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  • Question 1 - A 22-year-old female presents with a 5-week history of a painful red rash...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female presents with a 5-week history of a painful red rash around her mouth that is occasionally itchy. She has a history of chronic sinusitis and has been using intranasal mometasone spray for the past 3 months. Despite using Canestan cream for 7 days and topical erythromycin for 4 weeks, prescribed by a GP colleague for suspected perioral dermatitis, the rash persists and has become more severe.

      During examination, you observe an erythematous papular rash with pustules around her mouth and nasolabial fold. There are no blisters, yellow crusting, or telangiectasia.

      You agree with your colleague's diagnosis but believe that her symptoms are severe. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Oral lymecycline for 4-6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Perioral dermatitis is best treated with either topical or oral antibiotics.

      The patient in question is experiencing perioral dermatitis, which is characterized by a rash of erythematous papulopustules around the mouth and nose, and sometimes the eyes. Despite its name, it is not actually a form of dermatitis, but rather a type of rosacea that is often triggered by the use of steroids, including those that are inhaled or applied topically.

      Mild cases of perioral dermatitis can be managed with topical antibiotics, while moderate to severe cases may require a course of oral antibiotics lasting 4-6 weeks. Therefore, the correct answer is oral lymecycline.

      It is important to note that the use of steroids, whether topical or oral, should be avoided in the management of perioral dermatitis, and any ongoing steroid use should be discontinued if possible.

      Topical miconazole is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal skin infections, which typically present as scaly, itchy, circular rashes rather than papulopustular lesions.

      Aciclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes simplex infections, such as cold sores. While these infections can occur around the mouth, they typically present as localized blisters rather than a papulopustular rash.

      Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis

      Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.

      When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      329.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old man presents after a fall with an acutely swollen knee and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents after a fall with an acutely swollen knee and difficulty bending the joint. The knee became swollen within two hours of the injury. He can still stand on the leg, although it is painful. He takes no regular medication and is otherwise fit and well, although a little overweight.
      What diagnosis can best be made, based on this patient's history?

      Your Answer: A ligamentous injury

      Correct Answer: A haemarthrosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of joint effusion

      Joint effusion, the accumulation of fluid within a joint, can have various causes. A rapid onset of pain and swelling after trauma suggests a haemarthrosis, which may be associated with clotting disorders or anticoagulant use. Dislocation of the patella typically causes severe pain, a popping sensation, and difficulty bearing weight. Ligamentous injuries, such as anterior cruciate ligament tears, often occur during sports and may be accompanied by haemarthrosis. Osteoarthritis usually causes a gradual development of effusion. Traumatic synovitis, which involves inflammation of the synovial membrane, may also cause a gradual accumulation of fluid, especially if there is a meniscal tear. A careful history, physical examination, and imaging studies can help differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      62.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old man presents to the clinic with a medical history of type...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the clinic with a medical history of type 1 diabetes for the past 30 years. His blood pressure is 122/72, and his most recent HbA1c level is 53 mmol/mol. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with microalbuminuria.

      What can be said about the man's condition?

      Your Answer: Microalbuminuria is the excretion of smaller than usual particles of albumin

      Correct Answer: Underlying nephropathy can be reversed by tight BP control

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Nephropathy and Microalbuminuria

      Death in young diabetics is often caused by end stage diabetic nephropathy, which can lead to ESRF within 10 years if proteinuria has developed. However, interventions can help prevent this outcome. One of the earliest signs of diabetic nephropathy is microalbuminuria, which is characterized by an albumin excretion of 30-300 micrograms per day. It is important to note that microalbuminuria doesn’t mean that the albumin is smaller. Tight control of both blood pressure and glucose levels can help reduce the progression of microalbuminuria and renal failure. Even if blood pressure is normal, ACE inhibition is still important in managing diabetic nephropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of fever, low-grade back pain,...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of fever, low-grade back pain, and rigors that have been going on for 3 days. He also reports an increase in his frequency of urination. He has a medical history of well-controlled asthma and type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM).

      What is the most common causative agent of this condition?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Pyelonephritis is most commonly caused by E. coli, with young females having the highest incidence. Given the patient’s symptoms and previous T1DM diagnosis, this is a likely diagnosis. While other organisms can also cause pyelonephritis, any that can ascend up the genitourinary tract, E. coli is the most frequent culprit.

      Understanding Acute Pyelonephritis

      Acute pyelonephritis is a condition that is commonly caused by an ascending infection, usually E. coli from the lower urinary tract. However, it can also be caused by the spread of infection through the bloodstream, leading to sepsis. The clinical features of acute pyelonephritis include fever, rigors, loin pain, nausea/vomiting, and symptoms of cystitis such as dysuria and urinary frequency.

      To diagnose acute pyelonephritis, patients should have a mid-stream urine (MSU) test before starting antibiotics. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered. Local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available, and the BNF currently recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone (for non-pregnant women) for 7-10 days.

      In summary, acute pyelonephritis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients should be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience any of the clinical features mentioned above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Prior to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Prior to initiating pioglitazone therapy, what is the most important factor to consider?

      Your Answer: Fracture risk

      Explanation:

      The risk of osteoporosis and fractures is higher in individuals taking thiazolidinediones.

      Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications

      Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.

      The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.

      While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A mother is worried about the white reflection in her 11-month-old son's eye....

    Correct

    • A mother is worried about the white reflection in her 11-month-old son's eye. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE test to detect retinoblastoma in a child? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Red reflex test

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Eye Examinations: Tests and Their Significance

      Pediatric eye examinations are crucial for detecting eye diseases and disorders in children. Here are some common tests and their significance:

      Red Reflex Test: This test involves shining a light source from an ophthalmoscope about 50 cm away from the child’s eyes. A bright and equal red reflex should be seen from each pupil. An abnormal red reflex could indicate serious eye diseases such as cataract or retinoblastoma.

      Cover Test: This test is used to detect squint. The child focuses on a near object while a cover is placed briefly over one eye and then removed. The squinting eye will deviate inwards or outwards.

      Corneal Light Reflex Test: This test involves the reflection of a light source off the cornea. In people with normal fixation, its position will be symmetrical in each eye. It is used in an examination for squint.

      Eye Movements: Eye movement testing is used to assess ocular motor function, particularly cranial nerve palsies.

      Visual Acuity: In babies, the ability to follow objects is a guide to visual acuity. In a child with retinoblastoma, visual acuity in the affected eye(s) may be reduced. However, there are other reasons for reduced vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic is brought in by his...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic is brought in by his daughter with complaints of orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea and swollen ankles that have been present for a few weeks. On examination, he has bilateral basal crepitations and a resting heart rate of 110 beats per minute. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and an echocardiogram reveals a reduced ejection fraction. He responds well to treatment with optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor and furosemide. What is the most accurate statement regarding his future management?

      Your Answer: He should be started on a ß-blocker

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. One of the recommended treatment options is the prescription of a cardioselective β-blocker such as carvedilol. However, it should not be taken at the same time as an ACE inhibitor. While diuretics can help control oedema, the mainstay of treatment for chronic heart failure is ACE inhibitors and β-blockade. Although digoxin and spironolactone may have a place in treatment, they are not first or second line options. For severe cases of heart failure, biventricular pacing with an implantable defibrillator can be useful. Overall, a combination of these treatment options can help manage chronic heart failure and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      78.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 19-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner because she is concerned about...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner because she is concerned about her weight, which is 56 kg. Her body mass index (BMI) is 18 kg/m2. She also reports prolonged fasts, sometimes not eating for a few days. She denies using laxatives or diuretics to help her lose weight. She is scared of putting on weight and has missed her last three periods. She has no known medical comorbidities.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Understanding Eating Disorders: Differential Diagnosis

      Eating disorders are complex mental health conditions that can have serious physical and psychological consequences. When a patient presents with symptoms of an eating disorder, it is important to consider a range of differential diagnoses to ensure appropriate treatment. Here, we explore the key features of several eating disorders and related conditions, including anorexia nervosa, personality disorders, avoidant restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID), bulimia nervosa, and depression. By understanding the unique characteristics of each disorder, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide effective support for patients with eating disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A cohort study is being designed to investigate the association between smoking and...

    Correct

    • A cohort study is being designed to investigate the association between smoking and breast cancer. What is the typical measure of outcome in a cohort study?

      Your Answer: Relative risk

      Explanation:

      The relative risk is typically the outcome measure used in cohort studies.

      There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.

      On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Your patient, who has been discharged after a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction, is...

    Incorrect

    • Your patient, who has been discharged after a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction, is unsure if he has experienced a heart attack. Which statement from the list accurately describes non-ST elevation myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: Q waves are present instead of ST elevation

      Correct Answer: There is a risk of recurrent infarction in up to 10% in the first month

      Explanation:

      Understanding Non-ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI) and Unstable Angina

      Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) is a condition that is diagnosed in patients with chest pain who have elevated troponin T levels without the typical ECG changes of acute MI, such as Q-waves and ST elevation. Instead, there may be persistent or transient ST-segment depression or T-wave inversion, flat T waves, pseudo-normalisation of T waves, or no ECG changes at all. On the other hand, unstable angina is diagnosed when there is chest pain but no rise in troponin levels.

      Despite their differences, both NSTEMI and unstable angina are grouped together as acute coronary syndromes. In the acute phase, 5-10% of patients may experience death or re-infarction. Additionally, another 5-10% of patients may experience death due to recurrent myocardial infarction in the month after an acute episode.

      To manage these patients, many units take an aggressive approach with early angiography and angioplasty. By understanding the differences between NSTEMI and unstable angina, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate and timely treatment to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a skin rash caused by...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a skin rash caused by her new wristwatch. The doctor suspects an allergy to nickel. What is the most appropriate test to confirm this suspicion?

      Your Answer: Skin patch test

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nickel Dermatitis

      Nickel dermatitis is a type of allergic contact dermatitis that is commonly caused by exposure to nickel. This condition is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which means that it is caused by an immune response to a specific substance. In the case of nickel dermatitis, the immune system reacts to nickel, which is often found in jewelry such as watches.

      To diagnose nickel dermatitis, a skin patch test is typically performed. This involves applying a small amount of nickel to the skin and monitoring the area for any signs of an allergic reaction. If a reaction occurs, it is likely that the individual has nickel dermatitis and will need to avoid exposure to nickel in the future.

      Overall, understanding nickel dermatitis is important for anyone who may be at risk of developing this condition. By recognizing the symptoms and avoiding exposure to nickel, individuals can manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number...

    Incorrect

    • You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.

      Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.

      What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?

      Your Answer: Skin that tans easily

      Correct Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Melanoma

      When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.

      It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.

      In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A researcher conducts a study to show the impact of age on the...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher conducts a study to show the impact of age on the development of a certain disease. The study has shown that individuals over the age of 50 and those under the age of 50 are equally likely to develop the disease. He reports that the relative risk (RR) of age on the development of the disease is –1. He is told by his supervisor that it is likely the value he has calculated for the RR is incorrect.

      Explanation: The value of -1 for the relative risk is not possible as it suggests a negative association between smoking and the development of the disease, which is not biologically plausible. The relative risk should be greater than or equal to 1, indicating an increased risk for smokers compared to non-smokers.

      Your Answer: The RR should be reported as a percentage

      Correct Answer: The RR should be positive

      Explanation:

      Mythbusting: Common Misconceptions About Relative Risk (RR)

      Relative risk (RR) is a commonly used measure in epidemiology to determine the association between an exposure and a disease outcome. However, there are several misconceptions about RR that need to be addressed.

      Firstly, the RR is always a positive value. Even if the development of the disease is lower in the exposed group than in the non-exposed group, the RR will be less than one but it will never be negative.

      Secondly, the RR can be expressed as a percentage but doesn’t have to be. It is also commonly expressed as a whole number or decimal.

      Thirdly, the RR doesn’t have to lie between zero and one. A RR that does lie between zero and one implies a negative association, meaning exposure may reduce the risk of developing the disease. If the relative risk is larger than one, it is a positive association implying exposure may increase the risk of developing the disease.

      Fourthly, the RR can be calculated even if the disease outcome is the same in both the exposed and non-exposed groups. In this case, the RR will be reported as one, not zero.

      In conclusion, it is important to understand the true meaning and limitations of RR in order to accurately interpret epidemiological studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old lady has had a borderline smear which tests positive for Human...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old lady has had a borderline smear which tests positive for Human papillomavirus.

      What is the most appropriate next step, based on UK guidance?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Referral for Colposcopy in HPV Positive and Abnormal Cytology Cases

      According to national guidelines and summarised in NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, individuals who test positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) and have abnormal cytology should be referred for colposcopy. This means that if a woman has a borderline smear and is also HPV positive, she should be referred for colposcopy.

      In this case, we have a 45-year-old female who would normally have cervical smears every 3 years. However, due to the presence of HPV positive and borderline smear, she requires further investigation through colposcopy. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of any potential cervical abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A father brings his 14-year-old son to see you. The boy is a...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 14-year-old son to see you. The boy is a high achiever and is about to take his 'GCSEs'.
      In recent months he has broken up with his girlfriend, has lost interest in his usual hobbies, and has lost a stone in weight so that his BMI is now 17. He cries frequently, struggles to focus on his school work, and is not interested in playing video games, one of his favourite pastimes.
      His father feels he is depressed, and you are inclined to agree.
      Which of the following symptoms would make you suspect this was more than a straightforward depression?

      Your Answer: Poor sleep pattern

      Correct Answer: Feelings of guilt

      Explanation:

      Anorexia Nervosa and Disproportionate Body Image Perception

      Disproportionate perception of one’s body image, often characterized by the belief of being overweight, is a common feature of anorexia nervosa. This condition is often accompanied by symptoms of depression, but treating it with antidepressants alone may not yield significant improvement. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses, especially in age groups where depression is not prevalent.

      In summary, anorexia nervosa is a serious condition that affects one’s perception of their body image. It is crucial to seek appropriate treatment and consider other potential diagnoses to ensure proper care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 56-year-old woman with asthma and a history of thyroid disease comes to...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman with asthma and a history of thyroid disease comes to the clinic for a check-up after a left Colles' fracture. You learn that she had a right Colles' fracture three years ago due to a fall on ice, but she declined investigation for osteoporosis. As you review her medical history, which risk factor would you consider the most significant?

