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Question 1
Incorrect
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The substance that boosts hunger and is produced by the hypothalamus is:
Your Answer: Ghrelin
Correct Answer: Neuropeptide Y
Explanation:Appetite Control Hormones
The regulation of appetite is influenced by various hormones in the body. Neuropeptide Y, which is produced by the hypothalamus, stimulates appetite. On the other hand, leptin, which is produced by adipose tissue, suppresses appetite. Ghrelin, which is mainly produced by the gut, increases appetite. Cholecystokinin (CCK), which is also produced by the gut, reduces appetite. These hormones play a crucial role in maintaining a healthy balance of food intake and energy expenditure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the purpose of the blood brain barrier in keeping the blood separated from what?
Your Answer: The aqueous humour
Correct Answer: Cerebrospinal fluid
Explanation:The blood retinal barrier refers to the membrane that separates the aqueous humour from the blood.
Understanding the Blood Brain Barrier
The blood brain barrier (BBB) is a crucial component of the brain’s defense system against harmful chemicals and ion imbalances. It is a semi-permeable membrane formed by tight junctions of endothelial cells in the brain’s capillaries, which separates the blood from the cerebrospinal fluid. However, certain areas of the BBB, known as circumventricular organs, are fenestrated to allow neurosecretory products to enter the blood.
When it comes to MRCPsych questions, the focus is on the following aspects of the BBB: the tight junctions between endothelial cells, the ease with which lipid-soluble molecules pass through compared to water-soluble ones, the difficulty large and highly charged molecules face in passing through, the increased permeability of the BBB during inflammation, and the theoretical ability of nasally administered drugs to bypass the BBB.
It is important to remember the specific circumventricular organs where the BBB is fenestrated, including the posterior pituitary and the area postrema. Understanding the BBB’s function and characteristics is essential for medical professionals to diagnose and treat neurological disorders effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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For what is Carl Jung most well-known?
Your Answer: Defining the autistic phase of child development
Correct Answer: Differentiating between the personal and collective unconscious
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 4
Correct
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What is a type of hypnotic medication that is not classified as a benzodiazepine?
Your Answer: Zaleplon
Explanation:Hypnotic Drugs and Their Side Effects
Hypnotic drugs are medications that act on GABA receptors, specifically the BZ1, BZ2, and BZ3 receptors. The BZ1 receptor is responsible for sedative effects, while the BZ2 receptor is responsible for myorelaxant and anticonvulsant effects. The BZ3 receptor is responsible for anxiolytic effects.
Older benzodiazepines bind to all three types of receptors, while newer drugs like Z-drugs primarily bind to the BZ1 receptor. Zopiclone is a cyclopyrrolone drug that was marketed as a non-benzodiazepine sleep aid, but it can produce hangover effects and dependence. It is contraindicated in patients with marked neuromuscular respiratory weakness, respiratory failure, and severe sleep apnea syndrome. Zopiclone can cause alterations in EEG readings and sleep architecture similar to benzodiazepines. It should not be used by breastfeeding women as it passes through to the milk in high quantities. Side effects of zopiclone include metallic taste, heartburn, and lightening of sleep on withdrawal.
Zolpidem is another hypnotic drug that acts on the BZ1 receptor. Side effects of zolpidem include drowsiness, fatigue, depression, falls, and amnesia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of hypnotic drugs and to use them only as directed by a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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What is the term used to describe a delusion that is both systematic and rational?
Your Answer: Systematised
Explanation:Delusional Structure
Delusions can be categorized based on their logical consistency and organization. Logical delusions are consistent with logical thinking, while paralogical delusions are not. Delusions can also be organized, integrated into a formed concept, of unorganized. Highly organized, logical delusions are referred to as systematized.
The relationship between delusional beliefs and reality can also be described in different ways. Polarized delusions mix fact and delusion together, while juxtaposed delusions exist side by side with facts but do not interact. Autistic delusions completely disregard actual reality, and the patient lives in a delusional world.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 6
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes interactions involving chlorpromazine?
Your Answer: Chlorpromazine increases the serum concentration of valproic acid
Explanation:The serum concentration of valproic acid may be elevated by chlorpromazine, although the reason for this is not fully understood. However, this outcome is widely acknowledged.
