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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with dyspepsia and a history of recurrent peptic ulcer disease presents with intractable watery diarrhoea and weight loss. He has multiple gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers, which are poorly responding to medications such as antacids and omeprazole. Gastric acid output and serum gastrin level are elevated. Serum gastrin level fails to decrease following a test meal. On abdominal computerised tomography (CT) scan, no masses are found in the pancreas or duodenum.
Which one of the following drugs is useful for this patient?Your Answer: Somatostatin antagonist
Correct Answer: Octreotide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Gastrinoma: Octreotide, Somatostatin Antagonist, Bromocriptine, Pergolide, and Leuprolide
Gastrinoma is a rare condition characterized by multiple, recurrent, and refractory peptic ulcer disease, along with watery diarrhea and weight loss. The diagnosis is supported by an elevated serum gastrin level that is not suppressed by the test meal. While neoplastic masses of gastrinoma may or may not be localized by abdominal imaging, treatment options are available.
Octreotide, a synthetic somatostatin, is useful in the treatment of gastrinoma, acromegaly, carcinoid tumor, and glucagonoma. Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone in several endocrine systems, and a somatostatin antagonist would increase gastrin, growth hormone, and glucagon secretion. However, it has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma.
Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, is used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, hyperprolactinemia, and pituitary tumors. Pergolide, another dopamine receptor agonist, was formerly used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease but is no longer administered due to its association with valvular heart disease. Neither medication has a role in the treatment of gastrinoma.
Leuprolide, a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor agonist, is used in the treatment of sex hormone-sensitive tumors such as prostate or breast cancer. It also has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma. Overall, octreotide remains the primary treatment option for gastrinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man was involved in a motorcycle race accident where a rod pierced his abdomen. He underwent emergency surgery and survived. After a year, he complains of abdominal pain and frequent stools, and is diagnosed with anemia. His blood tests show a vitamin B12 level of 41 (160–900 pmol/l) and serum folate of 35 ug/l (4.20 - 18.70 ug/l). He denies any dietary intolerance or rectal bleeding. What is the gold standard test for diagnosing this condition?
Your Answer: Blood IgA–tTG level
Correct Answer: Culture of small intestinal fluid
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Small Intestinal Bacterial Overgrowth (SIBO)
Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) is a condition that can cause malabsorption, steatorrhoea, and megaloblastic anaemia. It is often seen in patients who have had abdominal surgery and is characterized by an overgrowth of bacteria in the small intestine. The gold standard for diagnosis of SIBO is culture of small intestinal fluid aspirate, with a duodenal aspirate showing >105 CFU/ml considered a sensitive marker for SIBO.
SIBO is thought to develop as a failure of normal mechanisms that control bacterial growth within the small gut, with decreased gastric acid secretion and factors that affect gut motility being important. Any structural defect can have an effect on gut motility, and intestinal surgery predisposes patients to diverticular formation or stricture formation, both of which will lead to an increased risk of SIBO.
Bacterial overgrowth responds to antibiotic therapy, with many antibiotics being effective in SIBO, including metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, co-amoxiclav, and rifaximin. A 2-week course of antibiotics may be tried initially, but in many patients, long-term antibiotic therapy may be needed.
Other diagnostic tests for SIBO include hydrogen breath tests, which can give quick results but may be confounded by factors such as intestinal transit time, diet, smoking, and methane-producing bacteria. Serum folate levels and blood IgA-tTG levels are not diagnostic of SIBO, but intestinal biopsy specimens (unwashed) may be sent for culture.
In conclusion, SIBO is a common cause of malabsorption in the Western world, particularly in conditions where there is intestinal stasis or formation of a blind loop. Diagnosis is made through culture of small intestinal fluid aspirate, and treatment involves antibiotic therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is referred to hospital for severe recurrent chest pain related to mealtimes. She had experienced these episodes over the past 3 years, particularly when food became stuck in her chest. The chest pain was not associated with physical activity or exertion. Additionally, she reported occasional nocturnal coughs and regurgitation. A chest X-ray taken during one of the chest pain episodes revealed a widened mediastinum. She did not have any other gastrointestinal issues or abdominal pain. Despite being prescribed proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), she did not experience any relief. What is the most effective test to confirm the diagnosis of the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Barium swallow study
Correct Answer: Oesophageal manometry study
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Achalasia: Oesophageal Manometry Study and Other Modalities
Achalasia is a motility disorder of the oesophagus that causes progressive dysphagia for liquids and solids, accompanied by severe chest pain. While it is usually idiopathic, it can also be secondary to Chagas’ disease or oesophageal cancer. The diagnosis of achalasia is confirmed through oesophageal manometry, which reveals an abnormally high lower oesophageal sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing.
Other diagnostic modalities include a barium swallow study, which may show a classic bird’s beak appearance, but is not confirmatory. A CT scan of the thorax may show a dilated oesophagus with food debris, but is also not enough for diagnosis. Upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is needed to rule out mechanical obstruction or pseudo-achalasia.
Treatment for achalasia is mainly surgical, but botulinum toxin injection or pharmacotherapy may be tried in those unwilling to undergo surgery. Drugs used include calcium channel blockers, long-acting nitrates, and sildenafil. Oesophageal pH monitoring is useful in suspected gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), but is not diagnostic for achalasia.
