00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 76-year-old man has been experiencing widespread aches and pains in his chest,...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man has been experiencing widespread aches and pains in his chest, back, and hips for several months. He also reports difficulty with urinary flow and frequent nighttime urination. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Check prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer and Prostatism: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Patients with prostatism who experience bony pain should be evaluated for prostate cancer, as it often metastasizes to bone. A digital rectal examination should be performed after taking blood for PSA, as the prostate will typically feel hard and irregular in cases of prostate cancer. While chronic urinary retention and urinary infection may be present, investigations should focus on identifying the underlying cause rather than providing symptomatic treatment with an α-blocker. Without a confirmed diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia, finasteride should not be prescribed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who has a routine urine culture sent at...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who has a routine urine culture sent at her gynecologist appointment. She is asymptomatic but has had a history of post-coital cystitis in the past. Sarah is currently 8 weeks pregnant.

      The urine culture comes back showing the growth of Escherichia coli.

      What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Treat with 7 days of nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who have a UTI should be treated promptly, regardless of whether they have symptoms or not. This is because leaving a UTI untreated can increase the risk of pyelonephritis and premature delivery. Therefore, doing nothing is not an option.

      The recommended treatment for a UTI in pregnant women is a 7-day course of antibiotics. The choice of antibiotics depends on the trimester of pregnancy.

      Trimethoprim is not recommended during the first trimester due to its effect on folate metabolism. However, it is safe to use during the second and third trimesters.

      Nitrofurantoin is often the first-line treatment and is safe to use during pregnancy. However, it should be avoided at term (40 weeks) due to the small risk of neonatal haemolysis.

      In this case, since the patient is in her first trimester, a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin is the recommended treatment.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the past 2 years with no relief. Her symptoms occur when she laughs or coughs, but she has not had any episodes of nocturia. She has tried pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, but these have not improved her symptoms. Her urinalysis shows no signs of infection, and a pelvic examination doesn't reveal any uterine prolapse. Linda declines surgical intervention. What is the next most appropriate intervention for her incontinence?

      Your Answer: Oxybutynin

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with stress incontinence doesn’t respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and declines surgical intervention, duloxetine may be considered as a treatment option. However, it is important to first rule out other potential causes of urinary incontinence, such as infection. Non-pharmacological management, such as pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, should be attempted before medical management. Duloxetine, a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, is commonly used for stress incontinence but may cause side effects such as nausea, dizziness, and insomnia. For urge incontinence, antimuscarinic agents like oxybutynin, tolterodine, and solifenacin are typically used as first-line treatment. If these are ineffective, a β3 agonist called mirabegron can be used as a second-line therapy.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She denies experiencing any urgency or abdominal pain, and her urine dipstick test is unremarkable. The patient has already attempted physiotherapy and received lifestyle recommendations, but she has declined surgical intervention at this time.

      What is the optimal course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      It appears that this woman is experiencing stress incontinence, but there are no signs of urgency. She has already attempted to address the issue through lifestyle changes and pelvic floor muscle training, but is not interested in being referred to a specialist at this time. As an alternative, duloxetine may be worth trying. For urinary urgency, medications such as oxybutynin, solifenacin, and tolterodine can be used. However, amitriptyline is not effective for stress incontinence.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      61.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old patient presents with lower urinary tract symptoms. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old patient presents with lower urinary tract symptoms. Which of the following statements about benign prostatic hyperplasia is not true?

      Your Answer: 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors typically decrease the prostate specific antigen level

      Correct Answer: Goserelin is licensed for refractory cases

      Explanation:

      The use of Goserelin (Zoladex) is not recommended for treating benign prostatic hyperplasia.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old Asian man who has lived in the United Kingdom for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old Asian man who has lived in the United Kingdom for the past 10 years presents with painless haematuria. He is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day.

      Investigations reveal a haemoglobin of 110 g/L (120-160), urinalysis shows ++ blood and PA chest x ray shows small flecks of white opacifications in the upper lobe of the left lung.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Risk Factors for Haematuria and Anaemia in a Middle-Aged Male

      The most likely diagnosis for a middle-aged male presenting with haematuria and anaemia is carcinoma of the bladder. This is supported by the patient’s history of smoking, which is a known risk factor for bladder cancer. Although renal TB is a possibility, the absence of systemic symptoms such as fever, night sweats, and weight loss makes it less likely. The opacifications in the lung are consistent with previous primary TB. It is important to note that renal TB can present without systemic symptoms, but bladder cancer is more common in this scenario. Proper diagnosis and management are crucial in cases of haematuria and anaemia, and further investigations should be carried out to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 52-year-old lady presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old lady presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She denies any dysuria or haematuria and reports no gastrointestinal symptoms. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and urinalysis is unremarkable. She reports drinking 7 glasses of water daily and abstaining from caffeinated beverages. Her BMI is 23.5, and she is a non-smoker. You decide to refer her to a physiotherapist for pelvic floor exercises. How long should she continue these exercises before seeing a benefit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      Referral for Pelvic Floor Exercises

      Referral for supervised pelvic floor exercises is recommended for women who experience urinary stress incontinence after making lifestyle changes. This referral can be made to a continence advisor, specialist nurse, or physiotherapist. The program is tailored to the individual’s needs and lasts for at least three months, with the option to continue if benefits are observed. Patients are advised to perform a minimum of eight pelvic floor muscle contractions three times a day.

      It is important to be aware of the evidence-based approach to inform patients of what they may expect in secondary care. For more information on pelvic floor exercises, visit pogp.csp.org.uk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria and is found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria and is found to have a serum creatinine level of 160 µmol/l (60-120 µmol/l).
      Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome rather than nephrotic syndrome.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oliguria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic and Nephritic Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes

      Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, oedema, and hyperlipidaemia, while nephritic syndrome is defined by acute kidney injury, hypertension, oliguria, and urinary sediment. Both syndromes can be caused by various renal diseases and are a constellation of several symptoms.

      In nephritic syndrome, increased cellularity within the glomeruli and a leucocytic infiltrate cause an inflammatory reaction that injures capillary walls, leading to red cells in urine and decreased glomerular filtration rate. Hypertension is likely due to fluid retention and increased renin release. Examples of conditions causing nephritic syndrome include diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, and lupus nephritis.

      Acute nephritic syndrome is the most serious and requires immediate referral to secondary care, while patients with nephrotic syndrome will also be referred but usually do not require acute admission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A previously healthy 8-year-old girl presents generally unwell, with reduced volumes of smoky-coloured...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 8-year-old girl presents generally unwell, with reduced volumes of smoky-coloured urine.

      She had a sore throat two weeks previously. Immunisations up to date. There is no FH/SH of note.

      On examination her temperature is 37.6°C. She looks quiet and unwell, with slight periorbital oedema. Respiratory rate 15/min, pulse 90/min, blood pressure is 130/100 mmHg. Her JVP is elevated and she has tenderness in both loins.

      Urine dipstick show 3+ haematuria and 3+ proteinuria. Red cell casts are seen on urine microscopy.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephritis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Nephritis, also known as acute nephritic syndrome, is a condition characterized by haematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, and oedema with elevated blood pressure. In most cases, the antecedent throat infection makes post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis the most likely cause. While blood tests such as ASOT may be useful in confirming the diagnosis, the clinical picture is usually clear.

      The severity of nephritis varies from transient asymptomatic haematuria to severe nephritis with acute renal and heart failure. Treatment is supportive, with close attention to fluid balance. Penicillin is often prescribed, but it may not influence the disease course or spread to family members. Fortunately, 95% of patients recover completely.

      In some cases, uraemia may accompany oliguria, but the clinical and dipstick findings are usually enough for a presumptive diagnosis. In children, the prognosis is excellent, with complete recovery in the vast majority of cases. Fewer than 1% of children experience elevated creatinine levels 10-15 years after an episode.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of nephritis is crucial for managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a four-hour long erection...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a four-hour long erection that has become increasingly painful. The penis is fully rigid and there is no significant medical history.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspiration and irrigation with normal saline

      Explanation:

      Acute Ischaemic Priapism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Acute ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent damage to the corpora cavernosa. If left untreated, it can lead to impotence. The condition is characterized by a prolonged and painful erection that lasts for more than four hours.

      Historically, several first-line treatments have been suggested, including exercise, ejaculation, ice packs, cold baths, and cold-water enemas. However, there is a lack of evidence on the efficacy of these measures.

      The first intervention for an episode of priapism lasting more than four hours is corporal aspiration, which involves draining stagnant blood from the corporal bodies. This procedure, with or without saline irrigation, has up to a 30% chance of promoting detumescence.

      If a sympathomimetic drug or an α-adrenergic agonist is also injected, resolution rates of up to 80% are reported. Oral terbutaline, a β2-agonist with minor β1 effects and some α-agonistic activity, has been suggested as a treatment option for ischaemic priapism lasting more than 2.5 hours after intracavernosal injection of vasoactive agents.

      Surgical interventions are second-line treatments for use when conservative options fail. It is crucial to seek medical attention immediately if you experience symptoms of acute ischaemic priapism to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old male patient complains of a lump in his right scrotum that...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male patient complains of a lump in his right scrotum that has been present for the past 2 weeks. He denies any pain or urinary symptoms and reports stable weight. Upon examination, a smooth 4mm lump is palpated above and separate from the testicle, which is mobile and non-tender. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epididymal cyst

      Explanation:

      Based on the description provided, it is probable that the lump is an epididymal cyst. The patient doesn’t appear to be experiencing any symptoms associated with the lump. It is not a teratoma as it is not located in the testicle. A hydrocoele is a swelling of one side of the scrotum, and there are no lymph nodes in this area. Varicoceles typically feel like a cluster of veins and are more commonly found on the left side. An ultrasound of the scrotum can be used to confirm the diagnosis of an epididymal cyst.

      Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele

      Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.

      Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue after...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue after experiencing a bout of gastroenteritis last week. She reports no other symptoms and no longer has diarrhea or vomiting. Upon examination, her blood pressure is normal at 128/72 mmHg and her pulse is 92 beats per minute. The following investigations are conducted:
      Haemoglobin (Hb) - 129 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
      Sodium (Na+) - 143 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+) - 5.6 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      Creatinine (Cr) - 80 µmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
      Urea - 9.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-6.5 mmol/l)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mild dehydration

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Mild Dehydration

      A patient presents with a slightly raised urea level and normal creatinine (Cr) level, along with mild fatigue. The most likely diagnosis is mild dehydration, which could be caused by gastroenteritis. No further treatment may be necessary, but the patient should ensure adequate nutrition and hydration in the next few days/weeks.

      Other possible diagnoses include acute gastrointestinal bleeding, acute kidney injury, chronic kidney disease, and malnutrition due to gastroenteritis. However, the patient’s normal hemoglobin level makes acute GI bleeding unlikely, while the absence of an elevated Cr level rules out acute kidney injury and CKD. Malnutrition is also unlikely given the short duration of gastroenteritis symptoms and lack of other indications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old woman presents with peripheral oedema and polyuria. Her pulse is 90/min...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with peripheral oedema and polyuria. Her pulse is 90/min and regular and her blood pressure is 130/80. A full blood count, liver function tests and urea and electrolytes are normal. Her serum albumin is 23 g/l (35 - 50 g/l).
      Select the single most appropriate NEXT investigation that should be performed.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dipstick

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Nephrotic Syndrome: The Importance of Proteinuria and Renal Biopsy

      Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria (>3g/24 hours), hypoalbuminaemia (<30g/l), and oedema. To quantify proteinuria, a urine ACR or PCR or 24-hour urine collection is required. However, heavy proteinuria on urine dipstick is sufficient to confirm the need for a renal biopsy. Before a renal biopsy, a renal ultrasound is necessary to ensure the presence of two kidneys and confirm kidney size and position. Autoantibodies aid in diagnosis, but the initial confirmatory investigation is the dipstick. In children and young adults, minimal change glomerulonephritis is the most likely renal biopsy finding, which may be steroid responsive and has a good prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old man with liver failure underwent successful transplantation 3 months ago. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with liver failure underwent successful transplantation 3 months ago. He has now developed progressive renal failure.
      Select the single most likely cause.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciclosporin

      Explanation:

      Immunosuppressive Therapy for Liver Transplant Rejection: Drugs and Potential Side Effects

      Liver transplant rejection can be prevented through a combination of drugs, including a calcineurin inhibitor, steroids, and azathioprine. Subsequent immunosuppression may involve tacrolimus or ciclosporin alone, or dual therapy with either azathioprine or mycophenolate. However, these drugs can also cause various side effects.

      Ciclosporin toxicity, for instance, can lead to chronic renal failure in patients who have received different types of allografts. It may also cause a dose-dependent increase in serum creatinine and urea, which may require dose reduction or discontinuation. Azathioprine can cause blood dyscrasias and liver impairment, while mycophenolate mofetil can cause hypogammaglobulinaemia, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis. Prednisolone, on the other hand, doesn’t affect renal function.

      It is important to monitor patients for potential side effects and adjust the dosage or switch to alternative drugs as needed. Additionally, it is unlikely that perioperative causes of renal dysfunction will be significant three months after surgery. About 10-20% of patients taking tacrolimus may develop calcineurin inhibitor-related renal impairment five years after transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 14-year-old boy presents with swollen legs and proteinuria (> 3.5g/24 hours). After...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with swollen legs and proteinuria (> 3.5g/24 hours). After referral and kidney biopsy, a diagnosis of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is made.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this condition.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may present as a nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Glomerulonephritis: Types, Symptoms, and Causes

      Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation in the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can be primary or secondary, and may present with various symptoms such as haematuria, proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, nephritic syndrome, acute or chronic renal failure.

      Primary glomerulonephritis can be classified based on clinical syndrome, histopathological appearance, or underlying aetiology. One common type is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, which causes segmental scarring and podocyte fusion in the glomerulus. It often leads to nephrotic syndrome and may progress to end-stage renal failure, but can be treated with corticosteroids.

      Another type is IgA nephropathy, which is characterised by IgA antibody deposition in the glomerulus and is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults worldwide. It usually presents with macroscopic haematuria but can also cause nephrotic syndrome.

      Interstitial nephritis, on the other hand, affects the area between the nephrons and can be acute or chronic. The most common cause is a drug hypersensitivity reaction.

      In summary, understanding the types, symptoms, and causes of glomerulonephritis is crucial in diagnosing and managing this group of kidney disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A Jewish family brings their 6-month-old son to their GP to discuss circumcision...

    Incorrect

    • A Jewish family brings their 6-month-old son to their GP to discuss circumcision and whether there are any medical reasons why it should not be performed for religious purposes. What congenital conditions would be considered a contraindication for circumcision in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypospadias

      Explanation:

      Hypospadias is the only condition that would prevent circumcision in infancy as the foreskin is necessary for the repair process. This means that if a child with hypospadias were to undergo circumcision for religious reasons, it would complicate the repair process as grafting from another part of the body would be required. On the other hand, balanitis xerotica obliterans and phimosis are common reasons for medical circumcision in children in the UK. A horseshoe kidney and an imperforate anus would not affect circumcision for religious reasons and would not be a contraindication.

      Understanding Circumcision

      Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.

      The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.

      Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A digital rectal examination and PSA test should be offered to which of...

    Incorrect

    • A digital rectal examination and PSA test should be offered to which of the following patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 62-year-old man with unexplained lower back pain

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, men experiencing unexplained symptoms such as erectile dysfunction, haematuria, lower back pain, bone pain, and weight loss (especially in the elderly) should be offered a PR and PSA test. However, before conducting a PSA test, a urine dipstick/MSU should be done to rule out any infection. If a UTI is treated, PSA testing should be avoided for at least a month.

      If the age-specific PSA is high or increasing, even in asymptomatic patients with a normal PR examination, an urgent referral should be made. In cases where the PSA is at the upper limit of normal in asymptomatic patients, a repeat PSA should be conducted after 1-3 months. If the PSA is increasing, an urgent referral should be made. These guidelines are outlined in the NICE referral guidelines for suspected cancer.

      Understanding Prostate Cancer: Features and Risk Factors

      Prostate cancer is a prevalent type of cancer among adult males in the UK, and it is the second leading cause of cancer-related deaths in men, next to lung cancer. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing prostate cancer, including increasing age, obesity, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, and a family history of the disease. In fact, around 5-10% of cases have a strong family history.

      Localised prostate cancer is often asymptomatic, which means that it doesn’t show any symptoms. This is because the cancer cells tend to develop in the periphery of the prostate, which doesn’t cause obstructive symptoms early on. However, some possible features of prostate cancer include bladder outlet obstruction, hesitancy, urinary retention, haematuria, haematospermia, pain in the back, perineal or testicular area, and an asymmetrical, hard, nodular enlargement with loss of median sulcus during a digital rectal examination.

      Understanding the features and risk factors of prostate cancer is crucial in detecting and treating the disease early on. In some cases, prostate cancer may metastasize or spread to other parts of the body, such as the bones. A bone scan using technetium-99m labelled diphosphonates can detect multiple osteoblastic metastasis, which is a common finding in patients with metastatic prostate cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General Hospital dies suddenly. On reviewing her regular medications, you note that she was taking aspirin, a statin and three antihypertensive agents. She had also been receiving erythropoietin injections.
      What is the most likely cause of sudden death in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiovascular disease

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Sudden Death in Patients Undergoing Renal Dialysis

      Patients undergoing renal dialysis are at a high risk of cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Chronic renal failure leads to several risk factors, such as abnormal lipid levels and hypertension, that contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease. Statins and antihypertensive medications are commonly prescribed to manage these risk factors. Aspirin may also be prescribed to prevent vascular events, although it increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Although patients on dialysis are also at an increased risk of malignancies and pulmonary embolism, sudden death due to these causes is less common than sudden death due to cardiovascular failure. Occult malignancy and overwhelming sepsis are usually preceded by symptoms of illness, whereas sudden death is unexpected. Pulmonary embolism may occur in patients with multiple risk factors, but cardiovascular disease is a more likely cause of death in this context.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 24-year-old male patient complains of a painless scrotal swelling on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male patient complains of a painless scrotal swelling on the right side that has been present for two weeks. Upon examination, a soft non-tender swelling is observed on the right side of the scrotum that transilluminates with a pen torch. Palpation of the testicle reveals an irregular, hard swelling. The patient is afebrile and there is no erythema. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for urgent scrotal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      An ultrasound is the recommended first-line investigation for a testicular mass. It is important to note that a new hydrocele could be a sign of testicular malignancy, especially in males aged 20-40 years old who are at the highest risk. Therefore, NICE guidelines state that urgent scrotal ultrasound is necessary for investigating new hydroceles in this age group. It is not appropriate to simply reassure the patient or request a routine ultrasound or outpatient review, as this could delay the diagnosis of malignancy. Blood tests to check for tumour markers may be appropriate after the identification of suspected testicular malignancy.

      Testicular cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. The majority of cases (95%) are germ-cell tumors, which can be further classified as seminomas or non-seminomas. Non-germ cell tumors, such as Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas, are less common. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis. Symptoms may include a painless lump, pain, hydrocele, and gynaecomastia.

      Tumour markers can be used to diagnose testicular cancer. For germ cell tumors, hCG may be elevated in seminomas, while AFP and/or beta-hCG are elevated in non-seminomas. LDH may also be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool.

      Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for Stage I seminomas and 85% for Stage I teratomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old woman is found to be hypertensive. Her renal function is normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is found to be hypertensive. Her renal function is normal but urine dipstick testing shows blood ++. Her mother had also been hypertensive and had died prematurely aged 37 years of a cerebral haemorrhage.
      Select the single most likely cause of this patient’s hypertension.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hypertension with Renal Involvement

      Hypertension with renal involvement has various causes, with renal impairment being the most common identifiable cause. Dipstick haematuria is a strong indicator of glomerulonephritis, particularly IgA nephropathy. However, if there is a family history and cerebral haemorrhage, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a likely cause. ADPKD is the most common inherited cause of serious renal disease and often presents with hypertension and microscopic haematuria. Fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal arteries, which is autosomal dominant, may also cause hypertension but doesn’t present with haematuria. Renovascular atherosclerosis, on the other hand, causes hypertension but doesn’t show abnormal dipstick testing. A bruit may be audible in both fibromuscular dysplasia and renovascular atherosclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 74-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of penile pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of penile pain. He has an indwelling catheter that has recently been changed. During examination, the preputial skin is retracted, swollen and forms a tight constricting band behind the glans penis. The glans penis is swollen and congested, while the shaft of the penis appears normal. What is the most suitable initial management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ice packs and manual compression

      Explanation:

      Paraphimosis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Paraphimosis is a medical condition that occurs when the foreskin of the penis becomes trapped behind the head of the penis, leading to swelling and pain. This condition is considered a medical emergency as it can cause serious complications if left untreated. In this article, we will discuss the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for paraphimosis.

      Causes:
      Paraphimosis can occur due to a variety of reasons, including:

      – Trauma to the penis
      – Infection
      – Poor hygiene
      – Sexual activity
      – Medical procedures, such as catheterization

      Symptoms:
      The symptoms of paraphimosis include:

      – Swelling and pain in the penis
      – Inability to retract the foreskin
      – Discoloration of the penis
      – Difficulty urinating

      Treatment Options:
      The treatment for paraphimosis depends on the severity of the condition. In mild cases, the swelling can be reduced using gentle compression, ice, or osmosis. Topical lidocaine gel may also be used to reduce pain and discomfort.

      In more severe cases, multiple punctures or injections of hyaluronidase may be required. In some cases, a dorsal incision may be necessary to release the trapped foreskin. A general anesthetic may be required for these procedures.

      If a catheter is present, it should be removed temporarily until the paraphimosis has resolved.

      In conclusion, paraphimosis is a serious medical condition that requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. If you experience any symptoms of paraphimosis, seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP for his annual health check-up. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP for his annual health check-up. During the check-up, the GP diagnosed him with hypertension and prescribed ramipril 2.5mg OD. The patient is also taking lansoprazole 30 mg OD, furosemide 20 mg OD, and atorvastatin 40 mg ON.

      The patient's U+E levels have been stable, but a recent blood test showed:
      - Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 140 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 47 ml/min/1.73m2

      One month later, the GP requested a repeat U+E test, which showed:
      - Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 6.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 8.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 150 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 43 ml/min/1.73m2

      The patient's ECG was normal. What is the most appropriate management plan, in addition to re-checking the U+E levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Swap ramipril for another Antihypertensive

      Explanation:

      If a patient with CKD has a potassium level above 6 mmol/L, discontinuing ACE inhibitors should be considered, as per NICE Clinical Guideline 182. However, it is important to ensure that any other medications that may contribute to hyperkalemia have already been stopped before making this decision. In this particular case, there are no other medications that can be discontinued to lower potassium levels without deviating from the NICE guidelines.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man comes in seeking advice about urinary symptoms and the decision...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes in seeking advice about urinary symptoms and the decision is made to perform a PSA test. He is a regular gym-goer and exercises daily. What is the recommended duration for him to abstain from intense exercise before taking the PSA test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 week

      Explanation:

      Factors that can affect PSA levels

      PSA testing is a common method used to screen for prostate cancer. However, there are several factors that can increase PSA levels, which can lead to false positives and unnecessary biopsies. Therefore, it is important for men to be aware of these factors before undergoing a PSA test.

      Firstly, men should not have a PSA test if they have an active urinary infection, as this can cause inflammation and increase PSA levels. Additionally, if a man has had a prostate biopsy in the last 6 weeks, this can also cause an increase in PSA levels and should be avoided.

      Furthermore, vigorous exercise in the last 48 hours or ejaculation in the last 48 hours can also affect PSA levels. This is because physical activity and sexual activity can cause temporary inflammation in the prostate gland, leading to an increase in PSA levels.

      In conclusion, men should be counselled on these factors prior to undergoing a PSA test to ensure accurate results and avoid unnecessary procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old patient comes to the surgery with suspected renal colic. The patient's...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient comes to the surgery with suspected renal colic. The patient's pain is managed with oral naproxen and hospitalization is not necessary. What imaging technique is the most suitable for examining the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-contrast CT

      Explanation:

      Non-contrast CT is now directly accessible to many GPs.

      Management and Prevention of Renal Stones

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort. The British Association of Urological Surgeons (BAUS) has published guidelines on the management of acute ureteric/renal colic. Initial management includes the use of NSAIDs as the analgesia of choice for renal colic, with caution taken when prescribing certain NSAIDs due to increased risk of cardiovascular events. Alpha-adrenergic blockers are no longer routinely recommended, but may be beneficial for patients amenable to conservative management. Initial investigations include urine dipstick and culture, serum creatinine and electrolytes, FBC/CRP, and calcium/urate levels. Non-contrast CT KUB is now recommended as the first-line imaging for all patients, with ultrasound having a limited role.

      Most renal stones measuring less than 5 mm in maximum diameter will pass spontaneously within 4 weeks. However, more intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteric obstruction, renal developmental abnormality, and previous renal transplant. Treatment options include lithotripsy, nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery. Shockwave lithotripsy involves generating a shock wave externally to the patient, while ureteroscopy involves passing a ureteroscope retrograde through the ureter and into the renal pelvis. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy involves gaining access to the renal collecting system and performing intra corporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation. The preferred treatment option depends on the size and complexity of the stone.

      Prevention of renal stones involves lifestyle modifications such as high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and thiazide diuretics to increase distal tubular calcium resorption. Calcium stones may also be due to hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Oxalate stones can be managed with cholestyramine and pyridoxine, while uric acid stones can be managed with allopurinol and urinary alkalinization with oral bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old woman presents reporting that she experiences vaginal pressure when she strains....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents reporting that she experiences vaginal pressure when she strains. She has a history of mild cognitive impairment and severe osteoarthritis. She has very poor mobility in her back, wrists and hands. Her body mass index is 35 kg/m2. Examination reveals a moderate uterine prolapse with a cystocele and a rectocele. The patient reports that she is still sexually active. She reports she cannot reliably attend follow-up at the surgery.
      Why would a ring pessary likely be contraindicated in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to attend follow-up care

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Ring Pessary Use in Patients with Specific Conditions

      Ring pessaries are a non-surgical option for managing pelvic organ prolapse. However, certain patient factors must be considered before recommending this treatment.

