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  • Question 1 - What is the primary mode of operation of simvastatin in elderly patients? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary mode of operation of simvastatin in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Decreases intrinsic cholesterol synthesis

      Explanation:

      The rate-limiting enzyme in hepatic cholesterol synthesis, HMG-CoA reductase, is inhibited by statins.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      72.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old man presents following a fall. During an assessment of his fall,...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents following a fall. During an assessment of his fall, he complained of balance problems, nausea and dizziness whenever he looked upwards, eg to change a light bulb. He denies loss of consciousness and did not injure himself during the fall. His past medical history consists of hypertension and high cholesterol.
      On examination, his gait and balance and neurological examination are normal, and there are no injuries. The Hallpike test is positive.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient’s vertigo?

      Your Answer: Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common vestibular disorder that can cause dizziness and vertigo. The Epley manoeuvre is the best first-line management option for BPPV, as it can reposition the debris in the vestibular canals and provide rapid relief. If symptoms persist, investigations may be necessary to rule out more serious brain pathologies, but a brain MRI is not typically required for a BPPV diagnosis.

      Medications such as betahistine or prochlorperazine may provide short-term relief of symptoms, but they do not address the underlying cause of BPPV. Vestibular retraining exercises, such as Brandt-Daroff exercises, can also be effective in reducing symptoms if they persist despite the Epley manoeuvre. Overall, a combination of these management options can help alleviate the symptoms of BPPV and improve quality of life for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As a second-year foundation doctor in the emergency department, you come across a...

    Correct

    • As a second-year foundation doctor in the emergency department, you come across a thirteen-year-old patient complaining of right hip pain and a limp. The patient has a mild fever, but all other observations and blood tests are normal. An X-ray also shows no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient synovitis

      Explanation:

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common childhood condition that presents with sudden onset pain and limping. It is diagnosed by ruling out other possible causes and typically resolves on its own within 1-2 weeks. While trauma or non-accidental injury may be a factor, this would likely be revealed in the patient’s medical history. However, doctors should remain vigilant for signs of non-accidental injury. Although septic arthritis is a possibility, it is unlikely in cases where blood tests are normal. Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis (SUFE), which causes groin pain and a waddling gait, can be ruled out based on its characteristic x-ray findings.

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 61-year-old man presents to his GP with increasing mild confusion over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presents to his GP with increasing mild confusion over the past 2 weeks. His husband has also noticed a decline in his mental state. The patient's medical history includes a road traffic accident 8 weeks ago, where he sustained a head injury but was discharged from the emergency department with no significant injuries. He denies any current symptoms of headache, nausea, or changes in vision. On examination, there are no focal neurological deficits, and both ocular and mental state exams are unremarkable. What is the most likely cause of this man's presentation?

      Your Answer: Extradural haematoma

      Correct Answer: Subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Subdural Haemorrhage

      A subdural haemorrhage is a condition where blood collects deep to the dural layer of the meninges. This collection of blood is not within the brain substance and is referred to as an ‘extra-axial’ or ‘extrinsic’ lesion. Subdural haematomas can be classified based on their age, which includes acute, subacute, and chronic. Although they occur within the same anatomical compartment, acute and chronic subdurals have significant differences in terms of their mechanisms, associated clinical features, and management.

      An acute subdural haematoma is a collection of fresh blood within the subdural space and is commonly caused by high-impact trauma. This type of haematoma is associated with high-impact injuries, and there is often other underlying brain injuries. Symptoms and presentation vary depending on the size of the compressive acute subdural haematoma and the associated injuries. CT imaging is the first-line investigation, and surgical options include monitoring of intracranial pressure and decompressive craniectomy.

      On the other hand, a chronic subdural haematoma is a collection of blood within the subdural space that has been present for weeks to months. Elderly and alcoholic patients are particularly at risk of subdural haematomas since they have brain atrophy and therefore fragile or taut bridging veins. Infants also have fragile bridging veins and can rupture in shaken baby syndrome. If the chronic subdural is an incidental finding or if it is small in size with no associated neurological deficit, it can be managed conservatively. However, if the patient is confused, has an associated neurological deficit, or has severe imaging findings, surgical decompression with burr holes is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old administrative assistant complains of pain on the thumb side of her...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old administrative assistant complains of pain on the thumb side of her left wrist, persisting for the past week. She also notices that her left wrist seems more swollen than her right. During the examination, she experiences discomfort over her radial styloid when her thumb is forcefully flexed.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tenosynovitis

      Explanation:

      The patient is positive for Finkelstein test, indicating De Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition causes pain over the radial styloid when the thumb is forcefully abducted or flexed. Unlike De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, rheumatoid arthritis affects both sides of the body. Mallet thumb is an injury that causes the thumb to bend towards the palm. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the median nerve and results in numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative condition that primarily affects the elderly due to mechanical wear and tear.

