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  • Question 1 - Samantha Masters, a 16-year-old high school student, visits the Dermatology Clinic with concerns...

    Correct

    • Samantha Masters, a 16-year-old high school student, visits the Dermatology Clinic with concerns about her appearance. She has been struggling with severe acne for a few years and has tried various over-the-counter treatments and antibiotics, but none have worked. She has been researching Roaccutane® (isotretinoin) and is interested in trying it. What is the most frequent side effect Samantha may encounter while taking Roaccutane®?

      Your Answer: Dry skin and lips

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side-Effects of Roaccutane®: Dry Skin and Lips

      Roaccutane® is a powerful medication used to treat severe acne when other treatments have failed. While it is highly effective, it is also associated with a range of side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is severe dry skin and lips, which can be uncomfortable and require additional moisturizing. Other potential side-effects include dryness of the eyes, mucous membranes, and scalp, as well as muscle pain and hair loss.

      It is important to note that Roaccutane® is highly teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects if taken during pregnancy. Women who are taking Roaccutane® should use at least two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Additionally, all patients should have their liver function and lipid levels monitored before and during treatment, as Roaccutane® can cause elevated levels of both.

      While night sweats and peptic ulceration are not recognised side-effects of Roaccutane®, photosensitivity is a potential side-effect, although it is not the most common. Weight gain is also not a recognised side-effect. Patients taking Roaccutane® should be aware of these potential side-effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about post-coital bleeding. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about post-coital bleeding. She has experienced this three times, but reports no pain, discharge, or bleeding between periods. She is currently taking the combined contraceptive pill and is sexually active with a consistent partner. The patient has never been pregnant and is anxious due to her family history of endometrial cancer in her grandmother. During the examination, the GP observes a small area of redness surrounding the cervical os. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Correct Answer: Combined contraceptive pill use

      Explanation:

      The likelihood of cervical ectropion is higher in individuals who take the COCP due to increased levels of oestrogen. Based on the patient’s medical history and examination results, cervical ectropion appears to be the most probable diagnosis. This condition is more prevalent during puberty, pregnancy, and while taking the pill. Endometrial cancer is improbable in a young person, and the presence of cervical ectropion on examination supports this straightforward diagnosis. Although chlamydia infection can cause cervicitis, the patient’s sexual history does not suggest this diagnosis, and the pill remains the most likely cause. It is recommended to undergo STI screenings annually.

      Understanding Cervical Ectropion

      Cervical ectropion is a condition that occurs when the columnar epithelium of the cervical canal extends onto the ectocervix, where the stratified squamous epithelium is located. This happens due to elevated levels of estrogen, which can occur during the ovulatory phase, pregnancy, or with the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. The term cervical erosion is no longer commonly used to describe this condition.

      Cervical ectropion can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge and post-coital bleeding. However, ablative treatments such as cold coagulation are only recommended for those experiencing troublesome symptoms. It is important to understand this condition and its symptoms in order to seek appropriate medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      61.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old man comes to the Cancer Outpatient Department complaining of severe back...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the Cancer Outpatient Department complaining of severe back pain. He reports that the NSAIDs and opioids he has been taking are not providing relief. The patient has been diagnosed with CRPC that is advancing rapidly. He has completed a full course of taxane chemotherapy and imaging has revealed metastases in his vertebrae and organs.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: External beam radiation therapy (EBRT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pain Relief in Metastatic Prostate Cancer Patients

      External beam radiation therapy (EBRT) is the preferred treatment for pain relief in men with castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC). It has a success rate of 60-80% in providing complete or partial pain relief in palliative care management. Bisphosphonates can also be prescribed in combination with other agents for mild to moderate pain relief in hormone-resistant prostate cancer patients. Enzalutamide, an antineoplastic, antiandrogen systemic drug, is not preferred in rapidly progressing cases of CRPC. Radium-223, an alpha-particle-emitting radiopharmaceutical agent, is contraindicated in cases with visceral metastases. Stereotactic body radiotherapy (STBRT) is the preferred modality for pain relief in metastatic prostate cancer patients with longer survival times, using targeted irradiation to minimize damage to adjacent normal tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with an irregular mole...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with an irregular mole on her back. The mole is oval in shape, 2 cm in length, and has an irregular border throughout. The colour is uniform, and there has been no change in sensation. The GP wants to evaluate the lesion using the weighted 7-point checklist for assessment of pigmented lesions to determine if the lesion requires referral to Dermatology.
      What is a significant feature that scores 2 on the checklist?