In summary, oesophageal manometry is the best confirmatory test for suspected cases of achalasia, and other diagnostic modalities are used to rule out other conditions. Treatment options include surgery, botulinum toxin injection, and pharmacotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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A middle aged male patient presents with jaundice and epigastric abdominal pain, he describes an intermittent history of similar pain over the past 3 months, however, this time it is much worse. He has markedly raised bilirubin and mildly deranged LFTs, with a predominantly obstructive picture. Other pertinent history includes mild alcohol use.
What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?Your Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:Possible Causes of Obstructive Jaundice: A Case Analysis
The patient’s symptoms suggest that the most probable cause of obstructive jaundice is gallstones lodged in the common bile duct. Recurrent episodes of biliary colic and/or cholecystitis may have caused the intermittent abdominal pain, which has now worsened and led to hepatic obstruction. Cholecystitis, inflammation of the gallbladder due to gallstones, would not cause obstructive jaundice unless the gallstones leave the gallbladder and become lodged in the common bile duct. Alcohol-induced pancreatitis is a common cause of acute pancreatitis in the UK, but it will not cause obstructive jaundice. Hepatitis C may cause cirrhosis and subsequently jaundice, but there is no evidence that the patient is an intravenous drug user. Pancreatic carcinoma, particularly if located in the head of the pancreas, can cause obstructive jaundice, but it is usually painless in origin. Courvoisier’s law states that a non-tender palpable gallbladder accompanied by painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of losing 1 stone in weight over the past three months. Apart from this, he has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, his abdomen is soft, and no palpable masses are detected. A normal PR examination is also observed. The patient's blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 80 g/L (120-160) and an MCV of 70 fL (80-96). What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Abdominal x ray and colonoscopy
Correct Answer: Upper GI endoscopy and colonoscopy
Explanation:Possible GI Malignancy in a Man with Weight Loss and Microcytic Anaemia
This man is experiencing weight loss and has an unexplained microcytic anaemia. The most probable cause of his blood loss is from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, as there is no other apparent explanation. This could be due to an occult GI malignancy, which is why the recommended initial investigations are upper and lower GI endoscopy. These tests will help to identify any potential sources of bleeding in the GI tract and determine if there is an underlying malignancy. It is important to diagnose and treat any potential malignancy as early as possible to improve the patient’s prognosis. Therefore, prompt investigation and management are crucial in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and swelling. She works as a teacher and is in a committed relationship. Upon examination, her abdomen is tender, particularly in the right upper quadrant, and there is mild jaundice. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and has no significant medical history or regular medication use. After three days of hospitalization, her abdomen became distended and fluid thrill was detected. Laboratory tests show:
Parameter Result
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 150 g/l 115–155 g/l
Bilirubin 51 μmol/ 2–17 μmol/
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 1050 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 998 IU/l 5−30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 210 IU/l 36–76 IU/l
Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 108 IU/l 8–35 IU/l
Albumin 30 g/l 35–55 g/l
An ultrasound revealed a slightly enlarged liver with a prominent caudate lobe.
What is the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Liver transplantation
Explanation:Management of Budd-Chiari Syndrome: Liver Transplantation and Other Treatment Options
Budd-Chiari syndrome (BCS) is a condition characterized by hepatic venous outflow obstruction, resulting in hepatic dysfunction, portal hypertension, and ascites. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound Doppler, and risk factors include the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill and genetic mutations such as factor V Leiden. Treatment options depend on the severity of the disease, with liver transplantation being necessary in cases of fulminant BCS. For less severe cases, the European Association for the Study of the Liver (EASL) recommends a stepwise approach, starting with anticoagulation and progressing to angioplasty, thrombolysis, and transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPSS) procedure if needed. Oral lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy, and anticoagulation is necessary both urgently and long-term. Therapeutic drainage of ascitic fluid and diuretic therapy with furosemide or spironolactone may also be used to manage ascites, but these treatments do not address the underlying cause of BCS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Correct
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What statement is true about infants who have gastroenteritis?
Your Answer: Should be admitted to hospital if they are unable to tolerate fluid orally
Explanation:Management of Gastroenteritis in Children
Gastroenteritis is a common illness in children that is usually caused by a viral infection. Antibiotics are not necessary in most cases as they are only effective against bacterial infections. Changing formula feeds is also not recommended as it may cause further digestive problems. However, if the child is unable to tolerate oral fluids, intravenous fluid therapy may be necessary to prevent dehydration.
Lactose intolerance is a common occurrence in children with gastroenteritis, but it is not inevitable. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and adjust their diet accordingly. Barium meals are not useful in the investigation of gastroenteritis as they are more commonly used to diagnose structural abnormalities in the digestive system.
In summary, the management of gastroenteritis in children involves providing supportive care such as oral rehydration therapy and monitoring for signs of dehydration. Antibiotics are not necessary unless there is a bacterial infection present. It is important to be aware of the possibility of lactose intolerance and adjust the child’s diet accordingly. Barium meals are not useful in the investigation of gastroenteritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with several months of difficulty swallowing both liquids and solid foods. He states he also often regurgitates undigested food. He no longer looks forward to his meals and is beginning to lose weight. He denies chest pain.