Chlorpromazine: Photosensitivity Reactions and Patient Precautions
Chlorpromazine, the first drug used for psychosis, is a common topic in exams. However, it is important to note that photosensitivity reactions are a known side effect of its use. Patients taking chlorpromazine should be informed of this and advised to take necessary precautions. Proper education and awareness can help prevent potential harm from photosensitivity reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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At what stage of moral development is a teenager who feels guilty for not participating in a school fundraiser? No one knows he was not allowed to sell raffle tickets door to door by his mother and was given money instead.
Your Answer: Social contracts and individual rights
Correct Answer: Maintaining the social order
Explanation:If Peter had reached the stage of post-conventional morality, he would have evaluated whether purchasing sports equipment was a cause that aligned with his personal values and beliefs, rather than simply fulfilling a duty because his class was participating in it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 8
Correct
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What medication would be most strongly recommended for a patient with schizophrenia and olanzapine induced weight gain who did not respond well to aripiprazole and continues to experience distressing auditory hallucinations?
Your Answer: Lurasidone
Explanation:Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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Research has suggested that dysfunction of oligodendrocytes and the myelin sheath may play a role in the development of schizophrenia. Can you provide information on the function of the myelin sheath in the nervous system?
Your Answer: Increases the transmission of electrochemical impulses
Explanation:Myelin sheaths are composed of cells containing fat that act as insulation for the axons of neurons. These cells run along the axons with gaps between them called nodes of Ranvier. The fat in the myelin sheath makes it a poor conductor, causing impulses to jump from one gap to the next, which increases the speed of transmission of action potentials.
The white matter of the brain gets its whitish appearance from the myelin sheath, which is made up of glial cells. Oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system and Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system are responsible for forming the myelin sheath. The electrical impulse jumps from one node to the next at a rapid rate of up to 120 meters per second, which is known as saltatory conduction.
Glycoproteins play a crucial role in the formation, maintenance, and degradation of myelin sheaths. Recent studies suggest that dysfunction in oligodendrocytes and myelin can lead to changes in synaptic formation and function, resulting in cognitive dysfunction, a core symptom of schizophrenia. Additionally, there is evidence linking oligodendrocyte and myelin dysfunction with abnormalities in dopamine and glutamate, both of which are found in schizophrenia. Addressing these abnormalities could offer therapeutic opportunities for individuals with schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is accurate about the WISC-V (Wechsler intelligence scale for children)?
Your Answer: Standard deviation is 20 points
Correct Answer: It yields separate performance and verbal IQs
Explanation:The WAIS-III provides results for verbal IQ, performance IQ, and full scale IQ, which are compared to the average scores of the population. The average IQ for adults is 100, with a standard deviation of 15 points. However, the Wisconsin card sorting test, which is used to evaluate frontal lobe impairment, is not included in the WAIS-III.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with difficulty walking, muscle weakness, tremors, difficulty speaking, difficulty swallowing, and visual hallucinations. After evaluation and testing, he was diagnosed with Fahr's syndrome. Which area is most likely to be affected on his CT scan?
Your Answer: Cerebellum
Correct Answer: Basal ganglia
Explanation:Fahr’s syndrome is a rare condition where calcium deposits accumulate in the brain’s basal ganglia, which control movement. This can lead to neuropsychiatric symptoms such as dementia, psychosis, and behavioral changes. The pituitary gland, located at the base of the brain, produces hormones that affect various parts of the body. The occipital lobe is responsible for vision, while the cerebellum controls motor coordination, balance, and muscle tone. The hippocampus, located in the medial temporal lobe, is involved in spatial navigation and memory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological Examination
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which component is not considered a key element in Link and Phelan's stigma model?
Your Answer: Status loss
Correct Answer: Scapegoating
Explanation:Stigma Models
Stigma refers to any attribute, trait, of disorder that marks an individual as being unacceptably different from the normal people with whom they routinely interact, and that elicits some form of community sanction. The most popular model of stigma comes from the work of Link and Phelan, which has four aspects to it.