      Inability to attend follow-up care is a significant concern for patients using ring pessaries. These devices need to be changed every six months, and patients with poor mobility may require assistance from a healthcare provider. Failure to change the pessary can lead to infection and other complications. Therefore, patients who cannot attend follow-up appointments may not be suitable candidates for ring pessary use.

      Obesity is a risk factor for pelvic organ prolapse, but it is not a contraindication for ring pessary use. In fact, weight loss may help alleviate the condition along with pessary use.

      Age is not a barrier to pessary insertion. In fact, ring pessaries are often used in older or frailer patients where surgery is less desirable.

      Sexual activity is not a contraindication for ring pessary use. Patients can leave the pessary in during intercourse, but some may find it uncomfortable. In such cases, the ring can be removed and reinserted after intercourse, or an alternative type of pessary can be tried.

      Mild cognitive impairment doesn’t preclude pessary use, but patients may require additional follow-up to ensure the device is removed and replaced every six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 72-year-old man has advanced chronic kidney disease.
    Select from the list of serum...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has advanced chronic kidney disease.
      Select from the list of serum biochemical investigations the single one that is typical for a patient with this condition.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Renal Failure and its Effects on Electrolyte Balance

      Renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis due to decreased excretion of H+ ions and reduced synthesis of urinary buffers such as phosphate and ammonia. This results in a marked decrease in urinary phosphate levels and a rise in extracellular potassium levels due to intracellular displacement. Calcium homeostasis is also affected as the kidney’s role in activating vitamin D and increasing calcium reabsorption from the kidneys is inhibited by phosphate retention. Sodium levels may be normal or decreased due to water retention outweighing the decreased excretion. Overall, renal failure has significant effects on electrolyte balance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old man has renal impairment. His eGFR has been measured at 32...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has renal impairment. His eGFR has been measured at 32 ml/min/1.73 m2. He has developed anaemia. He has a normocytic anaemia with a haemoglobin concentration of 98 g/l (normal 130 – 180g/l). His ferritin level is low.
      Select from the list the single correct option concerning anaemia in chronic kidney disease.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment of his anaemia should aim to maintain his haemoglobin between 100g/l and 120g/l

      Explanation:

      Managing Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease Patients

      Anaemia is a common occurrence in patients with severe renal impairment. The kidneys’ reduced ability to produce erythropoietin leads to normochromic, normocytic anaemia. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends investigating and managing anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) if their haemoglobin level falls to 110g/l or less (105g/l if less than 2 years) or if they develop symptoms of anaemia.

      Iron deficiency is a common issue in people with CKD, which may be due to poor dietary intake, occult bleeding, or functional imbalance between the iron requirements of the erythroid marrow and the actual iron supply. It is important to manage iron deficiency before starting erythropoetic stimulating agent therapy. The aspirational haemoglobin range is typically between 100 and 120g/l (95 to 115g/l if less than 2 years to reflect lower normal range in that age group).

      It is not recommended to prescribe vitamin C supplements as adjuvants specifically for the anaemia of CKD. Overall, managing anaemia in CKD patients requires careful attention to iron levels and haemoglobin ranges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 72-year-old man with a history of chronic constipation visits the General Practice...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with a history of chronic constipation visits the General Practice Surgery with complaints of being unable to pass urine for the past 10 hours. As a result, he has not been drinking fluids and is now dehydrated. Upon examination, you find a tender bladder palpable to his umbilicus and immediately catheterise him. The residual volume is 500 ml. What is the most suitable advice you can provide to this patient regarding his acute retention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constipation is the most likely cause

      Explanation:

      Mythbusting Urinary Retention: Common Misconceptions Debunked

      Urinary retention is a condition where the bladder is unable to empty completely or at all. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this condition that need to be debunked.

      Firstly, severe constipation can lead to urinary retention and should be considered as a cause. Other common causes include prostatic disease, urethral strictures, pelvic tumors, and medications. It is important to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment.

      Secondly, suprapubic catheterization is not always indicated for co-existent urinary tract infections. It is only recommended when transurethral catheterization is not possible.

      Thirdly, urinary retention may not always be painful. Chronic retention may not cause pain, and even with acute retention, patients may not always report pain.

      Lastly, while benign prostatic hyperplasia is the most common cause of urinary retention in men, there are many other causes, and thorough evaluation is needed to identify and treat the underlying cause. Additionally, urinary retention can occur in both men and women.

      In conclusion, it is important to dispel these myths surrounding urinary retention to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 57-year-old man is found to have an average blood pressure of 163/101...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man is found to have an average blood pressure of 163/101 mmHg on home monitoring. Baseline bloods show a creatinine (Cr) of 95 µmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l) and estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 80 ml/min (normal range: > 90 ml/min). His urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 2.8 (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol).
      He is commenced on ramipril 2.5 mg once daily. He tolerates this well and returns to his General Practice Surgery for blood tests two weeks later, which show a Cr level of 125 µmol/l and an eGFR level of 62 mg/mmol.
      What is the most likely cause for the change in this man’s renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis (RAS)

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of acute kidney injury after starting ACE inhibitors

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure, but they can also cause a decline in renal function, especially in patients with renal artery stenosis (RAS). Therefore, it is important to monitor renal function before and after initiating or adjusting ACE inhibitors, especially in patients with risk factors for RAS. In this case, a patient who started ramipril developed a reduction in estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which was consistent with underlying RAS.

      Other potential causes of acute kidney injury (AKI) in this patient include dehydration, progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD), hypertensive nephropathy, and concomitant use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). However, the absence of relevant history or laboratory findings makes these diagnoses less likely. Dehydration can cause AKI, but there is no evidence of volume depletion or electrolyte imbalance. CKD is unlikely given the normal urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) and lack of prior renal dysfunction. Hypertensive nephropathy is a chronic condition that typically manifests as proteinuria and gradual decline in renal function, rather than an acute response to antihypertensive treatment. NSAIDs can exacerbate renal impairment in patients with preexisting renal insufficiency, but there is no indication that the patient was taking any NSAIDs.

      Therefore, the most likely explanation for the AKI in this patient is the use of ACE inhibitors, which can reduce intraglomerular pressure and renal perfusion in patients with RAS. This highlights the importance of considering the differential diagnosis of AKI in patients who start or change antihypertensive medications, especially ACE inhibitors, and monitoring renal function accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which option from the following list is currently considered the least valuable use...

    Incorrect

    • Which option from the following list is currently considered the least valuable use of the prostate specific antigen (PSA) test in clinical practice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Screening

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Total PSA Test and Digital Rectal Examination for Prostate Cancer Diagnosis and Monitoring

      Prostate cancer is a common cancer in men, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. The total PSA test and digital rectal examination (DRE) are commonly used to diagnose and monitor prostate cancer. These tests are ordered when a man has symptoms that could be due to prostate cancer, such as obstructive lower urinary symptoms, unexplained low back pain, pelvic pain, or bone pain.

      The PSA level at the time of diagnosis can indicate the tumor burden. A higher PSA level indicates a higher tumor burden in the body. A PSA of < 10 is favorable, while a PSA of > 20 is considered unfavorable. The stage/prognostic grouping of prostate cancer is based on the stage, PSA level, and Gleason score.

      The total PSA test may also be ordered during treatment for men who have been diagnosed with prostate cancer to verify the effectiveness of treatment and at regular intervals after treatment to monitor for cancer recurrence. It is also ordered at regular intervals when a man with cancer is participating in ‘watchful waiting’ and not currently being treated for his prostate cancer.

      Screening for prostate cancer, particularly by the PSA test, is controversial. While it can lead to early detection and treatment of prostate cancer, about 15% of men with a negative PSA test have prostate cancer, and about 65% of men with a positive PSA test have a negative prostate biopsy. A systematic review and meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials found that screening for prostate cancer increases the probability of diagnosis, but there is no statistically significant effect on death rates. The included studies provided little information about the potential harms associated with screening.

      In conclusion, understanding the total PSA test and digital rectal examination is crucial for the diagnosis and monitoring of prostate cancer. While screening for prostate cancer remains controversial, these tests are essential for men with symptoms that could be due to prostate cancer and for those who have been diagnosed with prostate cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 55-year-old woman is experiencing depression. She has early morning waking, low mood,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is experiencing depression. She has early morning waking, low mood, and no energy. She has lost interest in all her usual activities and feels like giving up. Additionally, she has a history of stress incontinence. Which medication can effectively treat both her depression and stress incontinence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Depression and Stress Incontinence

      Duloxetine is a medication that can be used to treat both depression and stress incontinence. It may be the best choice for patients who do not want or are not suitable for surgical treatment. However, before considering drug treatment, it is recommended that patients undertake at least three months of pelvic floor exercises. This can help improve symptoms and reduce the need for medication.

      It is important to counsel patients about the potential adverse effects of duloxetine, which may include nausea, dry mouth, and constipation. Patients should also be advised to report any unusual symptoms or side effects to their healthcare provider. With proper management and monitoring, duloxetine can be an effective treatment option for depression and stress incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 75-year-old woman with a catheter in place visits your clinic with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman with a catheter in place visits your clinic with complaints of offensive-smelling urine and suprapubic pain. She mentions having experienced similar symptoms during a previous urinary tract infection. The patient seems to be in considerable discomfort at present.

      What would be the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with a 7 day course of antibiotics based on previous sensitivities (if available) and send another sample for culture today

      Explanation:

      Research suggests that catheterised patients with a UTI experience better outcomes when treated with a 7-day course of antibiotics instead of a 3-day course. In cases where a patient has mild symptoms, it may be appropriate to wait for a culture before administering treatment. However, if a patient is experiencing significant discomfort, delaying treatment is not recommended. A history of only one previous UTI is not sufficient reason to refer a patient to urology. At present, there is no recommendation for the use of topical antibiotics in catheterised patients with UTIs.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 60-year-old man complains of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. During prostate examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. During prostate examination, a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus is observed. His blood tests reveal a PSA level of 1.3 ng/ml.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia involves the use of alpha-1 antagonists.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - What is an accurate epidemiological statement about prostate cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an accurate epidemiological statement about prostate cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lifetime risk of a prostate cancer diagnosis in the UK is 1 in 250 men

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer in England and Wales

      Approximately 10,000 men die of prostate cancer each year in England and Wales, making it the second leading cause of cancer deaths in men after lung cancer. The lifetime risk of a prostate cancer diagnosis in the UK is 1 in 14 men. However, one of the difficulties with investigating and diagnosing prostate cancer in older men is that as we age, most men have detectable prostate cancer. But, three-quarters of them will grow older and die of something else, and the prostate cancer itself will not impact their life expectancy.

      The five-year survival rate from prostate cancer in the UK is 81%, which is relatively high compared to other types of cancer. However, early detection and treatment are crucial for improving survival rates. Therefore, it is important for men to be aware of the symptoms of prostate cancer and to undergo regular screenings, especially if they are at higher risk due to factors such as age, family history, or ethnicity. By detecting prostate cancer early, men can receive timely treatment and improve their chances of survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 35-year-old woman takes lithium for bipolar disorder. She presents with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman takes lithium for bipolar disorder. She presents with symptoms of polyuria, nocturia, and polydipsia, and her family is concerned about her confusion. They suspect diabetes, but her random blood glucose measurement is within the normal range. Her urine has a low specific gravity, and further tests reveal high plasma osmolality and low urine osmolality.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetes Insipidus: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Diabetes insipidus is a condition that can be classified as either cranial or nephrogenic. Cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by head injury or pituitary disease, which leads to reduced production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). On the other hand, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by renal insensitivity to ADH, which can be acquired due to renal disease, drugs (such as lithium), or metabolic abnormalities (such as hypercalcaemia). There is also a congenital variety of diabetes insipidus.

      The typical symptoms of diabetes insipidus include polyuria and polydipsia, which can lead to confusion if there is coexistent hypernatraemia. Paired urine and serum osmolality tests can show inappropriately low urine osmolality, and in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, plasma ADH is normal or elevated.

      Treatment for cranial diabetes insipidus involves the use of desmopressin or chlorpropamide, along with addressing the underlying cause where appropriate. In nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, high doses of desmopressin are needed, and a combination of a thiazide diuretic and a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent is usually more effective.

      It is important to note that patients who have been treated long-term with lithium salts for mood disorders have a higher prevalence of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (about 10%). Therefore, it is crucial to monitor these patients for this condition. Once it is established in a patient on lithium, it may not improve even after the drug is stopped, so early recognition is key.

      In summary, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for diabetes insipidus is crucial for proper management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 46-year-old man comes to you with a scrotal swelling on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man comes to you with a scrotal swelling on the right side that has been worsening over the past two weeks. He is concerned about its appearance and has developed a dragging sensation. Upon examination while lying flat, a tense varicocele is observed on the right side. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to Urology

      Explanation:

      If a patient has rapidly developing varicoceles, solitary right-sided varicoceles, or varicoceles that remain tense when lying down, especially if they are over 40 years old, it could be a sign of testicular tumors. In such cases, urgent referral to a urologist is necessary to rule out cancer. Given the presence of several red flags in this patient, an urgent referral is required. Other options should be avoided as they may cause delays in diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

      Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele

      Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.

      Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 63-year-old male came to the urologists complaining of urinary hesitancy and dribbling....

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male came to the urologists complaining of urinary hesitancy and dribbling. The diagnosis was benign prostatic hyperplasia and he was prescribed finasteride. What is the mechanism of action of finasteride?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LHRH antagonist

      Explanation:

      Finasteride: A 5-alpha-reductase Inhibitor

      Finasteride is a medication that inhibits the enzyme 5-alpha-reductase, which is responsible for converting testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). By blocking this conversion, finasteride opposes the effects of testosterone, leading to common side effects such as gynaecomastia and reduced libido.

      In addition to its use as a treatment for these side effects, finasteride is also prescribed orally as Propecia to treat male pattern hair loss. Despite its potential side effects, finasteride has been shown to be an effective treatment for hair loss in many men.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of fever, low-grade back pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of fever, low-grade back pain, and rigors that have been going on for 3 days. He also reports an increase in his frequency of urination. He has a medical history of well-controlled asthma and type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM).

      What is the most common causative agent of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Pyelonephritis is most commonly caused by E. coli, with young females having the highest incidence. Given the patient’s symptoms and previous T1DM diagnosis, this is a likely diagnosis. While other organisms can also cause pyelonephritis, any that can ascend up the genitourinary tract, E. coli is the most frequent culprit.

      Understanding Acute Pyelonephritis

      Acute pyelonephritis is a condition that is commonly caused by an ascending infection, usually E. coli from the lower urinary tract. However, it can also be caused by the spread of infection through the bloodstream, leading to sepsis. The clinical features of acute pyelonephritis include fever, rigors, loin pain, nausea/vomiting, and symptoms of cystitis such as dysuria and urinary frequency.

      To diagnose acute pyelonephritis, patients should have a mid-stream urine (MSU) test before starting antibiotics. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered. Local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available, and the BNF currently recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone (for non-pregnant women) for 7-10 days.

      In summary, acute pyelonephritis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients should be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience any of the clinical features mentioned above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 50-year-old man presents with urinary frequency, occasional dysuria, and persistent perineal discomfort....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with urinary frequency, occasional dysuria, and persistent perineal discomfort. Ejaculation is also painful. Symptoms have been present for about 3 months. Before this, he had no history of urinary problems. Examination reveals no pyrexia but a tender prostate. Urine culture is reported as normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Perineal Pain and Urinary Symptoms in Men

      Chronic prostatitis is a likely cause of perineal pain or discomfort in men that lasts for at least 3 months. This condition may also be accompanied by lower urinary symptoms and sexual dysfunction. Recurrent urinary tract infections or a history of acute prostatitis may indicate chronic bacterial prostatitis. A positive urine culture confirms the presence of bacterial prostatitis, but it may be normal in non-bacterial prostatitis. Prostate cancer is unlikely to cause perineal pain or pain on ejaculation, and the examination findings do not support this option. Acute bacterial prostatitis is a more severe illness with sudden onset, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) doesn’t cause dysuria or prostate tenderness. Cystitis doesn’t affect the prostate and doesn’t explain the patient’s symptoms. Therefore, chronic prostatitis is the most probable diagnosis in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 25-year-old man presented with bloody discolouration of his urine over the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presented with bloody discolouration of his urine over the past few days, following a recent respiratory tract infection. Urine testing confirmed haematuria and proteinuria, which had also been noted on two previous occasions after respiratory tract infections. He was referred for renal opinion and a biopsy revealed a focal proliferative glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      IgA nephropathy is a common type of glomerulonephritis that is characterized by the presence of mesangial IgA deposits. This condition is often triggered by an abnormal immune response to viral or other antigens, resulting in the formation of macromolecular aggregates that accumulate in the glomerular mesangium. IgA nephropathy typically presents with macroscopic hematuria and may be associated with upper respiratory or other infections. It is more common in men and tends to affect children over 10 years of age and young adults. Treatment may involve high-dose prednisolone or immunosuppressive drugs, but some patients may eventually develop end-stage renal failure.

      Goodpasture’s syndrome is an autoimmune disease that can cause diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage, glomerulonephritis, acute kidney injury, and chronic kidney disease. With aggressive treatment, the prognosis has improved, with a one-year survival rate of 70-90%.

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a condition that shares similarities with IgA nephropathy and may be a variant of the same disease. About 20% of patients with IgA nephropathy develop impaired renal function, and 5% develop end-stage renal failure.

      Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults and may present as nephritic syndrome or hypertension. It is characterized by widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane and may be idiopathic or due to systemic lupus erythematosus, hepatitis B, malignancy, or the use of certain medications. About 30-50% of patients with membranous glomerulonephritis progress to end-stage kidney disease.

      Minimal change nephropathy is responsible for most cases of nephrotic syndrome in children under 5 years of age and can also occur in adults. It is called minimal change because the only detectable abnormality is fusion and deformity of the foot processes under the electron microscope. Prognosis is generally good for the majority of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 60-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis presents with nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis presents with nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease is diagnosed.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gold

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Commonly Used Medications

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, oedema, hyperlipidaemia, and hypoalbuminaemia. It can be caused by various primary and secondary glomerular diseases, as well as certain drugs. Some drugs that can cause nephrotic syndrome include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, captopril, lithium, gold, diamorphine, interferon alfa, penicillamine, and probenecid.

      Gold, specifically sodium aurothiomalate, is used to treat active progressive rheumatoid arthritis. However, it can cause immune complex nephritis, leading to unexplained proteinuria above 300 mg/l, and blood dyscrasias and gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Chloroquine is associated with several side effects, such as visual disturbances, skin reactions, nausea and vomiting, hepatitis, and abdominal pain. However, nephrotic syndrome and renal impairment are not known complications.

      Methotrexate can cause various blood dyscrasias and liver toxicity, but nephropathy is a rare complication.

      Paracetamol, when used in its oral form, has rare side effects. However, overdose can lead to liver damage, but kidney damage is infrequent.

      Prednisolone is associated with numerous side effects, including anxiety, abnormal behavior, cataracts, cognitive impairment, Cushing syndrome, hypertension, increased risk of infection, and weight gain. Renal complications are not commonly associated with prednisolone use.

      In summary, while these medications can be effective in treating certain conditions, it is important to be aware of their potential side effects and to monitor for any adverse reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 72-year-old man presents with lower urinary tract symptoms that have been progressively...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with lower urinary tract symptoms that have been progressively worsening over the years. He complains of weak urinary stream, prolonged voiding, straining, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. He denies any visible haematuria or erectile dysfunction and is not taking any regular medication. His urine dipstick test is normal, and blood tests reveal a PSA level of 3.2 ng/mL. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is about the size of a clementine (approximately 65 cc). He reports having received lifestyle advice in the past regarding his fluid intake, but his symptoms remain bothersome, with an IPSS score of 27 and a self-reported quality of life as terrible. What is the most appropriate pharmacological approach at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finasteride 5 mg OD and tamsulosin 400 mcgs OD

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms (LUTS) in men with an enlarged prostate

      Digital rectal examination reveals a prostate about the size of a clementine (approx 65 cc). For bothersome LUTS, NICE advises drug treatment if conservative measures are unsuccessful or inappropriate. An alpha-blocker (such as tamsulosin) should be offered for moderate to severe LUTS. If LUTS are accompanied by an enlarged prostate (>30 g) or a PSA >1.4 ng/mL, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor (such as finasteride) should also be prescribed. Anticholinergic drugs (such as oxybutynin) can be used to manage storage symptoms/overactive bladder symptoms. In this case, an elderly gentleman with severe obstructive LUTS, an enlarged prostate, and a PSA >1.4 ng/mL would benefit from both an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor. The patient should be reviewed regularly to monitor progress and adjust treatment as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 75-year-old female with stage 4 chronic kidney disease visits her GP for...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female with stage 4 chronic kidney disease visits her GP for routine blood tests. She is currently following a low-phosphate diet and taking calcitriol. The results are as follows:

      Hb 130 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 8.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 190 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 5 mg/L (< 5)
      Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 2.2 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Amylase 90 U/L (70 - 300)
      Uric acid 0.55 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
      Creatine kinase 50 U/L (35 - 250)

      What is the most appropriate course of action to address these blood test results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sevelamer

      Explanation:

      Managing Mineral Bone Disease in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) leads to low vitamin D and high phosphate levels due to the kidneys’ inability to perform their normal functions. This results in osteomalacia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and low calcium levels. To manage mineral bone disease in CKD, the aim is to reduce phosphate and parathyroid hormone levels.

      Reduced dietary intake of phosphate is the first-line management, followed by the use of phosphate binders. Aluminium-based binders are less commonly used now, and calcium-based binders may cause hypercalcemia and vascular calcification. Sevelamer, a non-calcium based binder, is increasingly used as it binds to dietary phosphate and prevents its absorption. It also has other beneficial effects, such as reducing uric acid levels and improving lipid profiles in patients with CKD.

      In some cases, vitamin D supplementation with alfacalcidol or calcitriol may be necessary. Parathyroidectomy may also be needed to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Proper management of mineral bone disease in CKD is crucial to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Your practice decides to do an audit of lithium prescribing as a result...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice decides to do an audit of lithium prescribing as a result of a significant event.
      Select the single correct statement regarding the use of lithium in pediatric practice.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium is associated with an increase in risk of hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Lithium Toxicity: Causes, Symptoms, and Prevention

      Lithium toxicity is a common occurrence, especially among the elderly, despite the implementation of QOF targets and safety advice. To prevent toxicity, patients should undergo regular renal and thyroid function tests before and after starting treatment. Additionally, patients should be informed of common side effects such as tremors, dry mouth, thirst, and urinary frequency. Lithium has a narrow therapeutic window, and toxicity can develop rapidly if the patient becomes dehydrated, has renal impairment, or a concurrent infection. Calcium levels should also be monitored due to the reported association with hyperparathyroidism.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle weakness, ataxia, confusion, lethargy, polyuria, seizures, and coma. Other toxic effects include coarse tremors, muscle twitching, convulsions, and renal failure. Survivors of a poisoning episode may develop persistent neurotoxicity.

      In conclusion, lithium toxicity can be prevented by regular monitoring of renal and thyroid functions, informing patients of common side effects, and monitoring calcium levels. Early detection and treatment of toxicity symptoms can prevent severe complications and persistent neurotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Samantha is an 80-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease and hypertension who has...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is an 80-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease and hypertension who has scheduled an appointment with you for a medication review. She is currently on ramipril 2.5mg once daily and amlodipine 5mg once daily. Her recent blood and urine tests are as follows:

      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 135 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      eGFR 39 ml/min/1.73m²

      Urine albumin:creatinine ratio = 73 mg/mmol.

      Based on the above results, what is the target blood pressure for Samantha according to NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      For patients with chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 or more, it is recommended to aim for a lower blood pressure target of <130/80 mmHg. This approach can provide advantages such as reducing the risk of cardiovascular complications and slowing the progression of the disease. However, if the patient’s ACR is less than 70 mg/mmol, the blood pressure target can be slightly higher at <140/90 mmHg. For individuals under 80 years old, the recommended target for home blood pressure readings is <135/85 mmHg. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease. Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 56-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner concerned about his recent diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner concerned about his recent diagnosis of membranous glomerulonephritis. He inquires if there is any other health condition that could be associated with this diagnosis.
      What is a possible condition that can lead to membranous glomerulonephritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Membranous Glomerulonephritis

      Membranous glomerulonephritis is a kidney disease that often presents with a mixed nephrotic and nephritic picture. The condition is characterized by widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, and its cause is often unknown. However, certain factors have been linked to the development of membranous glomerulonephritis, including cancers of the lung and bowel, infections such as hepatitis and malaria, and drugs like penicillamine and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

      One of the most significant risk factors for membranous glomerulonephritis is malignancy, which is responsible for approximately 5-10% of cases. Patients over the age of 60 are at higher risk, and effective treatment of the underlying malignancy can sometimes lead to improvement in renal symptoms. However, spontaneous recovery occurs in about one-third of patients, while one-third remain with membranous nephropathy and one-third progress to end-stage renal failure.

      Other conditions, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hepatic fibrosis, hypercholesterolemia, and hypertension, can also impact renal function but do not directly cause membranous glomerulonephritis. COPD, for example, can induce microvascular damage, albuminuria, and a worsening of renal function, while hepatic fibrosis can lead to hepatorenal syndrome. Chronic hypertension can also lead to hardening of the arteries and a reduction in renal function. However, understanding the specific causes and risk factors for membranous glomerulonephritis is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 38-year-old male presents with concerns about his penis.

    Whilst examining himself he noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents with concerns about his penis.

      Whilst examining himself he noticed that he had a hard nodule in the shaft of his penis and has been concerned. His erectile function is normal but he is aware of some discomfort in his penis during intercourse.