Physical examination is normal. An electrocardiogram (ECG) and chest X-ray are also normal. Blood tests reveal normal inflammatory markers and normal renal function. He has had a trial of proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy, without relief of his symptoms. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is performed by the Gastroenterology team, which is also normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest
Correct Answer: Oesophageal manometry
Explanation:The recommended first-line investigation for a patient with dysphagia to both solid foods and liquids, regurgitation, and weight loss, who has failed PPI therapy and has a normal upper endoscopy, is oesophageal manometry. This test can diagnose achalasia, a rare disorder characterized by impaired relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter due to neuronal degeneration of the myenteric plexus. Amylase levels are indicated in patients suspected of having acute pancreatitis, which presents with severe epigastric pain and is often associated with alcoholism or gallstone disease. Barium swallow is useful for detecting obstructions, reflux, or strictures in the oesophagus, but oesophageal manometry is preferred for diagnosing abnormal peristalsis in patients with suspected achalasia. A CT scan of the chest is indicated for lung cancer staging or chest trauma, while lateral cervical spine radiographs are used to diagnose dysphagia caused by large cervical osteophytes, which is unlikely in a relatively young patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 45-year-old accountant presents with right upper quadrant pain and abnormal liver function tests. An ultrasound scan reveals a dilated common bile duct. The patient undergoes an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) procedure. During the procedure, the consultant asks you to identify the location of the Ampulla of Vater, which is cannulated. Can you tell me where the Ampulla of Vater enters the bowel?
Your Answer: Descending (second part) duodenum
Explanation:The Parts of the Duodenum: A Brief Overview
The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine and is divided into four parts. Each part has its own unique characteristics and functions.
Superior (first part) duodenum: This is the first part of the duodenum that connects the stomach to the small intestine.
Descending (second part) duodenum: The ampulla of Vater, where the common bile duct and pancreatic duct enter the duodenum, is located in this part. It is cannulated during ERCP to access the biliary tree.
Inferior (third part) duodenum: The ampulla of Vater does not join this part, but rather the second part.
Ascending (fourth part) duodenum: This is the last part of the duodenum that joins the jejunum, the second part of the small intestine.
Understanding the different parts of the duodenum is important for diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. The consultant contacts the house officer and requests a prescription for prophylactic antibiotics. What is the recommended prophylactic antibiotic for this patient?
Your Answer: Cefotaxime
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Prophylactic Antibiotics for Gut Surgery
Prophylactic antibiotics are commonly used in gut surgery to prevent wound infections, which can occur in up to 60% of cases. The use of prophylactic antibiotics has been shown to significantly reduce the incidence of these infections. Co-amoxiclav is the preferred choice for non-penicillin allergic patients, as it is effective against the types of bacteria commonly found in the gut, including anaerobes, enterococci, and coliforms.
While cefotaxime is often used to treat meningitis, it is not typically used as a prophylactic antibiotic in gut surgery. In patients with mild penicillin allergies, cefuroxime and metronidazole may be used instead. However, it is important to note that cephalosporins should be avoided in elderly patients whenever possible, as they are at a higher risk of developing C. difficile infections. Overall, the use of prophylactic antibiotics is an important measure in preventing wound infections in gut surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Correct
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A newborn presents with a suspected diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. What is a characteristic of this condition?
Your Answer: Projectile vomiting
Explanation:Infantile Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis
Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition that is most commonly observed in first-born male children. One of the most characteristic symptoms of this condition is projectile vomiting of large quantities of curdled milk. However, anorexia and loose stools are not typically observed in patients with this condition. The biochemical picture of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is typically hypokalaemic, hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.
This condition is caused by hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the pyloric sphincter, which leads to obstruction of the gastric outlet. This obstruction can cause the stomach to become distended, leading to vomiting. Diagnosis of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is typically made through ultrasound imaging, which can reveal the thickened pyloric muscle. Treatment for this condition typically involves surgical intervention to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal gastric emptying.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents for a general check-up. He is well in himself and reports no symptoms.
On examination, he has a body mass index (BMI) of 33 kg/m2 and there are some thickened folds of skin in his axilla and the nape of his neck. His blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. He is a non-smoker and does not drink.
A set of blood work is ordered. He demonstrated impaired fasting glucose in addition to the results below.
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 135–175 g/l
Cholesterol 5.8 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
Triglyceride 3.9 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 60 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 30 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 30 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
What is the next best investigation?Your Answer: Serum ceruloplasmin
Correct Answer: Ultrasound liver
Explanation:Choosing the Best Investigation: A Case Study
In this case study, a patient presents with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), raised ALT, impaired glucose regulation, acanthosis nigricans, and a high BMI. The question is, what investigation should be done next?
Ultrasound liver is the best investigation in this case. It is quick, inexpensive, and can provide enough information to guide management at initial stages. Weight management and dietary modification can help abate symptoms.
Screening for hereditary haemochromatosis is not appropriate in this case, as the patient does not complain of arthritis, diabetes, or changes to the skin.
Haematinics are not necessary, as the Hb is normal.
A CT scan of the abdomen would be useful, but it is costly and would result in the patient receiving radiation. It should not be the next best investigation.