The first aspect is labelling, which refers to personal characteristics that mark individuals as different. These characteristics can be physical, mental, of social in nature and can include things like race, gender, sexual orientation, of mental illness.
The second aspect is stereotyping, which involves linking labelled characteristics to undesirable characteristics. For example, people with mental illness may be stereotyped as violent of unpredictable, even though the vast majority of them are not.
The third aspect is separating, which involves separating the labelled group and normal people by viewing them as very different. This can lead to social isolation and exclusion, which can further exacerbate the negative effects of stigma.
The fourth and final aspect is status loss and discrimination, which refers to the devaluing, rejecting, and excluding of the labelled group. This can take many forms, including employment discrimination, housing discrimination, and social exclusion.
Overall, the model of stigma developed by Link and Phelan provides a useful framework for understanding the complex and multifaceted nature of stigma and its effects on individuals and society as a whole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 13
Correct
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What are some characteristics of depression in older adults?
Your Answer: More severe
Explanation:The elderly population is at a higher risk of experiencing severe depression and requiring hospitalization. Depression rates in residential homes and medical wards can be as high as 20-30%, and the risk of suicide also increases with age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 14
Correct
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What EEG alteration would be anticipated when a patient who is in a relaxed state with their eyes shut is instructed to open their eyes and read a text passage in front of them?
Your Answer: The bilateral disappearance of alpha waves
Explanation:When someone is in a relaxed state with their eyes closed, alpha waves can be detected in the posterior regions of their head. However, these waves will disappear if the person becomes drowsy, concentrates on something, is stimulated, of fixates on a visual object. If the environment is dark, the alpha waves may still be present even with the eyes open.
Electroencephalography
Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.
Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.
Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.
Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.
Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.
Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 15
Correct
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A child is unable to describe the function of a microwave despite having used one many times in the past. Which area of memory do you suspect is dysfunctional?
Your Answer: Semantic
Explanation:The question pertains to the patient’s comprehension of the microwave’s purpose (semantic memory), rather than their ability to operate it (procedural memory).
Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What type of lesion is most likely to cause bitemporal hemianopia?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe tumour
Correct Answer: Pituitary tumour
Explanation:Bitemporal hemianopia is a condition in which an individual experiences a loss of vision in the outer (temporal of lateral) half of both their left and right visual fields. This condition is typically caused by damage to the optic chiasm.
Cerebral Dysfunction: Lobe-Specific Features
When the brain experiences dysfunction, it can manifest in various ways depending on the affected lobe. In the frontal lobe, dysfunction can lead to contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, lack of initiative, Broca’s aphasia, and agraphia (dominant). The temporal lobe dysfunction can result in Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant), homonymous upper quadrantanopia, and auditory agnosia (non-dominant). On the other hand, the non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction can lead to anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia. Meanwhile, the dominant parietal lobe dysfunction can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lastly, occipital lobe dysfunction can lead to visual agnosia, visual illusions, and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which movement disorder is most likely to exhibit rhythmic movements?
Your Answer: Chorea
Correct Answer: Tremor
Explanation:Movement Disorders: Key Features
Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:
Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.
Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.
Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.
Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.
Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.
Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.
Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.
Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.
Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.
Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.
Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.
Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.
It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 18
Correct
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Who is recognized as the originator of the mental age concept?
Your Answer: Binet
Explanation:Mental Age and IQ
The concept of mental age (MA) was introduced by Alfred Binet in 1905. It involves administering a series of tests to a person of child, which are then ranked according to the age at which people are expected to complete them. The mental age can be used to calculate the intelligence quotient (IQ) using the formula: IQ = MA/CA x 100, where CA is the chronological age. An IQ of 100 indicates that the mental and chronological ages are equal. IQ tends to remain stable throughout life. The Stanford-Binet test was the first IQ test, while the WAIS-IV (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale) is the most commonly used IQ test today.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What are the differences between CT and MRI?