      Your Answer: Onset of periods aged 10

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteoporosis Risk Factors and Treatment Options

      Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density and increased risk of fractures. Several risk factors have been associated with this condition, including low BMI, increasing age, periods of immobility, high dose inhaled or oral corticosteroid therapy, untreated thyrotoxicosis, early menopause, and positive family history. While exposure to thyrotoxicosis and inhaled steroid dose can contribute to osteoporosis, family history is considered the most important risk factor.

      Bisphosphonates are the primary treatment option for osteoporosis, with anabolics such as PTH and other classes reserved for patients who cannot take bisphosphonates. It is important to understand the risk factors associated with osteoporosis and to seek appropriate treatment to prevent fractures and maintain bone health. By addressing these risk factors and utilizing effective treatment options, individuals can reduce their risk of developing osteoporosis and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old patient comes in for her regular heart failure check-up. Upon reviewing...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient comes in for her regular heart failure check-up. Upon reviewing her echocardiogram, it is found that she has a reduced ejection fraction of 40% and no significant valve disease. Her blood pressure is measured at 160/90 mmHg during the visit. There is no indication of fluid overload, and her weight has remained stable. The patient is currently taking bisoprolol and furosemide.

      After reviewing her blood work, it is discovered that her potassium levels are slightly elevated at 5.3 mmol/L. What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Start the patient on bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Seek specialist advice before starting an ACE inhibitor owing to the raised potassium

      Explanation:

      Before initiating an ACE inhibitor in patients with heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, it is recommended to seek specialist advice if the potassium level is above 5 mmol/L. The current NICE CKS guidance suggests starting bisoprolol and ramipril for such patients. However, if the potassium level is high, it is advisable to repeat the urea and electrolytes in 2-3 weeks and seek specialist advice before starting an ACE inhibitor. As the patient is asymptomatic, increasing the dose of furosemide would not be beneficial. There is no need for same-day medical assessment as the patient is currently stable. Although bendroflumethiazide may be suitable for hypertension, NICE CKS recommends ACEi for heart failure treatment.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man with a history of asthma complains of worsening hay fever...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of asthma complains of worsening hay fever symptoms. He reports a persistent sensation of nasal congestion, particularly in his right nostril, and a decreased ability to smell.

      During the examination, you observe a nasal polyp on the right side.

      What is the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Specialist referral (urgent)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Rhinosinusitis

      Chronic rhinosinusitis is a common condition that affects approximately 10% of the population. It is characterized by inflammation of the nasal passages and paranasal sinuses that lasts for 12 weeks or more. There are several factors that can predispose individuals to this condition, including atopy, nasal obstruction, recent infections, swimming/diving, and smoking.

      Symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and post-nasal drip. Treatment options include avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution. However, it is important to be aware of red flag symptoms such as unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite treatment, and epistaxis, which may require further evaluation and management.

      In summary, chronic rhinosinusitis is a common inflammatory disorder that can cause significant discomfort and impact quality of life. Understanding the predisposing factors and symptoms, as well as appropriate management strategies, can help individuals effectively manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner for a consultation. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner for a consultation. The child's mother is worried about the appearance of her infant’s face. The back of the head appears flattened and the right side of the head appears pushed forward relative to the left side. The mother thinks the shape of the skull was normal at birth.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Craniosynostosis

      Correct Answer: Positional plagiocephaly

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Craniofacial Abnormalities: Causes and Characteristics

      Craniofacial abnormalities in infants and children can arise from a variety of causes, ranging from positional factors to genetic syndromes. Here are some common types of abnormalities and their characteristics:

      Positional Plagiocephaly: This occurs when a baby’s head becomes flattened on one side due to sleeping in the same position or pressure in the uterus. It can cause asymmetry in the head shape, such as misaligned ears and a parallelogram-like appearance.

      Facial Nerve Palsy: While rare, facial palsy in infants can occur due to congenital factors or birth trauma. It may also develop during childhood, such as with Bell’s palsy.

      Congenital Torticollis: This is a muscular condition in which one or more neck muscles are extremely tight, causing the head to tilt and the chin to point in the opposite direction. It can lead to the development of plagiocephaly.

      Craniosynostosis: This occurs when one or more fibro sutures in the skull prematurely fuse, changing the growth pattern and resulting in an abnormal head shape and facial features. Surgery is often necessary.

      Frontal Bossing: This is an unusually prominent forehead, sometimes associated with heavy brow ridges. It can be caused by conditions such as thalassaemia major and sickle cell anaemia, as well as rare syndromes like Russell-Silver dwarfism and Hurler syndrome.

      Understanding these craniofacial abnormalities can help parents and healthcare providers identify and address them early on for optimal treatment and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman has self-diagnosed an early pregnancy by self-testing. She immediately tells...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has self-diagnosed an early pregnancy by self-testing. She immediately tells her General Practitioner (GP) she wants a termination of pregnancy. The GP has religious beliefs that lead to a moral objection to abortion.
      What should the GP do in this situation?

      Your Answer: Complete the consultation and refer for termination of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Explain that their beliefs prevent them, personally, from facilitating onward care for this specific issue

      Explanation:

      Navigating Personal Beliefs in Medical Practice: Handling Conflicts with Duty of Care in Termination of Pregnancy

      As healthcare professionals, doctors are bound by their duty of care to provide appropriate medical treatment to their patients. However, personal beliefs can sometimes come into conflict with this duty, particularly in cases of termination of pregnancy. The General Medical Council’s Good Medical Practice (2013) allows doctors to practice medicine in accordance with their beliefs, as long as they do not treat patients unfairly, deny them access to appropriate medical treatment or services, or cause them distress.

      If a doctor’s personal beliefs prevent them from facilitating onward care for a patient seeking termination of pregnancy, there are several options available. The doctor can gently explain their conscientious objection to the procedure, but must not delay appropriate treatment or cause the patient distress. They can decline to continue with the consultation, but must still fully assess the patient’s needs and signpost them to another clinician for review if necessary. Alternatively, they can complete the consultation and refer the patient for termination of pregnancy, ensuring that the patient is treated fairly and respectfully and signposted to another clinician who can help.

      Regardless of the chosen course of action, the doctor must not express disapproval of the patient’s choice or imply judgment of their lifestyle, choices, or beliefs. It is important to navigate personal beliefs in medical practice with sensitivity and respect for the patient’s autonomy and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - At what age would the typical toddler begin to wave goodbye? ...

    Correct

    • At what age would the typical toddler begin to wave goodbye?

      Your Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      Developmental Milestones in Social Behaviour, Feeding, Dressing, and Play

      Developmental milestones are important markers in a child’s growth and development. In terms of social behaviour and play, there are several milestones that parents and caregivers can look out for. At six weeks, a baby may start to smile, which develops into laughter by three months. At six months, they become less shy, but by nine months, they may exhibit shyness. Additionally, babies at this age tend to put everything in their mouths.

      In terms of feeding, a six-month-old may start to put their hand on the bottle while being fed. By 12-15 months, they can drink from a cup and use a spoon, which develops over a three-month period. At two years, they become competent with a spoon and don’t spill with a cup, and by three years, they can use a spoon and fork. Finally, at five years, they can use a knife and fork.

      When it comes to dressing, a child may start to help with getting dressed and undressed at 12-15 months. By 18 months, they can take off shoes and hats but may not be able to replace them. At two years, they can put on hats and shoes, and by four years, they can dress and undress independently, except for laces and buttons.

      Lastly, in terms of play, a nine-month-old may start to play peek-a-boo and wave bye-bye. By 12 months, they may play pat-a-cake, and at 18 months, they can play contentedly alone. At two years, they may play near others but not necessarily with them, and by four years, they can play with other children. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s development and ensure they are meeting age-appropriate goals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has a tender erythematous rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has a tender erythematous rash on her right leg. She has no drug allergies and no other predisposing risk factors. She has been taking flucloxacillin for seven days. The rash has been slow to respond but has not worsened. She is afebrile and feeling otherwise well.
      What is the most appropriate drug option now?

      Your Answer: Penicillin V

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Cellulitis: A Comparison of Treatment Options

      Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. The choice of antibiotic treatment depends on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history. Here is a comparison of the most commonly used antibiotics for treating cellulitis:

      Flucloxacillin: This antibiotic is recommended as the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis because it covers both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. A 7-day course is recommended, with a review after 2-3 days to ensure there is no worsening of the condition. If symptoms persist after 7 days, another 7-day course should be continued. If there is no improvement after 14 days, specialist advice or hospital admission should be considered.

      Amoxicillin: This antibiotic is recommended for patients with lymphoedema who develop cellulitis. It is not the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis.

      Clarithromycin: This antibiotic is an alternative to flucloxacillin for patients with penicillin allergy. However, if the patient has no drug allergies, flucloxacillin is the preferred treatment.

      Co-amoxiclav: This broad-spectrum antibiotic should be reserved for more severe infections to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. It is recommended for facial cellulitis close to the eyes or nose if intravenous treatment is not required.

      Penicillin V: This antibiotic has a narrow spectrum and mainly covers streptococcal infections. It is not resistant to penicillinase, which most staphylococci produce, leading to resistance against penicillin V. Flucloxacillin is the preferred first-line treatment for cellulitis.

      In conclusion, the choice of antibiotic treatment for cellulitis depends on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history. Flucloxacillin is the preferred first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis, while other antibiotics may be used for specific patient populations or in more severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You receive a clinic letter from psychiatry regarding a 65-year-old patient who you...

    Correct

    • You receive a clinic letter from psychiatry regarding a 65-year-old patient who you referred with severe depression. The psychiatrist would like you to switch from fluoxetine to venlafaxine (a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor).

      What is the most appropriate way to make this change?

      Your Answer: Cross-taper sertraline and imipramine

      Explanation:

      Cross-tapering is recommended when switching from an SSRI to a TCA to avoid interactions and the risk of serotonin syndrome. Completing withdrawal of sertraline without introducing imipramine is not advised. Direct switch and waiting periods are not appropriate. Waiting 7 days is only necessary when switching from fluoxetine to a TCA.

      Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants

      When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      94
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 47-year-old male presents with frequent episodes of waking up in distress. He...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old male presents with frequent episodes of waking up in distress. He reports feeling breathless and his heart racing late at night. These episodes are causing him significant worry. His wife notes that he snores loudly and sometimes stops if he changes position. Additionally, he has been taking short naps during the day which is impacting his work as an IT technician. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and obesity.

      What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Polysomnography (PSG)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome

      Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.

      To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.

      Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the correct statement about megaloblastic anaemia from the given list? ...

    Correct

    • What is the correct statement about megaloblastic anaemia from the given list?

      Your Answer: Folic acid alone should not be given if vitamin B12 deficiency has not been ruled out

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Importance of Vitamin B12 in Megaloblastic Anemia Treatment

      Megaloblastic anemia is a condition characterized by the presence of abnormally large red blood cells. It is commonly caused by deficiencies in vitamin B12 and/or folic acid. However, it is important to note that folic acid deficiency alone is rare in developed countries and a diagnosis should be made with consideration of other nutrient deficiencies.

      When treating megaloblastic anemia, it is crucial to rule out vitamin B12 deficiency before starting folic acid therapy. This is because folic acid can improve anemia but not the neurological complications of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can worsen if left untreated. Both vitamin B12 and folic acid should be given if B12 deficiency has not been ruled out or if treatment with B12 has already been initiated.

      It is also important to note that the neurological and hematological complications of megaloblastic anemia can present independently of each other. Some patients may present with neurological impairment without anemia and vice versa.

      Treatment with vitamin B12 can stop the progression of the condition and improve neurological deficits in most patients. However, the response to treatment may vary depending on the severity of the deficiency and the time elapsed between the onset of symptoms and initiation of therapy. Treatment with folic acid, on the other hand, is usually slow and may take weeks or months to show clinical improvement.

      When using hydroxocobalamin to treat megaloblastic anemia, the dosage and frequency of injections will depend on the presence of neurological involvement. For pernicious anemia and other macrocytic anemias without neurological involvement, the initial dose is 1 mg three times a week for two weeks, followed by 1 mg every 2-3 months. For those with neurological involvement, the initial dose is 1 mg on alternate days until no further improvement, then 1 mg every two months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You receive a letter explaining that one of your patients, Mrs. Smith has...

    Correct

    • You receive a letter explaining that one of your patients, Mrs. Smith has recently been diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) 5 and is due to commence haemodialysis. It outlines the vaccines that she now requires. Which diseases does she need protection against?

      Your Answer: Pneumococcal, influenza and Hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Haemodialysis units must remain vigilant against blood-borne viruses, despite following standard infection control measures, in order to safeguard both patients and healthcare staff. Fortunately, the occurrence of hepatitis B outbreaks associated with dialysis units has significantly decreased over the past three decades. The Department of Health recommends immunisation against Pneumococcus, influenza, and Hepatitis B for individuals with chronic kidney disease, including those undergoing haemodialysis. While vaccination schedules for both children and adults are rapidly evolving, healthcare professionals must stay informed of these changes and be aware of recommendations for special groups. Although the administration of vaccinations is often delegated, general practitioners must be knowledgeable about contraindications and schedules to provide guidance to patients and parents. Conducting audits of specific target groups may reveal a need for catch-up immunisation in light of changing recommendations.

      The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.

      The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with symptoms of intermittent diarrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with symptoms of intermittent diarrhoea containing blood and mucous, tiredness and anorexia that have been present for 6 months. Stool samples have been negative for any cultures. The abdomen and rectum examination is normal.

      What is the most suitable course of action for primary care management?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to gastroenterology

      Explanation:

      Management of a Patient with Suspected Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      If a young person presents with rectal bleeding, diarrhea, and anorexia without an infective cause, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) should be suspected. IBD includes Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis, and a definitive diagnosis is necessary for proper management. Colonoscopy and intestinal biopsies are required for diagnosis, while blood tests and fecal calprotectin may aid in the diagnosis but cannot differentiate between the two types of IBD. Urgent referral to gastroenterology is necessary for diagnostic investigations.

      An abdominal X-ray is only indicated if acute bowel obstruction is suspected, which is unlikely in this patient’s case. Blood tests may be appropriate in primary care, including FBC, inflammatory markers, renal profile, TFTs, coeliac screen, and LFTs. However, loperamide should not be prescribed in undiagnosed IBD as it can increase the risk of toxic megacolon.