Serum ceruloplasmin is not necessary, as there is nothing in the history to suggest Wilson’s disease.
In conclusion, choosing the best investigation requires careful consideration of the patient’s history and symptoms. In this case, ultrasound liver is the most appropriate next step.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain, fever and chills for the last two days. His past medical history is significant for gallstone disease which has not been followed up for some time. He is febrile, but his other observations are normal.
Physical examination is remarkable for jaundice, scleral icterus and right upper-quadrant pain. There is no abdominal rigidity, and bowel sounds are present.
His blood test results are shown below.
Investigation Results Normal value
White cell count (WCC) 18.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 97 mg/dl 0–10 mg/l
Bilirubin 40 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Which of the following is the best next step in management?Your Answer: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) antibiotics
Explanation:Management of Acute Cholangitis: Next Steps
Acute cholangitis (AC) is a serious infection of the biliary tree that requires prompt management. The patient typically presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. The next steps in management depend on the patient’s clinical presentation and stability.
Intravenous (IV) antibiotics are the first-line treatment for AC. The patient’s febrile state and elevated inflammatory markers indicate the need for prompt antibiotic therapy. Piperacillin and tazobactam are a suitable choice of antibiotics.
Exploratory laparotomy is indicated in patients who are hemodynamically unstable and have signs of intra-abdominal haemorrhage. However, this is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.
Percutaneous cholecystostomy is a minimally invasive procedure used to drain the gallbladder that is typically reserved for critically unwell patients. It is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.
A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen is likely to be required to identify the cause of the biliary obstruction. However, IV antibiotics should be commenced first.
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) may be required to remove common bile duct stones or stent biliary strictures. However, this is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.
In summary, the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC is prompt IV antibiotics followed by abdominal imaging to identify the cause of the biliary obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the most likely diagnosis for a 45-year-old woman who has had severe itching for three weeks and presents to your clinic with abnormal liver function tests and a positive anti-TPO antibody?
Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis
Explanation:Autoimmune Diseases and Hepatic Disorders: A Comparison of Symptoms and Diagnostic Findings
Primary biliary cholangitis is characterized by severe itching, mild jaundice, and elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, ALT, and AST. Anti-mitochondrial antibody is positive, and LDL and TG may be mildly elevated. Patients may also exhibit microcytic anemia and elevated anti-TPO levels, as seen in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. In contrast, primary sclerosing cholangitis affects men and is associated with colitis due to inflammatory bowel disease. Anti-mitochondrial antibody is often negative, and p-ANCA is often positive. Addison’s disease is characterized by fatigue, weakness, weight loss, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia, and may coexist with other autoimmune diseases. Autoimmune hepatitis is characterized by elevated levels of ANA, anti-smooth muscle antibody, anti-mitochondrial antibody, and anti-LKM antibody, with normal or slightly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase. Chronic viral hepatitis is indicated by elevated levels of HBs antigen and anti-HBC antibody, with anti-HBs antibody indicating a history of prior infection or vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit with mild abdominal pain that has been occurring on and off for several weeks. However, the pain has now worsened, causing her to feel nauseated and lose her appetite. She has not had a bowel movement in 3 days and has not noticed any blood in her stool. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C, heart rate 110 bpm, and blood pressure 124/82 mmHg. Her abdomen is soft, but she experiences tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Bowel sounds are present but reduced. During rectal examination, tenderness is the only finding. The patient has no history of gastrointestinal issues and only sees her general practitioner for osteoarthritis. She has not had a sexual partner since her husband passed away 2 years ago. Based on the information provided, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diverticulitis
Explanation:Understanding Diverticulitis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Differential Diagnoses
Diverticulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of diverticula, which are mucosal herniations through the muscle of the colon. While most people over 50 have diverticula, only 25% of them become symptomatic, experiencing left lower quadrant abdominal pain that worsens after eating and improves after bowel emptying. Low dietary fiber, obesity, and smoking are risk factors for diverticular disease, which can lead to complications such as perforation, obstruction, or abscess formation.
Bowel perforation is a potential complication of diverticulitis, but it is rare and usually accompanied by peritonitis. Pelvic inflammatory disease is a possible differential diagnosis in women, but it is unlikely in this case due to the lack of sexual partners for two years. Inflammatory bowel disease is more common in young adults, while diverticulosis is more prevalent in people over 50. Colorectal cancer is another differential diagnosis to consider, especially in older patients with a change in bowel habit and fever or tachycardia.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, risk factors, and differential diagnoses of diverticulitis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A geriatric patient is admitted with right upper quadrant pain and jaundice. The following investigation results are obtained:
Investigation Result Normal range
Bilirubin 154 µmol/l 3–17 µmol/l
Conjugated bilirubin 110 mmol/l 3 mmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 10 IU/l 1–21 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 200 IU/l 50–160 IU/l
Prothrombin time 55 s 25–41 s
Ultrasound report: ‘A dilated bile duct is noted, no other abnormality seen’
Urine: bilirubin +++
What is the most likely cause of the jaundice?Your Answer: Paracetamol overdose
Correct Answer: Stone in common bile duct
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of obstructive liver function tests
Obstructive liver function tests, characterized by elevated conjugated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase, can be caused by various conditions. Here are some possible differential diagnoses:
– Stone in common bile duct: This can obstruct the flow of bile and cause jaundice, as well as dilate the bile duct. The absence of urobilinogen in urine and the correction of prothrombin time with vitamin K support the diagnosis.