      On examination you note that he has a firm fibrous nodule in the mid-shaft of his penis with no other abnormalities noted.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatofibroma

      Explanation:

      Peyronie’s Disease: A Common Condition with Asymptomatic Presentation

      This otherwise healthy man has recently discovered a nodule in the middle of his penis shaft, with no other abnormalities. This finding is suggestive of Peyronie’s disease, a common condition that affects approximately 1-3% of the population. Interestingly, many individuals with Peyronie’s disease are initially unaware of any deviation in their penis, as the condition is often asymptomatic.

      Despite its asymptomatic presentation, Peyronie’s disease can be associated with erectile dysfunction or painful intercourse due to curvature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 58-year-old woman with diet-controlled type II diabetes is being treated with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman with diet-controlled type II diabetes is being treated with a thiazide, a beta blocker and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for hypertension. Her General Practitioner has recently increased some of her medication and has asked her to return to the surgery for a repeat blood pressure measurement and blood test to check for renal function and electrolytes.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Results Normal value
      Serum potassium concentration 3.1 mmol/l 3.5-5.0 mmol/l
      Blood pressure 156/94 mmHg <140/90 mmHg
      Serum creatinine concentration 115 µmol/l 70-120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the single most likely cause of her hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The thiazide diuretic

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hypokalaemia: Understanding the Factors that Lower Potassium Levels

      Hypokalaemia, or low potassium levels, can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is the use of thiazide diuretics, which inhibit sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. This can lead to excess potassium loss via urine, especially in patients with underlying renal impairment. However, the use of a potassium-sparing diuretic can help offset this problem.

      Another possible cause of hypokalaemia is primary aldosteronism, also known as Conn syndrome. This condition can cause hypertension and hypokalaemia, but it only accounts for a small percentage of hypertension cases.

      Low dietary potassium intake is also a factor that can contribute to hypokalaemia, although it is less common in people who are eating normally. Potassium depletion is more likely to occur in cases of starvation.

      Renal tubular acidosis type 4, which is often seen in patients with diabetes, is associated with hyperkalaemia rather than hypokalaemia. On the other hand, renal tubular acidosis types 1 and 2 are linked to hypokalaemia.

      Lastly, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors tend to raise the plasma potassium concentration rather than decrease it, due to their action on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

      Understanding the various causes of hypokalaemia is important in identifying and treating the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 65-year-old man with symptoms of prostatism has a serum prostate specific antigen...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with symptoms of prostatism has a serum prostate specific antigen (PSA) concentration of 20 µg/l (normal < 4 µg/l).
      Select from the list which single correct statement about the clinical importance of this result is the most likely.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is more likely to reflect prostatic cancer than benign prostatic hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)

      Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced by the prostate gland that plays a crucial role in male reproductive function. Its primary function is to liquefy semen, allowing sperm to move freely. PSA is also believed to help dissolve cervical mucous, facilitating the entry of sperm into the uterus.

      While PSA is present in small amounts in the blood of men with healthy prostates, elevated levels can indicate the presence of prostate cancer or other prostate disorders. However, PSA is not specific to cancer and a biopsy is needed to confirm a diagnosis.

      PSA levels increase with age and in benign prostatic hypertrophy and prostatitis, but a high concentration is more likely to be due to cancer than benign disease. It is important to note that PSA levels may also increase slightly after a digital rectal examination or ejaculation.

      Understanding PSA and its role in prostate health is crucial for early detection and treatment of prostate cancer. Regular prostate exams and PSA screenings are recommended for men over the age of 50, or earlier for those with a family history of prostate cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 55-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation on some...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation on some recent results. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 25 ml/min/1.73 m2.
      Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperphosphataemia

      Explanation:

      Managing Calcium and Phosphate Metabolism in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) can cause disturbances in calcium and phosphate metabolism, particularly in moderate to severe cases (stage 4 and 5). Patients with stage 4 CKD (eGFR 15-29 ml/minute/1.73 m2) should be referred for specialist assessment.

      In stage 3+ CKD, the goal is to maintain normal calcium levels, serum phosphate at or below 1.8 mmol/l (reference range 0.7-1.4 mmol/l), and parathormone (PTH) below twice (to three times) the upper limit of normal. Low-normal or low calcium levels are common in renal failure, and high PTH levels are a physiological response to the low serum calcium and phosphate retention.

      Dietary advice to reduce phosphate intake and phosphate binders taken with food may be necessary to keep phosphate levels within acceptable limits. Vitamin D derivatives (alfacalcidol, calcitriol) can correct hypocalcaemia resulting from reduced renal activation of vitamin D and suppress PTH secretion. However, initiation of these agents should be on the advice of specialists.

      Hypercalcaemia in a patient with kidney disease may indicate that the cause of the renal problem is related to the hypercalcaemia or its underlying cause, such as oral calcium and vitamin D treatment or tertiary hyperparathyroidism. Advanced CKD may also present with anaemia and hyperkalaemia.

      In summary, managing calcium and phosphate metabolism is crucial in CKD, and referral to specialists may be necessary for severe disturbances in these levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 50-year-old man is to have a prostate specific antigen (PSA) test performed.
    Select...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is to have a prostate specific antigen (PSA) test performed.
      Select from the list the option that would allow you to do the test immediately rather than defer it to a later date.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He says his last ejaculation was 4 days ago

      Explanation:

      PSA levels can be affected by various factors such as digital rectal examination, urinary or prostatic infections, prostate biopsies, urinary catheterization, prostate or bladder surgery, prolonged exercise, and ejaculation. It is advisable to defer DRE for a week, but if necessary, a gentle examination is unlikely to significantly increase PSA levels. PSA levels may remain elevated for several months after infections, and testing should be delayed for at least three months after biopsies or surgeries. Prolonged exercise and ejaculation may raise PSA levels for up to 48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 66-year-old man undergoes routine blood tests at his General Practice Surgery. These...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man undergoes routine blood tests at his General Practice Surgery. These reveal an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 64 ml/min (normal range: > 90 ml/min).
      A repeat test three months later gives an eGFR result of 62 ml/min. A urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 2.5 mg/mmol (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol). He is otherwise well with no symptoms.
      What is the most appropriate interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No CKD

      Explanation:

      Understanding eGFR Results and CKD Stages

      When interpreting eGFR results, it is important to consider other markers of kidney damage such as albuminuria. An eGFR of 60-89 ml/min is considered mild and not indicative of CKD in the absence of albuminuria.

      A sustained reduction in eGFR over three months is not indicative of acute kidney injury, which typically involves a sudden and drastic reduction in eGFR.

      CKD stage 1 is diagnosed when eGFR is >90 ml/min and there is proteinuria (urine ACR >3 mg/mmol). This patient’s eGFR result of 62 ml/min and ACR of 2.5 mg/mmol doesn’t meet these criteria.

      CKD stage 2 is diagnosed when eGFR is 60-89 ml/min and ACR is >3 mg/mmol. While the patient’s eGFR result fits this criteria, the sustained drop and normal ACR exclude this diagnosis.

      CKD stage 3a is diagnosed when eGFR is 45-59 ml/min with or without other markers of kidney damage. This patient doesn’t meet this diagnostic marker.

      In summary, understanding eGFR results and other markers of kidney damage is crucial in determining CKD stages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 60-year-old man has Parkinson's disease and is started on treatment. A month...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has Parkinson's disease and is started on treatment. A month later he presents and is concerned that his urine is dark red in color.
      Select the most probable cause.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L-Dopa treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Interstitial Nephritis and its Causes

      Acute interstitial nephritis is a condition that results in acute kidney injury. The most common cause of this condition is a drug hypersensitivity reaction, accounting for 40-60% of cases. However, drugs used for Parkinson’s disease are not known to cause nephritis.

      Wilson’s disease, on the other hand, is a condition characterized by abnormal copper metabolism. It typically presents as liver disease in children and adolescents, and as neuropsychiatric illness in young adults, which may include Parkinsonian features. Although haematuria has been reported in Wilson’s disease, gross haematuria is uncommon in urinary tract infection.

      L-Dopa is the primary treatment for Parkinson’s disease, and it can cause reddish discolouration of urine and other body fluids. In contrast, bromocriptine doesn’t have this side effect. While the BNF reports that the side effect of bromocriptine is uncommon, it would still be wise to test the urine for blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - What is the probable result after detecting minimal change nephropathy in a 9-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probable result after detecting minimal change nephropathy in a 9-year-old boy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full recovery but with later recurrent episode

      Explanation:

      The majority of patients with minimal change glomerulonephritis will experience recurrent episodes later on, with 1/3 having frequent relapses and 1/3 having infrequent relapses. However, it is important to reassure patients that the long-term prognosis is generally favorable.

      Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, a cause can be found in around 10-20% of cases, such as drugs like NSAIDs and rifampicin, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and a reduction of electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin.

      The features of minimal change disease include nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, where only intermediate-sized proteins like albumin and transferrin leak through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, while electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.

      Management of minimal change disease involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Roughly one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 57-year-old man with type-2 diabetes had a serum creatinine concentration of 250...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man with type-2 diabetes had a serum creatinine concentration of 250 µmol/l (50-110) before admission to hospital for radiographic investigation including intravenous contrast medium visualisation. Two days after discharge home his creatinine concentration is now 470 µmol/l and he has only passed small amounts of urine.
      Select from the list the single most correct option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He has acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) is diagnosed through decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR), increased serum creatinine or cystatin C, or oliguria. AKI is categorized into prerenal, renal, and postrenal. Prerenal AKI occurs when a normally functioning kidney responds to hypoperfusion by decreasing the GFR. Renal AKI refers to a condition where the pathology lies within the kidney itself. Postrenal failure is caused by an obstruction of the urinary tract. The most common cause of AKI in the renal category is acute tubular necrosis (ATN), which is usually due to prolonged ischaemia or nephrotoxins. Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is defined as a significant increase in serum creatinine after a radiographic examination using a contrast agent. Preexisting renal insufficiency, preexisting diabetes, and reduced intravascular volume are associated with an increased risk of CIN. Adequate hydration is an important preventative measure. In most cases, renal function returns to normal within 7-14 days of contrast administration. Dialysis is required in less than 1% of patients, with a slightly higher incidence in patients with underlying renal impairment and in those undergoing primary coronary intervention for myocardial infarction. However, in patients with diabetes and pre-existing severe renal failure, the rate of dialysis can be as high as 12%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He has hypertension, depression, type II diabetes and benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).
      On examination, he is found to have an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 (normal range: > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2).
      What is the most appropriate medication to reduce given this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Medication Management in Renal Impairment: A Case Study

      In managing patients with renal impairment, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of medication use. In this case study, we will review the medication regimen of a patient with an eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 and discuss any necessary adjustments.

      Metformin carries a risk of lactic acidosis and should be avoided if the patient’s eGFR is ≤ 30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. The dose should be reviewed if the eGFR is ≤ 45 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Treatment should also be withdrawn in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function.

      Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used in the treatment of depression, can be used with caution in renal failure and doesn’t require dose reduction.

      Finasteride, used to treat BPH, doesn’t require dose adjustment in those with renal failure.

      Tamsulosin, also used to treat BPH, should be used with caution in patients with an eGFR level < 10 ml/min per 1.73 m2. However, this patient's eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 doesn't meet this threshold, so no adjustment is necessary at this time. Nifedipine, used to treat hypertension and angina, doesn’t require dose modification in those with renal impairment. In conclusion, medication management in renal impairment requires careful consideration of each patient’s individual case and potential risks and benefits of medication use. Close monitoring and regular review of medication regimens are essential to ensure optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 4-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of poor urinary stream...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of poor urinary stream and dribbling. He has had four urinary tract infections (UTIs) diagnosed in the last eight months. He is otherwise developmentally normal.
      What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valve

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Poor Urinary Stream in Boys

      Poor urinary stream in boys can be a sign of urinary-tract obstruction, which is often caused by posterior urethral valves. While this condition is usually diagnosed before birth, delayed presentation can be due to recurrent urinary tract infections. Other possible causes of poor urinary stream include urethral stricture, bladder calculi, and neurogenic bladder. However, these conditions are less common and may be associated with other developmental or neurological issues. Vesicoureteric reflux, which occurs when urine flows back from the bladder up the ureters, may also be a result of urinary tract obstruction but is not likely to be the primary cause of poor urinary stream and terminal dribbling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - You are consulting with a 28-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his...

    Incorrect

    • You are consulting with a 28-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his erections. He is generally healthy, a non-smoker, and consumes 8-10 units of alcohol per week. He has been in a relationship for 3 years, and this issue is beginning to impact their intimacy.

      After conducting a thorough psychosexual history, which findings from the following list would indicate an organic cause rather than a psychogenic cause for his issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A normal libido

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, mixed, or drug-induced.

      Symptoms that indicate a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset of the condition, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or waking erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems, major life events, and psychological issues.

      On the other hand, symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset of the condition, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), risk factors in medical history such as cardiovascular, endocrine or neurological conditions, previous operations, radiotherapy, or trauma to the pelvis or scrotum, current use of drugs known to cause ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, and use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.

      Therefore, having a normal libido is indicative of an organic cause of ED.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 70-year-old male patient has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer and bony...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male patient has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer and bony metastases. Apart from mild urinary symptoms, he is otherwise well.

      The local urology department has asked you to initiate 'hormone manipulation of your choice'.

      What would be the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Any of the below are equally valid

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for metastatic prostate cancer

      In the treatment of metastatic prostate cancer, any luteinising hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) analogue can be used, such as goserelin or leuprorelin. However, there is a small risk of tumour flare in patients with metastatic disease, so it is recommended to initiate LHRH analogue therapy with a short-term anti-androgen like bicalutamide or cyproterone acetate. This risk is minimal, but it is considered good practice to take precautions.

      Once treatment has been established, three-monthly preparations of LHRH analogues are convenient for both patients and healthcare professionals. Anti-androgen mono-therapy for metastatic prostate cancer is not recommended. It is important to discuss all treatment options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 65-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency of urination, and suprapubic discomfort. Urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency of urination, and suprapubic discomfort. Urine dipstick testing shows:
      nitrites+
      leucocytes++
      blood++

      She has had four urinary tract infections in the last six months, with each episode confirmed by laboratory testing. On each occasion, urine dipstick testing has shown microscopic blood as well as nitrite and leucocyte positivity. After treatment with antibiotics, the infections have settled, but on the last occasion, she experienced visible haematuria.

      The patient asks if there is anything she can do to prevent these infections. She had only one previous UTI about six years ago. What is the best approach in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her to a urologist as urgent suspected cancer at this point in time

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Recurrent UTI with Non-Visible Haematuria

      Recurrent UTI is defined as three or more episodes in a year. In the case of a woman with her fourth episode in the last six months, it is important to investigate further. If visible or non-visible haematuria is present on dipstick testing when a UTI is suspected, a urine sample should be sent to the laboratory for mc+s testing in all patients. If infection is confirmed, a urine sample should be dipstick tested for blood after antibiotic treatment has been completed. If haematuria persists, further investigation is warranted.

      According to NICE guidelines, urgent referral is necessary for bladder cancer if a person aged 45 and over has unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection. For renal cancer, urgent referral is necessary if a person aged 45 and over has unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection.

      In the case of a woman with recurrent UTIs associated with non-visible haematuria each time, urgent referral to a urologist is necessary. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - You assess a 55-year-old man who has stage 4 chronic kidney disease. Which...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 55-year-old man who has stage 4 chronic kidney disease. Which medication can be safely prescribed considering his level of renal dysfunction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Severe renal failure patients should steer clear of tetracycline, metformin, nitrofurantoin, and lithium. However, warfarin may be well-tolerated, but patients may need more frequent monitoring.

      Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure

      Prescribing medication for patients with renal failure can be challenging. It is important to know which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin should be avoided in patients with renal failure. These drugs can cause further damage to the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.

      On the other hand, some drugs require dose adjustment in patients with chronic kidney disease. Antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, and furosemide, are among the drugs that require dose adjustment. Opioids should also be used with caution in patients with renal failure.

      There are also drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics such as erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease.

      In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the drugs’ potential effects on the kidneys and the need for dose adjustment. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to ensure safe and effective medication management for these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - You received a letter from the ophthalmology department regarding Mrs. Patel, an 80-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You received a letter from the ophthalmology department regarding Mrs. Patel, an 80-year-old woman who has been listed for cataract surgery. They report that her blood pressure (BP) is raised at 156/94 mmHg and ask you to follow this up, as her BP needs to be well controlled before the operation will be performed.

      You have a look at her medication list and see she is already on amlodipine 5mg, losartan 50 mg, and hydrochlorothiazide 12.5mg.

      Her most recent renal profile is below.

      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 82 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Assuming she is compliant with her medications, what is the next treatment step for her hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker or beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic with a potassium level greater than 4.5mmol/L, the recommended 4th-line option is to add an alpha- or beta-blocker. It is important to check for postural hypotension and confirm the elevated clinic reading with home/ambulatory BP monitoring for patients with resistant hypertension. Combining an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor with an angiotensin II receptor blocker, such as candesartan, is not recommended. There is no need to switch patients who are already taking bendroflumethiazide to indapamide. Referral to cardiology would be appropriate if the patient remains uncontrolled on the maximum tolerated dose of a 4th antihypertensive.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 23-year-old man comes to the out of hours GP complaining of sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man comes to the out of hours GP complaining of sudden onset left sided scrotal pain, lower abdominal pain and vomiting. He mentions having symptoms of coryza for the past three days. During the examination, the left testicle is found to be swollen, tender and high riding.
      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing the presumed diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly and doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10 days

      Explanation:

      Testicular Torsion and Epididymo-orchitis

      Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that occurs when the testicle twists on the spermatic cord, leading to a compromised blood supply to the testicle. In such cases, immediate medical attention is required. Antibiotic treatment may be necessary if epididymo-orchitis is suspected, but only after torsion has been ruled out. These treatments may be appropriate if a sexually transmitted organism is suspected. In addition to medication, supportive care such as scrotal elevation and pain relief may help alleviate symptoms of epididymo-orchitis. It is important to note that the Alvarado score, a clinical scoring system used to diagnose appendicitis, is not applicable in this case. Proper diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial in managing testicular torsion and epididymo-orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Which one of the following statements regarding the assessment of proteinuria in elderly...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the assessment of proteinuria in elderly patients with chronic kidney disease is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An ACR sample is collected over 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management

      Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.

      To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.

      According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.

      The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of dysuria, urinary frequency, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of dysuria, urinary frequency, and lower abdominal pain that has been going on for 24 hours. Upon examination, his vital signs are stable with a temperature of 37.5ºC, heart rate of 70/min, and blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. He experiences tenderness in the suprapubic region, and his urine dip shows positive results for nitrites and leucocytes but negative for blood.

      What is the next most appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 day course of empirical antibiotics for UTI

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, men who exhibit symptoms of a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics like trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for 7 days, without the need for referral to urology unless the infection is recurrent. Waiting for the results of urinary microscopy culture and sensitivity is not recommended, as prompt treatment is necessary to prevent further complications. Intravenous antibiotics are not usually required unless the patient shows signs of fever, riggers, chills, vomiting, or confusion. In this case, the patient’s borderline temperature doesn’t warrant hospital admission, and empirical antibiotics should be administered. While it is important to rule out sexually transmitted infections, the patient’s symptoms suggest a UTI, and there is no indication of an STI in his medical history.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - You are seeing a 60-year-old woman in your afternoon clinic for her annual...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 60-year-old woman in your afternoon clinic for her annual review. She feels well, although over the last 6 months she has been more tired than usual. She puts this down to starting a new job with increased hours.

      Her past medical history includes hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine 5mg once a day. She was diagnosed with mild chronic kidney disease (CKD) last year. She is a non-smoker and drinks 5-10 units of alcohol a week.

      Her blood pressure today is 130/82 mmHg. A respiratory and cardiovascular examination are both normal. A urine dip is also normal.

      Her blood results today show an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 57 mL/min/1.73 m2. An early morning albumin: creatinine ratio is 25 mg/mmol. The rest of her blood test results are as follows:


      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.9mmol/l
      Urea 6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 µmol/l

      Looking back through her notes, her eGFR was 77 mL/min/1.73 m2 12 months ago and >90 mL/min/1.73 m2 2 years ago.

      What would be a correct next step for this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrology referral

      Explanation:

      Referral to a nephrologist is necessary if there is a sustained decrease in eGFR of 15 mL/min/1.73 m2 or more within 12 months. However, in the case of this patient with a normal urine dip, a urology referral would not be necessary. According to NICE guidelines, treatment for hypertension should be followed if the patient has an ACR of <30 mg/mmol, and ACE-i can be started in non-diabetic patients. Aspirin is not recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 42-year-old man presents with painless left testicular enlargement. He reports noticing it...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with painless left testicular enlargement. He reports noticing it approximately 3 weeks ago and denies any urinary symptoms or penile discharge.
      What is the most suitable plan of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to urology on a suspected cancer pathway

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Pathway for Suspected Testicular Cancer

      Any painless enlargement of the testis should be referred urgently to urology for investigation of testicular cancer. The patient should be seen within 2 weeks, and an ultrasound should be arranged urgently. While serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a tumour marker associated with testicular cancer, it should not be used alone to exclude a tumour. AFP can also be used in staging. A mid-stream specimen of urine (MSU) is not necessary unless there are urinary symptoms or signs of infection. Antibiotics are not indicated for painless swelling without signs of infection or epididymo-orchitis. While prompt investigation is necessary, urgent urological admission is not required unless the patient is acutely unwell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of recurrent loin-to-groin pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of recurrent loin-to-groin pain and frank haematuria. A CT scan of his KUB shows a renal calculus located at the left vesico-ureteric junction. What is the most accurate understanding of this man's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent proteus urinary tract infections (UTIs) are associated with renal calculi

      Explanation:

      Understanding Renal Calculi and Recurrent Proteus Urinary Tract Infections

      Recurrent Proteus urinary tract infections (UTIs) are often associated with renal calculi, which can be detected through persistently alkaline urine and a finding of Proteus on culture. This is because Proteus organisms produce urease, which converts urea into ammonia and alkalinizes the urine, leading to the formation of organic and inorganic compounds that contribute to calculi formation.

      The severity of symptoms related to renal calculi is directly proportional to the size of the stone. Smaller stones usually cause severe pain as they pass into the ureter, while larger stones such as staghorn calculi often remain asymptomatic in the kidney. A moving stone is usually more painful than a static stone.

      Contrary to popular belief, most symptomatic urinary calculi originate in the upper renal tract, with the location and composition varying for different types of stones. While gallstones are composed of bile salts, renal stones are usually composed of calcium, oxalate, or uric acid.

      About 75% of renal calculi are radio-opaque, meaning they can be detected through conventional KUB X-rays. However, urate and xanthine stones are radiolucent and may be too small to be detected through this method. Understanding the relationship between recurrent Proteus UTIs and renal calculi can help prompt early detection and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a...

    Incorrect

    • You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a 84-year-old woman in a nursing home. The result shows a pure growth of Escherichia coli with full sensitivity but levels of white cells and red blood cells are within the normal range. You telephone the nursing home and are told that she is well in herself but that they routinely send urine specimens on all patients.
      Select the single most appropriate management option in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action required

      Explanation:

      Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in Elderly and Pregnant Women

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common condition in elderly and pregnant women. In healthy patients, a pure growth with normal white and red cells doesn’t require treatment unless an invasive urological procedure is planned. However, in pregnant women, it should be treated as it is associated with low birth weight and premature delivery. There is no evidence of long-term harm or benefit from medication in patients with a normal renal tract. It is important to be cautious in apparently asymptomatic men who may have chronic prostatitis.

      Public Health England advises against sending urine for culture in asymptomatic elderly individuals with positive dipsticks. Urine should only be sent for culture if there are two or more signs of infection, such as dysuria, fever > 38 °C, or new incontinence. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in the elderly should not be treated as it is very common, and treating it doesn’t reduce mortality or prevent symptomatic episodes. In fact, treating it can increase side effects and antibiotic resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 70-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and peripheral...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and peripheral artery disease is prescribed ramipril for newly diagnosed stage 2 hypertension. After 10 days, his repeat U&Es show a decline in renal function. What is the probable cause of this deterioration?

      Before starting ramipril, his U&Es were within normal limits, with a sodium level of 141 mmol/L (135 - 145), potassium level of 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), bicarbonate level of 24 mmol/L (22 - 29), urea level of 3.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and creatinine level of 78 µmol/L (55 - 120). However, ten days later, his U&Es showed an increase in urea level to 8.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0) and creatinine level to 128 µmol/L (55 - 120), while his sodium and potassium levels remained stable and his bicarbonate level increased to 26 mmol/L (22 - 29).

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilateral renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      If a patient with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis starts taking an ACE inhibitor, they may experience significant renal impairment. Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of bilateral renal artery stenosis in patients with risk factors for atherosclerotic vascular disease, especially if they develop hypertension later in life and experience a sudden drop in renal function after starting an ACE inhibitor. This acute decline in renal function is not consistent with chronic kidney conditions like diabetic or hypertensive nephropathy. Glomerulonephritis or pre-renal acute kidney injury from dehydration are unlikely based on the information provided.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 55-year-old man with chronic renal failure presents with anaemia.
    Select the single most...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with chronic renal failure presents with anaemia.
      Select the single most likely cause.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythropoietin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Anaemia is a common complication in patients with chronic kidney disease, with a prevalence of about 12%. As the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls, the prevalence of anaemia increases. Patients should be investigated if their haemoglobin falls to 110g/L or less or if symptoms of anaemia develop.

      The typical normochromic normocytic anaemia of chronic kidney disease mainly develops from decreased renal synthesis of erythropoietin. Anaemia becomes more severe as the glomerular filtration rate decreases. Iron deficiency is also common and may be due to poor dietary intake or occult bleeding. Other factors contributing to anaemia include the presence of uraemic inhibitors, a reduced half-life of circulating blood cells, or deficiency of folate or vitamin B12.