      Your Answer: Irregular shape or border

      Explanation:

      The 7-Point Checklist for Assessing Pigmented Lesions

      The 7-point checklist is a tool used to assess pigmented lesions for potential malignancy. Major features, such as a change in size, irregular shape or border, and irregular color, score 2 points each. Minor features, including a largest diameter of 7 mm or more, inflammation, oozing or crusting of the lesion, and change in sensation (including itch), score 1 point each. The weighted 7-point checklist is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for use in General Practice. Lesions scoring three points or more should be referred urgently to Dermatology. Malignant melanomas can present with the development of a new mole or a change in an existing mole. The features highlighted in the 7-point checklist should be ascertained in the history to determine how urgently a mole needs to be referred to exclude malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are about to prescribe fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) to...

    Correct

    • You are about to prescribe fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) to a 50-year-old man who has just started a new relationship. He asks about common side-effects.
      Which of the below is a common side-effect that it would be most important to council this patient about?

      Your Answer: Sexual dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side-Effects of SSRIs: Sexual Dysfunction, Constipation, Sedation, Urinary Retention, and Dry Mouth

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly prescribed for major depressive and generalized anxiety disorders. These drugs work by increasing serotonin concentration in the synaptic cleft, which stimulates post-synaptic neurons and improves mood. However, SSRIs can also cause several side-effects that patients should be aware of.

      One of the most important side-effects to keep in mind is sexual dysfunction. Patients may feel uncomfortable discussing this issue, so it is important for healthcare providers to ask about it specifically. Sildenafil can be useful in treating this side-effect.

      SSRIs can also cause gastrointestinal upset, including dyspepsia, nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and constipation. However, given the patient’s age, it would be most appropriate to counsel regarding sexual dysfunction.

      While SSRIs are associated with insomnia, restlessness, and general agitation, they are not typically associated with sedation. Urinary disorders can be associated with SSRIs, but they are more commonly seen with the use of tricyclic antidepressants. Dry mouth is a common side-effect of SSRIs, but it is less important to counsel patients about than sexual dysfunction.

      In summary, patients taking SSRIs should be aware of the potential side-effects, including sexual dysfunction, gastrointestinal upset, insomnia, urinary disorders, and dry mouth. Healthcare providers should ask about sexual dysfunction specifically and provide appropriate treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are requested to assess a 35-year-old man who has presented to the...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a 35-year-old man who has presented to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath, fever, and unusual breathing sounds for the past twelve hours. He reports having a sore throat for the past few days, which has rapidly worsened. He has no significant medical history.

      Upon examination, his vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 30/min, pulse 120 bpm, oxygen saturation 96%, temperature 39.0ºC, blood pressure 110/60 mmHg. From the end of the bed, you can observe that he is visibly struggling to breathe, has a hoarse voice, and is drooling into a container. You can hear a high-pitched wheeze during inspiration.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action at this point?