– Haemolytic anaemia: This can lead to increased breakdown of red blood cells and elevated unconjugated bilirubin, but usually does not affect alkaline phosphatase.
– Hepatitis: This can cause inflammation of the liver and elevated transaminases, but usually does not affect conjugated bilirubin or alkaline phosphatase.
– Liver cirrhosis: This can result from chronic liver damage and fibrosis, but usually does not cause obstructive liver function tests unless there is associated biliary obstruction or cholestasis.
– Paracetamol overdose: This can cause liver damage and elevated transaminases, but usually does not affect conjugated bilirubin or alkaline phosphatase unless there is associated liver failure or cholestasis.Therefore, a careful clinical evaluation and additional tests may be needed to confirm the underlying cause of obstructive liver function tests and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain that occurs after eating. She also reports weight loss due to her abdominal pain preventing her from eating large amounts. Her medical history includes stable angina and intermittent claudication caused by peripheral arterial disease. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities on the abdomen, but there is general tenderness upon palpation, no signs of organ enlargement, and normal bowel sounds. Routine blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests, are normal. CT angiography shows an obstructed coeliac trunk and a stenosed but patent superior mesenteric artery. Which organ is most likely to be ischemic and contributing to this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Transverse colon
Correct Answer: Stomach
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Mesenteric Ischaemia and Organ Involvement
Chronic mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is reduced blood flow to the intestines due to the narrowing or blockage of major mesenteric vessels. Patients with this condition often present with postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, and concurrent vascular co-morbidities. To develop symptoms, at least two of the major mesenteric vessels must be affected, with one of these two occluded.
The coeliac trunk is one of the major mesenteric vessels, and when it is occluded, the organs it supplies are at risk. These organs include the stomach, spleen, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, duodenum, and abdominal portion of the oesophagus.
The jejunum is supplied directly by the superior mesenteric artery, but it is less likely to be the cause of symptoms than a foregut structure supplied by the coeliac trunk. The transverse colon is supplied by the right and middle colic arteries and the left colic artery, but it is unlikely to be the cause of symptoms if neither the superior nor the inferior mesenteric artery is completely occluded. The descending colon is supplied by the left colic artery, but it is unlikely to be the organ causing symptoms if this artery is neither occluded nor stenosed. The ileum is also supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, but it is less likely to be the cause of symptoms than a foregut structure.
In summary, understanding the involvement of different organs in chronic mesenteric ischaemia can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presented with fatigue and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, he appeared pale and blood tests showed a hemoglobin level of 62 g/l and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 64 fl. Although he did not exhibit any signs of bleeding, his stool occult blood test (OBT) was positive twice. Despite undergoing upper GI endoscopy, colonoscopy, and small bowel contrast study, all results were reported as normal. What would be the most appropriate next step in investigating this patient?
Your Answer: Small bowel angiography
Correct Answer: Capsule endoscopy
Explanation:Obscure gastrointestinal bleeding can be either overt or occult, without clear cause identified by invasive tests. Video capsule endoscopy has become the preferred method of diagnosis, with other methods such as nuclear scans and push endoscopy being used less frequently. Small bowel angiography may be used after capsule endoscopy to treat an identified bleeding point. However, not all suspicious-looking vascular lesions are the cause of bleeding, so angiography is necessary to confirm the actively bleeding lesion. Wireless capsule endoscopy is contraindicated in patients with swallowing disorders, suspected small bowel stenosis, strictures or fistulas, those who require urgent MRI scans, and those with gastroparesis. Scintiscan involves the use of radiolabelled markers to detect points of bleeding in the GI tract. Double balloon endoscopy is a specialist technique that allows for biopsy and local treatment of abnormalities detected in the small bowel, but it is time-consuming and requires prolonged sedation or general anesthesia. Blind biopsy of the duodenum may be considered if all other tests are negative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 28-year-old man, diagnosed with ulcerative colitis (UC) 18 months ago, presents with 2-day history of progressively worsening abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He is currently passing motion 11 times per day.
On examination, there is generalised abdominal tenderness and distension. He is pyrexial, with a temperature of 39 °C; his pulse is 124 bpm.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 90 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 15 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Erect chest X-ray Normal
Plain abdominal X-ray 12-cm dilation of the transverse colon
He also has a raised C-reactive protein (CRP).
What would be the most appropriate initial management of this patient?Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) hydrocortisone, low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), IV fluids, reassess response after 72 hours
Explanation:Management of Toxic Megacolon in Ulcerative Colitis: Medical and Surgical Options
Toxic megacolon (TM) is a rare but life-threatening complication of ulcerative colitis (UC) characterized by severe colon dilation and systemic toxicity. The initial management of TM involves aggressive medical therapy with intravenous (IV) hydrocortisone, low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), and IV fluids to restore hemodynamic stability. Oral mesalazine is indicated for mild to moderate UC or for maintenance of remission. If the patient fails to respond to medical management after 72 hours, urgent surgery, usually subtotal colectomy with end ileostomy, should be considered.