      Although supplements of vitamin C have been used as adjuvant therapy in the anaemia of chronic kidney disease, NICE recommends that they should not be prescribed for this purpose as evidence suggests no benefit. It is important to monitor and manage anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease to improve their quality of life and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - You are examining test results of a 23-year-old woman who is 10 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining test results of a 23-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant. The midstream specimen of urine (MSU) indicates bacteriuria. During the discussion with the patient, she reports no symptoms of dysuria, frequency, or fever. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics should be administered promptly to pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A mother presents to the General Practitioner with her 5-day-old son. She believes...

    Incorrect

    • A mother presents to the General Practitioner with her 5-day-old son. She believes his scrotum looks abnormal and is worried that he has an undescended testicle.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate method of diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Physical examination

      Explanation:

      An undescended testis occurs when a testis is not present in the scrotum. This can be due to various reasons such as testicular maldescent, retractile testes, ascending testis syndrome, or testicular agenesis. To diagnose this condition, physical examination is recommended, and the testes can be categorized as palpable or non-palpable. Magnetic resonance imaging is not necessary as physical examination is cheaper, faster, and more accessible. Parental history may raise concern, but physical examination is still necessary for confirmation. Diagnostic laparoscopy can be used to investigate the underlying cause of undescended testes, but it is not used for diagnosis. Ultrasound scanning is not recommended for routine evaluation as it is not accurate enough to reliably detect or confirm the absence of an impalpable testis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 35-year old man presents with a scrotal swelling. He first noticed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old man presents with a scrotal swelling. He first noticed a lump a few weeks ago while taking a bath and reports that it has appeared quite rapidly. He is not experiencing any symptoms and is otherwise healthy.

      Upon examination, the patient appears to be in good overall health. There is a firm, non-tender swelling on the right side. The testicle cannot be felt separately, and the swelling is translucent when tested with a light source. It is easy to get above the swelling, and the scrotal skin appears normal in color and temperature.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to the general surgeons for routine elective hernia repair

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hydroceles: Causes and Diagnosis

      A hydrocele is a painless swelling that occurs in the scrotum due to a collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. It is often confined to one side and the underlying testicle may not be palpable. Transillumination with a light source can help diagnose a hydrocele.

      Hydroceles can be primary or secondary. Primary hydroceles tend to occur in children and the elderly and appear gradually. Secondary hydroceles, on the other hand, are associated with testicular pathology and tend to appear rapidly. Possible underlying causes of a secondary hydrocele include testicular tumour, infection (epididymo-orchitis), torsion, and trauma.

      A clinical diagnosis is often sufficient, but an ultrasound scan may be requested in cases of secondary hydrocele or when there is suspicion of an underlying pathology. For instance, a new onset, rapidly growing hydrocele in a man in his thirties may warrant an ultrasound scan to rule out a testicular tumour.

      If the history and examination do not suggest an infective/inflammatory process, torsion, or trauma as an underlying cause, immediate referral to the hospital is not necessary. The use of anti-inflammatory and antibiotics is also not indicated in such cases. Understanding the causes and diagnosis of hydroceles can help in their appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of urinary incontinence. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of urinary incontinence. She recently gave birth to her second child through vaginal delivery about two months ago and has resumed exercising. However, she experiences incontinence during aerobics and jogging. On physical examination, she appears healthy with a blood pressure of 120/80 and a BMI of 24 kg/m2. Abdominal examination is normal.

      What is the best course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start treatment with solifenacin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Urinary Incontinence

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects many women. Stress or mixed UI can be treated with supervised pelvic floor muscle training, which should be offered as first-line treatment for at least three months. Bladder training, oxybutynin, or solifenacin are treatments for overactive bladder, while sacral nerve stimulation is used for detrusor overactivity in patients who have failed conservative treatment. Pelvic floor exercises are effective in preventing and treating stress incontinence, and supervised exercises have been shown to improve symptoms post-pregnancy. Electrical stimulation or surgical referral are other options if exercises are ineffective. Urodynamic investigations before initial treatment do not improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 79-year-old gentleman comes to the clinic complaining of worsening lower urinary tract...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old gentleman comes to the clinic complaining of worsening lower urinary tract symptoms that have been affecting his quality of life for the past three months. He reports experiencing increased hesitancy, weak urine stream, and a feeling of incomplete emptying. Upon examination, his abdomen and genitals appear normal, while a PR exam reveals a smooth, enlarged prostate. His urine dipstick is negative, and his PSA level is 1.3ng/mL. He denies experiencing any weight loss, fevers, or new bone or back pain. He is currently taking tamsulosin to alleviate his symptoms. What is the most appropriate additional medical therapy to offer this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      Management of Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms

      Managing lower urinary tract symptoms is a crucial aspect of general practice. It is essential to distinguish between the causes of these symptoms to make the correct management decisions. For obstructive symptoms, 5-alpha reductase inhibitors such as finasteride play a vital role in causing prostatic shrinkage by inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, which is an important prostatic growth factor.

      However, alpha blockers such as alfuzosin and doxazosin would not be appropriate choices as they are already present in the form of tamsulosin. On the other hand, antimuscarinic medications like oxybutynin and tolterodine are used in the management of overactive bladder, which is more likely to present with symptoms of urgency and frequency rather than obstructive symptoms.

      In summary, understanding the underlying cause of lower urinary tract symptoms is crucial in determining the appropriate management strategy. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors are effective in managing obstructive symptoms, while alpha blockers and antimuscarinic medications are more suitable for other types of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 12-year-old boy presents with dark discolouration of his urine. There is a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents with dark discolouration of his urine. There is a history of upper respiratory tract infection with severe pharyngitis two weeks earlier. He was previously fit and well. On examination he has a puffy face with periorbital oedema. His blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which complication would be most likely to occur in the acute illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Complications

      Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (DPGN) is a type of nephritic syndrome that causes widespread hypercellularity in the kidneys. The condition is often caused by post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which can lead to dark urine and haemolysis of red blood cells. While DPGN is rare in developed countries, it remains common in the developing world and can also be associated with systemic lupus erythematosus.

      Symptoms of DPGN include hypertension, oedema, and nephrotic-range proteinuria. While most children will recover without treatment, a small proportion of adults may develop renal impairment that can progress to end-stage renal failure requiring dialysis. Acute cardiac failure is unlikely in patients with normal cardiovascular systems, but can be a cause of death in elderly patients.

      It is important to differentiate DPGN from other types of nephritic and nephrotic syndromes, such as IgA nephropathy, lupus nephritis, and minimal change disease. Complications such as acute rheumatic fever are rare but can occur in some patients. Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and potential complications of DPGN is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Linda, who is experiencing symptoms of stress incontinence, has recently quit smoking and...

    Incorrect

    • Linda, who is experiencing symptoms of stress incontinence, has recently quit smoking and is making efforts to lose weight. She has done some research on pelvic floor muscles and is seeking your advice on how often she should exercise them. What frequency of pelvic floor muscle exercises would you recommend for Linda?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8 contractions minimum up to 3 times a day

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 29-year-old woman who is 38+6 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who is 38+6 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining of a burning sensation while urinating. She denies experiencing any vaginal bleeding or discharge and reports no contractions. She has no known allergies to medications. Urinalysis reveals the presence of nitrates and 3+ leucocytes, indicating a possible urinary tract infection.

      What is the next best course of action in primary care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and treat with a 7-day course of oral cefalexin. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure

      Explanation:

      When treating a suspected urinary tract infection in pregnant women, it is important to follow NICE CKS guidance. This includes sending urine for culture and sensitivity before and after treatment, and starting treatment before awaiting culture results. Local antibiotic prescribing guidelines should be followed, but nitrofurantoin should be avoided at term due to the risk of neonatal haemolysis. Cefalexin is a safe alternative. The recommended course of antibiotics is seven days.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - You are discussing with your supervisor the management of patients who present with...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing with your supervisor the management of patients who present with urological symptoms in elderly women.
      Which of the following presentations of urinary symptoms in elderly women requires urgent referral?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 44-year-old patient with urinary incontinence symptoms and feeling of a 'lump down below'

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Painless Visible Haematuria

      Painless macroscopic haematuria, or visible blood in the urine, is a concerning symptom that should be urgently referred for suspicion of bladder or renal cancer. However, it is important to note that if the patient also experiences pain or symptoms of a urinary tract infection, these should be assessed and managed separately.

      Prompt referral for painless visible haematuria is crucial in order to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential cancer. Patients should be advised to seek medical attention immediately if they notice blood in their urine, even if they do not experience any pain or other symptoms. Healthcare providers should also be vigilant in identifying and referring these cases for further evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - You see a 60-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 60-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared suddenly 2 weeks ago. He says that it is uncomfortable and painful. He has no other relevant past medical history. He smokes 20 cigarettes a day.

      On examination, he has what feels like a varicocele in his right scrotum. He has a swelling which feels like veins. It is separate from his right testicle and situated above it. The swelling is palpable when standing and lying down.

      You discuss the fact that you think this is a varicocele with the patient. Which statement below is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: This patient requires urgent referral to a urologist

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, varicocele is present in approximately 40% of men who are diagnosed with infertility. However, it is not recommended to refer men with a left-sided varicocele for ultrasonography as a routine measure to detect any underlying tumor.

      Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.

      Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.

      In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 65-year-old man with chronic renal failure has been diagnosed with renal osteodystrophy....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic renal failure has been diagnosed with renal osteodystrophy. A medical student is present and asks for an explanation of the mechanism for this.
      Select the option that most accurately describes the changes involved.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phosphate excretion is decreased, parathyroid hormone levels are increased and 1,25-OH vitamin D levels are decreased

      Explanation:

      Understanding Renal Osteodystrophy: Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Renal osteodystrophy is a condition that occurs as a result of hyperparathyroidism secondary to hyperphosphatemia combined with hypocalcemia. These conditions are caused by the decreased excretion of phosphate by the damaged kidney. Additionally, low activated vitamin D3 levels are a result of the damaged kidneys’ inability to hydroxylate vitamin D3 into its active form, calcitriol, which results in further hypocalcemia due to decreased calcium absorption in the gut. Hyperparathyroidism then leads to increased osteoclastic activity, cyst formation, and bone marrow fibrosis.

      Diagnosis of renal osteodystrophy usually occurs after treatment for end-stage renal disease begins. Blood tests will indicate decreased calcium and calcitriol and increased phosphate and parathyroid hormone. X-rays will also show bone features of renal osteodystrophy, such as chondrocalcinosis at the knees and pubic symphysis, osteopenia, and bone fractures.

      Treatment for renal osteodystrophy involves increasing 25(OH)-vitamin D levels by taking alfacalcidol, which increases endogenous calcitriol production and can effectively suppress parathormone in the early stages of chronic kidney disease. Normal 25(OH)-vitamin D levels also prevent the development of osteomalacia. Gut phosphate binders, such as calcium salts and sevelamer (Renagel®), may help reduce phosphate levels.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and treatment of renal osteodystrophy is crucial for managing this condition effectively. Early detection and treatment can prevent further complications and improve the quality of life for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 5-year-old boy presents with a history of poor urinary stream. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy presents with a history of poor urinary stream. He has no other obvious abnormalities.
      Select the single investigation from this list that would be most helpful in this case.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Micturating cystourethrography

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Urinary Tract Obstruction in Children

      Urinary tract obstruction in children can lead to a poor urinary stream, indicating a blockage in the urinary system. The most common cause of this condition in boys is posterior urethral valves (PUVs), which are folds of urothelium that obstruct the bladder. PUVs can range in severity, from life-threatening to asymptomatic, but can lead to end-stage renal disease in 30% of patients. Vesicoureteric reflux, the backward flow of urine from the bladder into the kidneys, is also common in PUV patients.

      Antenatal ultrasound has increased the diagnosis of PUVs, with most cases recognized during the second and third trimester. Delayed presentation can include urinary infection, enuresis, voiding pain or dysfunction, and an abnormal urinary stream. Neurogenic bladder, caused by a birth defect involving the spinal cord, can also lead to urinary retention, leakage, and infection. Urethral calculi and strictures are less common causes of urinary tract obstruction in children, but should still be considered in the differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history asks for a PSA test...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history asks for a PSA test after hearing about a friend of his father who was diagnosed with prostate cancer. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give him a patient information leaflet with details of the PSA test and allow him to make the choice

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it is used as a tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.

      The PCRMP has recommended age-adjusted upper limits for PSA, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. However, PSA levels may also be raised by other conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract.

      PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, and various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring change in PSA level with time. It is important to note that digital rectal examination may or may not cause a rise in PSA levels, which is a matter of debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Sarah is a 64-year-old who has come to you for guidance on vaccinations....

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 64-year-old who has come to you for guidance on vaccinations. She has chronic kidney disease stage 1 and uses salbutamol as needed for her asthma. She wants to know if she is eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. What advice should you give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yes he is eligible as he is aged over 65 years

      Explanation:

      Jason’s eligibility for the vaccine is based on his age of over 65 years, as his chronic kidney disease is not at stage 3, 4 or 5, and he is not using oral steroids for his asthma.

      The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.

      The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 48-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 48-hour history of dysuria and visible blood in his urine. He also reports some frequency of urination. However, he denies fever, abdominal pain, or loin pain. He mentions that his urine has gradually cleared up since it was like red wine 48 hours ago and now looks normal. On examination, he appears to be in good health with no fever. His pulse rate is 76 bpm regular, and his blood pressure is 138/76 mmHg. His abdomen and loins are normal to palpation. A urine sample is taken, which appears macroscopically normal, but dipstick testing reveals leucocytes ++ and blood+++. You prescribe antibiotics to cover a urinary tract infection. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Request an urgent CT urogram to rule out a renal calculi

      Explanation:

      Referral for Suspected Bladder Cancer

      According to NICE guidelines, individuals with certain symptoms should be referred for suspected cancer pathway referral within 2 weeks. For bladder cancer, this includes individuals aged 45 and over with unexplained visible haematuria or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection. It also includes individuals aged 60 and over with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test.

      However, before referral, it is important to establish whether there is a urinary tract infection present. If there is, appropriate treatment can be given and referral for further investigation into the haematuria may not be necessary. In cases where there are symptoms suggestive of a urinary infection and macroscopic haematuria, investigations should be undertaken to diagnose and treat the infection before considering referral. If infection is not confirmed, urgent referral is warranted to investigate the haematuria further.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 12-year-old boy visits his GP with his mother after he observed blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy visits his GP with his mother after he observed blood in his urine two days after receiving treatment for tonsillitis. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, it is positive for blood and protein. The doctor sends a sample for microscopy, culture, and sensitivity and receives the following results: Growth < 104 cfu/ml, Large numbers of red blood cells, < 10/mm3 of white blood cells, and red-cell casts in microscopy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Haematuria: A Brief Overview

      Haematuria, or the presence of blood in the urine, can be caused by a variety of conditions. One possible cause is glomerulonephritis, which is indicated by the presence of red-cell casts in the urine. In particular, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) may be suspected if the patient has a recent history of tonsillitis. PSGN typically resolves on its own, but symptom control and infection removal may be necessary.

      Another possible cause of haematuria is myoglobinuria, which is characterized by a positive urine dipstick but the absence of red-cell casts. Myoglobinuria is an early sign of rhabdomyolysis, which requires fluid resuscitation and further investigations into renal function and creatine kinase.

      Porphyria, on the other hand, may cause dark or reddish urine due to excessive excretion of haem precursors. However, red-cell casts are not present and a urine dipstick would not be positive for blood.

      Renal calculus, or kidney stones, is unlikely in a young patient and would typically be accompanied by severe pain. No casts would be present in this case.

      Finally, a urinary tract infection (UTI) may cause haematuria, but a diagnosis requires significant bacteriuria, which is defined as greater than 100,000 colonies of bacteria per milliliter of urine. Counts between 10,000 and 100,000 are indeterminate, while counts below 10,000 are considered normal. Sensitivity testing may be necessary to determine the appropriate antibiotics for treatment.

      In summary, the presence of red-cell casts in the urine suggests glomerulonephritis, while a positive urine dipstick without casts may indicate myoglobinuria. Other possible causes of haematuria include porphyria, renal calculus, and UTI, but these require further investigation and testing for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis.
      Select from the list the single most important item that should be regularly monitored.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal function

      Explanation:

      Renal Adverse Drug Reactions Associated with NSAIDs

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief, but they come with a relatively high incidence of renal adverse drug reactions. These reactions are caused by changes in renal haemodynamics, which are usually mediated by prostaglandins that are affected by NSAIDs. Patients with renal impairment should avoid these drugs if possible, or use them with caution. It is important to use the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible duration and monitor renal function. NSAIDs may cause sodium and water retention, leading to deterioration of renal function and possibly renal failure. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential renal adverse drug reactions associated with NSAIDs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 60-year-old man with a 6-month history of fatigue and low back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a 6-month history of fatigue and low back pain has an episode of severe loin pain. Physical examination is unremarkable except for pallor. An X-ray of the lower abdomen shows a ureteric calculus, and lytic lesions and osteoporosis in the lumbar vertebrae. Blood urea, serum creatinine, serum calcium and uric acid levels are raised.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myeloma

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Features of Myeloma, Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia, Hyperparathyroidism, Acute Pyelonephritis, and Chronic Renal Failure

      Myeloma is a type of plasma cell neoplasm that causes diffuse bone marrow infiltration and localized osteolytic deposits. Patients with myeloma often experience anemia, hypercalcemia, and elevated levels of urea, uric acid, and creatinine. Back pain is a common symptom, and long-term hypercalcemia can lead to the formation of calculi.

      Chronic myeloid leukemia is characterized by massive splenomegaly, but patients typically have normal levels of urea and creatinine. However, uric acid levels may be elevated.

      Hyperparathyroidism is associated with increased bone turnover and elevated serum calcium levels. Subperiosteal resorption, especially on hand X-rays, is a common finding. However, lytic lesions are not typically seen.

      Acute pyelonephritis is not suggested by the patient’s history or physical exam findings.

      Hypocalcemia is a hallmark of chronic renal failure, but urolithiasis is unlikely in this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 68-year-old man with prostate cancer is suffering from severe hot flashes due...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with prostate cancer is suffering from severe hot flashes due to his goserelin treatment.
      What medication can be prescribed to alleviate this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medroxyprogesterone acetate

      Explanation:

      Hormone Therapies for Prostate Cancer Management

      Goserelin is a type of hormone therapy used to manage prostate cancer. However, it can cause side-effects such as hot flashes. To address this, medroxyprogesterone acetate can be prescribed at a 20 mg dosage per day for 10 weeks. If this is not effective or not tolerated, cyproterone acetate at 50 mg twice a day for 4 weeks can be considered.

      Denosumab is another treatment option for men on androgen deprivation therapy who have osteoporosis and cannot take bisphosphonates. On the other hand, finasteride is an enzyme inhibitor that is indicated for benign prostatic hyperplasia and androgenic alopecia.

      Prednisolone, on the other hand, has no role in managing hot flashes but can be used in treatment regimens for metastatic prostate cancer. Lastly, tamoxifen is a treatment option for gynaecomastia in men undergoing long-term bicalutamide treatment for prostate cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 65-year old man with prostate cancer presents with gynaecomastia.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old man with prostate cancer presents with gynaecomastia.

      Which of the following treatments would explain this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radical prostatectomy

      Explanation:

      Iatrogenic Causes of Gynaecomastia: The Role of Gonadorelin Injections

      There are various iatrogenic causes of gynaecomastia that healthcare providers should consider when evaluating a patient with this condition. In this case, the culprit behind the breast enlargement is the gonadorelin injections.

      Gonadorelin analogues initially stimulate the release of luteinising hormone (LH) by the pituitary gland. However, in the early stages of treatment, this can cause a tumour flare, which can lead to complications such as spinal cord compression and ureteric obstruction. To prevent this problem, an anti-androgen may be prescribed alongside the gonadorelin injections.

      Once treatment is established, gonadorelin analogues produce a clinical picture similar to menopause in females and orchidectomy in males. This occurs as continued use results in hypogonadism due to negative feedback. Typical clinical features include hot flashes, sweating, sexual dysfunction, and gynaecomastia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting bladder retraining, her symptoms persist. The decision is made to prescribe a muscarinic antagonist.

      What is an example of a medication that falls under the category of muscarinic antagonist?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tolterodine

      Explanation:

      Oxybutynin and solifenacin are other examples of muscarinic antagonists used for urinary incontinence. Muscarinic antagonists used for different conditions include ipratropium for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and procyclidine for Parkinson’s disease.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 63-year-old man attends for diabetic annual review. His current medication consists of...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man attends for diabetic annual review. His current medication consists of metformin 500 mg TDS, pioglitazone 30 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, and atorvastatin 20 mg ON. His latest HbA1c blood test result is 66 mmol/mol. His renal function shows an eGFR of >90 ml/min.

      As part of his review his urine is dipstick tested and shows blood+. It is negative for glucose, protein, leucocytes, nitrites and ketones.

      The patient feels well and denies any urinary symptoms or frank haematuria. His blood pressure is 126/82 mmHg.

      You provide him with two urine containers and ask him to submit further samples in one and two weeks time for repeat testing. You also send a urine sample to the laboratory for microalbuminuria testing.

      The repeat tests show persisting blood+ only. His urine albumin:creatinine ratio is 1.9 and there is a leucocytosis on blood testing.

      What is the most appropriate approach in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Review his medications and refer urgently to a urologist

      Explanation:

      Managing Microscopic Haematuria

      Persistent microscopic haematuria should be considered clinically relevant if present on at least two out of three samples tested at weekly intervals. A dipstick showing ‘trace’ blood should be considered negative. Blood 1+ or more is significant. If a patient is aged 60 and over and has unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, referral to a Urologist as an urgent suspected cancer is advised according to NICE guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer.

      It is important to note that certain medications, such as clopidogrel, aspirin, and warfarin, should not be attributed to microscopic haematuria. Additionally, if the sample is painless, it must have 1+ of blood or more on at least 2 out of 3 occasions to be considered abnormal.

      If a patient is on pioglitazone, which carries a small but significant increased risk of bladder cancer, it would be prudent to stop the medication at least until the microscopic haematuria has been investigated.

      In summary, managing microscopic haematuria involves careful consideration of the frequency and amount of blood present in the sample, as well as referral to a specialist for further investigation in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a noticeable bulge in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a noticeable bulge in his groin area. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, the doctor observes a reducible lump with a cough impulse above and medial to the pubic tubercle. The patient reports no pain or other symptoms.

      What is the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine surgical referral

      Explanation:

      Referral for surgical repair is the recommended course of action for inguinal hernias, even if they are not causing any symptoms. This patient, who has an inguinal hernia, should be referred for surgery as they are fit and well. Physiotherapy referral, reassurance and safety netting, and ultrasound scan are not appropriate in this case.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 25-year-old army recruit presents with a swelling in the left scrotum that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old army recruit presents with a swelling in the left scrotum that has been present for at least two years. On examination, a large non-tender swelling is observed that can be palpated above and transilluminates brightly. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epididymo-orchitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hydrocoele

      A hydrocoele is a condition where there is a buildup of fluid in the tunica vaginalis. It can either be primary, which usually occurs in middle age, or secondary, which can happen in younger individuals and may be caused by an underlying malignancy, chronic epididymo-orchitis, or a hernia. The main symptom is a cystic-feeling swelling in the scrotum, which makes it difficult to feel the testis separately. However, the swelling can be felt above and transilluminates.

      Ultrasound is not typically used to diagnose a simple hydrocoele, but it may be helpful in ruling out other conditions such as testicular tumors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining of a burning sensation while urinating. She reports no vaginal bleeding and is in good health otherwise. She has no recorded drug allergies. Urinalysis shows positive results for nitrates and 3+ leucocytes. The GP suspects a urinary tract infection.

      What is the best course of action in primary care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and treat with a 7-day course of oral cefalexin. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure

      Explanation:

      To avoid the risk of birth defects, trimethoprim should not be used during the first trimester of pregnancy. When a urinary tract infection is suspected in women, it is recommended to start treatment before waiting for culture results. However, a urine culture and sensitivity test should be done before starting antibiotics and again seven days after completing treatment to ensure it was effective. Local guidelines for prescribing antibiotics should be followed, and cefalexin is a safe alternative to trimethoprim. The current recommendation is to take antibiotics for seven days.

      Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy

      Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This may cause an interaction with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim may also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug competitively inhibits the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the medication. Additionally, trimethoprim blocks the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It also inhibits creatinine secretion, which often leads to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.

      When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. Manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication, especially during pregnancy, to ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 25-year-old man is worried about his left testis as he has observed...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is worried about his left testis as he has observed a swelling and some slight discomfort. The discomfort intensifies when he stands and subsides when he lies down. The left side scrotum hangs lower and feels like “a bag of worms”. Both testes are of the same size and feel normal. The swelling becomes more noticeable when he performs a Valsalva manoeuvre while standing.
      Select the accurate statement from the options given.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Controversy surrounds the need for treatment

      Explanation:

      Varicocele: To Treat or Not to Treat?

      Varicocele is a common condition found in 20% of all men in the general population and 40% of infertile men. While it may cause abnormal sperm count and infertility, controversy surrounds the need for treatment. A Cochrane review has cast doubt on the merits of varicocelectomy, but European guidelines cite several meta-analyses favoring treatment. Surgery is only indicated for persistent pain. In older men with newly symptomatic varicocele, an advanced renal tumor is possible and should be excluded. Overall, most varicoceles do not require treatment and are unlikely to cause long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 72-year-old diabetic woman is in her seventh year of haemodialysis. She visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old diabetic woman is in her seventh year of haemodialysis. She visits her General Practitioner with symptoms of pain, numbness and tingling in both hands during the early hours of the morning. She also complains of stiffness in her shoulders, hips and knees.
      What diagnosis best fits with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dialysis amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, Shoulder Pain, and Flexor Tenosynovitis

      Dialysis Amyloidosis: A Likely Diagnosis

      The patient in question has been undergoing dialysis therapy for six years, which puts them at risk for dialysis amyloidosis. This condition occurs due to the accumulation of beta-2-microglobulin (B2M) in the body, which is not effectively cleared during dialysis. Symptoms of B2M amyloidosis typically appear after five years of dialysis therapy and often present as a triad of carpal tunnel syndrome, shoulder pain, and flexor tenosynovitis in the hands. The presence of all three symptoms in this patient strongly supports a diagnosis of dialysis amyloidosis.