      Your Answer: Call the on-call anaesthetist to assess the patient for intubation

      Explanation:

      In cases of acute epiglottitis, protecting the airway is crucial and may require endotracheal intubation. Symptoms such as high fever, sore throat, dyspnoea, change in voice, and inspiratory stridor indicate a potential airway emergency. While other treatments may be necessary, securing the airway should be the top priority, following the ABCDE management steps. IV dexamethasone can help reduce laryngeal oedema, but an anaesthetic assessment should be arranged before administering any medication. Nebulised salbutamol is ineffective in treating laryngeal narrowing caused by epiglottitis. X-rays of the neck may be used, but they can take time to organise and delay urgent airway management. Attempting to visualise the larynx without appropriate senior support and intubation capabilities is dangerous in cases of acute epiglottitis. Flexible nasendoscopy should only be performed with the presence of trained personnel who can secure the airway if necessary.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      211.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 24-year-old male comes to see his doctor complaining of a painful swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male comes to see his doctor complaining of a painful swelling in his left knee, along with dysuria and discharge from both eyes. He is typically healthy but had a bout of diarrhea three weeks ago. He has no medical history or allergies. During the examination, you observe that the patient has a swollen left knee and several waxy, scaly patches on the soles of his feet.
      What is the most suitable initial treatment for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs are the preferred initial treatment for acute reactive arthritis, unless there are any contraindications. The classic presentation of reactive arthritis includes arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis, which can occur weeks after an initial infection, such as dysentery. Keratoderma blennorrhagica, which are scaly patches on the soles of the feet, can also be present in reactive arthritis. While paracetamol can be used for pain relief, it is not as effective as ibuprofen. If NSAIDs cannot be used, steroids may be considered. If inflammation persists, disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) like sulfasalazine or methotrexate may be used.

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.

      Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 10-day-old preterm neonate is having difficulty tolerating cow's milk feeds administered by...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-day-old preterm neonate is having difficulty tolerating cow's milk feeds administered by the nurses in the special care baby unit. During the most recent feed, the neonate vomited and the nurse observed bile in the vomit. Although the stools are of normal consistency, the last stool contained fresh red blood. Upon examination, the neonate appears to be well hydrated, but the abdomen is significantly distended. An urgent abdominal x-ray is ordered, which reveals distended loops of bowel with thickening of the bowel wall. What is the next course of action in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Commence IV hydrocortisone

      Correct Answer: Commence broad spectrum antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The infant in this scenario is likely suffering from bacterial necrotising enterocolitis, given their prematurity and symptoms. Immediate administration of broad spectrum antibiotics is necessary due to the severity of the condition. Therefore, the correct answer is option 2. While changing feeds may be helpful in preventing necrotising enterocolitis in bottle-fed infants, it is not useful in treating the condition once it has developed. While IV fluids are important for maintaining hydration, they are not as urgent as antibiotics in this case. Antenatal administration of erythromycin is intended to prevent necrotising enterocolitis, but it is not effective in treating the condition once it has developed.

      Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis

      Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.

      To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      54.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 23-year-old male visits his GP complaining of natal cleft pain, along with...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old male visits his GP complaining of natal cleft pain, along with purulent and bloody discharge from the area. He also has a fever. This is not the first time he has experienced these symptoms, as he has had similar episodes over the past three years. Typically, the symptoms resolve on their own, but return after a period of being asymptomatic. However, he underwent incision and drainage for his condition six months ago, and the symptoms have returned once again. What is the most effective treatment option for this individual?

      Your Answer: Pilonidal cystectomy

      Explanation:

      The patient likely has pilonidal disease, causing recurrent pain and discharge in the natal cleft. Surgery is the definitive management, while antibiotics and incision and drainage may provide temporary relief. Maintaining personal hygiene and hair removal can prevent future recurrences.

      Understanding Pilonidal Disease

      Pilonidal disease is a common condition that affects the upper part of the natal cleft of the buttocks. It is more prevalent in men and usually occurs around the age of 20 years. The disease is believed to develop when hair debris accumulates in intergluteal pores, which become stretched when a person sits or bends. Over time, this can lead to the formation of sinuses, with more hairs becoming trapped within the sinus. The sinus opening is lined by squamous epithelium, but most of its wall consists of granulation tissue.