Infliximab and vedolizumab are second-line management options for severe active UC in patients who fail to respond to intensive IV steroid treatment. However, their role in the setting of TM is unclear. LMWH is required for UC patients due to their high risk of venous thromboembolism.
Prompt recognition and management of TM is crucial to prevent mortality. A multidisciplinary approach involving gastroenterologists, surgeons, and critical care specialists is recommended for optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding gastric acid secretion?
Your Answer: It is stimulated by somatostatin
Correct Answer: It is potentiated by histamine
Explanation:Understanding Gastric Acid Secretion: Factors that Stimulate and Inhibit its Production
Gastric acid, also known as stomach acid, is a vital component in the process of digesting food. Composed of hydrochloric acid, potassium chloride, and sodium chloride, it is secreted in the stomach and plays a crucial role in breaking down ingested food contents. In this article, we will explore the factors that stimulate and inhibit gastric acid secretion.
Stimulation of Gastric Acid Secretion
There are three classic phases of gastric acid secretion. The cephalic (preparatory) phase is triggered by the sight, smell, thought, and taste of food acting via the vagus nerve. This results in the production of gastric acid before food actually enters the stomach. The gastric phase is initiated by the presence of food in the stomach, particularly protein-rich food, caused by stimulation of G cells which release gastrin. This is the most important phase. The intestinal phase is stimulated by luminal distension plus the presence of amino acids and food in the duodenum.
Potentiation and Inhibition of Gastric Acid Secretion
Histamine potentiates gastric acid secretion, while gastrin inhibits it. Somatostatin, secretin, and cholecystokinin also inhibit gastric acid production.
Importance of Gastric Acid Secretion
Gastric acid secretion reduces the risk of Zollinger–Ellison syndrome, a condition characterized by excess gastric acid production that can lead to multiple severe gastric ulcers, requiring high-dose antacid treatment. Understanding the factors that stimulate and inhibit gastric acid secretion is crucial in maintaining a healthy digestive system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with a 6-month history of increasing difficulty with swallowing solid foods. He does not have any problems with swallowing liquids. He has always been overweight but has lost 5 kg in the past few months. He attributes this eating a little less due to his swallowing difficulties. He has a past history of long-term heartburn and indigestion, which he has been self-treating with over-the-counter antacids. The GP is concerned that the patient may have oesophageal cancer.
Which one of the following statements with regard to oesophageal cancer is correct?Your Answer: Dysphagia is a late manifestation
Correct Answer: Achalasia predisposes to squamous carcinoma of the oesophagus
Explanation:Understanding Oesophageal Carcinoma: Risk Factors, Diagnosis, and Prognosis
Oesophageal carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the oesophagus, the muscular tube that connects the throat to the stomach. In this article, we will discuss the risk factors, diagnosis, and prognosis of oesophageal carcinoma.
Risk Factors
Achalasia, a condition that affects the ability of the oesophagus to move food down to the stomach, and alcohol consumption are associated with squamous carcinoma, which most commonly affects the upper and middle oesophagus. Barrett’s oesophagus, a pre-malignant condition that may lead to squamous carcinoma, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) predispose to adenocarcinoma, which occurs in the lower oesophagus.
Diagnosis
Barrett’s oesophagus is a recognised pre-malignant condition that requires acid-lowering therapy and frequent follow-up. Ablative and excisional therapies are available. Most cases are amenable to curative surgery at diagnosis. Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, is an early manifestation of the disease and is typically experienced with solid foods.
Prognosis
Prognosis depends on the stage and grade at diagnosis, but unfortunately, the disease frequently presents once the cancer has spread. Therefore, early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes.
Conclusion
Oesophageal carcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the risk factors, diagnosis, and prognosis can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk and seek medical attention if symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 5-year old child has been admitted to the hospital after experiencing fever, feeling unwell, and developing bloody diarrhea for the past two days. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Escherichia coli 0157
Explanation:Causes of Acute Diarrhoea and Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome
Enterohaemorrhagic verocytotoxin-producing E coli 0157:H7 is the most probable cause of acute diarrhoea and haemolytic uraemic syndrome. This type of E coli is known to produce toxins that can damage the lining of the intestine and cause bloody diarrhoea. In severe cases, it can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome, a condition that affects the kidneys and can cause kidney failure.
Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that can cause chronic diarrhoea, but it would be unusual for it to present acutely as in this case. Polio and giardiasis are other possible causes of diarrhoea, but they typically present as non-bloody diarrhoea. It is important to identify the underlying cause of acute diarrhoea and haemolytic uraemic syndrome to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a history of intermittent dysphagia to both solids and liquids for the past 6 months. She reports that food often gets stuck during meals and she has to drink a lot of water to overcome this. The doctor orders a chest X-ray and barium swallow, which reveal a dilated oesophagus, lack of peristalsis, and bird-beak deformity.
What diagnosis is consistent with these symptoms and test results?Your Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Achalasia is a condition where the lower oesophageal sphincter fails to relax during swallowing, causing difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids. The cause is often unknown, and diagnosis involves various tests such as chest X-ray, barium swallow, oesophagoscopy, CT scan, and manometry. Treatment options include sphincter dilation using Botox or balloon dilation, and surgery if necessary. Oesophageal web is a thin membrane in the oesophagus that can cause dysphagia to solids and reflux symptoms. Chagas’ disease, scleroderma, and diffuse oesophageal spasm are other conditions that can cause similar symptoms but have different causes and treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 50-year-old man patient who has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to his general practitioner with complaints of white lesions in his mouth.