      Once a confirmed diagnosis is made, referral to a dietician may be beneficial for dietary advice. A 2-week-wait referral to gastroenterology is not necessary in this patient’s case, as she is a young adult and malignancy is less likely to be the cause of her symptoms. Clinical judgement should be used, and the presence of a suspicious rectal or abdominal mass would warrant referral at any age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      67.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and difficulty passing stools. Upon conducting a set of initial blood tests, the following results are obtained:

      Calcium 3.2 mmol/l
      Albumin 38 g/l

      What is the most effective diagnostic test to identify the underlying reason for his elevated calcium levels?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D level

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone levels serve as a valuable tool in identifying the underlying causes of hypercalcaemia, with malignancy and primary hyperparathyroidism being the most prevalent culprits. If the parathyroid hormone levels are normal or elevated, it indicates the presence of primary hyperparathyroidism.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The two most common causes of hypercalcaemia are primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients, while malignancy is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial in diagnosing hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. Paget’s disease of the bone usually results in normal calcium levels, but hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. It is essential to identify the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A child vomits in the phlebotomy room during a blood draw. What type...

    Incorrect

    • A child vomits in the phlebotomy room during a blood draw. What type of chemical should be used to clean up the vomit?

      Your Answer: Hydrogen peroxide

      Correct Answer: Hypochlorite

      Explanation:

      Managing Body Fluid Spillages

      When it comes to managing body fluid spillages, hypochlorite is often recommended. This chlorine-based agent is typically used in granular or powder form and spread over the affected area. However, it’s important to note that chlorine-releasing agents can be hazardous if used in large volumes in confined spaces or mixed with urine. Adequate ventilation is crucial to ensure safety.

      In addition to using hypochlorite, it’s recommended that staff wear personal protective equipment such as plastic aprons, gloves, masks, and eye protection when cleaning up body fluids. It’s also important to avoid using mops, as they can spread the contamination further.

      Some NHS trusts recommend the use of Virkon, a multipurpose disinfectant that contains oxone, potassium peroxymonosulphate, sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate, sulphamic acid, and inorganic buffers. Virkon is believed to be effective against HIV, hepatitis, and MRSA. By following these guidelines and using appropriate disinfectants, healthcare professionals can effectively manage body fluid spillages and minimize the risk of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A new drug is released for use in elderly patients. Premarketing trials did...

    Incorrect

    • A new drug is released for use in elderly patients. Premarketing trials did not show any serious side-effects of the drug. Select from the list the most appropriate method for identifying any unanticipated adverse drug reactions.

      Your Answer: Case-control study

      Correct Answer: Case report

      Explanation:

      The Yellow Card Scheme: Reporting Adverse Drug Reactions

      Before a drug is released to the general public, it undergoes trials to assess its effectiveness and safety. However, these trials may only involve a limited number of patients, which means that rare side effects may not be identified. To address this issue, the Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) and the Commission on Human Medicines (CHM) in the UK operate the Yellow Card Scheme.

      The Yellow Card Scheme is a system that collects information from both health professionals and the general public on suspected side effects of a medicine. Its success depends on people’s willingness to report adverse drug reactions. This scheme is particularly useful for identifying rare or long-term side effects of a drug, as the number of people taking the drug is much greater than in the trials.

      To report a suspected adverse drug reaction, individuals can fill out a Yellow Card online at http://yellowcard.mhra.gov.uk/. By reporting these reactions, individuals can help ensure the safety of drugs on the market and protect the health of the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 32-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant has received the results of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant has received the results of her combined screening test for Down syndrome. Her risk is 1:200, but she is unsure of what this means. What advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer: You should refer her to complete the integrated Down syndrome screening test

      Correct Answer: You should offer her referral for diagnostic testing

      Explanation:

      Screening tests for Down syndrome are not always accurate, as they can miss detecting the condition in a significant number of babies. If a patient receives a low-risk result, they will not be offered any further testing for Down syndrome.

      However, if a patient receives a higher risk result, meaning their baby has a risk greater than 1 in 150, they will be offered a diagnostic test to confirm whether or not their baby has Down syndrome. It is ultimately up to the patient to decide whether or not to undergo the diagnostic test.

      Diagnostic tests for Down syndrome include chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The quadruple test should be offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results of both tests return either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ result. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she will be offered a second screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA from placental cells in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, with private companies offering screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 36-year-old large goods vehicle (LGV) driver visits your clinic. He has type...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old large goods vehicle (LGV) driver visits your clinic. He has type II diabetes, managed with metformin and tolbutamide.

      He reports experiencing a hypoglycaemic episode while at work. He was conversing with a colleague before embarking on a delivery when he suddenly felt hot, dizzy, and disoriented. His colleague escorted him to the first-aid station, where his blood glucose was checked. It was 3.2. The first-aider administered oral glucose, and he quickly recovered.

      What guidance will you provide to your patient regarding his Group 2 (LGV) driving license?

      Your Answer: If a further episode occurs, he will have to stop driving

      Correct Answer: No driving for 12 months and he must notify the DVLA

      Explanation:

      Diabetes and Driving: DVLA Guidelines

      People with diabetes who are managed by tablets that carry a risk of inducing hypoglycaemia must meet certain criteria to maintain their driving licence. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) guidelines state that patients must have no episode of hypoglycaemia requiring assistance in the past 12 months, have full awareness of hypoglycaemia, regularly monitor their blood glucose levels, and demonstrate an understanding of the risks of hypoglycaemia. Additionally, there should be no other complications of diabetes that could affect driving, such as a visual field defect.

      If a patient experiences an episode of hypoglycaemia requiring assistance, they must give up their Group 2 licence until they have been clear of any similar episodes for 12 months. It is also important to note that a lack of hypoglycaemic awareness can be a worrying feature, and referral to a specialist diabetic team may be necessary to optimize diabetic control and re-establish hypoglycaemic awareness. By following these guidelines and working with healthcare professionals, people with diabetes can maintain their driving privileges while ensuring their safety and the safety of others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following features is not typically seen in Marfan's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features is not typically seen in Marfan's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Learning difficulties

      Explanation:

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      Individuals with Marfan’s syndrome often have a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05. They may also have a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, they may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm, which can lead to aortic dissection and aortic regurgitation. Other symptoms may include repeated pneumothoraces (collapsed lung), upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, myopia, and ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and medication such as beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, the life expectancy has significantly improved. Despite this, cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had recently injured his shoulder in a fall and self-certified for the first seven days with an SC2 note. He then saw a colleague of yours a week ago who gave him a medical certificate to cover the last week. The fit note has been marked you may be fit to return to work taking into account the following advice, has ticked amended duties and has handwritten in the comments section: to avoid heavy lifting. The fit note has been marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      He works in a factory and some of his duties include heavy lifting but he is able to contribute effectively in his role in other areas that do not involve heavy lifting. As this is the case he has been on light duties at work for the last week. He informs you that his shoulder is now fully healed. However, his employer has requested he has a 'return to work note' stating he is fit to return to full work activities due to the previous note being marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: You do not need to sign a 'return to work' note; he may return to full duties without any further input or paperwork from yourself

      Correct Answer: His employer has a legal responsibility to carry out a formal occupational health assessment by private arrangement with a GP or occupational health specialist and following this it is their decision whether he is ready to return to full duties

      Explanation:

      Return to Work Note in UK Practice

      When returning to work after a period of sickness, employers may ask for a return to work note. However, it is important to note that employees do not need to sign this note. The Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) provides guidance for employers and managers, stating that employees can return to work at any time, even before the end of the sick note. This doesn’t breach Employers Liability Compulsory Insurance, as long as a suitable risk assessment has been conducted if necessary. It is important to advise patients and employers of this information and refer them to the DWP guidance. Remember, there is no need to sign a return to work note in UK practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - What is NOT a precondition of the doctrine of double effect, which states...

    Correct

    • What is NOT a precondition of the doctrine of double effect, which states that intentionally causing death is unacceptable but prescribing high doses of sedatives and opioids to relieve pain is permissible even if death may result?

      Your Answer: Patient desires a quick death

      Explanation:

      The Ethics of Palliative Sedation: Applying the Doctrine of Double Effect

      The use of palliative sedation raises ethical concerns regarding the distinction between symptom relief and euthanasia. While the former aims to alleviate suffering, the latter involves the intentional hastening of death. The doctrine of double effect provides a framework for evaluating the ethical implications of palliative sedation.

      The doctrine of double effect consists of four conditions that can be applied to the use of palliative care. Firstly, the act itself must be morally neutral or good, such as the administration of medication for pain or sedation. Secondly, the intention of giving medication should be to produce a good effect, such as relief of pain or suffering, even if a harmful effect, such as death, is likely in some cases. Thirdly, the good effect should not be brought about by means of the bad effect. Finally, there must be proportionality between the good and bad effects, meaning that the relief of suffering must be significant enough to justify the potential harm caused by the medication.

      In summary, the doctrine of double effect provides a useful framework for evaluating the ethical implications of palliative sedation. It emphasizes the importance of intention, proportionality, and the distinction between symptom relief and euthanasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 68-year-old man who is being treated for Parkinson's disease is evaluated. What...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man who is being treated for Parkinson's disease is evaluated. What symptom should raise suspicion for a different diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diplopia

      Explanation:

      The occurrence of diplopia is rare in Parkinson’s disease and could indicate an alternative reason for parkinsonism, such as progressive supranuclear palsy.

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A new drug is being developed to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)....

    Incorrect

    • A new drug is being developed to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It has been found to be safe in elderly volunteers and seems effective in small-scale trials in elderly patients. The therapeutic effects of the drug do not persist for long after it has been stopped.
      What is the most appropriate study design for the next phase of trials?

      Your Answer: Double-blind parallel groups RCT

      Correct Answer: Double-blind crossover randomised controlled trial (RCT)

      Explanation:

      Different Study Designs for Evaluating a New Drug Intervention

      When evaluating a new drug intervention, there are several study designs to consider. Each design has its own strengths and weaknesses, and the choice of design depends on the research question and the characteristics of the disease and population being studied.

      Double-blind Crossover Randomised Controlled Trial (RCT)
      This design is considered the gold standard for evaluating a new intervention. It involves randomly assigning participants to receive either the new drug or a placebo, and then switching the groups after a certain period of time. This design reduces the potential for bias and is more powerful than a parallel group design if the disease is chronic and stable.

      Cohort Study
      In a cohort study, a group of people who share a defining characteristic are sampled and followed over time to study incidences, causes, and prognosis. No intervention or treatment is administered to participants. This design is useful for studying long-term outcomes and identifying risk factors.

      Case-control Study
      A case-control study compares groups of people with an illness to control subjects to identify a causal factor. However, this design is unsuitable for evaluating a new drug intervention as it requires an existing group of patients who have potentially been exposed to the drug.

      Double-blind Parallel Groups RCT
      This design involves randomly assigning participants to receive either the new drug or a placebo, and then comparing the outcomes between the two groups. It is a suitable design for evaluating a new drug intervention, but a crossover trial may be more powerful.

      Open-label Parallel Groups RCT
      In an open-label study, both the health providers and the patients are aware of the drug or treatment being given. This design may increase the potential for bias and is not recommended for evaluating a new drug intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 38 - A parent brings her 2-year-old daughter for her routine vaccinations. What would be...

    Correct

    • A parent brings her 2-year-old daughter for her routine vaccinations. What would be a contraindication for her to receive the vaccinations?

      Your Answer: Current febrile illness

      Explanation:

      If a child is experiencing a minor illness without fever or systemic illness, it is not necessary to postpone their vaccination. However, if the child is acutely unwell, it is recommended to delay the vaccination until they have fully recovered.

      Guidelines for Safe Immunisation

      Immunisation is an important aspect of public health, and the Department of Health has published guidelines to ensure its safe administration. The guidelines, titled ‘Immunisation against infectious disease’, outline general contraindications to immunisation, situations where vaccines should be delayed, and specific contraindications to live vaccines.

      General contraindications include confirmed anaphylactic reactions to previous doses of a vaccine containing the same antigens or to another component in the relevant vaccine, such as egg protein. Vaccines should also be delayed in cases of febrile illness or intercurrent infection.

      Live vaccines should not be administered to pregnant women or individuals with immunosuppression. In the case of the DTP vaccine, vaccination should be deferred in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition.

      However, there are several situations where immunisation is not contraindicated. These include asthma or eczema, a history of seizures (unless associated with fever), being breastfed, a previous history of natural infection with pertussis, measles, mumps, or rubella, a history of neonatal jaundice, a family history of autism, neurological conditions such as Down’s or cerebral palsy, low birth weight or prematurity, and patients on replacement steroids.

      Overall, these guidelines aim to ensure the safe administration of vaccines and protect individuals from infectious diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 39 - A sixty-two-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes contacts the clinic for advice and...

    Incorrect

    • A sixty-two-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes contacts the clinic for advice and is connected to you as the on-call Doctor. He is experiencing a diarrhoeal illness and has been feeling unwell for the past 24 hours with fever, loose stools, and generalised myalgia. He vomited twice yesterday but hasn't vomited for the last 12 hours and has been able to drink adequate fluids and has eaten some small snacks containing carbohydrate. His diabetes is managed with twice daily mixed insulin at a total dose of 18 units BD. He has been monitoring his blood glucose every 4 hours and has reached out to you as his blood sugar has risen to 20 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate advice to give him in this situation?

      Your Answer: He should reduce his insulin dose by 2 units for each dose and recontact the surgery if he starts to vomit again and is unable to keep any fluids or food down

      Correct Answer: No change to his insulin dose is needed as long as he continues to not vomit and be able to drink and eat snacks. He should continue to check his blood sugar every 4 hours and contact the surgery for advice if his blood glucose is greater than 30 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Counselling a Diabetic on Insulin Management When Unwell

      A key aspect of counselling a diabetic who has been started on insulin is to educate them on what to do if they become unwell. For type 2 diabetics, it is recommended that they check their blood glucose levels at least every 4 hours when feeling unwell.

