are indicated for the treatment of heart failure. These medications include bisoprolol, metoprolol succinate, carvedilol, and nebivolol. These drugs are commonly used to manage heart failure symptoms and improve overall heart function. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual case of heart failure. With proper medication management, individuals with heart failure can experience improved quality of life and better outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with coronary artery disease visits his General Practitioner after an abdominal ultrasound reveals an easily felt epigastric pulsation. The ultrasound shows a normal calibre abdominal aorta without aneurysm, but incidentally finds gallstones. The patient has never experienced biliary colic or jaundice and has a normal body mass index with no history of abdominal surgery.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Endoscopic removal of stones
Correct Answer: No treatment
Explanation:Treatment Options for Asymptomatic Cholelithiasis
Asymptomatic cholelithiasis, or gallstones without any symptoms, doesn’t require therapeutic intervention. In fact, up to 70% of patients with gallstones are asymptomatic at the time of diagnosis. The risk of prophylactic cholecystectomy, or removal of the gallbladder, is greater than the benefit likely to be gained by removal. However, in a partially calcified ‘porcelain’ gallbladder, removal may be recommended to prevent pancreatitis or cholangitis.
Open cholecystectomy, a surgical procedure with a longer recovery time and higher risk of complications, is often reserved for patients where laparoscopy is a higher risk. Endoscopic removal of stones is not suitable for asymptomatic cholelithiasis as it doesn’t remove the gallbladder or stones within it.
If the patient becomes symptomatic, laparoscopic cholecystectomy would be the treatment of choice. However, for asymptomatic patients, the risks of a procedure outweigh the potential benefits of preventing future complications. Lithotripsy, a procedure that breaks up gallstones, is not routinely recommended for the treatment of any gallstones due to the risk of complications.
Treatment Options for Asymptomatic Cholelithiasis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with complaints of persistent dandruff and greasy skin. He has observed a pink skin lesion with scaling along his hairline and has previously experienced similar symptoms under his eyebrows. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Folliculitis
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Identifying Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: A Comparison with Other Skin Conditions
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition that produces a scaled rash. However, it can be difficult to distinguish from other skin conditions that also produce scaling lesions. Here, we compare seborrhoeic dermatitis with psoriasis, atopic eczema, folliculitis, and tinea capitis to help identify the key features of each condition.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is characterized by a poorly defined rash, greasy skin, and a specific distribution pattern. Psoriasis, on the other hand, produces well-defined plaques and doesn’t typically involve greasy skin. Atopic eczema produces dry, scaling skin and often affects flexural sites, whereas folliculitis is inflammation of the hair follicles and doesn’t typically involve greasy skin. Tinea capitis, which causes hair loss and scaling of the skin, is less likely in this case as there is no hair loss present.
By comparing the key features of each condition, it becomes clear that the greasy skin and distribution pattern make seborrhoeic dermatitis the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old carpenter presents to you with concerns about his thumb nail that has been black for a few weeks. He suspects that he may have injured the nail while working, but he expected the discoloration to have disappeared by now. Upon examination, you notice a dark stripe running along the length of the nail plate of his left thumb. The adjacent nail fold is also dark.
What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer: Send a nail clipping for microscopy, culture and sensitivity
Correct Answer: Urgent referral (2 week wait) to dermatology
Explanation:If a new pigmented line appears in a nail, especially if there is damage to the nail, it is important to be highly suspicious of subungual melanoma and seek urgent referral. Subungual melanoma is a type of acral-lentiginous melanoma that can be mistaken for trauma. It typically presents as a longitudinal, pigmented band on the nail, with wider bands being more likely to be melanoma. Hutchinson’s sign, where the pigment extends onto the nail fold, may also be present. The lesion may also cause ulceration and destruction of the nail-plate.
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.
The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 94
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner because of atopic eczema. Her patents enquire about the possible role of food allergy in her condition.
Which of the following features is most suggestive of a food allergen exacerbating the eczema of this patient?
Your Answer: Eczema not controlled by optimum management
Explanation:Understanding Food Allergies and Atopic Eczema in Children
Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that affects many children. While it can be managed with proper treatment, some cases may not respond to standard therapies. In these situations, food allergies should be considered as a possible contributing factor. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, children with moderate to severe atopic eczema that has not been controlled with optimum management, particularly if associated with gut dysmotility or failure to thrive, should be evaluated for food allergies.
Elevated levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) are often associated with atopic eczema and may indicate allergies to food or environmental allergens. However, these allergies may not be directly related to the eczema. While exclusive breastfeeding has been recommended to prevent the development of atopic eczema in susceptible infants, there is no evidence to support this claim.
Allergy tests, such as prick tests and radioallergosorbent tests (RAST), may be used to identify potential allergens. However, false positives are common in individuals with atopic eczema due to the skin’s excessive sensitivity. If a true allergy is identified and exposure to the allergen worsens the eczema, removing the allergen may improve the condition.
In summary, understanding the relationship between food allergies and atopic eczema is important for managing this common condition in children. Proper evaluation and treatment can help improve symptoms and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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What is an indication for circumcision?
Your Answer: Scrotal thrush
Correct Answer: Pathological phimosis
Explanation:Indications for Paediatric Circumcision
There are several indications for paediatric circumcision, with the most common being pathological phimosis. This occurs when scarring of the opening of the foreskin makes it non-retractable, which is rare before the age of 5 years. In such cases, circumcision is the only absolute indication.
Recurrent episodes of balanoposthitis, or infection beneath the foreskin, can also be an indication for circumcision. While this is not a common occurrence, it can be troublesome and may require surgical intervention.