On examination, the white lesions inside the patient’s mouth can easily be scraped off with minimal bleeding. The patient does not have cervical lymph node enlargement and is otherwise well.
Which of the following options is the most appropriate step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Nystatin
Explanation:Management of Oral Candidiasis: Understanding the Treatment Options and Indications for Referral
Oral candidiasis is a common fungal infection that can affect individuals of all ages, particularly infants, older patients who wear dentures, diabetics, and immunosuppressed patients. The infection is caused by the yeast Candida albicans and typically presents as white lesions in the mouth that can be easily scraped off with a tongue blade.
The first-line treatment for localised disease involves topical treatment with nystatin suspension, which is swished and swallowed in the mouth three to four times a day. However, immunosuppressed patients may suffer from widespread C. albicans infections, such as oesophageal candidiasis and candidaemia, which require more aggressive treatment with intravenous antifungal medications like amphotericin B.
It is important to note that testing for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is not required in patients with isolated oral thrush. However, immediate specialist referral would be necessary if oropharyngeal cancer was being considered in the differential diagnosis. The two-week wait referral is also indicated for unexplained oral ulceration lasting more than three weeks and persistent, unexplained cervical lymph node enlargement.
In conclusion, understanding the appropriate treatment options and indications for referral is crucial in managing oral candidiasis effectively. Topical treatment with nystatin suspension is the first-line therapy for localised disease, while more aggressive treatment with intravenous antifungal medications is necessary for disseminated fungal infections. Referral to a specialist is necessary in cases where oropharyngeal cancer is suspected or when there is unexplained oral ulceration or persistent cervical lymph node enlargement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 86-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, there is decreased airflow in the left base. A chest X-ray shows an air-fluid level located behind the mediastinum. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diaphragmatic hiatal hernia
Explanation:Diaphragmatic Hiatal Hernia
Diaphragmatic hiatal hernia is a condition where the fundus or gastro-oesophageal junction of the stomach herniates upwards in the chest due to an abnormal defect in the diaphragm. A chest X-ray may reveal gastric air and fluid behind the mediastinum, and reduced air entry at the lung bases due to compression of the lung lobes. Immediate management involves stabilizing the patient with ABCDE and seeking an urgent surgical review for a possible Nissen fundoplication.
Other conditions such as early cholangitis, aspiration pneumonia of the left lower lobe of the lung, ruptured left ventricle, or ruptured right ventricle may present with different symptoms and would not cause the air and fluid level behind the mediastinum seen in diaphragmatic hiatal hernia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents at the outpatient clinic with altered bowel habit and occasional per rectum bleeding for the past 3 months. During examination, he experiences tenderness on the left iliac fossa and is unable to tolerate a pr examination. His liver function tests at the general practice surgery showed an elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level. Based on these symptoms, which of the following autoantibody screen findings is most likely?
Your Answer: Raised anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA)
Explanation:Interpreting Autoantibody Results in a Patient with Abnormal Liver Function Tests and Colitis-like Symptoms
The patient in question presents with abnormal liver function tests and colitis-like symptoms, including bloody stools and tenderness in the left iliac fossa. The following autoantibody results were obtained:
– Raised anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA): This suggests the possibility of inflammatory bowel disease, particularly ulcerative colitis (UC), which is strongly associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). PSC is characterized by immunologically mediated inflammation of the bile ducts, leading to obstruction and a cholestatic pattern of liver dysfunction. ASMA and p-ANCA are often elevated in PSC, and an isolated rise in alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is common.
– Raised anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA): This enzyme is typically detected in primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), which causes destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts and a cholestatic pattern of jaundice. However, given the patient’s gender and coexisting UC, PBC is less likely than PSC as a cause of the elevated ALP.
– Raised anti-endomysial antibody: This is associated with coeliac disease, which can cause chronic inflammation of the small intestine and malabsorption. However, the patient’s symptoms do not strongly suggest this diagnosis.
– Negative result for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) antibodies: SLE is not clinically suspected based on the patient’s history.
– Raised anti-Jo antibody: This is associated with polymyositis and dermatomyositis, which are not suspected in this patient.In summary, the patient’s autoantibody results suggest a possible diagnosis of PSC in the context of UC and liver dysfunction. Further imaging studies, such as ERCP or MRCP, may be necessary to confirm this diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient presents with complaints of recurrent bloody diarrhoea and symptoms of iritis. On examination, there is a painful nodular erythematosus eruption on the shin and anal tags are observed. What diagnostic test would you recommend to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: HLA B-27
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Inflammatory Bowel Disease with Crohn’s Disease Suggestion
The patient’s symptoms and physical examination suggest inflammatory bowel disease, with anal skin tags indicating a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease. Other symptoms consistent with this diagnosis include iritis and a skin rash that may be erythema nodosum. To confirm the diagnosis, a colonoscopy with biopsies would be the initial investigation. While serum ACE levels can aid in diagnosis, they are often elevated in conditions other than sarcoidosis.