      A useful resource to refer to when advising patients in this situation is the TREND UK guideline. This guideline provides a clear algorithm for managing blood glucose levels when a patient is unwell. According to the guideline, if the patient’s blood glucose level is less than 13 mmol/L, they should take insulin as normal. However, if the level is greater than 13 mmol/L, insulin adjustment is necessary.

      By following the algorithm provided in the TREND UK guideline, healthcare professionals can effectively manage the patient’s insulin dosage and blood glucose levels. For instance, if the patient requires an additional 4 units of insulin added to each dose, this can be easily determined by following the algorithm. Additionally, the patient should continue to monitor their blood glucose levels every 4 hours to ensure that their insulin management is effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 40 - A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with scabies after presenting with itchy lesions...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with scabies after presenting with itchy lesions on his hands. As part of the treatment plan, it is important to advise him to apply permethrin 5% cream as directed. Additionally, he should be reminded to treat all members of his household and wash all bedding and clothes in hot water. What instructions should be given regarding the application of the cream?

      Your Answer: All skin including scalp + leave for 12 hours + repeat in 7 days

      Explanation:

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 41 - An 80-year-old woman has been consulting with the practice nurse for a few...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman has been consulting with the practice nurse for a few weeks about a leg ulcer on her right leg that doesn't seem to be healing despite multiple rounds of antibiotics. You schedule some Doppler tests, which reveal an ankle: brachial pressure index (ABPI) of 0.4 in the affected leg and 0.8 in the other leg. A wound swab indicates the presence of coliforms. What is the most probable diagnosis from the options provided?

      Your Answer: Arterial insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) and its Role in Diagnosing Peripheral Arterial Disease

      The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a crucial diagnostic tool for identifying peripheral arterial disease. By comparing the systolic blood pressure at the ankle to the brachial artery pressure, doctors can determine if there is lower blood pressure in the leg, which is a sign of arterial disease. To measure the ABPI, a Doppler ultrasound blood flow detector and a sphygmomanometer are used to detect the artery pulse in the brachial and dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial arteries.

      A normal ABPI falls between 0.9 and 1.2, while a value below 0.9 indicates arterial disease. An ABPI of 1.3 or greater is considered abnormal and suggests severe arterial disease. In cases where the ABPI is below 0.5, the disease is considered severe. It’s important to note that an ulcer with a normal ABPI is most likely a venous ulcer.

      While coliforms are common commensals in leg ulcers and typically don’t require treatment, failure of any ulcer to heal should raise concerns about the possibility of a squamous cell carcinoma. Vasculitis typically doesn’t affect the ABPI unless it’s a large vessel vasculitis, such as polyarteritis nodosa, which would be apparent. Understanding the ABPI and its role in diagnosing peripheral arterial disease is crucial for effective treatment and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      302.8
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  • Question 42 - Which one of the following statements regarding the DS1600 form is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the DS1600 form is correct?

      Your Answer: Must be completed by the patient's General Practitioner (or another doctor at the same surgery)

      Correct Answer: Contains a question about whether the patient is aware of their diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      3.5
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  • Question 43 - A 28-year-old man visits the General Practitioner (GP) as a temporary resident and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits the General Practitioner (GP) as a temporary resident and asks for opiate analgesics to manage a sickle-cell crisis. Which of the following choices would be the LEAST suspicious that he is a drug abuser?

      Your Answer: Gives evasive answers

      Correct Answer: Staying for a month with his parents

      Explanation:

      Identifying Drug-Seeking Behavior in Patients: Signs to Look Out For

      When dealing with patients, it’s important to be able to identify drug-seeking behavior. One sign to look out for is when a patient claims to be a temporary resident in the area. This is a common tactic used by drug seekers who are just passing through. However, if the patient’s parents are also your patients and they are a stable couple, this can be reassuring.

      Other signs to watch for include strange smells such as cannabis, cocaine, or heroin, as well as the smell of acetone or glue on the breath. Additionally, needle tracks or difficult intravenous access may also be present. By being aware of these signs, healthcare professionals can better identify and address drug-seeking behavior in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      18.1
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  • Question 44 - A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol visits his GP complaining of chest pains that occur during physical activity or climbing stairs to his office. The pain is crushing in nature and subsides with rest. The patient is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg and aspirin 75 mg daily. He has no chest pains at the time of the visit and is otherwise feeling well. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. The GP prescribes a GTN spray for the chest pains and refers the patient to the rapid access chest pain clinic.

      What other medication should be considered in addition to the GTN?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      For the patient with stable angina, it is recommended to use a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment to prevent angina attacks. In this case, a cardioselective beta-blocker like bisoprolol or atenolol, or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker such as verapamil or diltiazem should be considered while waiting for chest clinic assessment.

      As the patient is already taking aspirin 75 mg daily, there is no need to prescribe dual antiplatelet therapy. Aspirin is the preferred antiplatelet for stable angina.

      Since the patient is already taking atorvastatin, a fibrate like ezetimibe may not be necessary for lipid modification. However, if cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk remain high, increasing the atorvastatin dose or encouraging positive lifestyle interventions like weight loss and smoking cessation can be helpful.

      It is important to note that nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is not recommended as the first-line treatment for angina management as it has limited negative inotropic effects. It can be used in combination with a beta-blocker if monotherapy is insufficient for symptom control.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 45 - You see a 65-year-old man in a 'hypertension review' appointment. You have been...

    Correct

    • You see a 65-year-old man in a 'hypertension review' appointment. You have been struggling to control his blood pressure. He is now taking valsartan 320 mg (his initial ACE inhibitor, Perindopril, was stopped due to persistent coughing), amlodipine 10 mg and chlorthalidone 12.5 mg. He is also taking aspirin and simvastatin for primary prevention. His blood pressure today is 158/91. His recent renal function (done for annual hypertension) showed a sodium of 138, a potassium of 4.7, a urea of 4.2 and a creatinine of 80. His eGFR is 67. He is otherwise well in himself.

      Which of the following options would be appropriate for him?

      Your Answer: Try ramipril

      Explanation:

      Managing Resistant Hypertension

      Resistant hypertension can be a challenging condition to manage, often requiring up to four different Antihypertensive agents. If a person is already taking three Antihypertensive drugs and their blood pressure is still not controlled, increasing chlorthalidone to a maximum of 50 mg may be considered, provided that blood potassium levels are higher than 4.5mmol/L. However, caution should be exercised when using co-amilofruse, a potassium-sparing diuretic, in conjunction with valsartan, especially if the patient has a recent history of having a potassium level of 4.5 or higher.

      If a patient has previously developed a cough with an ACE inhibitor, switching to a different ACE inhibitor is unlikely to make any difference. In such cases, bisoprolol may be added if further diuretic treatment is not tolerated, is contraindicated, or is ineffective. It is important to seek specialist advice if secondary causes for hypertension are likely or if a patient’s blood pressure is not controlled on the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four Antihypertensive drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      50
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 67-year-old woman presents with exertional breathlessness and heart failure is suspected. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with exertional breathlessness and heart failure is suspected. She is not acutely unwell. She has a history of chronic hypertension and takes amlodipine but no other medication.
      An NT-proBNP level is ordered and the result is 962 pg/mL.
      What is the next best course of action in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Heart failure is confirmed and further investigation and referral is not required

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently for specialist assessment and echocardiography to be seen within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Measuring NT-proBNP Levels for Heart Failure Assessment

      Measuring NT-proBNP levels is a useful tool in assessing the likelihood of heart failure and determining the appropriate referral pathway. If the NT-proBNP level is greater than 2000 pg/mL, urgent specialist referral and echocardiography should be conducted within 2 weeks. For NT-proBNP levels between 400 and 2000 pg/mL, referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography should occur within 6 weeks. If the NT-proBNP level is less than 400 pg/mL, heart failure is less likely, but it is still important to consider discussing with a specialist if clinical suspicion persists. By utilizing NT-proBNP levels, healthcare professionals can effectively manage and treat patients with suspected heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 47 - You have a practice nurse who performs spirometry for diagnosis of Chronic obstructive...

    Incorrect

    • You have a practice nurse who performs spirometry for diagnosis of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in the practice. She is updating the practice team about how to perform and interpret spirometry correctly.

      What is the appropriate number and quality of spirometry readings needed for precise evaluation of patients with respiratory conditions?

      Your Answer: Three readings should be obtained where two of them are within 10% of each other

      Correct Answer: Patients should keep having attempts at blowing until two sets of readings within 10% of each other are recorded

      Explanation:

      Spirometry Procedure for Health Care Providers

      To perform spirometry, a clean, disposable, one-way mouthpiece should be attached to the spirometer. The patient should be instructed to take a deep breath until their lungs feel full and then hold their breath long enough to seal their lips tightly around the mouthpiece. The patient should then blast the air out as forcibly and fast as possible until there is no more air left to expel, while the operator verbally encourages them to keep blowing and maintain a good mouth seal.

      It is important to watch the patient to ensure a good mouth seal is achieved and to check that an adequate trace has been achieved. The procedure can be repeated at least twice until three acceptable and repeatable blows are obtained, with a maximum of 8 efforts. Finally, there should be three readings, of which the best two are within 150 mL or 5% of each other. By following these steps, health care providers can accurately measure a patient’s lung function using spirometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      6.8
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  • Question 48 - A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain, bloating...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain, bloating and nausea after meals. He has also experienced a weight loss of around 10 kg in the past three months, along with some non-bloody diarrhoea. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day, but doesn't consume alcohol. A previous plain abdominal X-ray revealed dilated loops of the small bowel. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Small-bowel adenocarcinoma

      Correct Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a 32-Year-Old Man with Abdominal Pain and Diarrhoea

      A 32-year-old man presents with abdominal pain, bloating, nausea after meals, and diarrhoea. The most likely diagnosis is Crohn’s disease, an inflammatory bowel disease that affects the small bowel and is more common and severe in smokers. Small-bowel adenocarcinoma is a rare possibility, but less likely in this case. Coeliac disease can be associated with ulcerative jejunitis and small-bowel lymphoma, but doesn’t cause strictures. Giardiasis rarely causes nausea and doesn’t show X-ray changes, and would often be associated with a history of foreign travel. Chronic pancreatitis and pancreatic insufficiency could also present with these symptoms, but would be unusual in a non-drinker without a history of recurrent gallstone pancreatitis. A plain abdominal X-ray might show pancreatic calcification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      65.3
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  • Question 49 - A 68-year-old man is brought to the doctor by his wife because of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is brought to the doctor by his wife because of a 2-week history of increasing confusion. He has advanced prostate cancer. He reports constipation, passing urine more frequently and feeling nauseous. He has no signs of infection, and urine testing is negative. He is taking ibuprofen and paracetamol for backache and receives gonadorelin analogue injections for his cancer, but takes no other medications. The clinical examination is unremarkable.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Cerebral metastases

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia: Symptoms, Complications, and Treatment Options

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including constipation, nausea, polyuria, confusion, depression, lethargy, weakness, and bone pain. In chronic cases, hypercalcaemia can lead to the formation of renal stones. If left untreated, calcium levels greater than 3.5 mmol/l can cause renal failure and arrhythmias.

      The treatment of hypercalcaemia involves identifying and removing the underlying causes, rehydration, and, if necessary, the use of bisphosphonates. In cases where primary hyperparathyroidism is the cause, surgical treatment may be necessary.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia is a serious medical condition that can cause a range of symptoms and complications. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      41.1
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  • Question 50 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking contraception. She wants to ensure...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking contraception. She wants to ensure she is protected against any possibility of pregnancy. She had taken the combined oral contraceptive pill in the past but discontinued it long before having her two children. During the consultation, she discloses that she had unprotected sex four days ago.

      Under what circumstances can the copper intrauterine device be used as an emergency contraceptive?

      Your Answer: It may be inserted at any time in the cycle, within five days of the first episode of unprotected sexual intercourse

      Explanation:

      Copper IUD as Emergency Contraception in the UK

      A copper-containing intrauterine device (IUD) can be used as emergency contraception in the UK. It can be inserted within 120 hours (five days) of the first episode of unprotected sexual intercourse or up to five days after the earliest expected date of ovulation, regardless of the number of episodes or time since unprotected sex. A negative pregnancy test is not required before insertion of the copper IUD as emergency contraception.

      It is important to note that the copper IUD should not be used from 48 hours to four weeks postpartum, as it falls under the UK medical eligibility criteria category 3. This means that it is advised not to be used during this time. Additionally, there is no need for the patient to have taken the progesterone emergency contraception pill beforehand as they will be using the copper device as their emergency contraception. Overall, the copper IUD is a safe and effective option for emergency contraception in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 51 - You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy and takes no medication. Her routine blood tests, including a full blood count, renal and liver function, are all normal. A urine dip was also normal. You notice a urine albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) result and an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) result of >90 mL/min/1.73 m2. Her early morning ACR is 5.

      As per NICE guidelines, what stage of chronic kidney disease (CKD) does this woman fall under?

      Your Answer: G3aA3

      Correct Answer: G1A2

      Explanation:

      A patient with a urine ACR of 5 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2 is classified as having G1A2 CKD. CKD is categorized based on the eGFR and urine ACR, with G1 representing stage 1 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2, and A2 representing a urine ACR of 3-70 mg/mmol. Patients with G1A1 or G2A2 classification are not considered to have CKD in the absence of kidney damage markers.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 52 - A man’s partner has Huntington’s disease. They wish to have children and seek...

    Incorrect

    • A man’s partner has Huntington’s disease. They wish to have children and seek genetic counselling. There is no history of the disease in his family tree.
      What is the most likely risk of disease transmission to his children?

      Your Answer: All girls will be carriers

      Correct Answer: There is a 50% chance of a child being affected

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inheritance Pattern of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is an autosomal-dominant disorder, which means that an affected person inherits one copy of the gene with an expanded trinucleotide repeat from their parent with the condition. This also means that each child of an affected person has a 50% chance of inheriting the gene and developing the disease. However, if the mother’s family has no history of the disease, the risk of children being affected is lower. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of Huntington’s disease to make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      13.1
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  • Question 53 - A father brings his 6-year-old son to see you as he is concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 6-year-old son to see you as he is concerned that he is not developing as expected. He believes his child may have a learning difficulty.
      Which of the following is one of the three core criteria for a diagnosis of learning disability according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE)?