In rare cases, paediatric circumcisions may be required for other conditions. However, these are not as common as pathological phimosis or balanoposthitis. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine if circumcision is necessary for your child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 96
Correct
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A woman who is 12 weeks pregnant is planning to travel to South America with her husband, who works for the diplomatic service. She is concerned about the risk of contracting a serious infection and wants to know which vaccine is safest to receive during pregnancy.
Which of the following vaccinations is considered the safest for administration during pregnancy?Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Live vs Antigen vs Toxoid Vaccines in Pregnancy
Live vaccines, such as BCG, oral polio, oral typhoid, and yellow fever vaccinations, are not recommended during pregnancy due to their potential risks. However, if travel to an endemic area is unavoidable and there is an increased risk of exposure, yellow fever vaccination may be administered to a pregnant woman. On the other hand, hepatitis A and B vaccinations are antigen-based and can be given safely during pregnancy if there is a high risk of exposure. Tetanus and diphtheria vaccinations are toxoid-based and can also be given with low risk of complications during pregnancy. It is important to understand the differences between these types of vaccines to ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a chronic medical condition has had two recent upper respiratory tract infections that have been prolonged and complicated with sinusitis and bronchitis. His general practitioner is concerned that the patient may have a secondary immunodeficiency due to the chronic medical condition (rather than being caused by the medication used to treat his condition).
Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a secondary immunodeficiency?Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Chronic kidney disease
Explanation:Understanding Immunodeficiency in Various Medical Conditions
Immunodeficiency is a condition where the immune system is weakened, making individuals more susceptible to infections. While some medical conditions are directly associated with immunodeficiency, others are not. Chronic kidney disease, particularly end-stage disease requiring dialysis, is linked to secondary immunodeficiency, making patients vulnerable to infections such as sepsis, peritonitis, influenza, tuberculosis, and pneumonia. Similarly, some disease-modifying drugs used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis have immunomodulatory and immunosuppressive effects, increasing the risk of infection. Asthma and psoriasis are not typically associated with immunodeficiency, but long-term use of oral corticosteroids and certain medications used to treat severe psoriasis can increase the risk of infection. Rheumatoid arthritis is not a direct cause of immunodeficiency, but disease-modifying drugs used in its treatment can increase the risk. Overall, drug treatment is a common cause of secondary immunodeficiency, with cancer treatment being a significant concern. Other causes include HIV, surgery or trauma, and malnutrition. Understanding the relationship between various medical conditions and immunodeficiency is crucial in managing patient care and preventing infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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You are instructing a woman on the proper use of an EpiPen. What is the most suitable guidance regarding the injection site?
Your Answer: Posterolateral aspect of the proximal third of the thigh
Correct Answer: Anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh
Explanation:The anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh is the recommended site for injecting IM adrenaline.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to clinic for a routine check-up. He is concerned about his risk for heart disease as his father had a heart attack at the age of 50. He reports a non-smoking history, a blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg, and a body mass index of 25 kg/m.
His recent blood work reveals the following results:
- Sodium: 142 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.8 mmol/L
- Urea: 5.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 78 mol/L
- Total cholesterol: 6.8 mmol/L
- HDL cholesterol: 1.3 mmol/L
- LDL cholesterol: 4.5 mmol/L
- Triglycerides: 1.2 mmol/L
- Fasting glucose: 5.1 mmol/L
Based on these results, his QRISK2 score is calculated to be 3.5%. What is the most appropriate plan of action for this patient?Your Answer: Reassure him that his risk of cardiovascular disease is low
Correct Answer: Refer him to a specialist lipids clinic
Explanation:The 2014 NICE lipid modification guidelines provide recommendations for familial hyperlipidaemia. Individuals with a total cholesterol concentration above 7.5 mmol/litre and a family history of premature coronary heart disease should be investigated for familial hypercholesterolaemia as described in NICE clinical guideline 71. Those with a total cholesterol concentration exceeding 9.0 mmol/litre or a nonHDL cholesterol concentration above 7.5 mmol/litre should receive specialist assessment, even if they do not have a first-degree family history of premature coronary heart disease.
Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines
Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 100
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 65-year-old man who has come to discuss PSA testing. He plays tennis once a week with a friend who is on medication for his 'waterworks' and has had his PSA tested. He has come as he is not sure whether he would benefit from a PSA test.
He is otherwise well with no specific urinary tract/genitourinary signs or symptoms. He has no significant past medical history or family history.
Which of the following is appropriate advice to give regarding PSA testing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: For every 25 men identified with prostate cancer following a high PSA test result, subsequent treatment will save one life
Explanation:PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer Screening: Understanding the Limitations
PSA testing for prostate cancer screening is a topic of debate among medical professionals. While some advocate for its use, others are wary of over-treatment and patient harm. One of the main concerns is the limitations of PSA testing in terms of its sensitivity and specificity.
When counseling men about PSA testing, it is important to provide them with understandable statistics and facts. For instance, two-thirds of men with a raised PSA will not have prostate cancer, while 15 out of 100 with a negative PSA will have prostate cancer. Additionally, PSA testing cannot distinguish between slow- and fast-growing cancers, and many men may have slow-growing cancers that would not have impacted their life expectancy if left undiscovered.
Another point of debate is the frequency of PSA testing. While some patients opt for annual testing, experts suggest that a normal PSA in an asymptomatic man doesn’t need to be repeated for at least two years.
When it comes to prostate cancer treatment, approximately 48 men need to undergo treatment in order to save one life. Overall, it is important to understand the limitations of PSA testing and to weigh the potential benefits and risks before making a decision about screening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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