      De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.

      Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with patchy hair loss on her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with patchy hair loss on her scalp, which is well-defined. The hair loss is affecting approximately 25% of her scalp, and she is experiencing significant emotional distress. The doctor suspects alopecia areata. What would be an appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Topical corticosteroid + referral to dermatologist

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its guideline for hypertension management in 2011, placing emphasis on the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm hypertension in individuals with elevated clinic readings. ABPM involves taking two measurements per hour during waking hours and using the average of at least 14 measurements to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. Secondary causes of hypertension should be investigated in patients under 40 without traditional risk factors, those with other symptoms of secondary causes, and those with resistant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism is the most common cause of secondary hypertension, and a trial of spironolactone may be used for both therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Drug treatment for essential hypertension involves ACE inhibitors for those under 55 and calcium channel blockers for those over 55 or of black African or Caribbean origin. Step 2 involves using both ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers, while step 3 adds a thiazide-like diuretic. Further diuretics, beta-blockers, or alpha blockers may be considered in step 4, with expert advice sought.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines aimed to classify hypertension into stages and recommend the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to accurately diagnose hypertension. This is important because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM allow for a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can prevent overdiagnosis.

      NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms when considering a diagnosis of hypertension and repeating measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg between arms. If the blood pressure is >= 140/90 mmHg, NICE suggests offering ABPM or HBPM to confirm the diagnosis. If the blood pressure is >= 180/120 mmHg, referral for specialist assessment is recommended if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately.

      ABPM involves taking at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours and using the average value of at least 14 measurements. If ABPM is not tolerated, HBPM should be offered. HBPM involves taking two consecutive measurements at least 1 minute apart, twice daily for at least 4 days, and using the average value of all remaining measurements.

      Interpreting the results of ABPM/HBPM is important for determining treatment. If the average blood pressure is >= 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension), treatment may be considered for patients under 80 years of age with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. In 2019, NICE also recommended considering antihypertensive drug treatment for adults under 60 with stage 1 hypertension and an estimated 10-year risk below 10%. If the average blood pressure is >= 150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension), drug treatment should be offered regardless of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath. He has been experiencing a dry cough for the past two weeks. He works as a full-time accountant, does not smoke, and drinks approximately 15 units of alcohol per week. He recently went on a trip to Amsterdam with some friends. He has also noticed a widespread skin rash with pink rings and pale centers. Upon admission, his blood work shows low sodium levels, normal potassium levels, elevated urea levels, and high creatinine levels. His chest x-ray reveals diffuse reticular infiltrates and a small pleural effusion on the right side. What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Typical presentation of mycoplasma pneumonia includes flu-like symptoms that progressively worsen and a dry cough. During examination, the patient may exhibit erythema multiforme, indicating the presence of the infection. This type of pneumonia is commonly acquired within the community. Although Streptococcus pneumoniae is also a possible cause, it is not the focus of this particular case.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A Cause of Atypical Pneumonia

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia, which is more common in younger patients. This disease is associated with various complications such as erythema multiforme and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Epidemics of Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically occur every four years. It is important to recognize atypical pneumonia because it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to the bacteria lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      The disease usually has a gradual onset and is preceded by flu-like symptoms, followed by a dry cough. X-rays may show bilateral consolidation. Complications may include cold agglutinins, erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, bullous myringitis, pericarditis/myocarditis, and gastrointestinal and renal problems.

      Diagnosis is generally made through Mycoplasma serology and a positive cold agglutination test. Management involves the use of doxycycline or a macrolide such as erythromycin or clarithromycin.

      In comparison to Legionella pneumonia, which is caused by a different type of bacteria, Mycoplasma pneumoniae has a more gradual onset and is associated with different complications. It is important to differentiate between the two types of pneumonia to ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An itchy rash over the extensor surfaces in a patient with gluten intolerance:...