      Your Answer: Unimpaired social functioning

      Correct Answer: Onset before adulthood

      Explanation:

      Defining Learning Disability: Key Criteria to Consider

      Learning disability is a complex condition that affects individuals in various ways. To diagnose a learning disability, several key criteria must be considered. These criteria include onset before adulthood, a recognised syndrome, concurrent neurological deficit, lower intellectual ability, and impaired social functioning.

      Onset before adulthood is a crucial factor in diagnosing a learning disability. If a cognitive or behavioural impairment starts in adulthood, it is more likely to be caused by an alternative neurological condition. A recognised syndrome is not always present in individuals with a learning disability, and the cause may not be known.

      While many people with a learning disability do not have a neurological deficit, they have a higher incidence of neurological conditions such as epilepsy. Lower intellectual ability is a core criterion for diagnosing a learning disability, with an IQ usually less than 70. Finally, impaired social functioning is a key feature of learning disability.

      In conclusion, understanding the key criteria for diagnosing a learning disability is essential for healthcare professionals and caregivers. By recognising these criteria, individuals with learning disabilities can receive the appropriate support and interventions to help them reach their full potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      108.9
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  • Question 54 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a sudden onset of left eye pain that has lasted for 10 hours. She mistakenly left her contact lenses in overnight and woke up with severe pain, sensitivity to light, and blurry vision. What is the most suitable treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol 0.5% eye drops

      Correct Answer: Levofloxacin 5mg/ml eye drops

      Explanation:

      Levofloxacin for Contact Lens Keratitis

      Levofloxacin is a type of fluoroquinolone antibiotic that is effective against gram negative bacteria. This makes it a suitable treatment option for contact lens keratitis, which is commonly caused by the gram negative bacteria pseudomonas aeruginosa. It is important to note that Chloramphenicol is not effective against this type of bacteria, so it should not be used as a treatment option.

      While dexamethasone may be used in conjunction with other treatments, it is not typically used as a standalone treatment for contact lens associated keratitis. Fusidic acid is more commonly used to treat staphylococcal infections, while propamidine isethionate is reserved for the rare form of contact lens keratitis caused by acanthamoeba.

      In summary, levofloxacin is a suitable treatment option for contact lens keratitis caused by gram negative bacteria such as pseudomonas aeruginosa. Other treatment options may be used in conjunction with levofloxacin, but it is important to choose the appropriate treatment based on the specific type of bacteria causing the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 55 - You are reviewing a 75-year-old woman.
    You saw her several weeks ago with a...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a 75-year-old woman.
      You saw her several weeks ago with a clinical diagnosis of heart failure and a high brain natriuretic peptide level. You referred her for echocardiography and cardiology assessment. Following the referral she now has a diagnosis of 'Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction'.
      Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following combinations of medication should be used as first line treatment in this patient?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitor and beta blocker

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Heart Failure with Left Ventricular Systolic Dysfunction

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta-blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The 2003 NICE guidance suggests starting with ACE inhibitors and then adding beta-blockers, but the 2010 update recommends using clinical judgement to determine which drug to start first. For example, a beta-blocker may be more appropriate for a patient with angina or tachycardia. However, combination treatment with an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular dysfunction. It is important to start drug treatment in a stepwise manner and to ensure the patient’s condition is stable before initiating therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 56 - Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis B is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis B is accurate?

      Your Answer: Ribavirin is the treatment of choice for chronic hepatitis B

      Correct Answer: 10-15% of adults fail to respond or respond poorly to 3 doses of the vaccine

      Explanation:

      An anti-HBs check is necessary only for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease who are at risk of occupational exposure.

      Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management

      Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.

      Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.

      Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 57 - A 14-year-old girl presents with concerns about delayed puberty. She is worried about...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with concerns about delayed puberty. She is worried about being different from her peers who have already started menstruating. She has a history of irregular attendance but is currently in good health. On examination, she is on the 25th centile for height and the 90th centile for weight. She has no signs of secondary sexual characteristics and presents with a broad chest and webbed neck. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Short Stature and Delayed Puberty

      Short stature and delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some of the most common causes:

      1. Turner Syndrome
      Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females. It occurs in between 1 in 2500 and 1 in 5000 live births. Features include short stature, delayed development of secondary sexual characteristics, and absence of menses. Patients may also have mild intellectual impairment and cardiovascular defects. There is a loss of one X chromosome (chromosome pattern XO), which results in a broad (webbed neck) and widely spaced nipples.

      2. Constitutional Delay in Puberty
      Constitutional delay in puberty is often familial and is the most common cause of short stature and delayed puberty. In otherwise normal children, linear growth slows until about the age of 3 years, then proceeds normally until expected puberty, and then slows again in the absence of a growth spurt. A full catch-up may not occur.

      3. Down’s Syndrome
      Short stature occurs in Down’s syndrome, but puberty is not normally delayed. Down’s syndrome would usually have been diagnosed early in life by the presence of typical features, which do not include a webbed neck.

      4. Hypothyroidism
      Hypothyroidism occurring during prepubertal years, usually due to Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, can cause delayed puberty or, in some cases, precocious puberty. Other features of hypothyroidism should be present. In contrast, treated congenital hyperthyroidism usually results in normal pubertal development.

      5. Klinefelter Syndrome
      Klinefelter syndrome affects males and is caused by an XXY genotype. The usual presentation is with delayed sexual development or infertility.

      In conclusion, short stature and delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic disorders, hormonal imbalances, and thyroid problems. It is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 58 - A 32-year-old woman has come for her regular appointment at your GP surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has come for her regular appointment at your GP surgery and has just discovered that she is 6 weeks pregnant. She is seeking assistance with quitting smoking during her pregnancy and wants to discuss treatment options. At present, she smokes 10 cigarettes per day and due to her hectic schedule, she believes that she won't be able to attend frequent meetings.

      What is the most suitable smoking cessation therapy to suggest to her?

      Your Answer: Varenicline

      Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who smoke should be offered nicotine replacement therapy, but varenicline and bupropion should not be given as they are not safe for them.

      Although referring the patient to a stop smoking clinic would be appropriate, it may not be feasible for her to attend regular meetings.

      While the effects of e-cigarette vapour on the foetus are unknown, NICE advises against discouraging pregnant women who are already using e-cigarettes to quit smoking.

      Nicotine replacement therapy is the only approved treatment for smoking cessation during pregnancy.

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      23.9
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  • Question 59 - What is a Roger Neighbour 'checkpoint'? ...

    Correct

    • What is a Roger Neighbour 'checkpoint'?

      Your Answer: Safety Netting

      Explanation:

      Neighbour’s Consultation Model for Telehealth

      Roger Neighbour’s consultation model for doctors has been adapted for telehealth consultations. The model breaks down the consultation into five checkpoints that doctors should consider during the consultation.

      The first checkpoint is connecting, which involves building rapport with the patient. This is especially important in telehealth consultations where the doctor and patient may not have met before. The second checkpoint is summarising, which involves listening and eliciting information from the patient. This is important in all consultations, but particularly in telehealth where non-verbal cues may be missed.

      The third checkpoint is handing over, which involves explaining and negotiating with the patient. This is important in telehealth consultations where the doctor may need to explain complex medical information to the patient. The fourth checkpoint is safety netting, which involves anticipating potential issues and dealing with uncertainty. This is particularly important in telehealth consultations where the doctor may not have access to all the patient’s medical information.

      The final checkpoint is housekeeping, which involves addressing the doctor’s own needs. This is important in telehealth consultations where the doctor may be working from home and need to ensure they have a suitable environment for the consultation. By following these checkpoints, doctors can ensure that their telehealth consultations are effective and provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      5
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  • Question 60 - A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of dysphagia for both...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of dysphagia for both solids and liquids. He is experiencing no associated nausea or abdominal pain. His weight is stable and he is a lifelong non-smoker.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carcinoma of the oesophagus

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Dysphagia: Achalasia, Benign Oesophageal Stricture, Barrett’s Oesophagus, Carcinoma of the Oesophagus, and Schatzki’s Rings

      Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can be caused by various oesophageal disorders. One such disorder is achalasia, which is characterized by dysphagia for both solids and liquids. It occurs in adults aged 25-60 years and is diagnosed by a barium swallow that reveals a dilated oesophagus. Other symptoms include regurgitation of food, chest pain, heartburn, and nocturnal cough. Benign oesophageal stricture is less likely as it only causes dysphagia for solids. Barrett’s oesophagus, a change in cell type of the epithelium in the distal portion of the oesophagus due to prolonged frequent acid exposure, primarily causes heartburn and acid regurgitation. Carcinoma of the oesophagus should be considered, but it usually causes dysphagia of solids and weight loss. Schatzki’s rings, rings of mucosa or muscle in the lower oesophagus, cause intermittent and non-progressive dysphagia for solids, usually after a patient eats a meal in a hurried fashion. Daily dysphagia is not usually a feature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      26.2
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  • Question 61 - A 38-year-old man presents with peeling, dryness and mild itching of the palm...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents with peeling, dryness and mild itching of the palm of his right hand. On examination, there is hyperkeratosis of the palm with prominent white skin lines. The left hand appears normal.
      What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Therapeutic trial of potent topical steroid

      Correct Answer: Skin scraping for fungus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tinea Manuum: A Unilateral Scaly Rash

      Tinea manuum is a type of fungal infection that affects the hands. It is characterized by a unilateral scaly rash that can also involve the back of the hand and nails. In some cases, both hands may be affected, but the involvement tends to be asymmetrical.

      The most common cause of tinea manuum is an anthropophilic fungus such as Tricophyton rubrum, Tricophyton mentagrophytes, or Epidermophyton floccosum. These fungi are typically found on human skin and can be easily transmitted through direct contact.

      In some cases, tinea manuum may present as a raised border with clearing in the middle, resembling a ringworm. This is more likely to occur when a zoophilic fungus is responsible, such as Trichophyton erinacei from a hedgehog or Microsporum canis from a cat or dog.

      It is important to suspect dermatophyte fungus when a unilateral scaly rash is present on the hands. Treatment typically involves antifungal medication, and it is important to maintain good hand hygiene to prevent further spread of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      107.9
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  • Question 62 - A 40-year-old man is concerned about the appearance of both his great toe...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is concerned about the appearance of both his great toe nails. He has noticed separation of the nail plate from the nail bed distally. The other toenails appear normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tinea unguium

      Correct Answer: Trauma

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of onycholysis

      Onycholysis is a condition where the nail separates from the nail bed, often starting at the distal edge and progressing proximally. It can have various causes, including infections, skin diseases, and mechanical trauma. Here we consider some possible diagnoses for a patient with onycholysis of the great toenails without other significant findings.

      Trauma: Onycholysis can result from repeated or acute trauma to the nail, which is common in sports or due to ill-fitting shoes. This is a likely cause in this case, given the location and absence of other features.

      Psoriasis: Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect the skin and nails, causing red, scaly patches and pitting of the nails. However, the patient would typically have other skin lesions and a history of psoriasis, which is not evident here.

      Chronic paronychia: Paronychia is an infection of the skin around the nail, which can cause pain, swelling, and pus. However, this doesn’t involve the nail itself and is not consistent with the presentation.

      Eczema: Eczema is a common skin condition that can cause itching, redness, and scaling of the skin. If it affects the nail matrix, it can lead to transverse ridging of the nail, but not onycholysis.

      Tinea unguium: Tinea unguium, also known as onychomycosis, is a fungal infection of the nail that can cause thickening, discoloration, and onycholysis. However, the nail would typically be yellow or white and show other signs of fungal infection.

      In summary, trauma is the most likely cause of onycholysis in this case, but other possibilities should be considered based on the clinical context and additional findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.4
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  • Question 63 - A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3 days. She reports feeling increasingly unwell and feverish over the last 24 hours. What symptom would suggest 'red flag' sepsis in this case?

      Your Answer: Heart rate 136/min

      Explanation:

      In recent years, there has been a push to enhance the handling of septic patients in secondary healthcare settings. This endeavor is now shifting towards primary care and aims to enhance the identification and prompt treatment of such patients.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. The Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognise sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, while septic shock is a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favour, with quick SOFA (qSOFA) score being used to identify adult patients outside of ICU with suspected infection who are at heightened risk of mortality.

      Management of sepsis involves identifying and treating the underlying cause of the patient’s condition, as well as providing support regardless of the cause or severity. NICE guidelines recommend using red flag and amber flag criteria for risk stratification. If any of the red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started straight away, which includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      To help identify and categorise patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasising the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 48-year-old female has an IUS. This was fitted 3 years previously. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old female has an IUS. This was fitted 3 years previously. She has not had a period for 2 years. She asks her GP if the IUS can be removed as for the past 4 months she is getting monthly headaches and acne, which she attributes to the IUS. She is in a long term sexual relationship.
      How should the GP counsel her regarding this?

      Your Answer: She should have the device removed and another IUS fitted as her symptoms are consistent with ovulation and she requires on-going contraception.

      Correct Answer: She should have FSH levels checked at least 4 weeks apart to confirm a diagnosis of menopause. If both levels ≥30IU/L then contraception can be stopped after 24 months

      Explanation:

      IUS and Menopause: Understanding the Connection

      Her symptoms are unlikely to be caused by the IUS and may be related to ovulation, which is common in up to 75% of patients with an IUS. This doesn’t affect the effectiveness of the contraceptive. It’s important to note that amenorrhea is not a reliable indicator of menopause in patients on oestrogen and/or progesterone-containing contraception. Therefore, ongoing contraception is necessary.

      For patients aged 45 years or older with an IUS fitted, the device can be maintained until aged 55 years if they are amenorrheic. At this point, menopause can be assumed to have occurred. If a patient wishes to confirm menopause, FSH levels can be checked. If both levels are >30IU/L 6 weeks apart, contraception can be stopped after 12 months.