Your Answer: CT has the ability to change the imaging plane without moving the patient
Correct Answer: CT is very good for imaging bone structures
Explanation:Neuroimaging techniques can be divided into structural and functional types, although this distinction is becoming less clear as new techniques emerge. Structural techniques include computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which use x-rays and magnetic fields, respectively, to produce images of the brain’s structure. Functional techniques, on the other hand, measure brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow of oxygen consumption. These include functional MRI (fMRI), emission tomography (PET and SPECT), perfusion MRI (pMRI), and magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS). Some techniques, such as diffusion tensor imaging (DTI), combine both structural and functional information to provide a more complete picture of the brain’s anatomy and function. DTI, for example, uses MRI to estimate the paths that water takes as it diffuses through white matter, allowing researchers to visualize white matter tracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the breakdown product of serotonin?
Your Answer: 5-hydroxytryptophan
Correct Answer: 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid
Explanation:Serotonin: Synthesis and Breakdown
Serotonin, also known as 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), is synthesized in the central nervous system (CNS) in the raphe nuclei located in the brainstem, as well as in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract in enterochromaffin cells. The amino acid L-tryptophan, obtained from the diet, is used to synthesize serotonin. L-tryptophan can cross the blood-brain barrier, but serotonin cannot.
The transformation of L-tryptophan into serotonin involves two steps. First, hydroxylation to 5-hydroxytryptophan is catalyzed by tryptophan hydroxylase. Second, decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is catalyzed by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.
Serotonin is taken up from the synapse by a monoamine transporter (SERT). Substances that block this transporter include MDMA, amphetamine, cocaine, TCAs, and SSRIs. Serotonin is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and then by aldehyde dehydrogenase to 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female with a history of bipolar disorder presents with an acute confusional state.
Which one of the following drugs is most likely to precipitate lithium toxicity?Your Answer: Atenolol
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Plasma concentrations of lithium may be decreased by both sodium bicarbonate and aminophylline.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia?
Your Answer: Galantamine is an NMDA antagonist
Correct Answer: Rivastigmine inhibits butyrylcholinesterase
Explanation:Rivastigmine has the ability to inhibit both AChE and butyrylcholinesterase, while Donepezil is specifically a reversible inhibitor of AChE.
Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Acamprosate is believed to produce its positive effects in the treatment of alcohol dependence by targeting which type of receptors?
Your Answer: Ionotropic D4 receptors
Correct Answer: Metabotropic glutamate receptors
Explanation:The exact way in which acamprosate helps maintain alcohol abstinence is not fully understood. However, it is believed that chronic alcohol exposure disrupts the balance between neuronal excitation and inhibition. Studies conducted on animals suggest that acamprosate may interact with the glutamate and GABA neurotransmitter systems in the brain, which may help restore this balance. Acamprosate is thought to inhibit glutamate receptors while activating GABA receptors, specifically GABA-A and metabotropic glutamate receptors. It should be noted that some sources suggest that acamprosate affects NMDA receptors, which are a type of ionotropic glutamate receptor. However, this is not entirely accurate and may not be reflected in exam questions.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about imprinting?
Your Answer: It is uniquely observed in humans
Correct Answer: It occurs during a sensitive period
Explanation:Imprinting – A Rapid, Unreinforced, Irreversible Attachment in Animals and Humans
Imprinting is a fascinating phenomenon observed in some animals and humans, where a phase-sensitive attachment is formed towards the first conspicuous object seen after birth of hatching. Konrad Lorenz’s classic experiment with Greylag geese demonstrated that imprinting consists of three stages – following response, attachment development, and sexual preference formation. Imprinting is a rapid process that can occur within minutes, and it does not require any reinforcement to happen. It also occurs during a clearly defined period known as the critical period, and once it happens, it is irreversible.
Imprinting has been observed in various species, including birds, mammals, and even humans. In humans, imprinting can occur during the early stages of life and can influence social and emotional development. For example, infants may develop an attachment towards their primary caregiver, which can shape their future relationships and social interactions.
Overall, imprinting is a fascinating and complex phenomenon that highlights the importance of early experiences in shaping an individual’s behavior and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 25
Correct
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Which individual discussed objects that provide comfort during times of transition of stress?