    Incorrect

    • An itchy rash over the extensor surfaces in a patient with gluten intolerance:

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is the correct answer, which is a skin rash that is closely linked to coeliac disease. This is a persistent skin condition that causes blisters, but it is not caused by or related to the herpes virus. It is important to note that dapsone is an effective treatment for Dermatitis herpetiformis, which is a common question in exams. Additionally, a gluten-free diet can also help alleviate symptoms.

      Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is an autoimmune blistering disorder that is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces of the body, such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.

      To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is required, which will show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis. This condition can be managed by following a gluten-free diet and taking dapsone medication.

      It is important to understand the symptoms and management of dermatitis herpetiformis to ensure that proper treatment is given. By following a gluten-free diet and taking medication, individuals with this condition can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. He states that he has not experienced any changes in his vision.
      During the eyelid examination, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid margins, which are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conjunctivitis

      Correct Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If necessary, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.

      Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis have watery/discharging eyes, a gritty sensation, and conjunctival erythema. Most cases resolve on their own, but some may require topical antibiotics.

      Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painless area on the eyelid that settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can help with drainage.

      Entropion: The margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.

      Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, and plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.

      Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 12 weeks gestation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 12 weeks gestation for discussion about testing for chromosomal disorders. She has no significant medical history and is concerned about the potential risks to her and her baby. Upon investigation, her b-hCG levels are elevated, PAPP-A levels are decreased, and ultrasound reveals thickened nuchal translucency. The calculated chance of a chromosomal disorder is 1/100. What is the recommended next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Offer quadruple test

      Correct Answer: Offer non-invasive prenatal screening testing

      Explanation:

      Women with a higher chance of Down’s syndrome based on combined or quadruple tests are offered further screening or diagnostic tests. In this case, the patient’s chance is 1 in 100, making non-invasive prenatal screening (NIPT) the most appropriate option. Amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling (CVS) are less appropriate due to their invasive nature and higher risks.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with stridor and drooling. He...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with stridor and drooling. He is sitting forward and appears to be struggling to breathe. The clinician suspects acute epiglottitis. What is the causative organism of this condition?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae type B

      Explanation:

      Haemophilus influenzae type B is the cause of acute epiglottitis. Fortunately, this disease is now rare due to the inclusion of Hib in the childhood vaccination program since 1992. Hib can also lead to other severe infections like meningitis and septicaemia. Haemophilus influenzae type A is an uncommon illness. Staphylococcus aureus is known for causing skin infections like abscesses, respiratory infections such as sinusitis, and food poisoning. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bronchitis, otitis media, and sinusitis.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      54.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 43-year-old male accountant visits the clinic with a persistent hoarseness that has...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old male accountant visits the clinic with a persistent hoarseness that has been bothering him for the past 4 weeks. He reports that this is affecting his work performance. He denies experiencing any sore throat, difficulty swallowing, or cough. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the last 25 years and drinks a glass of beer every day. Apart from this, he is in good health. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: 2-week rule referral to ENT specialist

      Explanation:

      If a patient aged over 45 years old has persistent and unexplained hoarseness, it is recommended by NICE to urgently refer them to an ENT specialist under the 2-week wait rule. This is because they may have laryngeal cancer. While a chest radiograph is important, it is more appropriate to prioritize the referral to ENT if cancer is suspected. It is not appropriate to delay the referral or provide false reassurance. While advice on smoking cessation and alcohol should be given, specialist referral is the most important aspect of management in this situation.

      Understanding Hoarseness and its Causes

      Hoarseness is a condition that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is voice overuse, which can strain the vocal cords and lead to hoarseness. Smoking is another factor that can contribute to hoarseness, as it can irritate the throat and vocal cords. Viral illnesses, hypothyroidism, and gastro-oesophageal reflux are also known to cause hoarseness. In some cases, hoarseness can be a symptom of laryngeal or lung cancer.

      When investigating patients with hoarseness, it is important to consider a chest x-ray to rule out any apical lung lesions. If laryngeal cancer is suspected, referral guidelines recommend a suspected cancer pathway referral to an ENT specialist for individuals aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. By understanding the causes of hoarseness and seeking appropriate medical attention, individuals can receive the necessary treatment and improve their vocal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      25.9
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  • Question 13 - A 49-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with complaints of bloating and vomiting after meals. She reports that her blood glucose levels have been fluctuating more frequently lately. Which medication is most likely to provide relief for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Gastric emptying dysfunction can cause upper gastrointestinal symptoms and disrupt glucose control. Metoclopramide, a pro-kinetic medication, can help improve gastric emptying and alleviate these issues.

      Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This often affects the lower legs first due to the length of the sensory neurons supplying this area, resulting in a glove and stocking distribution. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with drugs such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy, and topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may also be helpful for patients with resistant problems.

      Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy can cause gastroparesis, which can lead to erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin. Chronic diarrhea, which often occurs at night, is another potential complication of diabetic neuropathy. Gastroesophageal reflux disease can also occur due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      19.7
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  • Question 14 - An 85-year-old man has just undergone an emergency repair for a ruptured abdominal...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man has just undergone an emergency repair for a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. Preoperatively he was taking aspirin and warfarin; intraoperatively he received unfractionated heparin prior to application of the aortic cross-clamp. His observation findings are heart rate 120 bpm, BP 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 23/min, oxygen saturation 98% on air, temperature 38ºC. His blood results on admission to the critical care unit are as follows:

      Hb 110 g/L
      Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 30 * 109/L
      (150 - 400)

      WBC 15 * 109/L
      (4.0 - 11.0)

      Fibrinogen 0.5 g/L
      (2-4 g/L)

      PT 20 seconds
      (10-12 seconds)

      APTT 60 seconds
      (35-45 seconds)

      FDP 60 ug/mL
      (<10 ug/mL)

      What is the most likely explanation for the blood abnormalities seen in this case?

      Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the patient’s deranged vital signs after a major operation and suspected sepsis is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). This is characterized by low platelets, increased clotting time, and raised fibrin degradation products (FDPs). DIC is often caused by the release of tissue factor (TF) in response to cytokines, tumor necrosis factor, and endotoxin. Anastomotic leak, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, warfarin use, and aspirin use are unlikely causes based on the patient’s history and blood results.

      Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Diagnosis

      Under normal conditions, coagulation and fibrinolysis work together to maintain homeostasis. However, in DIC, these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One key factor in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. Normally, TF is not in contact with the general circulation, but it is exposed after vascular damage or in response to certain cytokines. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which then triggers the intrinsic pathway. DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy.

      To diagnose DIC, a typical blood picture will show decreased platelets and fibrinogen, increased fibrinogen degradation products, and the presence of schistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Additionally, both the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are prolonged, while bleeding time and platelet count are often low. Understanding the diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      73.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of feeling unwell for...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of feeling unwell for the past 2 days. She reports weakness in her legs and increasing shortness of breath. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and hypothyroidism and is currently taking methotrexate and levothyroxine. She recently received treatment for a urinary tract infection from her GP. The patient's blood results are as follows: Hb 108 g/L (female normal range: 115-160 g/L), platelets 97 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), WBC 1.9 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L), Na+ 139 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145 mmol/L), K+ 4.1 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/L), urea 5.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 mmol/L), and creatinine 87 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120 µmol/L). What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      If methotrexate and trimethoprim-containing antibiotics are used together, it may lead to severe or fatal pancytopenia and bone marrow suppression. This patient, who takes methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis, has presented with pancytopenia and feeling unwell. Myelosuppression is a known adverse effect of methotrexate, which can be exacerbated by renal impairment and certain medications.

      Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.

      The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.

      When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.

      In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      68.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are conducting a neurological examination on a thirty-five-year-old patient who presents with...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a neurological examination on a thirty-five-year-old patient who presents with recent onset of blurred vision, speech disturbance, pronounced reflexes, and upward plantars upon attempting the Babinski reflex. The patient denies any history of headache and fundoscopy reveals normal findings. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The presence of Babinski sign suggests the presence of a condition affecting the upper motor neurons. When the sole of the foot is stimulated with a blunt object, an atypical reflex is observed where the toes move upwards.

      When ankle jerks are absent and extensor plantars are present, it is usually due to a lesion that affects both the upper and lower motor neurons. This can be caused by various conditions such as subacute combined degeneration of the cord, motor neuron disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, syringomyelia, taboparesis (syphilis), or a lesion in the conus medullaris. These conditions can lead to a loss of reflexes in the ankle and a specific type of reflex in the foot that indicates damage to both the upper and lower motor neurons. It is important to identify the underlying cause of these symptoms in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a breast lump. The lump has been present...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a breast lump. The lump has been present for around eight months and the patient is not sure if it has increased in size. On examination, there are no skin or nipple changes and there is a soft, mobile lump in the lower outer quadrant of the right breast which is nontender to palpation. She has no personal or family history of breast disease and is a non-smoker. What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management? Select the SINGLE most likely option.