      Understanding the connection between IUS and menopause is crucial for patients and healthcare providers. By following the guidelines and recommendations, patients can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      50.5
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  • Question 65 - A 35-year-old teacher complains of intense headache of 2-hours duration. The pain is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher complains of intense headache of 2-hours duration. The pain is localised around the right eye and is associated with tearing and redness of the eye. The patient reported he has had similar episodes over the last year. He also admits that these episodes occurred every day for a few weeks with one to three attacks a day which last for 1-2 hours, frequently at night. After 6 weeks, the attacks stopped. She lost her job 6 months ago and has noticed an increase in the intensity of the pain since. Examination reveals drooping of the eyelid and small pupil on the right side.
      Select the single MOST likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Cerebral tumour

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Headache Types: Cluster Headache, Intracranial Neoplasm, Acute Anterior Uveitis, Migraine, and Tension-Type Headache

      Headaches can be caused by various factors, and it is important to differentiate between different types to provide appropriate treatment. Cluster headache is a rare condition that affects mostly men and is characterized by intense pain around one eye, accompanied by nasal stuffiness and sometimes Horner syndrome. In contrast, headache is often a late symptom of an intracranial neoplasm, and a new headache or change in pattern may indicate an underlying tumor. Acute anterior uveitis presents with eye pain, redness, photophobia, excessive tearing, and decreased vision. Migraine is a common type of headache that presents with severe, often unilateral pain, accompanied by vomiting and photophobia. Tension-type headache is usually mild to moderate and described as pressure or tightness around the head. Understanding the specific features and associated symptoms of each type of headache can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      57.7
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  • Question 66 - A 55-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who is concerned about his memory. He has no recollection of recent or distant events, but responds to every question with a very detailed, yet incorrect, answer.

      Upon examination, he displays ataxia and nystagmus. He has not visited a doctor in over 25 years, doesn't take any regular medication, and has consumed eight pints of beer per night for the past 35 years.

      What is the most probable deficiency causing this presentation? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from Korsakoff syndrome, a condition caused by a deficiency of vitamin B1 (thiamine). This syndrome is a late manifestation of untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy and is characterized by mental confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. It is most common in people in their fifties and sixties and is caused by alcoholism or other factors such as chronic subdural hematoma, nutritional stress, AIDS, hyperemesis gravidarum, thyrotoxicosis, long-term dialysis, or congestive heart failure. Urgent medical assessment and admission for parenteral thiamine is necessary, as it can be fatal if left untreated. Zinc deficiency, on the other hand, is characterized by symptoms such as anorexia, lethargy, diarrhea, growth restriction, impaired immune function, delayed sexual maturation, learning disability, weight loss, and macular degeneration. It is not related to memory or cognitive problems, ataxia, or nystagmus. Vitamin B2 deficiency is more common in vegetarians, vegans, pregnant women, or young children and is thought to have a role in migraines. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes symptoms such as cognitive and memory disturbance, headaches, dyspepsia, loss of appetite, palpitations, visual disturbance, weakness and lethargy, angina, optic neuropathy, symmetrical neuropathy affecting the legs more than the arms, and a megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin E deficiency is rare in healthy people and is strongly associated with conditions affecting absorption, such as Crohn’s disease or cystic fibrosis. However, this patient’s history of alcohol excess makes thiamine deficiency much more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      63.9
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic for a follow-up on her...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic for a follow-up on her heart failure management. She is currently on lisinopril 20 mg and carvedilol 25 mg BD. Her main symptoms include shortness of breath on minimal exercise and occasional episodes of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. During the examination, her BP is 136/74, her pulse is 80 and regular. There are bibasal crackles but no other significant findings. The test results show a haemoglobin level of 128 g/L (115-165), white cells count of 7.9 ×109/L (4-11), platelets count of 201 ×109/L (150-400), sodium level of 139 mmol/L (135-146), potassium level of 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine level of 149 μmol/L (79-118), and an ejection fraction of 38% on echocardiogram. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Add spironolactone to her regime

      Explanation:

      Treatment Guidelines for Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure can be managed with a combination of medications, including beta blockers and ACE inhibitors. However, if heart failure control is not optimised on this dual therapy, NICE guidelines (NG106) recommend adding an ARB or aldosterone antagonist. For patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors or ARBs, nitrate and hydralazine can be used earlier in the treatment pathway.

      It is important to note that routine referral for revascularisation is not recommended in patients without symptoms of angina. Additionally, cardiac resynchronisation therapy should not be recommended until the patient’s therapy is further optimised. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage chronic heart failure and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      45.1
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  • Question 68 - A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He has been lethargic and anorexic. He describes his urine is frothy. Dipstick testing of urine reveals a trace of blood but is strongly positive for protein. His blood pressure is 140/85. There are no other abnormal physical signs. He takes no medication apart from ibuprofen for intermittent backache.
      Select the single most likely cause for this.

      Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome: Causes and Mechanisms

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. The primary causes of nephrotic syndrome include minimal-change nephropathy, focal glomerulosclerosis, and membranous nephropathy, while secondary causes include systemic diseases and drugs. Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults.

      The glomerular structural changes that may cause proteinuria involve damage to the endothelial surface, the glomerular basement membrane, or the podocytes. In membranous glomerulonephritis, immune complexes localize between the outer aspects of the basement membrane and the podocytes.

      If left untreated, nephrotic syndrome can progress to end-stage renal failure in 30-50% of patients. However, some patients with idiopathic membranous nephropathy may experience complete or partial spontaneous remission of nephrotic syndrome with stable renal function.

      It is important to differentiate nephrotic syndrome from other kidney conditions such as diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, acute tubular necrosis, and acute interstitial nephritis. Understanding the causes and mechanisms of nephrotic syndrome can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      60.8
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  • Question 69 - Rahul, a young adult, has been experiencing symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome and...

    Incorrect

    • Rahul, a young adult, has been experiencing symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome and seeks advice from his doctor regarding dietary changes that could alleviate his bloating and constipation. What diet would be beneficial for young adults dealing with irritable bowel syndrome?

      Your Answer: Paleo diet

      Correct Answer: Low FODMAP diet

      Explanation:

      Monash University in Australia has recently introduced a low-FODMAP diet for managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). FODMAPs are short-chain carbohydrates that are poorly absorbed in the small intestine, leading to water intake and diarrhea or fermentation by bacteria causing bloating in the large bowel. A low-FODMAP diet has been found to reduce IBS symptoms such as bloating, abdominal pain, and irregular bowel habits. However, it is a challenging diet to follow as it excludes many foods containing Oligo-, Di-, Mono-saccharides and Polyols, including wheat, dairy, pulses, excess fructose, and some vegetables. Therefore, it is recommended to seek the advice of a dietician.

      The LOFFLEX diet, which stands for low fat/fibre exclusion diet, has been developed for individuals with Crohn’s disease. It is often used after the elemental diet to maintain remission by avoiding high-fiber and high-fat foods that can trigger Crohn’s. The ketogenic diet has been shown to improve seizure control in people with epilepsy, particularly in children who are under the supervision of a pediatric dietician and have drug-resistant epilepsy. The specific carbohydrate and paleo diets are popular new diet trends that GPs may encounter, both of which significantly limit carbohydrate intake in the diet.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      125
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to see you as her parents think she...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to see you as her parents think she is very short for her age and is the smallest in her class at school. She is talkative and is of normal intelligence and intellectual development.

      Physical examination reveals a lack of pubertal development and on further questioning she has not started to menstruate. You note the presence of cubitus valgus and neck webbing.

      What investigation will confirm the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Karyotype

      Explanation:

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females, with an incidence of approximately 1 in 2500 live births. It is characterized by a missing or incomplete X chromosome, resulting in a karyotype of 45 XO. The clinical features of Turner’s syndrome can vary, but common signs include short stature, delayed pubertal development, and primary amenorrhea.

      Other physical features that may be present include abnormal nails, neonatal lymphedema, webbing of the neck, widely spaced nipples with a shield chest, and a wide carrying angle. These features can be subtle or absent, making it important to request a karyotype in females with short stature and delayed puberty.

      Early identification of Turner’s syndrome is crucial, as it allows for early treatment with growth hormone to enhance final height. Additionally, those affected are at increased risk of cardiac and renal abnormalities, particularly coarctation of the aorta. By understanding the clinical features and importance of early diagnosis, healthcare providers can provide appropriate care and support for individuals with Turner’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      90
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - An 80-year-old man is admitted to hospital after a fall. He denies any...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted to hospital after a fall. He denies any loss of consciousness but admits to increasing dizziness when attempting to get around his flat.

      He has a past medical history of cardiac failure, type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. His medications, which were recently altered by the hospital clinic, include bendroflumethiazide, aspirin, ramipril, gliclazide, furosemide, simvastatin and doxazosin, the latter being recently introduced.

      What single observation would help establish his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: 24 hour ambulatory ECG

      Correct Answer: Arterial blood gases

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced Postural Hypotension

      Drug-induced postural hypotension is a condition that can occur as a side effect of antihypertensive therapy, especially with the use of alpha-blockers. In this case, the patient’s recent introduction to doxazosin is a clue to the cause of their symptoms. Postural hypotension is characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up, leading to dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting. It is important to monitor patients closely when starting new medications and adjust dosages as needed to prevent this potentially dangerous condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 40-year-old male with a 13 year history of type 1 diabetes presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male with a 13 year history of type 1 diabetes presents with a three month history of deteriorating pain and stiffness of the right shoulder.

      On examination he has some painful limitation of internal rotation and very limited painful external rotation. He can abduct the right arm to only 90 degrees. Flexion is relatively unimpaired. There is some weakness of movement of that shoulder with slight wasting of shoulder muscles. He has some reduced vibration sensation in both hands.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adhesive capsulitis

      Correct Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Frozen Shoulder

      This patient presents with typical symptoms of a frozen shoulder, including global reduction in shoulder movements and slight muscle wasting due to pain and reduced use. While frozen shoulder typically results in limitations in both rotational directions and abduction, the shorter history of symptoms in this case may result in less severe signs. Additionally, the patient’s age is a factor to consider.

      Brachial plexopathy, on the other hand, involves specific dermatomal loss of sensation and strength, such as wrist drop or ulnar nerve palsy, rather than the shoulder. The reduced vibration sense in both hands may indicate early stages of diabetic peripheral neuropathy, but is not directly related to the frozen shoulder diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      73.3
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Which blood tests are included in the standard antenatal screening program for women...

    Correct

    • Which blood tests are included in the standard antenatal screening program for women in the UK?

      Your Answer: Listeriosis

      Explanation:

      Antenatal Screening in the UK: HIV, Listeriosis, Strep B, Hepatitis B and Haemoglobinopathies

      Antenatal screening is an important part of prenatal care in the UK. HIV testing is routinely offered to pregnant women, as appropriate interventions can reduce transmission rates to less than 1%. Listeriosis, although not routinely tested for, is a concern for pregnant women as it can cause pregnancy and birth complications, and even result in miscarriage or the death of the baby. Strep B is also not routinely tested for, but pregnant women with risk factors should be screened as the infection can be life-threatening for newborns. Hepatitis B is part of routine screening, but Hepatitis C is only tested for in women with risk factors. Finally, screening for haemoglobinopathies varies across the UK, with all women in England and Scotland offered screening for sickle cell and thalassaemia, while in Wales only those at increased risk are screened and in Northern Ireland no policy decision has been made. It is important for pregnant women to be aware of these screening options and to discuss them with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A mother brings her 4-year-old boy to see you with a sore throat,...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old boy to see you with a sore throat, fever and rash. On examination he has a punctate rash, strawberry tongue and cervical lymphadenopathy. You diagnose him with scarlet fever and decide to start phenoxymethylpenicillin. Do you need to notify the local health protection team (HPT)?

      Your Answer: Throat swabs should be taken and local HPT informed by GP if positive

      Correct Answer: Local HPT should be informed if scarlet fever is suspected

      Explanation:

      If there is suspicion of scarlet fever, it is important to inform the local HPT without waiting for laboratory confirmation, as detecting outbreaks quickly is a priority for Public Health England. Clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection is sufficient for reporting purposes since 1968.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      16.5
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  • Question 75 - Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be a feature of uncomplicated...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be a feature of uncomplicated cholesteatoma in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Otorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Cholesteatoma: Symptoms and Complications

      Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by the collection of epidermal and connective tissues within the middle ear. It can be dangerous as it may cause damage to adjacent vital structures such as the dura, lateral sinus, facial nerve, and semi-circular canal. In severe cases, it may lead to fatal central nervous system complications such as brain abscess and meningitis.

      The hallmark symptom of cholesteatoma is a painless otorrhoea, which may be continuous or recurrent. When infected, the infection may be difficult to treat. Hearing loss is also a common symptom, as the cholesteatoma can fill the middle ear space with desquamated epithelium, interfering with sound transmission and causing ossicular damage.

      Dizziness and facial nerve palsy may occur as the cholesteatoma grows and erodes into adjacent structures. These symptoms are worrisome as they may indicate more serious complications.

      A retracted intact tympanic membrane is not a specific feature of cholesteatoma and may be seen in other conditions such as otitis media with effusion. In cholesteatoma, pearly, white, glistening debris may be visible through the otorrhoea, occupying a perforation in the tympanic membrane, usually in the pars flaccida. Alternatively, there may just be crusting in the uppermost part of the drum beneath which lies a cholesteatoma.

      Rhinorrhoea is not a feature of cholesteatoma.

      In summary, cholesteatoma is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Its symptoms include painless otorrhoea, hearing loss, and possible complications such as dizziness and facial nerve palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      26.8
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  • Question 76 - A 13-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother who wants to...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother who wants to know more about HPV vaccination. Which of the following statements about HPV vaccination is not true?

      Your Answer: Gardasil protects against HPV 6, 11, 16 & 18

      Correct Answer: Cervarix has the advantage over Gardasil of offering protection against genital warts

      Explanation:

      Protection against genital warts is an advantage offered by Gardasil, as opposed to Cervarix.

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.

      The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.

      Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      27.9
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  • Question 77 - A 19-year-old long-distance runner who is currently preparing for a regional marathon approaches...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old long-distance runner who is currently preparing for a regional marathon approaches the team doctor with an unusual sensation in her legs. She reports feeling numbness below her knee. Upon examination, the doctor notes sensory loss below the left knee in a non-dermatomal distribution. The doctor suspects a non-organic cause of her symptoms. What type of disorder is this an example of?

      Conversion disorder - typically involves loss of motor or sensory function. May be caused by stress.

      Your Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      Conversion disorder is a condition that often results in the loss of motor or sensory function and is believed to be triggered by stress.

      Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry

      In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      27.8
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  • Question 78 - A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath. He has been experiencing a dry cough for the past two weeks. He works as a financial analyst and drinks about 15 units of alcohol per week. He recently went on a trip to Amsterdam with his friends. He has also developed a skin rash consisting of pink rings with pale centers.

      Upon admission, his blood work shows:
      - Sodium: 129 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.8 mmol/L
      - Urea: 8.5 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 155 µmol/L

      A chest x-ray reveals diffuse reticular infiltrates and a small left-sided pleural effusion. What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Typical presentation of mycoplasma pneumonia includes flu-like symptoms that progressively worsen and a dry cough. During examination, the patient may exhibit erythema multiforme, indicating the presence of the infection. This type of pneumonia is commonly acquired within the community. Although Streptococcus pneumoniae is also a possible cause, it is not the focus of this particular case.

      Comparison of Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia are both causes of atypical pneumonia, but they have some differences. Legionella is associated with outbreaks in buildings with contaminated water systems, while Mycoplasma pneumonia is more common in younger patients and is associated with epidemics every 4 years. Both diseases have flu-like symptoms, but Mycoplasma pneumonia has a more gradual onset and a dry cough. On x-ray, both diseases show bilateral consolidation. However, it is important to recognize Mycoplasma pneumonia as it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to it lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, meningoencephalitis, and other immune-mediated neurological diseases. In contrast, Legionella can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which is a severe form of pneumonia that can lead to respiratory failure and death.

      Diagnosis of Legionella is generally by urinary antigen testing, while diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia is generally by serology. Treatment for Legionella includes fluoroquinolones or macrolides, while treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes doxycycline or a macrolide. Overall, while both diseases are causes of atypical pneumonia, they have some distinct differences in their epidemiology, symptoms, and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      44.3
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  • Question 79 - A 63-year-old male is being seen at the heart failure clinic by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male is being seen at the heart failure clinic by a nurse. Despite being treated with furosemide, bisoprolol, enalapril, and spironolactone, he experiences breathlessness with minimal exertion. Upon examination, there is minimal ankle edema and clear chest auscultation. Recent test results show sinus rhythm with a rate of 84 bpm on ECG, cardiomegaly with clear lung fields on chest x-ray, and an ejection fraction of 35% on echo. Isosorbide dinitrate with hydralazine was attempted but had to be discontinued due to side effects. What additional medication would be most effective in alleviating his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Diltiazem

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      54.1
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  • Question 80 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, psoriasis, and bipolar disorder visits...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, psoriasis, and bipolar disorder visits his doctor complaining of a thick scaly patch on his right knee that appeared after starting a new medication.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for exacerbating his rash?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium has been found to potentially worsen psoriasis symptoms.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors, including trauma, alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, the sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take steps to avoid or manage them as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.9
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  • Question 81 - A 29-year-old male attends surgery with his wife to ask your advice.
    He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male attends surgery with his wife to ask your advice.
      He has neurofibromatosis and they are thinking about starting a family. He tells you that his father had the same condition and he is worried about passing it on to their children. His wife has no significant family history of genetic problems and no personal history of any medical problems.
      What should you tell them?

      Your Answer: Their child could be a carrier for the condition and not have any symptoms or signs

      Correct Answer: The risk of their child inheriting the conditionis 50% regardless of the sex of the child

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis: An Inherited Condition

      Neurofibromatosis is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that both males and females can be affected, and there is no carrier state. If an individual inherits the faulty gene, they will have the condition. If one parent has the condition, there is a 50% chance of passing it on to their offspring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      21.3
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  • Question 82 - A 52-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She has also had similar incidents while exercising in the gym, which has caused significant embarrassment and now wears pads whenever she goes out.

      She denies urinary urgency or frequency and opens her bladder once at night. She has no bowel-related symptoms.

      She has tried pelvic floor exercises with support from a women's health physiotherapist for the past 6 months but still finds the symptoms very debilitating. She denies feeling depressed. She is keen to try further treatment, although is frightened by the prospect of surgery and would prefer alternative measures.

      Urinalysis is unremarkable. On vaginal examination, there is no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.

      What is the next most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Offer a trial of oxybutynin

      Correct Answer: Offer a trial of duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle training is the most effective and cost-efficient treatment for stress urinary incontinence in women. Ring pessaries are an alternative non-surgical option for pelvic organ prolapse. Oxybutynin is typically used for urge incontinence, but in this scenario, the patient only presents with stress incontinence. While a referral to urogynaecology may be considered for further investigation or surgery, it is not necessary under the 2-week-wait pathway. Pelvic floor exercises should be attempted for at least 3 months under the guidance of a continence adviser, specialist nurse, or women’s health physiotherapist. As the patient’s symptoms persist after 6 months of trying this approach, it is not advisable to continue with the same strategy.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 83 - A 56-year-old woman presents with a rash on her face. She reports having...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents with a rash on her face. She reports having a facial rash with flushing for a few weeks. Upon examination, there is a papulopustular rash with telangiectasia on both cheeks and nose. What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the potential complication associated with it?

      Your Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that results in long-term facial flushing, erythema, telangiectasia, pustules, papules, and rhinophyma. It can also impact the eyes, leading to blepharitis, keratitis, and conjunctivitis. Treatment options include topical antibiotics such as metronidazole gel or oral tetracycline, particularly if there are ocular symptoms.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.2
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  • Question 84 - A 36-year-old woman comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had previously visited...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had previously visited with complaints of worsening headaches and insomnia, which you diagnosed as tension-type headaches after ruling out any red flags. Her sleep pattern has continued to deteriorate over the past few months, with early morning waking being a prominent issue. She denies any substance misuse or excessive alcohol consumption.

      During today's visit, she reports experiencing a few episodes of palpitations and occasional dizziness. These symptoms do not occur during exercise, and there are no red flags present. Her cardiovascular and neurological exams are unremarkable, and her blood pressure is normal.

      All of her blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and thyroid function tests, come back normal.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Commence treatment with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)

      Correct Answer: Consider generalised anxiety disorder as a potential underlying diagnosis and explore if psychological distress present

      Explanation:

      Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) can manifest in various ways, including presenting solely with physical symptoms. Patients with GAD may experience headaches, muscle tension, gastrointestinal symptoms, back pain, and insomnia, without reporting any psychological distress or worry. Therefore, it is important to explore the presence of psychological distress during consultations.

      Based on the history and examination provided, there is no indication for urgent cardiology referral, and it would not be an appropriate use of resources.

      While beta-blockers may be a suitable treatment option for GAD, further discussion with the patient is necessary before reaching a diagnosis, especially in the presence of somatic symptoms.

      Similarly, SSRI may be an appropriate treatment option, but it is important to have a thorough discussion with the patient before prescribing.

      In this case, prescribing a sleeping tablet is not the most appropriate option. Secondary insomnia resulting from GAD should be treated, and a sleeping tablet should only be prescribed at the lowest possible dose for the shortest period of time, with regular review. Treatment should not exceed 2-4 weeks due to the risk of tolerance and addiction. Depending on the circumstances, other treatment options such as individual guided self-help, psychological interventions, or cognitive behavioural therapy may be considered.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      44.4
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  • Question 85 - A young patient suffers a traumatic left ear perforation. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A young patient suffers a traumatic left ear perforation. Which of the following sets of findings is the most likely to be noted on tuning fork testing?
      Rinne left ear Rinne right ear Weber
      Patient A Air conduction better than bone conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Central
      Patient B Bone conduction better than air conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Lateralises to the left
      Patient C Bone conduction better than air conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Lateralises to the right
      Patient D Air conduction better than bone conduction Bone conduction better than air conduction Lateralises to the right
      Patient E Bone conduction better than air conduction Bone conduction better than air conduction Central

      Your Answer: Patient D

      Correct Answer: Patient B

      Explanation:

      Hearing Tests and Their Interpretation

      Hearing tests are essential in diagnosing hearing problems. Two common tests are Rinne’s test and Weber’s test. Rinne’s test uses tuning forks of 512 Hz, but those of 256 Hz may be more accurate. A heavy tuning fork is preferable because a light fork produces a sound that fades too rapidly. To test air conduction, hold the tuning fork directly in line with the external auditory canal. When testing bone conduction, place the flat end of the stem of the tuning fork against bone immediately superior and posterior to the external canal. When air conduction is louder than bone conduction, it is reported as Rinne-positive.

      In interpreting the results, normal findings are expected in patient A, while patient C has anomalous findings that suggest a non-organic problem. Patient D suggests a right conductive loss, and patient E suggests a bilateral conductive loss, although in this case, the Weber test can lateralize to one side or the other.

      Weber’s test involves placing a 512 Hz tuning fork in the midline of the patient’s forehead. If the sound is louder on one side than the other, the patient may have either an ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or a contralateral sensorineural hearing loss. These tests are crucial in diagnosing hearing problems and should be conducted accurately to ensure proper interpretation of the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      127.2
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  • Question 86 - The parents of a 7-year-old child diagnosed with autism are concerned about the...

    Incorrect

    • The parents of a 7-year-old child diagnosed with autism are concerned about the potential impact on their child's overall health. They have heard that autism may be associated with various medical issues. Which of the following characteristics is not more prevalent in a child with autism than in the general population? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Hearing impairment

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Common Co-Occurring Conditions in Children with Autism

      Children with autism often experience co-occurring conditions that can impact their overall health and well-being. While some parents have reported success with a gluten-free diet for their child’s autism symptoms, there is no solid evidence to support this approach. Additionally, children with autism may also have ADHD, epilepsy, and sensory impairments such as hearing or vision impairment. It’s important for parents and caregivers to be aware of these potential co-occurring conditions and work with healthcare professionals to address them appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Which of the following consultation models recommends discovering the motive for the patient's...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following consultation models recommends discovering the motive for the patient's visit in relation to thoughts, worries, and anticipations?

      Your Answer: Stott and Davis

      Correct Answer: Pendleton

      Explanation:

      The Calgary-Cambridge model also includes aspects of investigating concepts, worries, and anticipations.

      Consultation Models

      The following are various consultation models that healthcare professionals can use to guide their interactions with patients. Each model has its own unique approach and set of steps to follow. The Calgary-Cambridge observation guide focuses on initiating the session, gathering information, building the relationship, giving information, explaining and planning, and closing the session. The Stewart patient-centered clinical method emphasizes exploring both the disease and the illness experience, understanding the whole person, finding common ground, incorporating prevention and health promotion, enhancing the doctor-patient relationship, and being realistic with time and resources. The Pendleton model involves defining the reason for the patient’s attendance, considering other problems, choosing an appropriate action for each problem, achieving a shared understanding of the problems with the patient, involving the patient in the management and encouraging them to accept appropriate responsibility, using time and resources appropriately, and establishing or maintaining a relationship with the patient. The Fraser model includes interviewing and history-taking, physical examination, diagnosis and problem-solving, patient management, relating to patients, anticipatory care, and record-keeping. The Neighbour model, called the Inner Consultation, includes connecting, summarizing, handing over, safety netting, and housekeeping. Finally, the Tuckett model emphasizes that the consultation is a meeting between two experts, doctors are experts in medicine, patients are experts in their own illnesses, shared understanding is the aim, doctors should seek to understand the patient’s beliefs, and doctors should address explanations in terms of the patient’s belief system. By using these models, healthcare professionals can provide effective and patient-centered care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      10.6
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  • Question 88 - On reviewing the blood results of a 65-year-old patient, you note mild hypercalcaemia....

    Incorrect

    • On reviewing the blood results of a 65-year-old patient, you note mild hypercalcaemia. The full blood count, renal function, serum electrolytes, liver function tests and thyroid function tests were all normal. A subsequent repeat serum calcium shows persistence in the mild hypercalcaemia along with a raised parathyroid hormone. The patient is otherwise asymptomatic.

      Which of the following would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Oral calcitonin

      Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Managing Incidental Findings of Hypercalcaemia

      It is crucial to consider the differential diagnosis when an incidental finding of hypercalcaemia is discovered. Immediate hospital review is necessary for severe hypercalcaemia (>3.40mmol/L) or those with symptoms. Further investigations may be required for mild hypercalcaemia, depending on the clinical context, such as chest x-ray, serum and urine protein electrophoresis, and serum cortisol.

      NICE recommends referring patients suspected of having primary hyperparathyroidism to endocrinology. They will exclude other causes of hypercalcaemia and assess whether a parathyroidectomy is appropriate. Calcimimetic drug treatments and bisphosphonate therapy are potential treatments, but these would be considered in secondary care initially. A normal dietary intake of calcium is usually advised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 35-year-old female patient comes to you seeking advice on contraception. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient comes to you seeking advice on contraception. She has a medical history of obesity and migraines without aura. The patient is currently taking orlistat and loratadine. During her visit to your clinic, her body mass index is measured to be 27kg/m² and her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. What advice would you give her?

      Your Answer: Loratadine may reduce the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Orlistat may reduce effectiveness of oral contraception

      Explanation:

      The effectiveness of oral contraception may be reduced by medication that causes diarrhoea or vomiting, such as orlistat or laxatives. However, loratadine doesn’t have an impact on the effectiveness of either the combined oral contraceptive pill or the progesterone-only pill. It’s worth noting that orlistat only affects oral contraception and will not reduce the effectiveness of the contraceptive transdermal patch or injection.

      Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on various aspects. This includes the potential benefits and harms of the COC, such as its high effectiveness rate of over 99% when taken correctly, but also the small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, and increased risk of breast and cervical cancer. Additionally, advice on taking the pill should be provided, such as starting it within the first 5 days of the cycle to avoid the need for additional contraception, taking it at the same time every day, and considering tailored regimens that eliminate the pill-free interval. It is also important to discuss situations where efficacy may be reduced, such as vomiting or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. Finally, counselling should include information on STIs and the use of concurrent antibiotics, which may no longer require extra precautions except for enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin.

      Overall, women should receive comprehensive counselling on the COC to make informed decisions about their reproductive health. This includes discussing the potential benefits and harms, advice on taking the pill, and situations where efficacy may be reduced. By providing this information, women can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and reduce the risk of unintended pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - In your morning clinic, a 13-month-old girl is brought in by her father....