      When acute inflammation occurs, pilonidal disease typically presents as a sinus, causing severe pain, purulent discharge, and a fluctuant swelling at the site. Patients may experience cycles of being asymptomatic and periods of pain and discharge from the sinus. Asymptomatic patients can be managed conservatively, with a focus on local hygiene. Symptomatic patients may require incision and drainage if the disease is acute, allowing the wound to close by secondary intention. Surgical options, including excision of the pits and obliteration of the underlying cavity, may be necessary for chronic or recurrent cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman experiences a sudden and severe headache followed by collapse. Imaging...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman experiences a sudden and severe headache followed by collapse. Imaging reveals a subarachnoid hemorrhage, but there are no signs of increased intracranial pressure. What medication should be given?

      Your Answer: None

      Correct Answer: Nimodipine

      Explanation:

      To prevent vasospasm in aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhages, nimodipine is utilized. This medication is a calcium channel blocker that lessens cerebral vasospasm and enhances results. It is given to the majority of subarachnoid haemorrhage cases.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of menorrhagia. She reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of menorrhagia. She reports that her periods have been lasting for 10 days and are very heavy. She denies any recent weight loss and her recent sexual health screening was negative. On examination, there are no abnormalities. She has completed her family and has two children. What is the initial treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena coil)

      Explanation:

      For patients with menorrhagia who have completed their family and do not have any underlying pathology, pharmaceutical therapy is recommended. The first-line management for these patients, according to NICE CKS, is the Mirena coil, provided that long-term contraception with an intrauterine device is acceptable.

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.

      [Insert flowchart here]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 23-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after being involved in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after being involved in a fight. He had been in the shower after a gym session, when someone made a derogatory comment about his body, and that started the fight. A history reveals that he has had three girlfriends in the last 3 months, but none of the relationships have lasted. He admits that he struggles to achieve an erection. On examination, the patient is of normal height with normal pubic hair. His penis is small and his breasts are enlarged. He said that he had started growing breasts from the age of 11. This often caused him embarrassment. His blood pressure is 119/73 mmHg.
      Which of the following syndromes must be ruled out?

      Your Answer: Klinefelter syndrome

      Correct Answer: Reifenstein syndrome

      Explanation:

      Comparing Different Syndromes with Similar Symptoms

      When presented with a patient who has female breast development and erectile dysfunction, it is important to consider various syndromes that could be causing these symptoms. One such syndrome is Reifenstein syndrome, which is characterized by partial androgen insensitivity. Another possibility is Turner syndrome, which presents with short stature and amenorrhea in phenotypic females. However, Kallmann syndrome, which includes anosmia as a component, can be ruled out in this case. Similarly, Klinefelter syndrome, which typically results in tall stature and infertility, does not match the patient’s normal height and erectile dysfunction. Finally, 17-α hydroxylase deficiency can be eliminated as a possibility due to the absence of hypertension, which is a common symptom of this enzyme defect. By comparing and contrasting these different syndromes, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with similar symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father who reports...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father who reports a 'barking' cough that has occurred a few times daily for the past two days. The child's appetite and behavior remain unchanged. Upon examination, the pediatrician finds no abnormalities. What is the recommended first-line treatment for mild croup?

      Your Answer: Oral dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      Regardless of severity, a single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) should be taken immediately for mild croup, which is characterized by a barking cough and the absence of stridor or systemic symptoms.

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A teenage care assistant from a local nursing home presents with sudden onset...

    Correct

    • A teenage care assistant from a local nursing home presents with sudden onset of an intensely itchy rash. This covers her whole body. She has no history of skin problems. On examination there is a combination of raised erythematous papules covering her arms and trunk and linear marks to her forearms. There is excoriated skin in the inter-digital spaces.
      What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Permethrin cream

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies Treatment: Permethrin Cream and Other Options

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which can lead to symptoms such as itching and a rash with superficial burrows and pimples. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is permethrin 5% dermal cream, which needs to be applied to the whole body and repeated a week later. In cases of moderate eczema, a regular emollient plus a moderately potent topical steroid may be used in addition to permethrin. However, a combination of moderately potent topical steroid and topical antifungal agent is not appropriate for scabies treatment. Oral antihistamines may provide symptomatic relief but are not a treatment for scabies. Malathion 5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment option for patients allergic to chrysanthemums who cannot use permethrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      143.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary...