      Your Answer: Routine referral to the Breast Surgery Team

      Correct Answer: 2-week wait referral to the breast surgery team

      Explanation:

      Management of Fibrocystic Breast Disease: Referral to Breast Surgery Team

      Fibrocystic breast disease, also known as fibro-adenosis or fibrosclerosis, is a common benign condition that often presents with breast lumps or nodularity. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients under 30 years of age with a new breast lump without other suspicious features should be routinely referred to the Breast Clinic.

      For patients presenting with a persistent lump, watch and wait may not be appropriate, and referral for assessment is indicated. Urgent 2-week wait referral is recommended for patients over 30 years of age with a new unexplained breast or axillary lump, or skin or nipple changes suggestive of breast cancer.

      Mammography is not indicated for patients under 35 years of age with a suspected fibro-adenoma. Instead, triple assessment with ultrasonography is recommended. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is evidence of infection or abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old boy presents to you with complaints of excessive sweating in his...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy presents to you with complaints of excessive sweating in his hands. He reports feeling embarrassed in social situations, particularly when he has to shake hands with someone. He is also concerned about how this may impact his upcoming A-level exams.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management approach for this condition?

      Your Answer: Aluminium chloride

      Explanation:

      Hyperhidrosis is not treated with beta blockers like propranolol or calcium channel blockers like nifedipine.

      Hyperhidrosis is a condition characterized by the excessive production of sweat. To manage this condition, there are several options available. The first-line treatment is the use of topical aluminium chloride preparations, although it may cause skin irritation as a side effect. Iontophoresis is another option that is particularly useful for patients with palmar, plantar, and axillary hyperhidrosis. Botulinum toxin is also licensed for axillary symptoms. Surgery, such as Endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy, is another option, but patients should be informed of the risk of compensatory sweating. Overall, there are various management options available for hyperhidrosis, and patients should discuss with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after being bitten by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after being bitten by a tick. She explains that the tick was removed by her husband using tweezers and is worried about the potential for Lyme disease. She reports no symptoms such as rash, headache, fever, lethargy, or joint pain. Her vital signs are normal and a full physical examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a prophylactic course of doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Re-assure the patient and provide safety netting advice

      Explanation:

      If a patient has been bitten by a tick but shows no signs of Lyme disease, such as erythema migrans or systemic malaise, prophylactic antibiotics are not necessary. According to NICE guidelines, asymptomatic patients with tick bites do not require ELISA investigation or antibiotic treatment. Referral to secondary care is also unnecessary in this case. The best course of action is to provide reassurance to the patient and advise them to be aware of potential symptoms of Lyme disease.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about not having had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about not having had a period for 6 months. She has also noticed increased sweating at night and occasional hot flashes, but attributes this to the warm weather. She has no desire for children and is only seeking reassurance that there is no underlying issue causing her amenorrhea. She has no significant medical history or family history.

      The following blood tests were conducted:
      - TSH: 2 mU/L (normal range: 0.5 - 5.5)
      - T4: 10 pmol/L (normal range: 9 - 18)
      - Prolactin: 15 µg/L (normal range: <25)
      - FSH: 75 iu/L (normal range: <40)
      - Oestradiol: 45 pmol/L (normal range: >100)

      Repeat blood tests 6 weeks later show no changes. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Combined hormone replacement therapy for 5 years

      Correct Answer: Combined hormone replacement therapy until the age of 51

      Explanation:

      Women with premature ovarian insufficiency should be offered hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of 51 years to manage symptoms of low estrogen, prevent osteoporosis, and protect against possible cardiovascular complications. As this patient has a uterus, combined replacement therapy is necessary to avoid the risk of endometrial cancer from unopposed estrogen. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is combined hormone replacement therapy until the age of 51. It is important to note that hormone replacement therapy should be offered to all women with premature ovarian failure to protect bone mineral density and manage symptoms of low estrogen. The progestogen-only pill alone is not sufficient as estrogen is needed to treat symptoms and promote bone mineral density, while progesterone is added to oppose estrogen and reduce the risk of endometrial cancer.

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      58.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
ENT (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (2/3) 67%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Reproductive Medicine (0/3) 0%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
Passmed