    Incorrect

    • In your morning clinic, a 13-month-old girl is brought in by her father. She has been unwell for 2 days with a fever that has been over 39ºC. She has a cough and has been refusing to eat. Although she has been drinking normal amounts of milk, her urine output is less than usual. Her nose has been very runny, and she keeps rubbing her left ear. Her father is most worried about her cough and breathing and is wondering if she needs antibiotics.

      During the examination, she appears alert but coryzal. Her temperature is 39.2ºC. Her heart rate is 150 beats per minute. Her respiratory rate is 60 breaths per minute. Her capillary refill time is < 2 seconds, and her mucous membranes are moist. You can hear transmitted sounds from her upper airway throughout her chest, but nothing focal. She has no visible rashes. Her throat is red with enlarged tonsils, and her left ear has a red, bulging tympanic membrane.

      You consult the NICE traffic light system for feverish children. What observation is considered a red symptom, requiring admission to the hospital for further evaluation?

      Your Answer: Heart rate >150 beats per minute in a 12-24 month old

      Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >60 per minute

      Explanation:

      The NICE paediatric traffic light system identifies a respiratory rate of over 60 per minute as a red flag, regardless of age. Other symptoms that are considered amber or red flags include decreased urine output, dry mucous membranes, and a heart rate of over 150 beats per minute in 12-24-month-olds. A fever of over 39ºC is not an amber or red symptom, but it is considered an amber symptom in 3-6-month-olds and a red flag in children under 3 months.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      50.8
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  • Question 91 - A 75-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes mellitus presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes mellitus presents with worsening dyspnea. His ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm and an echocardiogram confirms the diagnosis of congestive heart failure with reduced left ventricular ejection fraction. Which of the following medications is most likely to decrease mortality in this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Congestive Heart Failure

      Congestive heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper treatment to improve survival rates and alleviate symptoms. One of the recommended treatments is the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like Enalapril, which have been shown to reduce left ventricular afterload and prolong survival rates. This is particularly important for patients with diabetes mellitus. Antiplatelets like aspirin are only indicated for those with concurrent atherosclerotic arterial disease. Standard drugs like digoxin have not been proven to improve survival rates compared to ACE inhibitors. Diuretics like furosemide provide relief from symptoms of fluid overload but do not improve survival rates. Antiarrhythmic agents like lidocaine are only useful when there is arrhythmia associated with heart failure. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual case of congestive heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      702.4
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her father, reporting a rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her father, reporting a rash on her ears that has been present for 3 days. They have just returned from a trip to Mexico. The girl complains of itchiness and discomfort. She has not experienced any fever or respiratory symptoms recently. On examination, small blisters are observed on the helix of both ears, while the rest of her skin appears normal. The patient has no prior medical history.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis

      Correct Answer: Juvenile spring eruption

      Explanation:

      Juvenile spring eruption (JSE) is a skin condition that typically affects boys aged 5-14 years during the spring season. It is caused by sun exposure and appears as a blistering rash on the ears, causing discomfort and itchiness. The recent holiday to Tenerife suggests a possible risk factor for this condition. Treatment involves using emollients and antihistamines, and symptoms usually resolve within a week.

      The rash associated with Chickenpox starts as red macules that become raised, blister, and crust over time. It is often accompanied by cold-like symptoms and fever and tends to be more widespread, affecting the trunk and limbs. This rash typically lasts for 4-10 days. However, since the patient has a 2-day history of a blistering rash isolated to the ears, Chickenpox is an unlikely diagnosis.

      Given the patient’s short history, the characteristic rash, and the absence of any relevant medical history, eczema is an unlikely possibility.

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis is a skin condition that is commonly seen in middle-aged or elderly patients. It is characterized by small skin-colored nodules that typically appear on the helix of the ear.

      Understanding Juvenile Spring Eruption

      Juvenile spring eruption is a skin condition that occurs as a result of sun exposure. It is a type of polymorphic light eruption (PLE) that causes itchy red bumps on the light-exposed parts of the ears, which can turn into blisters and crusts. This condition is more common in boys aged between 5-14 years, and it is less common in females due to increased amounts of hair covering the ears.

      The main cause of juvenile spring eruption is sun-induced allergy rash, which is more likely to occur in the springtime. Some patients may also have PLE elsewhere on the body, and there is an increased incidence in cold weather. The diagnosis of this condition is usually made based on clinical presentation, and no clinical tests are required in most cases. However, in aggressive cases, lupus should be ruled out by ANA and ENA blood tests.

      The management of juvenile spring eruption involves providing patient education on sun exposure and the use of sunscreen and hats. Topical treatments such as emollients or calamine lotion can be used to provide relief, and antihistamines can help with itch relief at night-time. In more serious cases, oral steroids such as prednisolone can be used, as well as immune-system suppressants.

      In conclusion, understanding juvenile spring eruption is important for proper diagnosis and management. By taking preventative measures and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      51.8
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  • Question 93 - A disease is discovered to have a standard mortality ratio of 140 in...

    Incorrect

    • A disease is discovered to have a standard mortality ratio of 140 in a surveyed population. Is it accurate to say that the disease is more fatal in this age group?

      Your Answer: Mortality from the disease in the sampled population is lower than would be expected

      Correct Answer: There were 40% more fatalities from the disease in this population compared to the reference population

      Explanation:

      There were a higher number of deaths in the sample population than what was anticipated.

      Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio

      The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.

      An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      3.7
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  • Question 94 - A 25-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her risk for familial...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her risk for familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Her father and older brother have been diagnosed with the condition, and she previously declined testing but is now reconsidering. Her mother's side of the family has no history of illness. What is the probability that she has FAP? Select ONE answer.

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inheritance Probability of Autosomal-Dominant Traits

      Autosomal-dominant traits are genetic conditions that only require one affected gene to be inherited in order for the trait to be displayed. In the case of a patient whose father has Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP), a rare autosomal-dominant condition, there is a 50% chance that she has inherited the affected gene from her father. This is because her father has one affected gene and one unaffected gene, and there is an equal chance of either gene being passed down to his offspring.

      It is important to note that there is no 100% chance of being affected by an autosomal-dominant condition unless the parent is homozygous, meaning they carry two affected genes and no unaffected genes. This is unlikely in the case of FAP.

      On the other hand, a 25% chance of being affected is associated with autosomal-recessive conditions, but only if both parents are carriers of the affected gene. In the case of autosomal-dominant traits, there is always some risk of inheriting the condition if one parent is affected.

      To determine a more specific probability of inheritance, a Punnett square can be used to calculate the possible outcomes. In the case of FAP, the patient has a 50% chance of inheriting the affected gene from her father. Therefore, understanding the inheritance probability of autosomal-dominant traits is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on the condition to future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 95 - A 49-year-old man seeks guidance on Universal Credit benefits. He had to quit...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man seeks guidance on Universal Credit benefits. He had to quit his job as an engineer due to a motorcycle accident that resulted in a fractured femur. His orthopaedic surgeon predicts that his recovery will take several months. Currently, he works part-time as a freelance web developer, earning less than £200 per month.

      He resides in the UK with his wife and two young children. They have a combined savings of £30,000, and his wife is currently unemployed, taking care of their children.

      What advice would you offer him regarding his eligibility for Universal Credit?

      Your Answer: He is not eligible for Universal Credit owing to his age

      Correct Answer: He is not eligible for Universal Credit owing to his collective savings

      Explanation:

      To be eligible for Universal Credit, an individual must have savings below £16,000. However, in the case of co-habiting couples, the partner’s income and savings will also be taken into consideration. It is important to note that intentionally transferring or reducing savings to increase the amount of Universal Credit received is considered deprivation of capital and will be investigated by the Department of Work and Pensions. Employment doesn’t disqualify an individual from receiving Universal Credit, as long as their earnings do not exceed the administrative earnings threshold of £338 per individual or £541 for a household. Age and marital status also do not affect eligibility for Universal Credit.

      Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies

      Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.

      The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.

      Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.

      Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
      3.8
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  • Question 96 - A 58-year-old man has persistent atrial fibrillation.
    Which of the following is the single...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man has persistent atrial fibrillation.
      Which of the following is the single risk factor that places him most at risk of stroke?

      Your Answer: Previous transient ischaemic attack

      Explanation:

      Understanding CHA2DS2-VASc Scoring for Stroke Risk in Atrial Fibrillation Patients

      The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is a useful tool for predicting the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation. A score of 0 indicates a low risk, while a score of 1 suggests a moderate risk, and a score of 2 or higher indicates a high risk. One of the risk factors that carries a score of 2 is a previous transient ischaemic attack, while age 75 years or older is another. Other risk factors, such as age 65-74 and female sex at any age, carry a score of 1 each. If a patient has no risk factors, their score would be zero, and not anticoagulating them would be an option. However, it is important to consider bleeding risk, calculated using the ORBIT criteria, before starting anticoagulation in all cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - You encounter a 41-year-old male patient complaining of lower back pain. He cannot...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 41-year-old male patient complaining of lower back pain. He cannot recall a specific injury but reports that the pain has been worsening for the past 2 months. He has experienced muscle spasms in his lower back over the last 48 hours, causing him significant discomfort and preventing him from working. He works in a warehouse and frequently engages in heavy lifting. He is overweight but has no other relevant medical history. There are no red flag symptoms of back pain.

      What is a true statement about nonspecific lower back pain?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol +/- codeine is first line for analgesia

      Correct Answer: 'StarT BACK' is an online risk stratification tool which can be used to assess a person with lower back pain

      Explanation:

      The online tool ‘StarT BACK’ can be utilized to evaluate individuals with lower back pain who do not exhibit any red flags and determine modifiable risk factors.

      When it comes to analgesia, NSAIDs are the preferred first-line treatment unless there are any contraindications. Diazepam may be prescribed for a brief period if muscle spasms are present.

      It is not necessary for the patient to be completely pain-free before returning to work or normal activities. The NICE CKS guidelines suggest encouraging the individual to stay active, gradually resuming normal activities, and returning to work as soon as possible. Prolonged bed rest is not recommended, and some pain may be experienced during movement, which should not be harmful if activities are resumed gradually and as tolerated. Occupational Health departments may assist in arranging work adjustments to facilitate an early return to work.

      To reduce the risk of recurrence, it is essential to remain as active as possible and engage in regular exercise. Unfortunately, individuals who have experienced low back pain may experience repeated episodes of recurrence and develop acute on chronic symptoms.

      Understanding Lower Back Pain and its Possible Causes

      Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. Although most cases are due to nonspecific muscular issues, it is important to consider possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Some red flags to watch out for include age below 20 or above 50 years, a history of previous malignancy, night pain, history of trauma, and systemic symptoms such as weight loss and fever.

      There are several specific causes of lower back pain that healthcare providers should be aware of. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, with pain typically worse in the morning and on standing. On examination, there may be pain over the facets, which is typically worse on extension of the back. Spinal stenosis, on the other hand, usually has a gradual onset and presents with unilateral or bilateral leg pain (with or without back pain), numbness, and weakness that worsens with walking and resolves when sitting down. Ankylosing spondylitis is typically seen in young men who present with lower back pain and stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arthritis is also common in this condition. Finally, peripheral arterial disease presents with pain on walking that is relieved by rest, and may be accompanied by absent or weak foot pulses and other signs of limb ischaemia. A past history of smoking and other vascular diseases may also be present.

      In summary, lower back pain is a common presentation in clinical practice, and healthcare providers should be aware of the possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. By identifying red flags and conducting a thorough examination, providers can help ensure that patients receive appropriate care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      36.3
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  • Question 98 - A 25-year-old man presents with symptoms of low mood. Upon evaluation, you diagnose...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with symptoms of low mood. Upon evaluation, you diagnose him with moderate depression and decide to initiate fluoxetine treatment. According to the latest NICE recommendations, when should you schedule a follow-up appointment with the patient?

      Your Answer: After 3-4 weeks

      Correct Answer: After 1 week

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests that patients who are under 30 years old should be reviewed within one week.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      15.2
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  • Question 99 - A 25-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of 12 hours of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of 12 hours of increasing restlessness, agitation, vomiting, diarrhoea and tremors. During the examination, he displays hyperthermia, tachycardia, muscle rigidity, hyperreflexia and myoclonus, particularly in the lower limbs. The patient has a history of depression and is currently taking fluoxetine. He recently began taking St John's wort to alleviate his depression.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Serotonin syndrome can be caused by the interaction between St. John’s Wort and SSRIs.

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, altered mental state, and confusion.

      Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, another potentially life-threatening condition. While both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      41.2
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  • Question 100 - You see a 45-year-old accountant who has Crohn's disease. His Crohn's disease has...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 45-year-old accountant who has Crohn's disease. His Crohn's disease has been well controlled for the last 4 years but he has recently been troubled by bloody, frequent diarrhoea and weight loss. He also has multiple mouth ulcers currently and psoriasis. He takes paracetamol and ibuprofen PRN for occasional lower back pain, which is exacerbated by his work. He smokes 10 cigarettes a day but drinks very little alcohol.

      You discuss treatment options with him.

      What is a correct statement regarding Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis is an extra-intestinal manifestation of Crohn's disease which is related to disease activity

      Correct Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may increase the risk of Crohn's disease relapse

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease can manifest in various ways outside of the intestines, such as aphthous mouth ulcers which are linked to disease activity. However, psoriasis is an extra-intestinal manifestation of Crohn’s disease that is not related to disease activity. It is important to note that NSAIDs may heighten the likelihood of a Crohn’s disease relapse. Unlike ulcerative colitis, smoking increases the risk of Crohn’s disease. Additionally, experiencing infectious gastroenteritis can increase the risk of Crohn’s disease by four times, especially within the first year following the episode.

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.

      Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      62.2
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (6/10) 60%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/3) 33%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (2/7) 29%
Kidney And Urology (3/5) 60%
Children And Young People (3/6) 50%
Cardiovascular Health (5/11) 45%
Mental Health (3/6) 50%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/2) 50%
Population Health (0/3) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (2/3) 67%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (2/3) 67%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/4) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (3/6) 50%
Respiratory Health (1/2) 50%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (2/6) 33%
Consulting In General Practice (1/4) 25%
End Of Life (1/2) 50%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (0/1) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/2) 0%
Genomic Medicine (2/4) 50%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (0/2) 0%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
Equality, Diversity And Inclusion (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/1) 100%
Passmed