    Incorrect

    • The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary greatly. What is the estimated risk of hepatitis B transmission in the United Kingdom, for instance?

      Your Answer: 1 per 10 million donations

      Correct Answer: 1 per 1 million donations

      Explanation:

      Infective Risks of Blood Transfusion

      Blood transfusions carry the risk of transmitting viral infections such as hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV. The likelihood of infection varies depending on the source of the donation and the type of testing used. In the UK, the risk of contracting hepatitis B from a blood transfusion is approximately 1 in 1.3 million donations. The risks for HIV and hepatitis C are even lower, at 1 in 6.5 million and 1 in 28 million donations, respectively. It is important for healthcare professionals to have a comprehensive of these risks when obtaining consent from patients for blood transfusions. Adequate knowledge and communication can help patients make informed decisions about their healthcare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A middle-aged student is performing a dissection of the intracranial contents. She removes...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged student is performing a dissection of the intracranial contents. She removes the cranial cap and meninges, mobilises the brain and cuts the spinal cord just below the foramen magnum to remove the brain from the cranial cavity. On inspection of the brainstem, she notes that there are a number of nerves emerging from the brainstem.
      Which of the following is true of the emergence of the cranial nerves?

      Your Answer: The trigeminal nerve emerges from the pons close to its junction with the middle cerebellar peduncle

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerve Emergence Points in the Brainstem

      The brainstem is a crucial part of the central nervous system that connects the brain to the spinal cord. It is responsible for controlling many vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. The brainstem also serves as the origin for many of the cranial nerves, which are responsible for controlling various sensory and motor functions of the head and neck. Here are the emergence points of some of the cranial nerves in the brainstem:

      – Trigeminal nerve (V): Emerges from the lateral aspect of the pons, close to its junction with the middle cerebellar peduncle.
      – Abducens nerve (VI): Emerges anteriorly at the junction of the pons and the medulla.
      – Trochlear nerve (IV): Emerges from the dorsal aspect of the midbrain, between the crura cerebri. It has the longest intracranial course of any cranial nerve.
      – Hypoglossal nerve (XII): Emerges from the brainstem lateral to the pyramids of the medulla, anteromedial to the olive.
      – Vagus nerve (X): Rootlets emerge posterior to the olive, between the pyramid and the olive of the medulla.

      Knowing the emergence points of these cranial nerves is important for understanding their functions and for diagnosing any potential issues or disorders that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of inability to use her...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of inability to use her right arm. She has been staying with her mother for the past 5 days after experiencing domestic abuse from her husband. The patient reports feeling very stressed. She denies any history of trauma. On examination, there is normal tone and reflexes but 0/5 power in all muscle groups of the right upper limb. The affected arm falls to the patient's side when held above her face and released. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute stress disorder

      Correct Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      The probable diagnosis for this patient is conversion disorder, which is a psychiatric condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function and is often caused by stress. There is no evidence of neurological disease in the patient’s history or clinical findings. The condition is likely triggered by recent domestic abuse and stress. The patient also exhibits a positive drop-arm test, which is a controlled drop of the arm to prevent it from hitting the face, and is an unconscious manifestation of psychological stress.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs after life-threatening experiences, such as abuse, and is characterized by symptoms of hyperarousal, re-experiencing of the traumatic event, avoidance of stimuli, and distress. However, it does not involve physical weakness. It typically lasts between 3 days and 1 month.

      Post-traumatic stress disorder is another condition that occurs after life-threatening experiences, such as abuse, and has similar symptoms to acute stress disorder. However, it lasts longer than 1 month.

      Patients with somatisation disorder have multiple bodily complaints that last for months to years and persistent anxiety about their symptoms. However, based on this patient’s history and physical findings, conversion disorder is the most likely diagnosis.