      Other Possible Diagnoses

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a possible diagnosis due to joint pain and stiffness, but the absence of joint swelling makes it less likely. Diabetic neuropathy can cause sensory and motor neuropathies, but the joint symptoms in this patient do not support this diagnosis. Seronegative arthritis is unlikely due to the absence of joint swelling, and it doesn’t account for the neuropathic symptoms seen in this patient. Uraemic neuropathy is a distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy caused by uraemic toxins, but the presence of joint symptoms in this patient doesn’t support a diagnosis of neuropathy.

      Conclusion

      Based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, dialysis amyloidosis is the most likely diagnosis. However, further testing and evaluation may be necessary to confirm this diagnosis and rule out other possible conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 70-year-old man visits his GP for a new-patient screen. His only previous...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his GP for a new-patient screen. His only previous complaints have been type-2 diabetes and mild long-standing back pain. Screening tests reveal an elevated serum creatinine of 215 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l) and anaemia with Hb of 101 g/d (135-175 g/L). He has marked proteinuria. An X-ray shows collapse of the lumbar spine and there is a monoclonal band on serum protein electrophoresis.
      Select the most likely cause of his abnormal renal function.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amyloidosis: Causes, Symptoms, and Prognosis

      Amyloidosis is a group of conditions characterized by the abnormal deposition of amyloid proteins in organs or tissues, leading to damage. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 60 and 70 years. In most cases, amyloidosis is caused by light-chain deposition from a myeloma, as evidenced by a monoclonal band on electrophoresis and lumbar spine collapse. Symptoms of generalized amyloidosis include fatigue, dyspnea, diarrhea, macroglossia, hepatomegaly, and weight loss. Cardiac involvement may result in a restrictive picture with right-sided heart failure and jugular venous distension. Renal amyloidosis can lead to the development of the nephrotic syndrome.

      Apart from myeloma, other causes of amyloidosis include hereditary forms such as familial Mediterranean fever, and those related to chronic disease, infection, or malignancy, such as rheumatoid arthritis, tuberculosis, and renal cell carcinoma. Amyloidosis associated with myeloma has a very poor prognosis, with less than 1-year survival. In contrast, familial forms are associated with much better outcomes, with a prognosis of up to 10-15 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been bothering him for two months. He has been in good health but noticed tenderness and swelling in the right breast during a basketball game. Upon examination, breast tissue is palpable in both breasts, and the right breast is tender. Additionally, a non-tender lump of 3 cm in diameter is found in the right testicle, which does not transilluminate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      Testicular Lesions and Gynaecomastia in Young Males

      This young male is presenting with tender gynaecomastia and a suspicious testicular lesion. The most likely diagnosis in this age group is a teratoma, as seminoma tends to be more common in older individuals. Gynaecomastia can be a presenting feature of testicular tumours, as the tumour may secrete betaHCG. Other tumour markers of teratoma include alphafetoprotein (AFP). It is important to note that testicular lymphoma typically presents in individuals over the age of 40 and is not associated with gynaecomastia. Early detection and treatment of testicular lesions is crucial for optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing. A colleague at work was recently diagnosed with prostate cancer which has prompted him to make this appointment.

      He reports no problems passing urine and detailed questioning reveals no lower urinary tract symptoms and no history of haematuria or erectile dysfunction. He is currently well with no other specific complaints. He has one brother who is 65 and his father is still alive aged 86. There is no family history of prostate cancer.

      He is very keen to have a PSA blood test performed as his work colleague's diagnosis has made him anxious.

      Which of the following is appropriate advice to give the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should have a digital rectal examination (DRE) and only if abnormal be offered PSA testing

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing in Asymptomatic Men: Pros and Cons

      PSA testing in asymptomatic men is a controversial issue, with some advocating for it as a screening test and others wary of overtreatment and patient harm. The limitations of PSA testing in terms of sensitivity and specificity, as well as the inability to distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, are major points of debate.

      Currently, PSA testing is not recommended as a screening test for prostate cancer in men of any age. However, it should be offered to men who present with lower urinary tract symptoms, haematuria, or erectile dysfunction. For asymptomatic men with no family history of prostate cancer, it is important to discuss the pros and cons of the test and allow the patient to make their own decision.

      Digital rectal examination (DRE) should also be offered, and advice given on the combined use of DRE and PSA testing to detect any prostate abnormalities. If a focal abnormality suggestive of cancer is found during DRE, this alone should prompt referral, and a PSA test should be performed but would not alter the decision to refer. Similarly, an abnormal PSA with a normal DRE should also prompt referral. A normal DRE doesn’t mean that PSA testing is necessarily unwarranted.

      Family history of prostate cancer is an important factor to consider, with the risk of prostate cancer being higher in men with a family history of the disease. The patient should be counselled about the relevance of family history as part of their decision to have a PSA test. Overall, the decision to undergo PSA testing should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the potential benefits and risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - A 36-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department with drowsiness. Upon examination, he appears rigid. His concerned friends suspect neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Which of the following is not a typical feature of this condition?

      Renal failure
      16%
      Pyrexia
      5%
      Elevated creatine kinase
      6%
      Usually occurs after prolonged treatment
      68%
      Tachycardia
      5%

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is often observed in patients who have just started treatment, and renal failure may result from rhabdomyolysis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Usually occurs after prolonged treatment

      Explanation:

      Patients who have recently started treatment are commonly affected by neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which can lead to renal failure due to rhabdomyolysis.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs for Parkinson’s disease. It can also occur with atypical antipsychotics. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion. A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases.

      Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. IV fluids are given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene may be useful in selected cases. Dantrolene works by decreasing excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle by binding to the ryanodine receptor and decreasing the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, may also be used. It is important to note that neuroleptic malignant syndrome is different from serotonin syndrome, although both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - A 50-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents at the diabetes clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents at the diabetes clinic for a review. Her blood tests from three months ago showed:

      K+ 4.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 116 µmol/l
      eGFR 47 ml/min

      She was started on lisinopril to manage hypertension and act as a renoprotective agent. The medication was titrated up to treatment dose. Her current blood results are:

      K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 123 µmol/l
      eGFR 44 ml/min

      What is the most appropriate course of action among the following options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action

      Explanation:

      The slight alterations in creatinine and eGFR are within acceptable limits and do not warrant discontinuation of ACE inhibitors.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - A 57-year-old man with a history of stage 3a chronic kidney disease and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man with a history of stage 3a chronic kidney disease and hypertension presents with recurrent gout. He has experienced three episodes in the past year and requires prophylactic therapy with allopurinol. He is currently taking amlodipine and atorvastatin. What is the recommended approach for initiating allopurinol in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence allopurinol and provide colchicine to take simultaneously while starting

      Explanation:

      When starting allopurinol for this patient, it is important to use either NSAID or colchicine cover. This is because allopurinol can cause acute flares of gout due to changes in uric acid levels in the serum and tissues. Therefore, commencing allopurinol without any cover is not recommended. However, since the patient has chronic kidney disease, non-steroidal anti-inflammatories should be avoided. Indomethacin may be an alternative cover option for some patients. Prednisolone is effective but has many adverse effects and should only be used for a few days. It is important to note that this patient doesn’t have any contraindications to allopurinol, such as a history of hypersensitivity syndrome, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, having the HLA-B*5801 allele, or severe renal failure.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - A 72-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath over the past few months. He reports no current medication use but mentions experiencing back pain in recent weeks. Upon examination, initial tests show a serum creatinine level of 654 µmol/l (normal range: 60–120 µmol/l). What diagnostic test would be most beneficial in determining a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bence-Jones proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Laboratory Findings in Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be caused by various underlying conditions, and laboratory findings can help identify the specific cause. Bence-Jones proteinuria, the excretion of immunoglobulin light chains, is indicative of multiple myeloma. Other symptoms such as fatigue, breathlessness, and back pain can further support this diagnosis. Anaemia is a common occurrence in renal failure due to decreased erythropoietin production and marrow suppression. Hyperuricaemia, on the other hand, is not associated with any particular underlying cause. Hypocalcaemia is also common in renal failure, but it is typically secondary to decreased renal synthesis of calcitriol and doesn’t indicate a specific cause. Metabolic acidosis occurs in renal failure due to decreased renal acid excretion, but it alone doesn’t help differentiate between potential causes. Understanding these laboratory findings can aid in the diagnosis and management of renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - You are seeing a 65-year-old man who has come to discuss PSA testing....

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 65-year-old man who has come to discuss PSA testing. He plays tennis once a week with a friend who is on medication for his 'waterworks' and has had his PSA tested. He has come as he is not sure whether he would benefit from a PSA test.

      He is otherwise well with no specific urinary tract/genitourinary signs or symptoms. He has no significant past medical history or family history.

      Which of the following is appropriate advice to give regarding PSA testing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: For every 25 men identified with prostate cancer following a high PSA test result, subsequent treatment will save one life

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer Screening: Understanding the Limitations

      PSA testing for prostate cancer screening is a topic of debate among medical professionals. While some advocate for its use, others are wary of over-treatment and patient harm. One of the main concerns is the limitations of PSA testing in terms of its sensitivity and specificity.

      When counseling men about PSA testing, it is important to provide them with understandable statistics and facts. For instance, two-thirds of men with a raised PSA will not have prostate cancer, while 15 out of 100 with a negative PSA will have prostate cancer. Additionally, PSA testing cannot distinguish between slow- and fast-growing cancers, and many men may have slow-growing cancers that would not have impacted their life expectancy if left undiscovered.

      Another point of debate is the frequency of PSA testing. While some patients opt for annual testing, experts suggest that a normal PSA in an asymptomatic man doesn’t need to be repeated for at least two years.

      When it comes to prostate cancer treatment, approximately 48 men need to undergo treatment in order to save one life. Overall, it is important to understand the limitations of PSA testing and to weigh the potential benefits and risks before making a decision about screening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - A 68-year-old woman is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic kidney disease.
    Which complication is most...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic kidney disease.
      Which complication is most likely to occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nausea and headache

      Explanation:

      Complications of Dialysis: Understanding the Risks and Symptoms

      Dialysis is a life-saving treatment for patients with end-stage renal disease, but it is not without its risks and complications. One of the most common side effects of removing too much fluid or removing it too rapidly is hypotension, fatigue, chest pains, leg cramps, nausea, and headaches. These symptoms can persist after treatment and are sometimes referred to as the dialysis hangover or dialysis washout.

      Another rare but serious neurological complication is dialysis disequilibrium syndrome, which is characterized by weakness, dizziness, headache, and mental status changes. Hypertension, hyperkalemia, infection, amyloidosis, and malnutrition are other potential complications.

      Contrary to popular belief, hyperkalemia is more commonly seen in dialysis patients than hypokalemia. Patients who undergo hemodialysis are also at an increased risk of contracting hepatitis B, but vaccination has significantly reduced the incidence of this complication.

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism and associated osteodystrophy have been major causes of morbidity in long-term dialysis patients, but better management of calcium and phosphorus metabolism and the availability of new drugs have improved outcomes. Malnutrition and weight loss are more commonly seen than weight gain, which may be due to loss of amino acids and peptides in the dialysate, sodium restriction, and dialysis-induced hypercatabolism.

      In conclusion, understanding the risks and symptoms of dialysis complications is crucial for patients and healthcare providers to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - A 30-year-old man presents to his GP with a swollen testicle. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to his GP with a swollen testicle. Upon examination, the GP suspects a testicular tumour rather than epididymo-orchitis. What finding is most likely to have led to this suspicion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A painless testicular swelling

      Explanation:

      Testicular Tumours and Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Testicular tumours can present as painless or painful lumps or enlarged testicles, often accompanied by a dragging sensation and pain in the lower abdomen. Inflamed testicles are very tender, while malignant ones may lack normal sensation. Ultrasound is usually used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Acute epididymo-orchitis, on the other hand, is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, often caused by infections spreading from the urethra or bladder. Symptoms may include urethral discharge, hydrocele, erythema, oedema of the scrotum, and pyrexia. Orchitis, limited to the testis, is less common.

      The differential diagnosis of a testicular mass includes not only tumours and epididymo-orchitis but also testicular torsion, hydrocele, hernia, hematoma, spermatocele, and varicocele.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - Evelyn, an 80-year-old woman visits the clinic for a medication review. She has...

    Incorrect

    • Evelyn, an 80-year-old woman visits the clinic for a medication review. She has a medical history of well-controlled osteoarthritis, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and chronic kidney disease (CKD). Currently, she takes Symbicort (budesonide with formoterol) 200/6, salbutamol, and uses senna and naproxen tablets as required.

      Her recent urine sample indicates an albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 87 mg/mmol, which is higher than the previous sample taken 6 months ago, showing an ACR of 79 mg/mmol. Additionally, her serum urea and creatinine results have mildly deteriorated over the last 6 months.

      During her clinic visit, her blood pressure measures 129/76 mmHg.

      What medication changes would you suggest for Evelyn?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start ramipril and atorvastatin, consider alternatives to naproxen

      Explanation:

      Patients who have chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, all patients with CKD should be prescribed a statin for the prevention of cardiovascular disease. In the case of a patient experiencing a decline in renal function, it may be advisable to discontinue the use of naproxen, although this decision should be made in consideration of the patient’s symptoms and functional impairment. The recommended course of action would be to start the patient on ramipril and atorvastatin while exploring alternative treatments for osteoarthritis. The second option is only partially correct, as ramipril is advised regardless of blood pressure in CKD patients with this level of proteinuria. The third option doesn’t include ramipril or atorvastatin, while the fourth and fifth options do not include atorvastatin. Ultimately, the decision to discontinue naproxen use will depend on the healthcare professional’s clinical judgement, the patient’s preferences, and the frequency of use.

      Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management

      Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.

      To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.

      According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.

      The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a new patient check. His blood pressure is noted to be 152/100 mmHg so you arrange blood tests. The results include an eGFR of 55.
      Select the single correct diagnosis that can be made in this case.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of CKD and Hypertension: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hypertension. To diagnose CKD, more than one estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) reading below 60 is required over a period of three months. Similarly, hypertension should not be diagnosed based on a single blood pressure reading, but rather through ambulatory or home blood pressure monitoring. Acute kidney injury is characterized by a significant increase in serum creatinine or oliguria, and eGFR is not a reliable indicator for its diagnosis. NICE also recommends using eGFRcystatinC to confirm or rule out CKD in individuals with an eGFR of 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2, sustained for at least 90 days, and no proteinuria or other markers of kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - What is the most significant risk factor for prostate cancer among men residing...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most significant risk factor for prostate cancer among men residing in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Selenium consumption

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer Risk Factors: Surprising Findings

      When it comes to prostate cancer risk factors, there are a few surprises to be found. One of the strongest known risk factors for this disease is a family history of prostate cancer, according to Cancer Research UK. However, there are other factors that may not be as expected. For example, diabetes may actually be associated with a lower risk of prostate cancer. Additionally, while obesity and physical inactivity have been linked to many types of cancer, they have not been proven to be significant risk factors for prostate cancer. On the other hand, consuming foods high in leucopene and selenium has been associated with a reduced risk. These findings highlight the importance of understanding the unique risk factors for prostate cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - You encounter a 50-year-old man who presents with a personal issue. He has...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 50-year-old man who presents with a personal issue. He has been experiencing difficulties with achieving and maintaining erections for the past year, with a gradual worsening of symptoms. He infrequently seeks medical attention and has no prior medical history.

      What is the predominant organic etiology for this particular symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vascular causes

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for sexual activity. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, and mixed, with certain medications also contributing to the condition.

      Organic causes of ED include vasculogenic, neurogenic, structural, and hormonal factors. Among these, vasculogenic causes are the most common and are often linked to cardiovascular disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, smoking, and major pelvic surgery.

      The risk factors for ED are similar to those for cardiovascular disease and include obesity, diabetes, dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, hypertension, endothelial dysfunction, and lifestyle factors such as lack of exercise and smoking. Therefore, when evaluating a man with ED, it is important to screen for cardiovascular disease and obtain a thorough psychosexual history.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with acute retention of urine. He has a palpable bladder up to his umbilicus and is in significant discomfort. His GP sends him to the emergency department where he is catheterised and blood is taken to test his renal function. His serum creatinine concentration is 520 µmol/l (normal range 60–120 µmol/l).
      Which of the following additional results would be most suggestive that his renal failure was chronic rather than acute?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Markers for Acute and Chronic Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be classified as acute or chronic based on the duration and severity of the condition. Biochemical markers can help distinguish between the two types of renal failure.

      Hypocalcaemia is a common feature of chronic renal failure and occurs due to the gradual increase of phosphorus in the bloodstream. Low serum bicarbonate concentration is indicative of acute kidney injury and can lead to metabolic acidosis. Hyperkalaemia and hyperuricaemia can occur in both acute and chronic renal failure, while mild hyponatraemia is relatively common in both types of renal failure.

      Overall, while these biochemical markers can provide some insight into the type of renal failure, they are not definitive and should be considered in conjunction with other clinical factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - A 45-year-old man received a kidney transplant for end-stage renal disease. After four...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man received a kidney transplant for end-stage renal disease. After four weeks, he experiences fever, night sweats, and myalgia. He visits his General Practitioner and is referred to the Nephrology Clinic. His CXR reveals bilateral diffuse interstitial pneumonia. What is the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Post-Transplant Infections: Common Causes and Symptoms

      Renal transplant patients are at risk for various infections due to immunosuppressive therapy. One of the most common infections is caused by cytomegalovirus, which typically presents with nonspecific symptoms such as fever and myalgia. A chest X-ray may reveal bilateral interstitial or reticulonodular infiltrates that start in the lower lobes and spread outwards. Epstein-Barr virus can also cause complications post-transplant, leading to lymphoproliferative disease. However, this tends to develop months to years after transplantation and would not account for the CXR results. Herpes simplex virus usually results in oral or anogenital lesions, while Mycobacterium tuberculosis can present with fever and night sweats but would not explain the diffuse CXR findings. Varicella-zoster virus is more likely to cause a classic Chickenpox rash or shingles-type rash. It is important to monitor for these infections and promptly treat them to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of severe pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of severe pain in the left flank and left lower abdomen with radiation to the left testicle. He reports that he woke up with the pain, but was “fine last night”. The clinician suspects uncomplicated renal colic.
      What feature would best support this diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haematuria

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Renal Colic

      Renal colic is a condition characterized by sudden and severe pain caused by stones in the urinary tract. The pain typically starts in the loin and moves to the groin, with tenderness in the renal angle. Patients with renal colic may experience periods of relief or dull aches before the pain returns. Other symptoms include microscopic haematuria, nausea, and vomiting. Unlike patients with peritoneal irritation, those with renal colic may writhe around in agony and have increased bowel sounds. Apyrexia is common in uncomplicated cases, while pyrexia suggests infection. It’s important to note that although there may be severe pain in the testis, the testis itself should not be tender. Understanding these symptoms can help with the diagnosis and management of renal colic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - You encounter a 65-year-old woman who recently underwent a medication review and had...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 65-year-old woman who recently underwent a medication review and had urea and electrolytes performed. You have access to her previous results from 6 months ago for comparison. She has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril. During examination, her blood pressure is measured at 135/80 mmHg.

      Current blood test results:

      - Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 6.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 125 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 54 ml/min/1.73m2

      Blood test results from 6 months ago:

      - Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 5.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 122 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 55 ml/min/1.73m2

      What medication should be added to this woman's current regimen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      According to NICE criteria, patients with CKD should be prescribed a statin for the prevention of CVD. This patient meets the criteria as she has a persistent reduction in renal function. Antiplatelet treatment is not necessary for secondary prevention of CVD in this patient. Losartan is not required as her blood pressure is well controlled and a combination of renin-angiotensin system antagonists should not be prescribed to patients with CKD. Metformin has no role in the management of CKD in non-diabetic patients.

      Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - A 45-year-old woman with stage 3a chronic kidney disease visits her primary care...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with stage 3a chronic kidney disease visits her primary care physician to receive the results of her yearly eGFR test. The following are her eGFR results from the past three years:

      Date 10/31/17 10/31/18 10/31/19
      eGFR (ml/min/1.73m²) 59 51 35

      What would be the most suitable course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to nephrologist

      Explanation:

      CKD is diagnosed when there is evidence of kidney damage or a decrease in kidney function for at least three months. This can be determined by a persistent eGFR of less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 or a change in GFR category or sustained decrease in eGFR of 15 mL/min/1.73 m2 or more within 12 months. Additionally, a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless proteinuria is known to be associated with diabetes mellitus and is managed appropriately, or a urinary ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more together with persistent haematuria, after exclusion of a urinary tract infection (UTI), can also indicate CKD. Other indications include hypertension that remains uncontrolled despite the use of at least four antihypertensive drugs at therapeutic doses, a suspected or confirmed rare or genetic cause of CKD, such as polycystic kidney disease, suspected renal artery stenosis, or a suspected complication of CKD.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his scrotum...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his scrotum on one side. He mentioned experiencing dysuria and frequency last week, but it went away on its own. Upon examination, there was a tender swelling at the back of his left testicle. The patient is in good health otherwise and has normal vital signs.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicocele

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for Testicular Pain

      The most probable diagnosis for testicular pain in this scenario is epididymo-orchitis. This condition is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis and testes, often following a UTI or sexually transmitted infection. While testicular torsion is also a possibility, the patient’s age, recent UTI, and mild pain make it less likely. However, if the patient experiences severe pain, testicular torsion should be considered and referred to emergency care. Other potential differentials exist, but epididymo-orchitis is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - A 28-year-old man with a history of hypertension and intermittent loin pain presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with a history of hypertension and intermittent loin pain presents to his new GP for registration after moving house. During urine testing, evidence of haematuria is found. The patient has a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage.
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Kidney Conditions: ADPKD, Glomerulonephritis, Renal Stones, Renal Cell Carcinoma, and Urinary Tract Infection

      The kidneys are vital organs responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and regulating fluid balance in the body. However, they can be affected by various conditions that can lead to significant health problems. Here are some common kidney conditions and their characteristics:

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
      ADPKD is a genetic disorder that causes the growth of multiple cysts in the kidneys, leading to kidney enlargement and dysfunction. Symptoms may include hypertension, painless haematuria, intermittent loin pain, and a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage. ACE inhibitors are the first-line treatment for hypertension in ADPKD patients.

      Glomerulonephritis
      Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation within the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can present with a range of symptoms, from asymptomatic urinary abnormalities to the nephritic and nephrotic syndromes.

      Renal Stones
      Renal stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause sudden severe renal colic. They may be asymptomatic and discovered during investigations for other conditions.

      Renal Cell Carcinoma
      Renal cell carcinoma is a type of kidney cancer that can be detected using ultrasound and CT scans. More than half of adult renal tumours are detected when using ultrasound to investigate nonspecific symptoms. The classic features of haematuria, loin pain, and loin mass are not as frequently seen now.

      Urinary Tract Infection
      Urinary tract infection is a common condition that presents acutely. It occurs when bacteria enter the urinary tract and cause inflammation and infection. Symptoms may include pain or burning during urination, frequent urination, and cloudy or bloody urine.

      In conclusion, understanding the characteristics of common kidney conditions can help with early detection and appropriate management, leading to better outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - You see a 30-year-old gentleman who is being investigated for subfertility. His semen...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 30-year-old gentleman who is being investigated for subfertility. His semen analysis result shows a mild oligozoospermia.

      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat test in 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Repeat Confirmatory Semen Analysis and Other Fertility Advice

      According to NICE, it is recommended to repeat confirmatory semen analysis after 3 months (12 weeks) from the initial test. This is to allow the cycle of spermatozoa to be completed. However, if there is a significant deficiency in spermatozoa, a repeat test should be taken as early as possible.

      While it is known that elevated scrotal temperatures can reduce semen quality, it is uncertain whether wearing loose-fitting underwear can improve fertility. Nevertheless, it is still advisable to wear looser underwear while trying to conceive.

      Screening for antisperm antibodies is not recommended as there is no effective treatment to improve fertility. The significance of these antibodies is still unclear.

      Overall, these recommendations can help couples who are trying to conceive to take practical steps towards improving their fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He reports no dysuria, fever, or other symptoms and feels generally well. He is currently taking apixaban, atenolol, simvastatin, and ramipril due to a history of myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. A urine dipstick test shows positive for blood but negative for leukocytes and nitrites. What is the best course of action for management? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer him under the 2-week wait pathway to urology for suspected cancer

      Explanation:

      Management of Painless Haematuria: Choosing the Right Pathway

      When a patient presents with painless haematuria, it is important to choose the right management pathway. In this case, a 2-week wait referral to urology for suspected cancer is the appropriate course of action for a patient over 45 years old with unexplained haematuria. Routine referral to urology is not sufficient in this case.

      Sending a mid-stream urine sample for culture and sensitivity and starting antibiotics is not recommended unless there are accompanying symptoms such as dysuria or fever. Referring for an abdominal X-ray and ultrasound is also not the best option as a CT scan is more appropriate for ruling out bladder or renal carcinoma.