Your Answer: Winnicott
Explanation:Transitional objects were conceptualized by Winnicott as items that infants between 4-18 months of age select to aid in their separation and individuation process. These objects, such as a soft toy of blanket, serve as a source of comfort and help reduce anxiety. Object relations theory was also supported by Balint and Fairbairn. Meanwhile, Kleinian theory placed significant emphasis on the interpretation of play.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following sleep disruptions is not commonly linked to depression?
Your Answer: Reductions in slow wave sleep
Correct Answer: Increased total sleep time
Explanation:Depression and Sleep Architecture
Major depression has been extensively studied using polysomnography, a technique that records brain waves, eye movements, and muscle activity during sleep. The results of these studies have consistently shown that individuals with depression experience significant disruptions in their sleep architecture.
Specifically, depression is associated with decreased sleep continuity, meaning that individuals may wake up frequently throughout the night. Additionally, depression is characterized by prolonged sleep onset latency, of the amount of time it takes to fall asleep, as well as increased wake time after sleep onset, which refers to the amount of time spent awake during the night.
Other sleep disturbances commonly observed in individuals with depression include decreased sleep efficiency, of the amount of time spent asleep relative to the amount of time spent in bed, and decreased total sleep time. Early morning awakenings are also common in depression, as are reductions in slow wave sleep, which is the deepest stage of sleep.
Interestingly, depression is also associated with changes in REM sleep, the stage of sleep during which dreaming occurs. Specifically, individuals with depression tend to have reduced REM sleep onset latency, meaning they enter REM sleep more quickly, as well as increased REM density, of the amount of eye movements during REM sleep. Additionally, individuals with depression may spend a prolonged amount of time in the first REM sleep period.
Overall, the disruptions in sleep architecture observed in depression may contribute to the development and maintenance of depressive symptoms. Understanding these sleep disturbances may therefore be an important target for the treatment of depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the most probable diagnosis for an army officer, aged 19, who presented with symptoms of unusual behavior, excessive sleepiness, and increased appetite, but recovered after a 7-day hospital stay?
Your Answer: Kluver-Bucy syndrome
Correct Answer: Kleine-Levin syndrome
Explanation:Kleine-Levin Syndrome: A Mysterious Condition
Kleine-Levin syndrome is a peculiar disorder that typically affects adolescent boys. It is characterized by an excessive need for sleep and an insatiable appetite when awake. The condition is also associated with emotional and behavioral issues such as irritability and aggression.
The onset of symptoms is sudden and can last for several days to weeks before disappearing. This is followed by a period of normalcy, only to be followed by another episode. This pattern can continue for years, but the severity of symptoms tends to decrease over time. During the periods between episodes, those affected appear to be perfectly healthy with no signs of physical of behavioral dysfunction. The media has dubbed this condition as Sleeping Beauty syndrome.
Despite extensive research, the cause of Kleine-Levin syndrome remains unknown. However, the prognosis is generally positive, with most individuals making a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 28
Correct
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How can the four principles of medical ethics be stated?
Your Answer: Autonomy, Beneficence, Non-maleficence and Justice
Explanation:Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 29
Correct
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For what purpose is Modafinil licensed?
Your Answer: Obstructive sleep apnoea
Explanation:Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement
Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 30
Correct
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As an examining physician, have you ever encountered a situation where you can easily move a patient's arm upwards with minimal pressure, despite their attempts to resist? And once you stop applying pressure, the arm returns to its original position? If so, what is this sign called?
Your Answer: Mitgehen
Explanation:Mitgehen is a type of extreme cooperation that is observed in catatonia, where the patient moves their body in the direction of even the slightest pressure. It is crucial that the patient has been instructed to resist manipulation. This phenomenon is also referred to as the ‘angle poise lamp sign’ and is a form of automatic obedience. Catalepsy is another sign seen in catatonia, where patients maintain unusual postures for extended periods of time. In contrast, cataplexy is a sudden loss of muscle tone that leads to collapse and is commonly observed in narcolepsy. Gegenhalten is an involuntary resistance to passive movements. Mitmachen is a milder form of automatic obedience, where the patient’s body can be moved into any position without resistance when instructed to resist manipulation. Mitmachen is less severe than mitgehen, as the pressure required to elicit movements in mitgehen is very minimal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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