      Given the patient’s normal tone and reflexes and the absence of trauma to the neck or spine, it is highly unlikely that a spinal cord lesion is causing total arm paralysis.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter to see you at the General Practice...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter to see you at the General Practice surgery where you are working as a Foundation Year 2 doctor. The daughter had a runny nose and sore throat for the past few days but then developed bright red rashes on both her cheeks. She now has a raised itchy rash on her chest, that has a lace-like appearance, but feels well. She has no known long-term conditions and has been developing normally.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scarlet fever

      Correct Answer: Parvovirus infection

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Rashes and Infections: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Parvovirus Infection: Also known as ‘slapped cheek syndrome’, this mild infection is characterized by a striking appearance. However, it can lead to serious complications in immunocompromised patients or those with sickle-cell anaemia or thalassaemia.

      Pityriasis Rosea: This rash starts with an oval patch of scaly skin and is followed by small, scaly patches that spread across the body.

      Impetigo: A superficial infection caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus bacteria, impetigo results in fluid-filled blisters or sores that burst and leave a yellow crust.

      Scarlet Fever: This rash is blotchy and rough to the touch, typically starting on the chest or abdomen. Patients may also experience headache, sore throat, and high temperature.

      Urticaria: This itchy, raised rash is caused by histamine release due to an allergic reaction, infection, medications, or temperature changes. It usually settles within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A Scottish resident in his early twenties presents with repeated acts of self-harm....

    Correct

    • A Scottish resident in his early twenties presents with repeated acts of self-harm. He generally agrees to go to hospital (or presents himself) but sometimes refuses treatment. This evening, he took a large overdose of paracetamol and called a friend to tell her. An ambulance was called and he reluctantly agreed to come to hospital. Blood tests show his paracetamol levels are so high that he risks acute liver failure and death. Urgent treatment with the antidote Parvolex via an intravenous infusion is started. He tries several times to pull the cannula out, saying he wants to die. No legal provisions have been applied at this point.
      Can he be physically restrained from removing the drip?

      Your Answer: Yes – the principle of necessity allows for treatment in an emergency situation. The restraint must be proportionate and done in a way that is least restrictive and distressing, and must not be degrading

      Explanation:

      The principle of necessity allows for restraint in emergency situations, such as administering lifesaving treatment. In the case of Mr. Thompson, although he has a history of self-harm and expresses a desire to die, his recent actions suggest some ambivalence. While he may become subject to a section 47 or emergency treatment certificate in the future, the principle of necessity applies in the present moment to ensure timely administration of Parvolex. Restraint must be proportionate, least restrictive, and not degrading. It is not appropriate to assume that Mr. Thompson lacks capacity to consent or that treatment is a waste of time and resources. Ethically, treatment must be provided regardless of the patient’s expressed desires.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 20 - A 49-year-old Asian man undergoes a Mantoux test during his immigration screening upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old Asian man undergoes a Mantoux test during his immigration screening upon arrival in the United Kingdom. The test comes back positive, but his chest X-ray appears normal, and he is prescribed isoniazid and pyridoxine (vitamin B6). However, he returns to the hospital four weeks later complaining of fever, abdominal pain, and jaundice. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pyridoxine-induced hepatitis

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid-induced hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Isoniazid Monotherapy for TB Prevention

      Isoniazid monotherapy is a treatment used to prevent active tuberculosis in individuals who have been exposed to M. tuberculosis. However, it is important to note that isoniazid-induced hepatitis can occur in approximately 1% of patients, with a higher risk in those over the age of 35. The risk of hepatitis is less than 0.3% in patients under 20 years old, but increases to 2-3% in individuals over 50 years old.

      Aside from hepatitis, other side effects of isoniazid therapy include peripheral neuritis, which can be prevented by taking pyridoxine prophylactically. Additionally, a systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)-like syndrome may also occur. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely for any adverse reactions while on isoniazid therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      31.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (3/3) 100%
Gynaecology (0/2) 0%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Paediatrics (2/4) 50%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Passmed