      It is also important to note that while anticoagulants like apixaban can increase the risk of bleeding, they do not explain the underlying cause of haematuria. Therefore, reviewing the use of apixaban alone is not sufficient in managing painless haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - A 49-year-old patient sees you as part of a health check-up.
    He asks you...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old patient sees you as part of a health check-up.
      He asks you your views about whether he should have a PSA (prostate-specific antigen) check.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient should be dissuaded from a PSA check as there is no evidence that screening for prostate cancer improves mortality rates from the disease

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing and Prostate Cancer Screening

      Current advice from the Department of Health states that patients should not be refused a PSA test if they request one. However, patients should be informed about the implications of the test. While there is no clear evidence to support mass prostate cancer screening, studies have shown that diagnosing patients through case presentation has led to improved cancer mortality rates in the USA. It is important to note that many patients with prostate cancer do not experience symptoms, and urinary symptoms are not always indicative of the disease. Additionally, prostate cancer can develop in patients as young as their fifth decade of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - Karen, a 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes, visits her practice diabetic nurse...

    Incorrect

    • Karen, a 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes, visits her practice diabetic nurse for her annual diabetes review. The nurse informs her that her HbA1c has increased since her last visit. Karen's results are as follows:

      HbA1c 7.9% (63 mmol/mol)

      Karen assures the nurse that she has been taking all her medications as prescribed, which include metformin 1g twice daily, gliclazide 160 mg twice daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg once daily.

      The nurse suggests that gliclazide may not be effective in controlling her hyperglycaemia at this point and recommends that Karen switch to empagliflozin. Karen agrees but asks about the common side effects of the new medication.

      What are the potential side effects of empagliflozin that should be discussed with Karen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of urinary tract infections

      Explanation:

      Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors, such as empagliflozin, have been linked to an increased risk of urinary tract infections, which is a common side effect that should be discussed with patients, especially females. While hypoglycemia is possible with SGLT2 inhibitors, it is typically only a concern when taken in combination with insulin or sulfonylurea, and may not require stopping other medications. Clinical studies have not shown any increase in renal calculi, and some studies suggest that SGLT2 inhibitors may even be renoprotective. Additionally, SGLT2 inhibitors do not cause weight gain and may even lead to weight loss. However, it is important to note that these medications can rarely cause serious conditions such as Fournier’s gangrene and atypical ketoacidosis, and patients should be warned about the symptoms of these conditions and advised to seek prompt medical attention if necessary.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - You see a 70-year-old patient with diabetes, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease (CKD)....

    Incorrect

    • You see a 70-year-old patient with diabetes, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease (CKD). He had an anterior myocardial infarction (MI) 2 months ago for which he had a stent. He is having his annual review when he mentions that he has suffered from erectile dysfunction for the last 2 years. He says that it came on gradually and that he now never has erections anymore, in any situation. He has been married for 45 years and this is having an effect on his relationship with his wife.

      His blood pressure today is 135/85 mmHg. Recent blood tests reveal that his blood glucose levels are well controlled on oral medications and his CKD is stable. He takes regular exercise.

      What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient's erectile dysfunction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A vacuum erection device along with lifestyle advice

      Explanation:

      The NICE clinical knowledge summary (CKS) guidelines recommend phosphodiesterase (PDE-5) inhibitors, such as sildenafil and tadalafil, as the first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction (ED) unless there are contraindications. However, those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors may benefit from vacuum erection devices, which are recommended as the first-line treatment for well-informed older men with infrequent sexual intercourse and comorbidity requiring non-invasive, drug-free management of ED. Lifestyle changes and risk factor modification should also be considered, but this patient already has good control of his risk factors and regularly exercises. Intracavernous injections may be a second-line option for men with pelvic trauma or spinal cord injury. Vasculogenic causes, such as cardiovascular disease, are the most common organic cause of ED, and lifestyle changes and drug treatment can be effective in managing this condition.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - You assess a 60-year-old man who is undergoing surgery. He has been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 60-year-old man who is undergoing surgery. He has been diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy for 3 years and is currently taking tamsulosin and finasteride to manage his symptoms. However, he has been experiencing worsening symptoms of poor flow, hesitancy, nocturia, weight loss, and back pain for the past 2 months. You order a prostate-specific antigen test, which returns a result of 2.5ng/mL - within the normal range for his age. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from prostate cancer. Despite having well-controlled BPH with medication, he has developed new lower urinary tract symptoms along with red flag features such as weight loss and back pain. Although his PSA levels are normal, it should be noted that he is taking finasteride which can lower PSA levels. The duration of symptoms and weight loss over a period of 3 months are not indicative of a urinary tract infection. It is also unlikely that the patient is suffering from treatment-resistant BPH after successfully managing the condition for 5 years. While spinal cord compression can cause urinary symptoms, it is unlikely to cause nocturia or flow issues.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - A 36-year-old man comes to the clinic with his partner seeking evaluation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man comes to the clinic with his partner seeking evaluation for infertility. He gives a specimen that shows azoospermia. He has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicocoele

      Explanation:

      Retrograde Ejaculation as a Cause of Infertility

      Retrograde ejaculation is a condition that can lead to infertility in men. It may occur after surgery for benign prostatic hyperplasia or due to chronic urethral scarring caused by recurrent infections. In retrograde ejaculation, semen is redirected to the bladder instead of being expelled through the penis during ejaculation. This can make it difficult or impossible for sperm to reach the female reproductive system and fertilize an egg, leading to infertility. It is important to note that there are no other known causes of infertility in this case, based on the patient’s history and examination findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - A 27 year-old female patient, who is not pregnant, reports experiencing dysuria, urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year-old female patient, who is not pregnant, reports experiencing dysuria, urinary frequency, and low abdominal pain for the past two days. She denies having a fever or loin pain and is not currently menstruating. Upon conducting a urine dip, it was discovered that she has 3+ leucocytes, nitrites, and 2+ blood. The patient has no prior history of UTI. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send a urine sample for culture and treat with oral antibiotics for 3 days

      Explanation:

      For women with haematuria and suspected UTI, NICE recommends urine culture and sensitivity to confirm infection. Treatment with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for 3 days is recommended, which may be extended to 5-10 days in certain cases. After treatment, urine should be re-tested for blood. Persistent haematuria requires urgent referral to exclude urological cancer. For non-visible haematuria in women under 50, urine albumin/creatinine ratio and serum creatinine levels should be measured. Referral to a renal physician is necessary if there is proteinuria or declining eGFR, and referral to a urologist is needed if eGFR is normal and there is no proteinuria.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - A 67-year-old man who has type II diabetes attends his general practice surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man who has type II diabetes attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He takes metformin and gliclazide.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 130/80 mmHg. There are no signs of retinopathy. He feels well.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) 53 mmol/mol < 43 mmol/mol
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 55 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
      Albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) 5.4 mg/mmol (up from 3.0 mg/mmol three months ago) < 1.0 mg/mmol
      What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Managing Chronic Kidney Disease in a Patient with Diabetes: Treatment Options

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a common complication of diabetes, and early management is crucial to slow progression. In a patient with diabetic nephropathy and stage 3a CKD, the following treatment options are available:

      1. Start an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor: This is the most appropriate first-line treatment to reduce the risk of all-cause mortality in patients with diabetic kidney disease.

      2. Refer him to a Nephrologist: Management of CKD requires specialized care to slow progression.

      3. Optimise his diabetic control and repeat the test in six months: While important, diabetic control should not be the focus of immediate management in this patient.

      4. Start a direct renin inhibitor: This treatment is not a priority as the patient’s blood pressure is already below the target.

      5. Start a low-protein diet and repeat urinalysis in six months: Dietary protein restriction is not recommended in early-stage CKD, but high-protein intake should be avoided in stage 4 CKD under the guidance of a dietitian.

      In conclusion, early management of CKD in patients with diabetes is crucial to slow progression and reduce the risk of mortality. Treatment options should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and managed by a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - A 65-year-old female presents to your clinic with complaints of increased urgency to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents to your clinic with complaints of increased urgency to urinate and frequent leakage of urine. A urinary dipstick test shows no abnormalities, and a vaginal examination is unremarkable. Malignancy is not suspected. What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient's urgency urinary incontinence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder retraining

      Explanation:

      The initial treatment for urge incontinence is bladder retraining, while pelvic floor muscle training is the first-line approach for stress incontinence. Toileting aids alone are not effective in resolving urge incontinence and should not be recommended as the primary treatment. Oxybutynin and botulin injections may be considered as secondary treatment options if necessary.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - Which of the following factors is most likely to render the use of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors is most likely to render the use of the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation inappropriate for calculating an individual's eGFR, assuming the patient is 65 years old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, GFR typically experiences an increase, although this may not be reflected in the eGFR.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - A 60-year-old woman with longstanding diabetes presents with proteinuria. Her serum creatinine level...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman with longstanding diabetes presents with proteinuria. Her serum creatinine level is normal.
      What is the most common renal complication in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerulosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Diabetes Mellitus: Diabetic Nephropathy

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body. People with diabetes are at a higher risk of developing atherosclerosis, urinary infections, and papillary necrosis. However, the most significant complications arise from diabetic nephropathy, which affects the glomeruli in the kidneys.

      There are three major histological changes that occur in the glomeruli of people with diabetic nephropathy. Firstly, hyperglycemia directly induces mesangial expansion. Secondly, the glomerular basement membrane thickens. Finally, glomerular sclerosis occurs due to intraglomerular hypertension, which can be caused by a dilated afferent renal artery or ischaemic injury.

      It is important to note that obstructive uropathy is not a common complication of diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals with diabetes to manage their blood glucose levels and undergo regular kidney function tests to prevent and manage diabetic nephropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - A 70-year-old man has had a low-grade non-invasive papillary carcinoma completely removed from...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has had a low-grade non-invasive papillary carcinoma completely removed from his bladder by cystoscopy.
      What is the most probable long-term result for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tumour recurrence

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Complications and Prognosis of Bladder Cancer

      Bladder cancer is a common malignancy with a high recurrence rate. While superficial tumors have a good prognosis, they are likely to recur even after complete resection. Patients with low-risk cancers can be managed through transurethral resection, while high-risk tumors may require intravesical immunotherapy with Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) to prevent progression to invasive disease. Metastases is less likely in patients with superficial tumors, but recurrent urinary infections may occur in the postoperative period. Urinary retention is not a common long-term complication. Overall, understanding the complications and prognosis of bladder cancer is crucial for effective management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic worried about red discoloration of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic worried about red discoloration of his urine. He was diagnosed with a DVT two months ago and has been taking warfarin, with his most recent INR test two days ago showing a result of 2.7. During the examination, no abnormalities are found, but his dipstick urine test shows +++ of blood and + protein. A urine culture comes back negative. What is the probable cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Consideration of Occult Neoplasia in a Patient with Unexplained Haematuria and Previous DVT

      This patient is presenting with unexplained haematuria and has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of underlying occult neoplasia of the renal tract. The most likely diagnoses in this case are bladder cancer or renal carcinoma, as it is uncommon for prostate cancer to present with haematuria.

      It is important to note that warfarin alone is an unlikely cause of the haematuria, as the patient’s international normalized ratio (INR) is within the target range. Further investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the haematuria and to rule out any potential neoplastic processes. Proper diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing further complications and improving the patient’s overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - A 52-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She has also had similar incidents while exercising in the gym, which has caused significant embarrassment and now wears pads whenever she goes out.

      She denies urinary urgency or frequency and opens her bladder once at night. She has no bowel-related symptoms.

      She has tried pelvic floor exercises with support from a women's health physiotherapist for the past 6 months but still finds the symptoms very debilitating. She denies feeling depressed. She is keen to try further treatment, although is frightened by the prospect of surgery and would prefer alternative measures.

      Urinalysis is unremarkable. On vaginal examination, there is no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.

      What is the next most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer a trial of duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle training is the most effective and cost-efficient treatment for stress urinary incontinence in women. Ring pessaries are an alternative non-surgical option for pelvic organ prolapse. Oxybutynin is typically used for urge incontinence, but in this scenario, the patient only presents with stress incontinence. While a referral to urogynaecology may be considered for further investigation or surgery, it is not necessary under the 2-week-wait pathway. Pelvic floor exercises should be attempted for at least 3 months under the guidance of a continence adviser, specialist nurse, or women’s health physiotherapist. As the patient’s symptoms persist after 6 months of trying this approach, it is not advisable to continue with the same strategy.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - A 65-year-old woman with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue and loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue and loss of appetite of recent origin. Her serum creatinine is 230 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l) and urea is 13.5 mmol/l (2.5-6.5 mmol/l). She has taken diclofenac for pain relief for several years.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this side-effect of diclofenac.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is likely to be reversible if the drug is stopped

      Explanation:

      The Renal Risks of NSAIDs

      One of the most common renal problems is sodium retention, which leads to water retention and oedema. This issue is particularly concerning for patients with pre-existing heart failure, as it can worsen their condition. Additionally, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone, especially in patients with diabetes, heart failure, or multiple myeloma. If the patient is taking potassium-sparing diuretics or ACE inhibitors, the hyperkalaemia may be more severe.

      NSAIDs can cause two types of acute renal failure. The first is haemodynamically mediated, where inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis can lead to reversible renal ischemia, a fall in GFR, and acute renal failure. The second is direct toxic effects on the kidney, such as acute tubular necrosis and acute interstitial nephritis. Adverse renal effects are generally reversible upon discontinuation of NSAID treatment. Glomerulosclerosis, typically caused by diabetes, can also be caused by drug-induced glomerular disease, including that caused by NSAIDs.

      High-dose NSAID use may significantly increase the risk of accelerated renal function decline in patients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, caution should always be exercised when using NSAIDs, and they should be given at the lowest effective dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - A 55-year-old man has recently read about prostate cancer and asks whether he...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has recently read about prostate cancer and asks whether he should undergo a digital rectal examination to assess his prostate.
      For which of the following would it be most appropriate to conduct a digital rectal examination (DRE) to assess prostate size and consistency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In a patient with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing: Important Considerations

      In patients with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), it is important to consider the possibility of locally advanced prostate cancer causing obstructive LUTS. Therefore, a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test and digital rectal exam (DRE) should be offered to men with obstructive symptoms.

      While family history is a significant risk factor for prostate cancer, a grandfather’s history of the disease may not be as significant as a first-degree relative’s (father or brother) history.

      If a man presents with symptoms of urinary tract infection, it is important to investigate and treat the infection before considering any PSA testing. Prostate cancer typically doesn’t cause symptoms of urinary tract infection.

      Currently, there is no formal screening program for prostate cancer. However, men may choose to request a PSA test after being informed of the potential benefits and risks. It is important to note that DRE alone should not be used for screening.

      Prior to testing for PSA, it is recommended to perform DRE at least a week prior as it can falsely elevate PSA levels.

      Key Considerations for Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - A 25-year-old male presents with a testicular mass.

    On examination the mass is painless,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents with a testicular mass.

      On examination the mass is painless, approximately 2 cm in diameter, hard, with an irregular surface and doesn't transilluminate.

      What is the most likely cause of the lump?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      Tumour Diagnosis Based on Lump Characteristics

      The lump’s characteristics suggest that it is a tumour, specifically due to its hard and irregular nature. However, the patient’s age is a crucial factor in determining the type of tumour. Teratomas are more commonly found in patients aged 20-30, while seminomas are prevalent in those aged 30-50. Teratomas are gonadal tumours that originate from multipotent cells present in the ovaries.

      In summary, the characteristics of a lump can provide valuable information in diagnosing a tumour. However, age is also a crucial factor in determining the type of tumour, as different types of tumours are more prevalent in certain age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - A 72-year-old lady presents with urinary incontinence. Her history appears to be consistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old lady presents with urinary incontinence. Her history appears to be consistent with stress incontinence. She describes large leaks of urine over the past six months. She often leaks urine when coughing or climbing up stairs and sometimes wakes up a few times at night to urinate. She doesn't complain of dysuria or haematuria. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender and urinalysis is normal. Her BMI is 25.1 and she doesn't smoke. She has tried pelvic floor exercises for 9 months which haven't worked. She is not keen on surgery.
      What medication is licensed for urinary stress incontinence in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Urinary Incontinence

      Urinary stress incontinence can be managed through lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine intake, maintaining steady fluid intake, losing weight, and quitting smoking. Pelvic floor exercises can also be helpful. If these measures are not effective, surgical options may be considered. Duloxetine can be used as a second-line treatment if the patient prefers medical grounds or if surgery is not an option. For urge incontinence, first-line medications include solifenacin, oxybutynin, and tolterodine. Desmopressin is used for conditions such as diabetes insipidus, multiple sclerosis, enuresis, and haemophilia and von Willebrand’s disease. By following these treatment options, patients can manage their urinary incontinence and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - You see a 65-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared suddenly last week and is painful. He has no other relevant past medical history.

      On examination, he has what feels like a varicocele in his right scrotum. He has a swelling which feels like a 'bag of worms' and is above his right testicle. It remains there when he lies down.

      You discuss the fact that you think he has a varicocele with the patient. Which statement below is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: About 90% of varicoceles occur on the left side

      Explanation:

      It is common for men with a varicocele to experience pain or a sensation of heaviness or dragging in the scrotum. However, a varicocele on the right side alone is uncommon and requires referral to a urologist. Additionally, around 25% of men with abnormal semen parameters are found to have a varicocele, and this condition affects 40% of infertile men.

      Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.

      Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.

      In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - A 5-year-old girl presents with her mother with complaints of nonspecific abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with her mother with complaints of nonspecific abdominal pain. Her family are refugees and she was born in a refugee camp in Greece. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen shows an enlarged, irregular cystic kidney on the left side. A renal biopsy has shown dysplasia.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multicystic dysplastic kidney

      Explanation:

      Renal Abnormalities: Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney, Hypospadias, Infantile Polycystic Kidney Disease, Potter Syndrome, and Renal Fusion

      Renal abnormalities can present in various forms, each with its own unique characteristics. One such abnormality is multicystic dysplastic kidney, which is identified by the presence of multiple non-communicating cysts of varying sizes in the absence of a normal pelvicalyceal system. Unilateral disease is usually asymptomatic and can remain undetected into adulthood. Hypospadias, on the other hand, is a condition where the urethral opening is not at the usual location on the head of the penis, but below it. It is diagnosed on clinical examination.

      Infantile polycystic kidney disease is always bilateral and is characterised by both renal and hepatobiliary disease, which can be severe. Potter syndrome, which usually has a very poor prognosis, is diagnosed at birth and occurs when there is antenatal oligohydramnios secondary to renal disease, usually bilateral renal agenesis. Lastly, renal fusion, also known as horseshoe kidney, is formed by fusion across the midline of two distinct functioning kidneys, one on each side of the midline. Ultrasound scanning can identify various findings, such as a curved configuration of the lower poles, elongation of the lower poles, and poorly defined lower poles, which suggest the presence of horseshoe kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - You encounter a 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean man who wishes to discuss his struggles with...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean man who wishes to discuss his struggles with erectile dysfunction. He has been experiencing difficulty achieving and maintaining erections for the past 8 months.

      The patient's medical history includes hypertension and sickle cell disease, for which he takes ramipril and amlodipine. He maintains a healthy body mass index and regularly exercises for an hour five days a week, primarily using the treadmill and weights. He doesn't smoke but consumes approximately 4 units of alcohol daily.

      What is the risk factor for erectile dysfunction in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High alcohol intake

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by various factors, including organic and psychogenic causes, as well as certain drugs. Some drugs that can cause ED include antihypertensives, diuretics, antidepressants, and recreational drugs like marijuana. High alcohol intake is also a well-known cause of ED, and this risk is increased when a person drinks more than the recommended safe amount.

      Among the organic causes of ED, vasculogenic causes are the most common, including cardiovascular disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, and smoking. By modifying risk factors and receiving treatment, most patients can experience significant improvement. This includes controlling blood pressure and lipid levels, losing weight, quitting smoking, increasing exercise, and reducing alcohol intake. However, excessive cycling can worsen ED.

      Treatment for ED often involves the use of phosphodiesterase inhibitors (PDE5), unless there are contraindications. For instance, sickle cell disease increases the risk of priapism (persistent erection), so caution is necessary when prescribing PDE5 inhibitors to patients with this condition. However, sickle cell disease doesn’t increase the risk of ED per se.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - A 60-year-old man presents with unprovoked, painless, macroscopic haematuria. Dipstick testing confirms the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with unprovoked, painless, macroscopic haematuria. Dipstick testing confirms the presence of blood but no leukocytes or nitrites.
      Select the most likely cause of these symptoms.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder tumour

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Macroscopic Haematuria by Age

      Macroscopic haematuria, or visible blood in the urine, can be a concerning symptom that may indicate a serious underlying condition. The causes of macroscopic haematuria can vary depending on the age and gender of the patient. In general, painless macroscopic haematuria in an adult should be considered a potential sign of renal tract cancer until proven otherwise.

      For patients under 20 years old, glomerulopathies (especially IgA nephropathy), thin basement membrane disease, urinary infection, congenital malformation, hereditary nephritis (Alport’s Syndrome), and sickle cell disease are the most likely causes.

      For patients between 20 and 60 years old, urinary infection, nephrolithiasis, endometriosis, bladder, prostate, and renal cancers are the most common causes. The risk of cancer increases significantly after the age of 35-50.

      For patients over 60 years old, the most likely causes of macroscopic haematuria differ by gender. In males, cancer and prostatitis are the most common causes, while in females, cancer and urinary infection are the most common causes.

      It is important to note that while these age-related trends can be helpful in guiding diagnostic testing and treatment, almost any disease can affect anyone at any age. Therefore, a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the underlying cause of macroscopic haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of loin...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of loin pain and haematuria. The GP refers him to the Nephrology Department for further investigation. A renal ultrasound (US) shows multiple bilateral renal cysts.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Screening for it is usually delayed until an individual is an adult

      Explanation:

      Screening for autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) in family members of affected individuals is typically delayed until they reach 20 years of age due to a high false-negative rate in childhood screening. However, there is ongoing debate about the benefits of earlier screening with more reliable ultrasound scanning. Loin pain is a common presenting symptom in newly diagnosed individuals, which can occur in the abdomen, side, and lower back. ADPKD is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion, and while an autosomal-recessive form of PKD exists, it is much less common. ADPKD can also affect other organs, such as the liver and pancreas, and can lead to renal failure in many elderly individuals, with about 50% requiring dialysis or transplantation before the age of 60.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - A 30-year-old patient who has been under your care for four years contacts...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old patient who has been under your care for four years contacts you over the phone, requesting antibiotics for a suspected UTI. She complains of dysuria and frequency for the past two days and had a confirmed UTI with the same symptoms last year. As per GMC guidelines, what would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibiotics can be prescribed, with normal safeguards and advice

      Explanation:

      GMC Guidelines for Prescribing and Managing Medicines and Devices

      Prescribing and managing medicines and devices is a crucial aspect of a doctor’s role. The General Medical Council (GMC) has published guidelines for good practice in prescribing medicines, which were last updated in 2008. The principles of prescribing include only prescribing drugs to meet the identified needs of patients and avoiding treating oneself or those close to them. Doctors with full registration may prescribe all medicines except those in Schedule 1 of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001.

      To ensure that doctors prescribe in patients’ best interests, the guidelines recommend keeping up to date with the British National Formulary (BNF), National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), and Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN). Doctors should also report adverse reactions to medicines to the Committee on the Safety of Medicines through the Yellow Card Scheme. If a nurse or other healthcare professional without prescribing rights recommends a treatment, the doctor must ensure that the prescription is appropriate for the patient and that the professional is competent to have recommended it.

      The guidelines also address doctors’ interests in pharmacies, emphasizing the importance of ensuring that patients have access to information about any financial or commercial interests the doctor or their employer may have in a pharmacy. When it comes to prescribing controlled drugs for oneself or someone close, doctors should avoid doing so whenever possible and should be registered with a GP outside their family. If no other person with the legal right to prescribe is available, doctors may prescribe a controlled drug only if it is immediately necessary to save a life, avoid serious deterioration in the patient’s health, or alleviate otherwise uncontrollable pain.

      Finally, the guidelines provide recommendations for remote prescribing via telephone, email, fax, video link, or a website. While this is supported, doctors must give an explanation of the processes involved in remote consultations and provide their name and GMC number to the patient if they are not providing continuing care. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that they prescribe and manage medicines and devices in the best interests of their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - You are reviewing some pathology results and come across the renal function results...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing some pathology results and come across the renal function results of a 75-year-old man. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 59 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his results are as follows:

      Na+ 142 mmol/l
      K+ 4.0 mmol/l
      Urea 5.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 92 µmol/l

      You look back through his notes and see that he had blood taken as part of his annual review two weeks ago when his eGFR was at 58 (mL/min/1.73 m2). These current blood tests are a repeat organised by another doctor.

      He takes 10 mg of Lisinopril for hypertension but he has no other past medical history.

      You plan to have a telephone conversation with him regarding his renal function.

      What is the correct information to give this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If her eGFR remains below 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 on at least 2 occasions separated by at least 90 days you can then diagnose CKD

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where there is an abnormality in kidney function or structure that lasts for more than three months and has implications for health. Diagnosis of CKD requires an eGFR of less than 60 on at least two occasions, separated by a minimum of 90 days. CKD can range from mild to end-stage renal disease, with associated protein and/or blood leakage into the urine. Common causes of CKD include diabetes, hypertension, nephrotoxic drugs, obstructive kidney disease, and multi-system diseases. Early diagnosis and treatment of CKD aim to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and progression to end-stage renal disease. Testing for CKD involves measuring creatinine levels in the blood, sending an early morning urine sample for albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) measurement, and dipping the urine for haematuria. CKD is diagnosed when tests persistently show a reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. This requires an eGFR persistently less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 and/or ACR persistently greater than 3 mg/mmol. To confirm the diagnosis of CKD, a repeat blood test is necessary at least 90 days after the first one. For instance, a lady needs to provide an early morning urine sample for haematuria dipping and ACR measurement, and another blood test after 90 days to confirm CKD diagnosis.

      Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic for a new patient medical evaluation....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic for a new patient medical evaluation. During his assessment, his urine dipstick test reveals the presence of blood+ and protein+. He reports no lower urinary tract symptoms or history of visible haematuria, and has no significant medical history. His blood pressure measures 140/92 mmHg. Over the course of the next two weeks, he submits two additional urine samples, both of which continue to show blood+ and protein+. A blood test reveals mildly elevated creatinine levels within the normal range and an eGFR of 60 ml/min. What is the most appropriate management approach for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a urologist

      Explanation:

      Microscopic Haematuria and Proteinuria: Clinical Relevance and Referral

      Here we have an incidental finding of microscopic haematuria and proteinuria. Microscopic haematuria is considered clinically relevant if present on at least two out of three samples tested at weekly intervals. A dipstick showing ‘trace’ blood should be considered negative, while blood 1+ or more is significant. Additionally, this patient has persistent proteinuria 1+ in all samples.

      If there had been no proteinuria, a non-urgent referral to a urologist would have been the best approach given the patient’s age. However, with the presence of proteinuria, referral to a renal physician is indicated as per NICE guidance. It is important to consider these findings and take appropriate action to ensure the best possible patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He has been lethargic and anorexic. He describes his urine is frothy. Dipstick testing of urine reveals a trace of blood but is strongly positive for protein. His blood pressure is 140/85. There are no other abnormal physical signs. He takes no medication apart from ibuprofen for intermittent backache.
      Select the single most likely cause for this.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome: Causes and Mechanisms

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. The primary causes of nephrotic syndrome include minimal-change nephropathy, focal glomerulosclerosis, and membranous nephropathy, while secondary causes include systemic diseases and drugs. Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults.

      The glomerular structural changes that may cause proteinuria involve damage to the endothelial surface, the glomerular basement membrane, or the podocytes. In membranous glomerulonephritis, immune complexes localize between the outer aspects of the basement membrane and the podocytes.

      If left untreated, nephrotic syndrome can progress to end-stage renal failure in 30-50% of patients. However, some patients with idiopathic membranous nephropathy may experience complete or partial spontaneous remission of nephrotic syndrome with stable renal function.

      It is important to differentiate nephrotic syndrome from other kidney conditions such as diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, acute tubular necrosis, and acute interstitial nephritis. Understanding the causes and mechanisms of nephrotic syndrome can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - You observe a 20-year-old male with a left-sided varicocele that has been present...

    Incorrect

    • You observe a 20-year-old male with a left-sided varicocele that has been present for a few months. The varicocele is not causing him any discomfort and has not increased in size, measuring about 2 cm in diameter. During examination, the varicocele is only noticeable when the patient performs the Valsalva manoeuvre. The patient expresses concern about his future fertility, despite not having any immediate plans for children.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Men should not be offered surgery for varicoceles as a form of fertility treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.

      Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.

      In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - A 70-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with symptoms consistent with membranous glomerulonephritis.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with symptoms consistent with membranous glomerulonephritis.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely be responsible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gold

      Explanation:

      Renal Complications in Rheumatoid Arthritis Treatment

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints and can lead to disability. The use of gold, penicillamine, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents as disease-modifying drugs in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can result in renal complications. Membranous glomerulonephritis is a common complication that occurs due to the widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane. Immunofluorescence reveals granular deposits of immunoglobulin and complement. Methotrexate, another drug used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can also be toxic to the kidney in large doses. However, such doses are unlikely in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor renal function in patients receiving these medications to prevent renal complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of perineal and lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of perineal and lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. He also reports urinary frequency, dysuria, and poor urinary flow. He decided to seek medical attention now because he has been experiencing some discomfort during ejaculation over the last week. During rectal examination, the physician notes a tender, normal sized prostate gland. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic prostatitis

      Explanation:

      The individual in question is suffering from chronic prostatitis, which is characterized by symptoms lasting for at least three months. These symptoms may include pain in various areas such as the perineum, abdomen, lower back, inguinal region, scrotum, testis, or penis. Additionally, the patient may experience lower urinary tract symptoms or sexual dysfunction, such as erectile dysfunction, premature ejaculation, discomfort during ejaculation, or decreased libido. It is important to note that urethritis would not cause perineal pain or lower urinary tract symptoms, while benign prostatic hyperplasia is typically painless and presents with a smooth, enlarged prostate on examination in conjunction with lower urinary tract symptoms. In cases where patients experience persistent perineal pain and recurrent urinary tract infections despite antibiotic therapy, a prostatic abscess may be suspected, often accompanied by an enlarged prostate upon examination.

      Treatment for Chronic Prostatitis

      Chronic prostatitis is a condition that requires a prolonged course of treatment. One of the recommended treatments is a quinolone, which is a type of antibiotic. However, there is some debate about the effectiveness of prostatic massage in improving outcomes. Despite this, there is no conclusive data published to date. It is important to note that treatment for chronic prostatitis should be tailored to the individual patient and their specific symptoms. Additionally, patients should follow up with their healthcare provider regularly to monitor their progress and adjust treatment as needed. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for those with chronic prostatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - Which statement is accurate when analyzing a semen analysis report? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is accurate when analyzing a semen analysis report?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15% abnormal forms is within normal limits

      Explanation:

      Understanding Semen Analysis Results

      Semen analysis is a crucial test that helps determine male fertility. According to the World Health Organisation guidelines, a sperm sample showing 15% or more sperm of normal morphology is considered normal. It is recommended to abstain from masturbation and/or intercourse for at least two days before the test.

      Low volume is a common issue, often caused by missing the container. Motility below 40% is a cause for concern, and the pH should be between 7 and 8.5. The specimen should be examined within an hour, and a count below 20 million would be of some concern, while below 10 million would be clinically significant.

      When conducting semen analysis, the results should be compared with the WHO reference values. The semen volume should be 1.5 ml or more, pH should be 7.2 or more, sperm concentration should be 15 million spermatozoa per ml or more, and the total sperm number should be 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate or more. The total motility should be 40% or more motile or 32% or more with progressive motility, vitality should be 58% or more, and live spermatozoa sperm morphology should be 4% or more.

      In conclusion, understanding semen analysis results is crucial in determining male fertility. It is important to follow the WHO guidelines and compare the results with the reference values to identify any potential issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - A 27-year-old male visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of swelling in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of swelling in his testicles. He reports a soft sensation on the top of his left testicle but denies any pain or issues with urination or erections. The GP orders an ultrasound, and the results show a mild varicocele on the left side with no other abnormalities detected in the right testis. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and observe

      Explanation:

      Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele

      Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.

      Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic for a consultation. He is worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic for a consultation. He is worried about his recent visit to the renal clinic, where he was informed that he has bilateral renal artery stenosis. He is seeking advice on available treatments. Additionally, his blood pressure was found to be elevated.
      What is the initial management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antihypertensive medication and lifestyle modification

      Explanation:

      Managing Renovascular Disease: Treatment Options and Lifestyle Modifications

      Renovascular disease, caused by atherosclerosis or fibromuscular dysplasia, can lead to resistant hypertension and ischaemic nephropathy, particularly in older individuals with diffuse atherosclerosis. Lifestyle modifications, such as smoking cessation, diabetes control, statins, aspirin, and adequate antihypertensive therapy, are crucial in reducing vascular risk. However, some patients may not tolerate ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor antagonists, which are commonly used to preserve GFR.

      Oral anticoagulants are not recommended as a first-line measure. Instead, medication for blood pressure control, with or without intervention, is necessary to prevent or limit the progression of chronic kidney disease and alleviate other symptoms, such as refractory pulmonary oedema and angina. Percutaneous renal artery balloon angioplasty may be considered in patients with difficult-to-control hypertension or rapidly declining kidney function. Renal artery stenting is generally the first-line intervention for flash pulmonary oedema and severe hypertension. Surgical reconstruction of the renal arteries is reserved for patients with concomitant vascular disease, such as abdominal aortic aneurysm.

      In summary, managing renovascular disease requires a combination of lifestyle modifications and appropriate medical interventions to reduce vascular risk and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - Which test is helpful in diagnosing and tracking treatment progress for patients with...

    Incorrect

    • Which test is helpful in diagnosing and tracking treatment progress for patients with prostate cancer from the given options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate-specific antigen

      Explanation:

      The Controversy Surrounding PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer

      The introduction of the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test has led to increased awareness and earlier diagnosis of prostate cancer. However, the use of PSA testing for screening purposes remains controversial. While PSA is currently the best method for detecting localized prostate cancer and monitoring treatment response, it lacks specificity as it is also increased in patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy. Additionally, the effectiveness and cost-effectiveness of treating localized cancer is still uncertain.

      Bone scans at diagnosis are likely unnecessary for patients with a PSA below 20 ng/ml, as bone metastases are unlikely at this level. Repeated bone scans during treatment are also unnecessary unless there are clinical indications, as repeated PSA tests are just as effective and more cost-effective. Biopsies under transrectal-ultrasound control are now commonly used for diagnosing prostate cancer, with a PSA exceeding 4 ng/ml being the usual indication for biopsy.

      PSA is a protease produced exclusively by epithelial prostatic cells, both benign and malignant. It breaks down the high molecular weight protein of the seminal coagulum, resulting in more liquid semen. PSA testing is also useful for monitoring therapy in patients with prostate cancer.

      Overall, the lack of specificity of the PSA test, combined with a lack of knowledge about the epidemiology and natural history of prostate cancer, are reasons against instituting a national screening program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - A 65-year-old man presents with a 72-hour history of lower abdominal pain, dysuria,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a 72-hour history of lower abdominal pain, dysuria, and frequent urination. He has no prior history of urinary issues and no significant medical history. Upon urine dipstick testing, leucocytes and nitrites are positive while blood and protein are negative. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotics

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, men with symptoms of a lower UTI should receive oral antibiotics such as trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, based on local microbiology protocols. This patient’s dipstick test is positive for nitrites, indicating a UTI, and he should be treated accordingly.

      Intravenous antibiotics are not typically necessary for UTI treatment unless the patient experiences rigors, chills, vomiting, or confusion. Therefore, this option is not appropriate for this patient.

      Men with UTIs should not be routinely referred to urology unless the infection is recurrent. The two-week rule pathway should be followed for patients aged 45 and over with unexplained visible haematuria or aged 60 and over with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test.

      While it may be important to rule out a sexually transmitted infection, this patient’s symptoms suggest a UTI, and there is no indication of an STI in his medical history. Therefore, empirical antibiotics should be administered initially.

      Although it is important to perform a urinary MC+S test to assess for resistant bacteria, antibiotic treatment should not be delayed while waiting for the results. In this case, prompt treatment is necessary to prevent the infection from spreading or causing sepsis.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - A 60-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has developed persistent proteinuria. Renal...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has developed persistent proteinuria. Renal function tests reveal a glomerular filtration rate [GFR] of 49 ml/minute/1.73 m2), similar levels were found four months previously. Her blood pressure today is 140/88 mmHg.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to improve the patient's renal prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is defined by the presence of kidney damage or decreased kidney function for three months or more. Patients with proteinuria of any cause can benefit from treatment with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, which improve renal prognosis and reduce cardiovascular risk. Blood pressure control with medications like doxazosin can also improve renal outcomes, but blocking the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system is most effective in halting disease progression. Antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease, while vitamin D supplementation is used to treat deficiency in later stages of CKD and CKD-mineral and bone disorders. Statins like atorvastatin should be offered to all CKD patients to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - A 10-year-old girl has been passing dark brown urine for two days. Worried,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl has been passing dark brown urine for two days. Worried, she visits her family doctor with her father.
      During examination, her face appears swollen and her blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Urine dipstick testing shows a strong presence of blood and moderate protein. Her father mentions that she had a fever and cough about a week ago.
      What is the best course of action for the doctor to take at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent paediatric/nephrology admission

      Explanation:

      Urgent Admission for a Patient with Acute Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with nephritic syndrome, including haematuria, oliguria, hypertension, and oedema, is likely suffering from acute glomerulonephritis, possibly post-streptococcal. This condition can lead to acute kidney injury and requires urgent investigation. Therefore, routine referral to paediatric nephrologists or urologists is not appropriate in this case. Instead, the patient needs to be admitted to the hospital for urgent investigation and management. While follow-up with paediatric nephrologists may be necessary, the acute presentation with hypertension and oedema requires immediate attention. A two-week rule referral for suspected malignancy is not indicated in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - A 75-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and increased frequency of micturition....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and increased frequency of micturition. She has been experiencing these symptoms on and off for several months. Upon urinalysis, microscopic haematuria and 2-3 white cells per high power field are detected, but the urine culture is sterile. What is the most suitable treatment for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical oestrogen cream

      Explanation:

      Atrophic Urethritis/Vaginitis in Postmenopausal Women: Symptoms and Treatment

      Postmenopausal women often experience symptoms of atrophic urethritis/vaginitis due to dryness and atrophy of the urethral tissue. This condition can cause discomfort, pain during intercourse, and urinary incontinence. However, topical oestrogen cream can have a dramatic response in improving or curing these symptoms.

      It is important to note that atrophic urethritis/vaginitis is not caused by an infection, so antibiotic therapy or alkalinisation of the urine will not be effective. Corticosteroids are also not helpful in treating this condition.

      In addition to improving urinary incontinence, topical oestrogen may also reduce the risk of recurrent urinary tract infections in postmenopausal women. However, it is important to rule out other underlying pathology before using oestrogen for this indication.

      Overall, atrophic urethritis/vaginitis is a common condition in postmenopausal women, but it can be effectively treated with topical oestrogen cream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of consuming bendroflumethiazide?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of consuming bendroflumethiazide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Gout is more likely to occur as a result of taking bendroflumethiazide, rather than pseudogout.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - A 60-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy experiences urinary retention and an acute kidney injury. Which medication should be discontinued?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Due to the risk of lactic acidosis, metformin should be discontinued as the patient has developed an acute kidney injury. Additionally, in the future, it may be necessary to discontinue paroxetine as SSRIs can exacerbate urinary retention.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - A 42-year-old woman is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and requires long-term haemodialysis....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and requires long-term haemodialysis. What is the most common long-term complication for patients receiving haemodialysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular Disease and Other Complications in End-Stage Renal Disease Patients

      End-stage renal disease (ESRD) patients are at high risk for cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Atherosclerosis is present in all long-term dialysis patients, and premature cardiac death occurs at a much higher rate than in the general population. Hypertension is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease and is often poorly controlled in ESRD patients.

      In addition to cardiovascular disease, ESRD patients may also develop β2 microglobulin amyloidosis, which can cause physical handicaps and even life-threatening cervical spinal cord compression. This condition typically appears after 5 years or more of hemodialysis and can affect any joint, but is especially common in the sternoclavicular joint and hips. Clinical features include periarthritis of the shoulders, carpal tunnel syndrome, and spondyloarthropathy.

      Kidney transplant recipients may also face complications, including an increased risk of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and skin cancers due to prolonged immunosuppressive therapy. However, there is no known increased risk of gastrointestinal malignancy in patients on long-term dialysis.

      Overall, ESRD patients require careful monitoring and management to prevent and address these potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - You see a 6-year-old boy who you see for occasional bouts of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 6-year-old boy who you see for occasional bouts of abdominal pain. His appetite is good, and he opens his bowels regularly. There are no other symptoms reported, and examination is unremarkable. A urine dipstick is positive for leucocytes but negative otherwise.

      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action necessary

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for UTI Diagnosis in Children

      According to NICE guidelines, children aged 3 years and above who test positive for leucocytes on a dipstick test but negative for nitrites should have a urine sample sent for MC&S. Antibiotic treatment should only be started if there is good clinical evidence of a UTI. Symptoms in verbal children may include frequency, dysuria, and changes in continence, while younger children may present with nonspecific symptoms such as fever, vomiting, and poor feeding.

      If the dipstick test shows only nitrite positivity, antibiotic treatment should be initiated, and a urine sample should be sent for culture. However, if the dipstick test shows both nitrite and leucocyte positivity, a UTI is confirmed, and a culture should be sent if there is a risk of serious illness or a history of previous UTIs. These guidelines aim to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of UTIs in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - A 31-year-old female with a history of Crohn's disease comes in with right...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female with a history of Crohn's disease comes in with right flank pain that extends to her groin. Upon urinalysis, there is evidence of non-visible blood in the urine. What is the probable underlying biochemical anomaly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperoxaluria

      Explanation:

      Enteric Hyperoxaluria and Renal Stones

      Patients who suffer from chronic diarrhoeal illnesses like ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are at risk of developing enteric hyperoxaluria. This condition leads to an increased risk of developing renal stones. The high levels of oxalate in the body are due to increased absorption of oxalate. This can be a serious complication for patients with chronic diarrhoeal illnesses and requires careful management to prevent the development of renal stones. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients with these conditions closely and provide appropriate treatment to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy and takes no medication. Her routine blood tests, including a full blood count, renal and liver function, are all normal. A urine dip was also normal. You notice a urine albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) result and an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) result of >90 mL/min/1.73 m2. Her early morning ACR is 5.

      As per NICE guidelines, what stage of chronic kidney disease (CKD) does this woman fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G1A2

      Explanation:

      A patient with a urine ACR of 5 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2 is classified as having G1A2 CKD. CKD is categorized based on the eGFR and urine ACR, with G1 representing stage 1 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2, and A2 representing a urine ACR of 3-70 mg/mmol. Patients with G1A1 or G2A2 classification are not considered to have CKD in the absence of kidney damage markers.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 165 - A 65-year-old woman is experiencing persistent urge incontinence despite undergoing a two-month course...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is experiencing persistent urge incontinence despite undergoing a two-month course of bladder training. Drug therapy is now being considered as a treatment option. What is the recommended first-line medication for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tolterodine (immediate release)

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests using oxybutynin (immediate release), tolterodine (immediate release), or darifenacin (once daily preparation) to manage urge incontinence pharmacologically. However, immediate release oxybutynin is not recommended for frail older women. Stress incontinence is better managed with pelvic floor exercises.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of pain in his right flank, nephrotic syndrome, elevated blood urea, collateral abdominal veins, and gross haematuria. During the examination, a mass is detected in the right lumbar region. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal-cell carcinoma (RCC)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Clinical Features of Renal-Cell Carcinoma

      Renal-cell carcinoma (RCC) is a highly vascular tumor that can obstruct the renal veins. The classic triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass is present in this case, which is suggestive of RCC. However, other conditions may also present with similar clinical features.

      Renal papillary necrosis may cause flank pain and haematuria, but an abdominal mass would be unlikely. Polyarteritis nodosa can cause renal failure, hypertension, or both, but a renal mass would not be present, and frank haematuria would be unusual.

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is characterized by loin pain and hypertension, with enlarged and palpable kidneys bilaterally. Renal amyloidosis is most likely to present as nephrotic syndrome, but it would be unlikely to cause flank pain or a renal mass.

      Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat patients presenting with clinical features of RCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - A 60-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of fatigue and swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of fatigue and swelling in his legs. Upon conducting some blood tests, the following results are obtained:

      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 5.6 mmol/l
      - Urea: 19.3 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 299 µmol/l

      It is noted that his renal function was normal six months ago. Which of his regular medications should be stopped immediately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Patients with acute kidney injury or chronic kidney disease should avoid NSAIDs like ibuprofen as they can exacerbate renal impairment.

      Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure

      Prescribing medication for patients with renal failure can be challenging. It is important to know which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin should be avoided in patients with renal failure. These drugs can cause further damage to the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.

      On the other hand, some drugs require dose adjustment in patients with chronic kidney disease. Antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, and furosemide, are among the drugs that require dose adjustment. Opioids should also be used with caution in patients with renal failure.

      There are also drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics such as erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease.

      In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the drugs’ potential effects on the kidneys and the need for dose adjustment. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to ensure safe and effective medication management for these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - A 25-year-old man presents with an acutely painful left testicle. The overlying skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with an acutely painful left testicle. The overlying skin is red and he seems to be tender posteriorly. He has a temperature of 38.3°C and feels like he has the flu. The testicle and scrotum are of normal size. During the examination, he reports that the testicle feels better when lifted.
      Select the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute epididymo-orchitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Acute epididymo-orchitis is a condition characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, with or without inflammation of the testes. This condition is commonly caused by infections that spread from the urethra or bladder. While orchitis, which is an infection limited to the testis, is less common, epididymitis usually presents with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling of relatively acute onset.

      Aside from the symptoms of urethritis or a urinary infection, tenderness and swelling of the epididymis may start at the tail at the lower pole of the testis and spread towards the head at the upper pole of the testis, with or without involvement of the testis. There may also be a secondary hydrocele, erythema, and/or edema of the scrotum on the affected side, as well as pyrexia.

      To diagnose epididymo-orchitis, Prehn’s sign is often used, which is indicative of epididymitis. Scrotal elevation relieves pain in epididymitis but not torsion. However, if there is any doubt, urgent referral is indicated, as torsion is the most important differential diagnosis. Torsion is more likely if the onset of pain is more acute and the pain is severe.

      It is important to note that a painful swollen testicle in an adolescent boy or a young man should be regarded as torsion until proven otherwise. In this case, the testis is said to be normal in size. Testicular cancer, on the other hand, is usually painless, and there is usually swelling of the testis. Hydrocele causes scrotal swelling.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and differential diagnosis of acute epididymo-orchitis is crucial in providing appropriate and timely medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 169 - Which of the following indicate the presence of authentic stress incontinence (GSI)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following indicate the presence of authentic stress incontinence (GSI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Passage of large amounts of urine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects many people, particularly women. There are different types of urinary incontinence, and each has its own set of symptoms. Genuine stress incontinence is characterized by the loss of urine during physical activity such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or intercourse. The urine loss is immediate and often described as a squirt of urine.

      On the other hand, detrusor dyssynergia (DD) is characterized by a sudden urge to urinate that may occur while at rest or after physical activity. This is followed by a large loss of urine. Dysuria, or painful urination, may indicate an infection of the bladder and urethra or irritation of the vulval and perineal epithelium due to the dribbling of urine.

      In some cases, urinary incontinence may be associated with other pelvic relaxation problems such as cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - A 42-year-old man is an inpatient in the Nephrology Ward. He has chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is an inpatient in the Nephrology Ward. He has chronic renal failure. He is on dialysis and is anaemic, with a haemoglobin concentration of 85 mg/l (normal range: 130–180 mg/l). He is being considered for erythropoietin therapy.
      What is the most important consideration for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Up to 30% of patients on erythropoietin may experience a rise in blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Myth-busting: The Effects of Erythropoietin on Blood Pressure, Sexual Function, Cognitive Function, Exercise Tolerance, and Quality of Life in Dialysis Patients

      Contrary to popular belief, erythropoietin doesn’t always lead to a rise in blood pressure. While up to 30% of patients may experience this side effect, it is not a universal occurrence. Additionally, erythropoietin has been shown to improve sexual function, cognitive function, and exercise tolerance in dialysis patients with renal anaemia. Furthermore, contrary to another misconception, erythropoietin has been demonstrated to improve quality-of-life scores in these patients. It is important to monitor blood pressure, haemoglobin, and reticulocyte count during treatment, but erythropoietin can have positive effects on various aspects of patients’ lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 171 - Sophie is a 70-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with chronic kidney...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 70-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with chronic kidney disease secondary to hypertension. She has come to see her GP for a review. On examination her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg. She has no other past medical history of note. Her recent investigation results are as follows:

      Hb 130g/L Female: (120-160)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 7.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 135 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      eGFR 60mL/min/1.73m2 (>90 mL/min/1.73m2)
      Urine albumin:Creatinine ratio 30 mg/mmol (<3mg/mmol)
      HbA1c 42 mmol/mol (<42 mmol/mol)

      She currently takes lisinopril, atorvastatin and ferrous sulphate.

      What additional medication should she be prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Patients with chronic kidney disease and an albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of more than 3 mg/mmol should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor. If co-existent diabetes is present, an ACE inhibitor should be prescribed regardless of ACR. If co-existent hypertension is present, an ACE inhibitor should be prescribed if ACR is >30 mg/mmol. If ACR is >70mg/mmol, an ACE inhibitor should also be prescribed. Therefore, ramipril is the appropriate medication. Bendroflumethiazide should be avoided as it may exacerbate renal failure. Aspirin may be used for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease in accordance with guidelines, but not for primary prevention.

      Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management

      Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.

      To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.

      According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.

      The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 172 - A 55-year-old man presents to the GP clinic with complaints of lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the GP clinic with complaints of lower back pain, fevers, and weight loss. He has also noticed a weakened urinary stream and increased frequency of urination over the past six months. On examination, including digital rectal examination, there are no significant findings. The GP recommends that he see the practice phlebotomist to check his prostate serum antigen level. What is the most probable factor that could lead to a false positive result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A confirmed UTI, successfully treated two weeks ago

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting PSA Measurement

      Prostate serum antigen (PSA) measurement is a crucial screening tool for detecting prostate cancer. However, recent urinary tract infections can increase PSA levels, which may remain elevated for up to a month. There are several other factors that can influence PSA levels, including recent prostate biopsy, vigorous exercise within the last 48 hours, and ejaculation within the last 48 hours. It is recommended that men avoid PSA testing under these circumstances. On the other hand, there is no evidence to suggest that an intercurrent illness, such as an upper respiratory tract infection, affects PSA levels. Proper understanding of these factors can help ensure accurate PSA measurement and reliable prostate cancer detection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 173 - A 36-year-old man presents with sudden onset pain in the left flank radiating...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presents with sudden onset pain in the left flank radiating to the left groin and testis. The pain is accompanied by vomiting. You suspect the patient may have ureteric colic.
      Select from the list the single other feature that would support this diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haematuria

      Explanation:

      Renal/Ureteric Colic: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Renal/ureteric colic is characterized by sudden and severe pain, often caused by stones. However, in some cases, no obvious cause is found. Unlike biliary or intestinal colic, the pain of renal colic is constant, with periods of relief or dull aches before it returns. The location of the pain changes as the stone moves. Patients with renal colic experience intense pain and may writhe around in agony, while those with peritoneal irritation lie still. Although there may be severe pain in the testis, it should not be tender. Uncomplicated renal colic doesn’t cause fever, which suggests pyelonephritis. Haematuria, often detected only on dipstick testing, is a common symptom.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - A 68-year-old man with stable chronic renal impairment has routine blood tests and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with stable chronic renal impairment has routine blood tests and urine testing for proteinuria. The results show an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 42 ml/min/1.73m2 and an albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) of 1.3 mg/mmol.
      According to NICE guidance, select the optimal clinical blood pressure in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Managing Blood Pressure in Chronic Kidney Disease Patients

      According to NICE guidance, patients with chronic kidney disease should aim for a target blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or less if they do not have proteinuria. However, if they have an albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, the target should be 130/80 mmHg or less.