Overall, the patient’s symptoms and physical examination point towards inflammatory bowel disease, with Crohn’s disease as a possible subtype. Further testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents with a history of melaena on three separate occasions in the past three years. She reports having had many tests, including barium enemas, flexible sigmoidoscopies, and oesophagogastroduodenoscopies, which were all normal.
One year ago she required two units of blood to raise her haematocrit from 24% to 30%. She has been taking iron, 300 mg orally BD, since then.
The patient has hypertension, coronary artery disease, and heart failure treated with digoxin, enalapril, furosemide, and metoprolol. She does not have chest pain or dyspnoea.
Her body mass index is 32, her pulse is 88 per minute, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg supine and 118/82 mm Hg standing. The conjunctivae are pale. A ventricular gallop is heard. There are bruits over both femoral arteries.
Rectal examination reveals dark brown stool that is positive for occult blood. Other findings of the physical examination are normal.
Barium enema shows a few diverticula scattered throughout the descending and transverse colon.
Colonoscopy shows angiodysplasia of the caecum but no bleeding is seen.
Technetium (99mTc) red cell scan of the colon is negative.
Haemoglobin is 105 g/L (115-165) and her haematocrit is 30% (36-47).
What would be the most appropriate course of action at this time?Your Answer: Embolisation of the mesenteric artery
Correct Answer: Continued observation
Explanation:Angiodysplasia
Angiodysplasia is a condition where previously healthy blood vessels degenerate, commonly found in the caecum and proximal ascending colon. The majority of angiodysplasias, around 77%, are located in these areas. Symptoms of angiodysplasia include maroon-coloured stool, melaena, haematochezia, and haematemesis. Bleeding is usually low-grade, but in some cases, around 15%, it can be massive. However, bleeding stops spontaneously in over 90% of cases.
Radionuclide scanning using technetium Tc99 labelled red blood cells can help detect and locate active bleeding from angiodysplasia, even at low rates of 0.1 ml/min. However, the intermittent nature of bleeding in angiodysplasia limits the usefulness of this method. For patients who are haemodynamically stable, a conservative approach is recommended as most bleeding angiodysplasias will stop on their own. Treatment is usually not necessary for asymptomatic patients who incidentally discover they have angiodysplasias.
Overall, angiodysplasia and its symptoms is important for early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old child is brought to the paediatrician by his parents for a follow-up examination after diagnosis of a genetically inherited disease. During the examination, the paediatrician observes a yellow-brown discoloration around the iris.
Which type of renal dysfunction is typically treated as the first-line approach for this child's condition?Your Answer: Minimal change disease
Correct Answer: Membranous nephropathy
Explanation:Common Glomerular Diseases and Their Associations
Glomerular diseases are a group of conditions that affect the glomeruli, the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys that filter waste and excess fluids from the blood. Here are some common glomerular diseases and their associations:
1. Membranous nephropathy: This disease is associated with Wilson’s disease, an inherited disorder of copper metabolism. Treatment involves the use of penicillamine, which is associated with membranous nephropathy.
2. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis: This disease is associated with intravenous drug abuse, HIV, being of African origin, and obesity.
3. Minimal change disease: This nephrotic syndrome is associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma and recent upper respiratory tract infection or routine immunisation.
4. Type II membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis: This disease is associated with C3 nephritic factor, an antibody that stabilises C3 convertase and causes alternative complement activation.
5. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis: This nephritic syndrome is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
Understanding the associations between glomerular diseases and their underlying causes can help in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 52-year-old male taxi driver presented with altered consciousness. He was discovered on the roadside in this state and brought to the Emergency Department. He had a strong smell of alcohol and was also found to be icteric. Ascites and gynaecomastia were clinically present. The following morning during examination, he was lying still in bed without interest in his surroundings. He was able to report his name and occupation promptly but continued to insist that it was midnight. He was cooperative during physical examination, but once the attending doctor pressed his abdomen, he swore loudly, despite being known as a generally gentle person. What is the grading of hepatic encephalopathy for this patient?
Your Answer: 2
Explanation:Understanding the West Haven Criteria for Hepatic Encephalopathy
The West Haven Criteria is a scoring system used to assess the severity of hepatic encephalopathy, a condition where the liver is unable to remove toxins from the blood, leading to brain dysfunction. The criteria range from 0 to 4, with higher scores indicating more severe symptoms.
A score of 0 indicates normal mental status with minimal changes in memory, concentration, intellectual function, and coordination. This is also known as minimal hepatic encephalopathy.
A score of 1 indicates mild confusion, euphoria or depression, decreased attention, slowing of mental tasks, irritability, and sleep pattern disorders such as an inverted sleep cycle.
A score of 2 indicates drowsiness, lethargy, gross deficits in mental tasks, personality changes, inappropriate behavior, and intermittent disorientation.
A score of 3 presents with somnolence but rousability, inability to perform mental tasks, disorientation to time and place, marked confusion, amnesia, occasional fits of rage, and speech that is present but incomprehensible.
A score of 4 indicates coma with or without response to painful stimuli.
Understanding the West Haven Criteria is important in diagnosing and managing hepatic encephalopathy, as it helps healthcare professionals determine the severity of the condition and develop appropriate treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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