      For those with chronic kidney disease and diabetes with an ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more, or hypertension with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, or an ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more (regardless of hypertension or cardiovascular disease), an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist should be used.

      It is important to note that microalbuminuria is defined as an ACR > 2.5 mg/mmol (men) or > 3.5 mg/mmol (women), while proteinuria is defined as an ACR > 30 mg/mmol. Without knowing if the patient is hypertensive, it is unclear if they meet the criteria for medication use. Proper management of blood pressure is crucial in the care of patients with chronic kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 175 - A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). He underwent screening after his brother was recently diagnosed with the condition. He is currently otherwise well with no other medical issues.
      Which extra-renal complication of ADPKD is this patient most likely to develop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic cysts

      Explanation:

      Extra-renal Complications of ADPKD

      ADPKD is a genetic disorder that causes the development of cysts in the kidneys. However, it can also lead to the formation of cysts in other organs, resulting in various extra-renal complications.

      Hepatic cysts are the most common extra-renal complication, occurring in 80% of patients. While they are more prevalent in women, they are also common in men. Most cases of polycystic liver disease are asymptomatic, but symptoms can arise from the mass effect or complications of the cyst.

      Seminal vesicle cysts are also common in patients with ADPKD, but they rarely result in male infertility. On the other hand, cerebral aneurysms occur in 10-20% of patients and can cause cranial nerve palsies or seizures. They are not as common as hepatic cysts.

      Pancreatitis is a rare complication that can develop if cysts grow large enough to impact the pancreas. Fortunately, it is unlikely to occur in most patients.

      Mitral valve prolapse and aortic incompetence are also associated with ADPKD. Mitral valve prolapse occurs in 25% of patients, making it a common occurrence but not the most likely extra-renal complication that this patient is likely to develop.

      In summary, ADPKD can lead to various extra-renal complications, but hepatic cysts and cerebral aneurysms are the most common. Regular monitoring and management of these complications are essential to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 176 - A 32-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a 2-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a 2-day history of dysuria, urinary frequency, and urgency. She appears to be in good health and is only taking folic acid. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. A urine dip test reveals positive results for leucocytes and nitrates but negative for ketones and glucose. As the healthcare provider, you decide to initiate antibiotic therapy. What is the most suitable duration of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      For pregnant women with a UTI, a 7-day course of antibiotics is necessary. During the first trimester, nitrofurantoin is the preferred antibiotic, given as 100 mg modified-release twice a day for the entire duration. However, it should be avoided during the term as it may cause neonatal haemolysis. Uncomplicated UTIs in non-pregnant patients can be treated with a 3-day course of antibiotics. For simple lower respiratory tract infections or skin infections, a 5-day course of antibiotics is recommended. Previously, men with UTIs were advised to undergo a 10-14 day treatment, but the latest NICE guidance in 2018 recommends a 7-day course of either trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for suspected lower urinary tract infections in men.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 177 - A 78-year-old man presents with symptoms of urgency of urine and urinary incontinence....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents with symptoms of urgency of urine and urinary incontinence. He denies any voiding symptoms or post-micturition symptoms. There is no evidence of haematuria.

      On examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender with no evidence of a distended bladder and his prostate feels normal. Blood tests for renal function, fasting glucose and PSA were all normal. Urinalysis is also reported as normal as well as MSU.

      He was sent for bladder training which didn't help his symptoms and tolterodine and darifenacin haven't helped his symptoms. He became confused with oxybutynin.

      Which of the following options would you offer next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to urology

      Explanation:

      Management of Overactive Bladder in Frail Older Men

      When dealing with an overactive bladder in frail older men, it is important to rule out other diagnoses and try bladder training before considering medication. Oxybutynin is not recommended due to potential risks, while solifenacin is unlikely to work. Duloxetine is not recommended for overactive bladder in men, but may be used for stress incontinence in women. Desmopressin has no role in overactive bladder in men. Urology referral may be an option, but mirabegron can be used prior to referral and its effectiveness can be reviewed at 4-6 weeks. It is important to note that mirabegron is a ‘black triangle’ drug and is subject to intensive post-marketing safety surveillance. For more information on managing overactive bladder in men, visit the link provided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - A 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks' pregnant attends for a routine antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks' pregnant attends for a routine antenatal check-up. Routine urine dipstick reveals blood and protein and urine culture is positive for Escherichia coli. She has no symptoms of urinary tract infection. A second specimen confirms the positive culture.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Management of Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in Pregnancy

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common occurrence in pregnant women and can lead to complications such as pyelonephritis, pre-eclampsia, anaemia, and premature birth. Therefore, it is important to screen for and treat positive cultures in pregnant women. Tetracyclines, sulphonamides, and quinolones should be avoided, but alternatives such as amoxicillin, ampicillin, nitrofurantoin, and oral cephalosporins may be considered. Nitrofurantoin should be avoided near term due to the risk of haemolysis in the newborn. Repeat urine samples should be sent to ensure eradication. Referral to a specialist is not necessary unless there are other indications for specialist-led care. Trimethoprim should be avoided in the first trimester due to the risk of teratogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - A 32-year-old man presents with erectile dysfunction. He reports being in good health...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with erectile dysfunction. He reports being in good health and not taking any regular medications. He has recently entered into a new relationship and has not experienced this issue before.
      What is the probable cause of this patient's erectile dysfunction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychological factors

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Erectile Dysfunction in a Young Man

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common problem that affects men of all ages. In a young, otherwise healthy man, psychological factors are the most likely cause of ED. This may be due to anxiety, stress, or relationship issues, especially if the symptoms started around the time of a new relationship. Other possible causes of ED include medical conditions such as diabetes mellitus, hypogonadism, and testicular cancer. However, these are less likely in a 28-year-old man who previously had no erectile problems. Prostate cancer is also an unlikely cause of ED in a young man. It is important to consult a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause of ED and to discuss appropriate treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 180 - Care should always be taken when combining diuretics. However, which one of the...

    Incorrect

    • Care should always be taken when combining diuretics. However, which one of the following combinations is always contraindicated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiloride + spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Potassium-sparing diuretics are classified into two types: epithelial sodium channel blockers (such as amiloride and triamterene) and aldosterone antagonists (such as spironolactone and eplerenone). However, caution should be exercised when using these drugs in patients taking ACE inhibitors as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation since these drugs often cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct and are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, relatively large doses of spironolactone (100 or 200 mg) are often used to manage secondary hyperaldosteronism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 181 - A 29-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of dysuria, frequent urination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of dysuria, frequent urination, and malaise for the past week. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant. Upon examination, a dipstick test reveals nitrites ++ and leukocytes ++, and a urine culture is ordered.

      What is the initial management strategy that should be employed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin PO

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman presents with symptoms of a UTI such as dysuria, frequency, and malaise, nitrofurantoin is the first-line treatment option. However, if the woman is close to term, this medication should be avoided. A urine culture should be sent and if necessary, second-line antibiotics such as amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used. For non-pregnant women, trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin are the recommended treatments. In cases of acute pyelonephritis, IV cefuroxime is a viable antibiotic option.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - A 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed prostate cancer is undergoing androgen deprivation therapy....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed prostate cancer is undergoing androgen deprivation therapy. He has no other significant medical history and is not taking any other medications.

      How should his bone density be managed in light of this treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Formally assess his fracture risk to determine the need for further investigation and treatment for osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Men with Prostate Cancer

      Osteoporosis is a potential risk for men undergoing hormonal androgen deprivation therapy for prostate cancer. While bisphosphonates are not routinely recommended, assessing fracture risk can guide the need for investigation and treatment. Bisphosphonates may be offered to men with confirmed osteoporosis, while denosumab can be used if bisphosphonates are not an option. However, a confirmed diagnosis of osteoporosis is necessary before treatment can be prescribed. Lifestyle advice is important, but it is not a substitute for fracture risk assessment and further investigation, such as a DEXA scan, may be necessary. By managing osteoporosis risk, men with prostate cancer can reduce the likelihood of fractures and maintain their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - A 22-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She had an episode of acute cystitis...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She had an episode of acute cystitis 4 weeks ago, which was successfully treated without any complications. Her urine culture did not show any resistant or atypical organisms. However, she has a history of recurrent lower UTIs and is feeling frustrated as she has had 6 episodes in the past year, which has put a strain on her new relationship. She has tried cranberry juice and probiotics, but they did not provide any relief.

      You ordered an abdominal ultrasound, which came back normal, and her post-void volume was 25 ml. After reviewing her behavioral and self-hygiene measures, you have identified sexual intercourse as the only trigger.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotic prophylaxis for single-dose use with sexual intercourse

      Explanation:

      For women who experience regular urinary tract infections (UTIs) following sexual intercourse, the recommended course of action is to prescribe a single-dose oral antibiotic prophylaxis to be taken with sexual intercourse. This is in line with NICE guidance, which also advises first-line measures such as avoiding douching and occlusive underwear, wiping from front to back after defecation, and maintaining adequate hydration. Daily antibiotic prophylaxis is not recommended for premenopausal, non-pregnant women with an identifiable trigger, but may be considered for those who continue to have recurrences with single-dose antibiotic prophylaxis regimens. Vaginal oestrogen cream is recommended for postmenopausal women, while referral to secondary care is only necessary for certain groups, such as those with suspected cancer or persistent haematuria. A self-taken vulvovaginal swab for STIs is not necessary unless there are symptoms of vulvovaginitis, cervicitis, or pelvic inflammatory disease.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - A 42-year-old man visits the GP clinic with complaints of soreness, itching, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits the GP clinic with complaints of soreness, itching, and bleeding from the foreskin. Upon examination, there is evidence of skin fissuring and tightening of the foreskin. What is the probable diagnosis, and what treatment is recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Common Penile Conditions

      Lichen sclerosis, also known as balanitis xerotica obliterans, is a skin condition that causes inflammation and scarring of the foreskin. It can be itchy and painful, but potent steroid ointments can help reduce inflammation and the need for surgery. However, if left untreated, it may lead to penile squamous cell carcinoma, which presents as an irregular ulceration or nodule.

      Peyronie’s disease is a condition that causes an increased curvature of the penis, but its cause is unknown. On the other hand, phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin covering the glans of the penis, which may be congenital or due to scarring from another medical condition such as lichen sclerosis. Lastly, priapism is a persistent and often painful erection of the penis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - A 65-year-old woman visits the clinic having experienced stress urinary incontinence for 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman visits the clinic having experienced stress urinary incontinence for 2 years. She visited you for the first time 8 months ago and after a thorough evaluation, you recommended lifestyle modifications and referred her for a 3-month supervised pelvic floor muscle training (PFMT) trial.

      She returns to your clinic and reports that her symptoms persist. She declines surgical intervention and requests medication instead.

      What is the most suitable medication to suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Patients with stress incontinence who do not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and refuse surgical intervention may be prescribed duloxetine as a second-line treatment, according to NICE guidelines. If conservative treatments fail or the patient desires further management, referral to a urogynaecologist, gynaecologist, or urologist for assessment and surgical management may be considered. For urgency incontinence, anticholinergic drugs such as darifenacin, oxybutynin, and tolterodine are typically used as first-line treatments, while mirabegron may be prescribed if antimuscarinic drugs are ineffective, not tolerated, or contraindicated.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - A 42-year-old man has suddenly developed a fever and is experiencing frequent urination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has suddenly developed a fever and is experiencing frequent urination, painful urination, and discomfort in the pelvic area. Upon examination, his prostate is tender. A dipstick test of his urine shows the presence of white blood cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute bacterial prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prostatitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Prostatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland. There are different types of prostatitis, including acute bacterial prostatitis, chronic bacterial prostatitis, non-bacterial prostatitis, and asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis. In this article, we will focus on the symptoms and differential diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis.

      Symptoms of Acute Bacterial Prostatitis
      Acute bacterial prostatitis is characterized by a sudden onset of feverish illness, irritative urinary voiding symptoms (dysuria, frequency, urgency), perineal or suprapubic pain, and a very tender prostate on rectal examination. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also common. It is important to note that prostatic massage should not be done as it could lead to complications.

      Differential Diagnosis
      It is important to differentiate acute bacterial prostatitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Chronic bacterial prostatitis is more common but symptoms must last for more than three months before this diagnosis can be made. Benign prostatic hyperplasia typically presents with progressive obstructive symptoms, while cystitis doesn’t involve tenderness of the prostate on examination. Non-bacterial prostatitis is associated with chronic pain around the prostate.

      Conclusion
      Acute bacterial prostatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. It is important to consider the differential diagnosis and rule out other conditions with similar symptoms. If you suspect acute bacterial prostatitis, seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - A 60-year-old man complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. He has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. He has been experiencing urinary urgency and occasional incontinence for the past few months. He reports no difficulty with urinary flow, hesitancy, or straining. Prostate examination and urinalysis reveal no abnormalities.

      What medication is most likely to provide relief for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antimuscarinic

      Explanation:

      Patients with an overactive bladder can benefit from the use of antimuscarinic drugs. Oxybutynin, tolterodine, and darifenacin are some examples of such drugs that can be prescribed. However, before resorting to medication, it is important to discuss conservative measures with the patient and offer bladder training as an option.

      Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a thorough examination, including urinalysis, digital rectal examination, and possibly a PSA test. The patient should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.

      For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be considered. For mixed symptoms of voiding and storage, an antimuscarinic drug may be added if alpha-blockers are not effective.

      For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered. If symptoms persist, antimuscarinic drugs such as oxybutynin, tolterodine, or darifenacin may be recommended. If first-line drugs fail, mirabegron may be considered. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night and furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon may be helpful. Desmopressin may also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - A 60-year-old woman presents with swollen legs and is diagnosed with proteinuria. Identify...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with swollen legs and is diagnosed with proteinuria. Identify the one characteristic that would strongly indicate a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome instead of nephritic syndrome.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proteinuria > 3.5g/24 hours

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome and Nephritic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. On the other hand, nephritic syndrome is defined by azotemia, hematuria, hypertension, and oliguria. Both syndromes present with edema, but the amount of proteinuria is higher in nephrotic syndrome.

      In nephrotic syndrome, the glomerulus has small pores that allow protein to pass through but not cells, resulting in proteinuria and hypoalbuminemia. The liver compensates for protein loss by increasing the synthesis of albumin, LDL, VLDL, and lipoprotein(a), leading to lipid abnormalities. Patients with nephrotic syndrome are also at risk of hypercoagulability and infection due to the loss of inhibitors of coagulation and immunoglobulins in the urine.

      The etiology of nephrotic syndrome varies depending on age and comorbidities. Minimal change disease is the most common cause in children, while focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is the most common cause in younger adults. Membranous nephropathy is the most common cause in older people, and diabetic nephropathy in adults with long-standing diabetes. Secondary causes include amyloidosis, lupus nephritis, and multiple myeloma.

      Categorizing glomerular renal disease into syndromes such as nephrotic syndrome and nephritic syndrome helps narrow the differential diagnosis. Understanding the differences between these two syndromes is crucial in the diagnosis and management of glomerular renal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - A 65-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment one month after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment one month after being prescribed colchicine for his first gout attack. He has fully recovered and has no lingering symptoms. He has no significant medical history except for a resolved AKI after experiencing diarrhea last year. He is not taking any regular medication.

      What is the best course of action for long-term urate-lowering therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer allopurinol today

      Explanation:

      The updated guidelines from the British Society for Rheumatology recommend that urate-lowering therapy should be initiated early after the first episode of gout. Therefore, it is suggested that all patients should be offered this therapy after their initial attack, rather than waiting for further episodes or ongoing symptoms. It is important to note that colchicine cannot be used as a long-term urate-lowering medication on its own. There is no need to wait for a month before starting allopurinol, as long as the acute attack has resolved. Although allopurinol can still be prescribed for patients with renal impairment, caution must be taken with the dosage. Febuxostat should only be considered as a second line medication if allopurinol is not suitable or has not been tolerated by the patient.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - A 65-year-old man presents with a three month history of pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a three month history of pain in the perineum, lower urinary tract symptoms, and sexual dysfunction.

      MSU is negative and PR is normal other than a tender prostate.

      Which one of the following is true with regard to chronic prostatitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is considered a chronic pelvic pain syndrome in 90% of men

      Explanation:

      Chronic Prostatitis: A Complex Diagnosis

      The diagnosis and underlying cause of chronic prostatitis can be challenging to determine. While some experts debate whether it is a chronic pain syndrome, only 10% of cases are caused by infection, and antibiotics are often ineffective in treating the condition. As a result, the term chronic pelvic pain syndrome has been adopted to better reflect the complex nature of this condition. Despite ongoing research, the diagnosis and management of chronic prostatitis remain a challenge for healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - A pair undergo examinations for sterility. What is the most suitable guidance to...

    Incorrect

    • A pair undergo examinations for sterility. What is the most suitable guidance to provide concerning sperm collection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abstain for 3-5 days before giving sample + deliver sample to lab within 1 hour

      Explanation:

      Semen analysis is a test that requires a man to abstain from sexual activity for at least 3 days but no more than 5 days before providing a sample to the lab. It is important that the sample is delivered to the lab within 1 hour of collection. The results of the test are compared to normal values, which include a semen volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of greater than 7.2, a sperm concentration of over 15 million per ml, a morphology of more than 4% normal forms, a motility of over 32% progressive motility, and a vitality of over 58% live spermatozoa. It is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, but these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - A 28-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of several episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of several episodes of haematospermia over the past few weeks. He denies any urinary symptoms or pain and reports no other unusual bleeding. He is generally healthy and not on any regular medications.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydial infection

      Explanation:

      Causes of Haematospermia in a Young Adult

      Haematospermia, the presence of blood in semen, can be a distressing symptom for men. In those under 40 years of age, infections are the most common cause, with sexually transmitted infections (STIs) such as chlamydia being a likely culprit, especially in the absence of urinary symptoms. Haemophilia A, a genetic disorder that affects blood clotting, is unlikely to present with haematospermia as the first symptom, especially in a young adult. Malignant hypertension, a rare and severe form of high blood pressure, can cause end-organ damage but is an unusual cause of haematospermia. Prostate cancer, which is more common in older men, can also cause haematospermia, but is usually associated with urinary symptoms and erectile dysfunction. Prostatitis, an inflammation of the prostate gland, can cause haematospermia and other symptoms such as pain and fever, but is less common than UTIs or STIs. A thorough medical history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations can help identify the underlying cause of haematospermia and guide treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of red discolouration of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of red discolouration of his urine. He was diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis two months ago and has been taking warfarin since then. His most recent INR test, done two days ago, shows a reading of 2.7. During the examination, no abnormalities are found, but his dipstick urine test shows +++ of blood and + protein. A MSU test shows no growth. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and monitor INR and warfarin dose closely

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Unexplained Haematuria and Previous DVT

      This patient presents with unexplained haematuria and a history of previous DVT. It is important to consider the possibility of underlying occult neoplasia of the renal tract. Therefore, an urgent referral to the urologists is the most appropriate course of action.

      It is important to note that in cases where the patient is on therapeutic INR with warfarin, the haematuria should not be attributed to the medication. Warfarin may unmask a potential neoplasm, and it is crucial to investigate the underlying cause of the haematuria. Early detection and treatment of neoplasia can significantly improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - A 72-year-old man has chronic renal failure and uses continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has chronic renal failure and uses continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). He is feeling unwell and has had mild generalised abdominal pain for 2 days and a cloudy effluent.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate initial action.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send effluent fluid for cell count, microscopy and microbiological culture

      Explanation:

      Peritonitis in CAPD Patients: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Peritonitis is a common complication in patients undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD), occurring once per patient-year on average. Symptoms include generalized abdominal pain and cloudy effluent. Localized pain and tenderness may indicate a local process, while severe peritonitis may be due to a perforated organ. Fever is often absent.

      To diagnose peritonitis, a sample of the dialysate effluent should be obtained for laboratory evaluation, including a cell count with differential, Gram stain, and culture. An elevated dialysate count of white blood cells (WBC) of more than 100/mm3, of which at least 50% are neutrophils, supports the diagnosis of microbial-induced peritonitis and requires immediate antimicrobial therapy. In asymptomatic patients with only cloudy fluid, therapy may be delayed until test results are available.

      Empiric antibiotic treatment should cover both gram-negative and gram-positive organisms, including Staphylococcus epidermidis or Staphylococcus aureus, which are common causes of peritonitis. Candida albicans may also be the cause in rare cases. Antibiotics can be administered intraperitoneally by adding them to the dialysis fluid. Hospital admission is not usually necessary for this complication.

      In summary, CAPD patients should be aware of the symptoms of peritonitis and seek prompt medical attention if they occur. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 195 - You assess a 78-year-old woman who has a history of type 2 diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 78-year-old woman who has a history of type 2 diabetes and mild cognitive impairment. During a previous visit, you referred her for bladder retraining due to urge incontinence. However, she reports that her symptoms have not improved and the incontinence is becoming increasingly bothersome and embarrassing. She is interested in exploring other treatment options, but expresses concerns about potential medication side effects on her memory. What would be the most suitable next step in managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirabegron

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing urge incontinence, anticholinergics like solifenacin and oxybutynin can cause confusion in elderly patients, making them less suitable for those with cognitive impairment. Instead, mirabegron, a beta-3 adrenergic agonist, is a better alternative that can effectively treat urge incontinence without the risk of anticholinergic side effects. Long-term catheterisation and fluid restriction should not be considered as viable options for managing incontinence.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - A 65-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of significant urge...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of significant urge incontinence (UI) for the past year. She denies any stress incontinence and has been ruled out for infection. What is the initial recommended treatment for urge incontinence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder training for a minimum of six weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Urge Incontinence

      Urge incontinence is a condition where urine leakage occurs involuntarily, often preceded by a sudden urge to urinate. According to NICE guidance on Urinary incontinence (CG171), women with urge incontinence or mixed incontinence should be offered bladder training as a first-line treatment for at least six weeks. This involves learning techniques to control the urge to urinate and gradually increasing the time between visits to the toilet. If bladder training is not effective, immediate release oxybutynin may be offered as an alternative treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - A 68-year-old man has a diagnosis of carcinoma of the prostate confirmed by...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has a diagnosis of carcinoma of the prostate confirmed by biopsy. His PSA is 25 ng/ml (normal range < 5 ng/ml in over 60s). The biopsy showed a Gleason score of 6 (range 2 - 10) and confirmed that the tumour is confined to the prostate. His general health is otherwise good, and he was asymptomatic at diagnosis. His father was also diagnosed with prostate cancer at a similar age.
      Which of the following is most likely to signify a high-risk prostate cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate specific antigen >20 ng/mL

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prostate Cancer Risk Factors

      Prostate cancer is a common cancer in men, and risk stratification is important for determining appropriate treatment. The three main factors that contribute to risk stratification are prostate-specific antigen (PSA), Gleason score, and cancer stage. A PSA level of over 20 ng/mL signifies high-risk disease. The Gleason score estimates the grade of prostate cancer based on its differentiation, with a score of 8-10 indicating high-risk disease. Cancer stage is also important, with T2c indicating high-risk disease. Lower urinary symptoms and family history of prostate cancer are not significant determinants of risk. It is important to understand these risk factors in order to make informed decisions about prostate cancer treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - A 76-year-old male presents to your clinic with complaints of overactive bladder symptoms....

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old male presents to your clinic with complaints of overactive bladder symptoms. After a thorough investigation, you decide to initiate medication for his symptoms. His blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, his pulse is 72 bpm and regular. Urodynamic studies reveal no urinary retention, and recent blood tests show normal renal and liver function. The patient is currently taking medications for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. However, due to his age and medication regimen, you want to avoid prescribing a medication with a high anticholinergic burden. What medication would you consider starting for this patient's overactive bladder symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirabegron

      Explanation:

      Mirabegron, a beta 3 agonist, is recommended by NICE as a second option medication for overactive bladder symptoms, following antimuscarinics. However, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as hypertension (including severe cases) and tachycardia. The other drugs listed are also used for overactive bladder symptoms, but they are anticholinergics.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is prescribed lisinopril. After two...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is prescribed lisinopril. After two weeks, blood tests are conducted and no other medication changes have been made. The patient is examined and found to be adequately hydrated. As per NICE guidelines, what is the maximum acceptable rise in creatinine levels after initiating an ACE inhibitor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has been experiencing difficulty urinating. Upon further questioning, he describes urinary hesitancy, a weak stream, occasional dribbling, and a sensation of incomplete emptying. These symptoms are causing him distress to the point where he avoids going out in public. Upon examination, you note a smooth enlarged prostate and decide to send blood for PSA testing and a urine specimen for culture. The results come back clear, and his PSA level is 3.8 ng/ml (normal age-adjusted range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An alpha-blocker is the first-line treatment in this patient group

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. Here are some common treatment options and their effectiveness:

      Alpha-blockers: These medications, such as tamsulosin, relax smooth muscle and are the first-line treatment for patients with predominantly voiding symptoms.

      Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP): Surgery is reserved for patients with bladder outflow obstruction or in those in whom medical therapy fails.

      Finasteride: This medication shrinks the prostate, but the benefit is seen over weeks to months.

      Prostate biopsy: This should be considered in the investigation of prostate cancer, but is not necessary in this patient with normal PSA and examination findings.

      Saw palmetto: This herbal remedy is not more effective than placebo and is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Kidney And Urology (3/5) 60%
Passmed